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1466 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Interaction between the nervous system and the endocrine system is coordinated through the
hypothalamus
Signaling mechanism where a neuron releases a chemical mediator into one of both of the vascular systems, which will affect a cell at some distance
neuroendocrine
Characteristics of endocrine glands
ductless, very vascular (fenestrated and sinusoidal capillaries).
Primary stromal fibers of endocrine glands are
reticular fibers
Fibers of endocrine gland capsule
Dense, irregular type I collagen
Endocrine gland parenchyma arrangement (4)
1. Unicellular (diffuse neuroendocrine system)
2. Cords - cells line up in rows
3. Follicular pattern
4. Multipolar neurons
Lumen of endocrine gland stores how many days worth of hormone precursors?
30
Steroid secreting glands store
cholesterol (hormone precursor)
Peptide hormones are 1) first produced as ... 2) then converted in the ER to ... 3) then packaged into secretory vesicles in the Golgi where it becomes
1) preprohormone
2) prohormone
3) active hormone
Where is angiotensin I (inactive) is converted to angiotensin II (active)?
In the blood
A change in the number or affinity of receptors is called
down- or up-regulation
Down-regulation may occur by (3)
1) decreasing the synthesis of new receptors
2) increasing the degradation of existing receptors
3) inactivating receptors
Up-regulation may occur by (3)
1) increasing synthesis of new receptors
2) decreasing degradation of existing receptors
3) activating receptors
If a response reverses the original stimulus, this is called
a negative feedback system (loop)
Three types of closed negative feedback loops
1) Ultrashort (autocrine) - Cell A feeds back to Cell A
2) Short (most common) - Cell A produces a mediator which affects Cell B, which produces a feedback to Cell A
3) Long - Cell B produces a mediator which affects Cell C, which in turn feeds back to both cell A and cell B
Tyrosine derivatives are
epinephrine & norepinephrine - adrenal medulla

T3 & T4 - Thyroid gland
Derivatives of tryptophan
melatonin (pineal gland), and serotonin
Small peptides
ADH and oxytocin (posterior pituitary)
ANP (heart atria)
Small proteins
glucagon, insulin, somatostatin, pancreatic polypeptide - pancreas

All anterior pituitary hormones - anterior pituitary

PTH - parathyroid glands
Steriods
aldosterone and cortisol - adrenal cortex

estrogen and progesterone - ovaries

testosterone - testes
Eicosanoids
prostaglandins and leukotrienes - all cells except red blood cells
Gas
nitric oxide - endothelial cells lining blood vessels
Hormones become permanently inactive ...
in their target tissue
The actions of some hormones on target cells require a simultaneous or recent exposure to a second hormone
permissive effect
When the effect of two hormones acting together is greater or more extensive than the effect of each hormone acting alone, the two hormones are said to have a
synergistic effect
When one hormone opposes the actions of another hormone, the two hormones are said to have
antagonistic effects
Endocrine disorders can arise from (2)
1) hyperfunction or hypofunction of endocrine organs (most disorders)
2) excessive or inadequate responsiveness to target cells to hormones that are produced
The hypophysis (pituitary gland) has two major divisions
1) anterior adenohypophysis
2) posterior neurohypophysis
Neurohypophysis is derived from
neuroectoderm
Neurohypophysis have 2 parts
1) Pars nervosa (posterior, or neural, lobe)
2) Infundibulum = Infundibular stem and median eminence
Adenohyphosis is derived from
epithelial tissue
Adenohypophysis is made up of three parts
1) Pars distalis (anterior lobe)
2) Pars intermedia - absent in adults
3) Pars tuberalis
The anterior and posterior pituitary lies in a bony fossa in the sphenoid bone behind the optic chiasm called the
sella turcica
Extensions of the fibro-elastic capsule of dura mater that surrounds the pituitary gland consist almost entirely of
reticular fibers
The ... consistutes about three-fourths of the pituitary.
pars distalis
The parenchyma is arranged in the anastomosing cord pattern and is lined up with
sinusoidal capillaries
The two main parenchymal cell types in the pars distalis are
chromophobes and chromophils
4 characteristics of chromophobes
1) smaller than chromophils
2) lack secretory granules so cytoplasm does not stain
3) considered to be degranulated chromophils
4) cells tend to be located in clusters away from the capillaries
3 characteristics of chromophils
1) tend to lie at the surface of the cell cords, next to capillaries
2) have granules which stain intensely
3) hormone-secreting cells of the adenohypophysis
2 types of chromophils
1) acidophils (35% of all cells in pars distalis) - produce growth hormone and prolactin
2) basophils (15% of all cells in pars distalis) - stain with basic dyes and PAS+. Produce FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH.
The primary and secondary capillary plexuses in the hypophyseal portal system are made up of
sinusoidal capillaries
All blood in the pars distalis pass through
the hypophyseal portal system
Purpose of the hypophyseal portal system
transport hormones from hypothalamus to the adenohypophysis
Flow of blood through hypophyseal portal system
Superior hypophyseal artery->primary capillary plexus->portal veins->secondary capillary plexus
The hypothalamus contains short neurosecretory neurons that
release small peptide products into the primary capillary plexus, which get to the pars distalis via the hypophyseal portal system and control hormone release from acidophils and basophils. Controlled by negative feedback and CNS input.
Two types of small peptide hormones synthesized in the neuron cell bodies in the hypothalamic nuclei
1) Releasing hormones (4)
2) Inhibiting hormones (2)
Releasing hormones are (4)
1) GnRH - stimulates gonadotrophs to release FSH and LH
2) CRH - stimulates corticotrophs to release ACTH
3) TRH - stimulates thyrotrophs to release TSH
4) GHRH (somatotropin) - stimulates somatotrophs to release GH
Inhibiting hormones (2)
1) Somatostatin (GHIH) - inhibits growth hormone release from somatotrophs
2) Dopamine (PIH) - inhibits prolactin release from mammotrophs
An ill-defined region consisting of a thin layer of cells and colloid cysts (Rathke's cysts) next to the neural lobe. Atrophies in adults.
Pars Intermedia
Ventral down-growth of the hypothalamus and is made up of nervois tissue
posterior pituitary = neurohypophysis
Neurohypophysis is divided into (3)
1) medial eminence
2) infundibulum
3) pars nervosa
Cell bodies for these modified multipolar neurons are located in the
paraventricular nucleus and the supraoptic nucleus
Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract consists of
unmyelinated axons of the neurohypophysis.
Herring bodies are 1)... and 2) can contain ...
1) large granule-filled dilations along the length of axons or the pars nervosa as well as at their termini
2) ADH and oxytocin
Somatostatin works through what type of G protein receptor?
Gi
Oxytocin and ADH are what type of hormones?
Peptide - 9 amino acids. Each differ in only 2 amino acids.
Neurophysin I is packaged with 1) ... and neurophysin II is packaged with 2) ... Both also packaged with 3)...
1) oxytocin
2) ADH
3) ATP
Pituicytes are
highly branched astrocytes whose processes surround and support the axons of the pars nervosa (occupy about 25% of the volume)
Synthesized mainly by cells of the paraventricuar nucleus, stimulates milk ejection by the mammary glands, increased by increased suckling, stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction during copulation and childbirth
oxytocin
synthesized mainly by the cells in the supraoptic nucleus, stimulates water resorption by the renal medullary collecting ducts
arginine vasopressin (AVP) = antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
2 most common types and causes of diabetes insipidus?
1) Central diabetes insipidus caused by ADH deficiency
2) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus caused by an insensitivity of the kidneys to ADH.
Glycoprotein hormones (stain with PAS) release from the pars distalis
TSH, FSH(female), FSH(male), LH(female), LH(male)
Source and target of TSH
S: thyrotroph (basophil)
T: follicular cells of thyroid
Source and target of FSH (female)
S: gonadotroph (basophil)
T: follicular cells of ovary
Source and target of FSH (male)
S: gonadotroph (basophil)
T: Sertoli cells of testis
Source and target of LH (female)
S: gonadotroph (basophil)
T: Thecal, follicular, and luteal cells of ovary
Source and target of FSH (male)
S: gonadotroph (basophil)
T: Leydig cells of testis
Principle actions of TSH
Promotes thyroid growthl stimulates synthesis and liberation of T4 and T3 hormones; fatty acid release from fat cells
Principle actions of FSH (female)
Stimulates development and maturation of secondary ovarian follicles and their secretion of 17-beta estradiol
Principle actions of FSH (male)
Stimulates Sertoli cells to produce androgen binding protein
Principle actions of LH (female)
Elicits ovulation of Graafian follicle; promotes development of corpus luteum and progesterone secretion
Principle actions of LH (male)
Helps maintain Leydig cells of testis and stimulates their secretion of testosterone
Disorders of TSH
(+) Hyperthyroidism
(-) Hypothyroidism
DNES is also referred to as
APUD
Small amount of RER, a supranuclear Golgi complex, and an accumulation of 100 to 400 nm secretory granules in their bases are characteristics of
polypeptide-secreting cells
APUD cells characteristically concentrate what in their cytoplasm?
important bioactive amines such as epinephrine, norepinephrine, and serotonin
Most APID cells are unicellular glands scattered among other epithelial cells, derived from
neural crest
True or False. Some DNES polypeptides have paracrine effects while other enter the bloodstream and have endocrine effects
True
Large populations of cells that secrete hormone-like substances, located in the enteric canal are
enteroendocrone cells
Three major digestive hormones secreted into the blood by enteroendocrine cells
1) Gastrin - promotes secretion of gastric juice, increases gastric motility, and promotes growth of gastric mucosa
2) Secretin - stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice and bile that are rich in HCO3-.
3) Cholecystokinin (CCK) - stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice rich in digestive enzymes, causes ejection of bile from the gallbladder and opening of the sphincter of Oddi, and induces satiety.
Other gut-hormones (6)
1-3) motilin, substance P, bombesin - stimulate motility of intestines
4) Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) - stimulates secretion of ions and water by the intestines and inhibits gastric acid secretion
5) gastrin-releasing peptide - stimulates release of gastrin
6) somatostatin - inhibits gastrin release
Thyroid follicles are the main structural and function units of the thyroid gland and are made up of two main cell types
Follicular and parafollicular cells.
Thyroid gland is notable for its storage of reserve secretion called the
semifluid colloid which fills the lumen of the follicle. Stains acidophilic, consists mainly of the glycoprotein thyroglobulin.
True or False. Taller follicular cells are more active.
True
Function activity of follicular cells is stimulated by
TSH (a tropic hormone) from the anterior pituitary and by sympathetic nerves
3 factors can cause increased TSH
1) low environmental temperatures
2) puberty
3) pregnancy
2 factors can cause decreased TSH
1) emotional stress
2) systemic stress such as trauma, heat, hemorrhage
True or false. The production of thyroid hormones by the follicular cells involves an exocrine and endocrine part.
True
Thyroglobulin is produced from
amino acids entering the follicular cells (based on tyrosine).
Iodide enters the cell from vasculature via
iodide pump in the cell's basal plasma membrane. Iodide is oxidized by peroxidase and then transferred to the cell's apex. TSH also stimulates iodide uptake.
Iodination of tyrosine residues in the thyroglobulin occurs where?
at the microvillus-colloid interface
TSH causes
cells to pick up iodinated thyroglobulin->endosomes fuse with lysosomes->break down iodothyroglobulin into T3(10% but more active) and T4 (90%). 90% of T3 and T4 are bound with proteins in plasma. 1/2 is taken up in 6 days.
T3 and T4 act to
increase basal metabolic rate, promote cell growth, increase heart rate, raise body temperature, and generally enhance all energy-requiring cell functions.
Sequential steps of thyroid hormone synthesis (6)
1) synthesis and secretion of thyroglobulin
2) uptake and concentration of iodide from the blood, oxidation to iodine, and release into the colloid
3) iodination of thyroglobulin in the colloid
4) formation of T3 and T4 hormones in the colloid by oxidative coupling reactions
5) resorption of colloid by receptor-mediated endocytosis
6) release of T4 and T3 from the cell into the circulation
Parafollicular cells are derived from
neural crest
Parafollicular cells are
large, pale-staining cells which lie singly or in clusters between the follicular cells and their basal lamina; they do not reach the lumen of the follicle. 2-3 times larger than follicular cells, but only account for about 0.1% of the epithelium.

Neural crest derivatives and are APUD cells
Parafollicular cells secrete
calcitonin (peptide hormone) in response to high blood calcium.
Calcitonin inhibits
bone resorption by inhibiting osteoclasts, thereby lowering blood calcium. Negligible physiologic effect under normal conditions in humans.
3rd pharyngeal pouch becomes 1) ... and 4th pharyngeal pouch becomes 2) ...
1) inferior parathyroid glands
2) superior parathyroid glands
Broad, irregular ... channel the parenchymal cells of the parathyroids
fenestrated capillaries
Most abundant parenchymal cell in the parathyroids
chief cell, arranged in cords. Pale-staining cytoplasm, vesicular nuclei.
Chief cells secrete
parathyroid hormone (peptide hormone) - increases blood calcium
Parathyroid hormone acts at three locations
1) bone - PTH increases bone resorption
2) kidneys - PTH increases phosphate excretion and calcium reabsorption and causes activation of a vitamin D precursor
3) Intestines - PTH causes increased absorption of calcium by the intestinal mucosa.
These cells are larger and less numerous than chief cells. Very acidophilic due to large amounts of mitochondria, lack secretory granules. Nucleus is small and darkly staining.
oxyphil cells - rare before puberty, increase in number in early adulthood
Tetany
hyperexcitability and spastic contraction of skeletal muscle
Removal of parathyroid glands cause
hypocalcemia, increased excitability of nervous tissue, including paresthesia and attacks of tetany or epilepsy. Administer PTH to correct.
Pyramid-shaped gland which sits on the right kidney
Right adrenal gland
Crescent-shaped gland that lies along the medial border of the left kidney from the hilus to the superior pole
Left adrenal gland
True or False. The adrenal glands are retroperitoneal, located behind the peritoneum and is surrounded by a connective tissue capsule containing large amounts of adipose tissue.
True
2 divisions of the adrenal glands
1) cortex - from mesoderm
2) medulla - from neural crest
The accounts for 80-90% of the adrenal gland
Cortex
Adrenal cortex secretes what three steriod hormones (derived from cholesterol)?
1) mineralocorticoids
2) glucocorticoids
3) androgens
Adrenal cortex is subdivided into three concentric layers
1) Zona glomerulosa (13-15%)
2) Zona fasciculata (78-80%)
3) Zona reticularis (7%)
This layer of the adrenal cortex has cells arranged in clusters (some lipid droplets), and secrets mineralocorticoids (eg aldosterone)
Zona glomerulosa (13-15%)
Synthesis of mineralocorticoids is stimulated mainly by
angiotensin II
Mineralocorticoids function in
osmotic balance and blood pressure regulation by affecting the function of the renal tubules.
Dehydration or sodium deficiency ultimately causes the kidney to release
renin
Renin catalyzes
conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I (inactive)
Angiotensin I (inactive) is converted to angiotensin II (active) by
angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE).
ACE is released by
pulmonary capillary endothelial cells
Angiotensin II acts on the
zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone, which counteracts dehydration.
True or False. Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor.
True
True or False. ANP inhibits aldosterone release from the zona glomerulosa.
True
This part of the adrenal cortex consists of cells arranged in cords or plates with sinusoidal capillaries running between them (many large lipid droplets in their cytoplasm).
Zona Fasciculata (78-80%). Cells called spongiocytes.
This portion of the adrenal cortex has cells which are irregularly arranged meshwork of cuboidal cells (fewer lipid droplets than spongiocytes). Produces androgens (dehydroepiandrosterone[DHEA]) and some androsterenedione. Both hormones are weak masculinizing hormones with negligible effects under normal conditions.
Zona reticularis (7%). Overproduction of these androgens in women can lead to masculinization.
The zona fasciculata and zona reticularis both produce
glucocorticoids (eg cortisol and corticosterone)
ACTH from the anterior pituitary stimulates
the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis to secrete glucocorticoids, which raise blood glucose.
This portion of the adrenal glands is nonessential for life but is an important regulator of stress. It is the central portion of the gland and is completely invested by the cortex.
Adrenal medula
The adrenal medulla contains two major cell types
1) chromaffin cells
2) ganglion cells
The main parenchymal cells of the adrenal medulla are the
chromaffin cells
Chromaffin cells contain granules that stain intensely with chromaffin salts which indicate
that the cells contain catecholamines
These cells are modified postganglionic sympathetic neurons which have lost their axons and dendrites, and have an epithelioid appearance
Chromaffin cells
These cells are part of the DNES and migrate from the celiac ganglion
chromaffin cells
These cells are innervated by preganglionic sympathetic fibers, use ACh as the neurotransmitter
chromaffin cells
Chromaffin cells make 1) 85% ... and 2) 15% ...
1) epinephrine
2) norepinephrine
Effects of epinephrine
1) increases blood glucose
2) increases alertness
3) increases cardiac output
4) increases heart rate

In preparation for fight-or-flight, plasma levels may increases as much as 300 times.
Epinephrine is stored in
clear granules (characteristic of cells producing epinephrine)
Effects of norepinephrine
1) increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction

Stored in dense-core granules (characteristic of cells producing norepinephrine)
These cells of the adrenal medulla exhibit typical morphologic characteristics of autonomic ganglion cells, and are scattered throughout the connective tissue and are vasomotor
ganglion cells
These (2) blood supplies to the adrenal glands run between the capsule and the medulla and drain into the medullary veins
sinusoidal capillaries and cortical arterioles
This enzyme converts norepinephrine to epinephrine, is activated by cortical steroids
Phenylethanolamine-N-methyl transferase (PNMT)
Chromaffin cells supplied by the sinusoidal capillaries will receive blood with high levels of cortical steroids and therefore will produce
epinephrine (most of the adrenal medulla product)
Chromaffin cells supplied by the medullary arterioles will receive very little cortical steroids and will therefore produce
norepinephrine
Stress, provoked by psychological, environmental, or physiologic stressor, leads to throughts and emotions that influence both the CNS and the immune system, activating a bidirectional circuit between the two, and occurs via the
hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. This initiates a cascade of reactions throughout the individual
This is produced by the hypothalamus, stimulates the synthesis and processing of proopiomelanocortin, with resulting release of proopiomelanocortin peptides that include ACTH from the anterior pituitary.
Corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF)
ACTH binds to the melanocortin-2 receptor in the adrenal gland and stimulates
cholesterol-derived synthesis of adrenal steroid hormones
Glucocorticoids released into the systemic circulation exert negative feedback inhibition of
CRF and ACTH release from the hypothalamus and pituitary, respectively.
Major stress hormones are
Epinephrine, norepinephine, and corticosteroids
Prolonged duration and increased magnitude of activation of the neuroendocrine response can lead to
erosion of lean body mass and tissue injury
Mineralocorticoids control
water and electrolyte content of the body fluids
These mobilize and increase production of glycose so that it is available as an immediate energy source
Glucocorticoids
Catecholamines stimulate
the cardiovascular and respiratory systems and the general metabolic activity of the body. They also assist the glycocorticoids in raising the blood glucose level and assist the sympathetic nervous system.
True or False. Elevated corticosteroid have profound immunosuppresive effects.
True
The physiolocal role of the fetal zone of the adrenals in fetal life is to
synthesize estrogen precursors, which are converted in the placenta to estrogens.
Islets of Langerhans for part of the DNES and derived from
endoderm
Four main types of cells compose the parenchyma of each islet
1) beta cells
2) alpha cells
3) delta cells
4) F, or pancreatic peptide (PP), cells.
Islets of Langerhans: Beta cells
Scattered throughout the islets, but concentrated in the center (70% of total cells). Produce insulin. Malfunction causes diabetes mellitus
Islets of Langerhans: Alpha cells
located mostly along the periphery (15-20% of total islets). Produce glucagon which acts mainly on hepatocytes.
Islets of Langerhans: Delta cells
produce somatostatin (made in many places, works through Gi) which inhibits alpha and beta cells. Located along periphery (5-10% of total islet)
Islets of Langerhans: F (PP) cells
produce pancreatic polypeptide, which inhibits pancreatic exocrine secretion of enzymes and bicarbonate. Located mostly along the periphery (1% of total islet)
Exocrine product of follicular cells
thyroglobulin
Endocrine product of follicular cells
T3 and T4
Secretions of this endocrine gland are influenced by light and dark periods of the day
pineal gland
Interstitium of the pineal gland contains calcified concretions known as
corpora arenacea (brain sand) - seen on x-ray. Composed primarily of calcium carbonates and phosphates within an organic matrix.
Two types of parenchyma cells in the pineal gland
1) pinealocytes - pale-staining, lobulated nuclei.
2) astrocytes - occur in the perivascular areas and between the clusters of pinealocytes. Elongated nuclei and stain more deeply than pinealocytes.
Pinealocytes produce
serotonin during the day and melatonin at night.
Circadian rhythms are controlled by the periodic release of
norepinephrine from postganglionic sympathetic fibers, which in turn is controlled by light perceived by the retina.
The pineal contains what enzyme which has a role in the synthesis of melatinin?
hydroxyindole-O-methyltransferase (HIOMT)
Melatonin is primarily controlled via the
hypothalamic suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN)
During the day, impulses from the SCN
suppress the synthesis of melatonin from seratonin.
True or False. Practically no storage of melatonin takes place and therefore, secretion occurs at the time of synthesis.
True
Considered to be the "master gland"
pineal gland
Thyroid gland hormones
T4 and T3 (follicular cells), Calcitonin (parafollicular cells)
Parathyroid gland hormone
PTH (chief cells)
Adrenal cortex hormones
Mineralocorticoids(aldosterone and deoxycorticosterone) (cells of zona glomerulosa)
Glycocorticoids (cortisol and corticosterone)(cells of zona fasciculata and zona reticularis)
Gonadocorticoids (dehydroepiandrosterone)(cells of zona reticularis)
Hormones or adrenal medulla
epinephrine and norepinephrine (chromaffin cells)
Hormones or Pancreatic Islets of Langerhans
glucagon (alpha cells)
insulin (beta cells)
somatostatin (delta cells)
pancreatic polypeptide (PP, or F cells)
Hormones of the pineal gland
Melatonin (at night) (pinealocytes)
Seratonon (at day) (pinealocytes)
Target cells of calcitonin
osteoclasts, epithelial cells of kidney tubules
Target cells of PTH
osteoblasts, small intestine, PCT of kidneys
Target cells of aldosterone and deoxycorticosterone
DCT epithelial cells, gastric mucosa, salivary/sweat ducts
Target cells of somatostatin
pancreatic endocrine cells
Target cells of pancreatic polypeptide
pancreatic exocrine cells
Target cells of melatonin and seratonin
hypothalamus neurosecretory cells, pitutary gonadotrophs, gonads
Action of T4, and T3
(+) BMR, heat production, O2 comsumption, protein synthesis, glucose/fatty acid use, cholesterol excretion, skeletal growth, nervous system development
Action of calcitonin
negligible under normal conditions, (-) blood calcium/phosphates, bone resorption by osteoclasts, calcium/phosphate reabsorption by kidneys
Action of PTH
(+) blood calcium/magnesium, bone resorption by osteoclasts, calcium reabsorption by kidneys/gut, phosphate excretion by kidneys, calcitrol (Vitamin D) formation, (-) blood phosphate
Action of aldosterone and deoxycorticosterone
(+) reabsorption of sodium, hydrogen/potassium secretion in DCT of kidneys, gastric mucosa, salivary/sweat glands, controls body fluid volume, [electrolyte]
Action of cortisol and corticosterone
(+) gluconeogenesis, blood glucose, protein/lipid/carb metabolism, anti-inflammatory, stress resistance (-) immune response
Action of dehydroepiandrosterone
negligible under normal conditions
Action of epinephrine and norepinephrine
E: (+) blood glucose, cardiac output, BMR, N: (+) BP by vasoconstriction
Action of Glucagon
(+) blood glucose, gluconeogenesis from amino acids, glycogenolysis
Action of Insulin
(-) blood glucose, glucose uptake, protein synthesis, lipid synthesis in fat cells
Action of somatostatin
(-) glucagon/insulin release
Action of pancreatic polypeptide
(-) somatostatin release, pancreatic exocrine release, gallbladder contraction
Action of melatonin and seratonin
photoperiodically regulates circadian rhythms, regulates steroidogenic activity of gonads (menstrual cycle), (-) GnRH release from hypothalamus
Disorders involving T4 and T3
(+) Graves' disease, (-) Myxedema (adults), Cretinism (children)
Disorders involving PTH
(+) Osteitis fibrosa, (-) Hypocalcemia w/muscle tetany
Disorders involving Aldosterone, Deoxycorticosterone
(+) Cushing's Disease, (-) Addison's Disease (sodium loss)
Disorders involving Cortisol, Corticosterone
(-) Addison's Disease (low glucose)
Disorders involving Dehydroepiandrosterone
(+) female masculinization
Disorders involving Epinephrine, Norepinephrine
(+) Pheochromocytoma
Disorders involving Insulin
(+) Insulin Shock, (-) Diabetes mellitus
Disorders involving Melatonin (night), Serotonin (day)
(+) delayed sexual development, (-) premature sexual development
Steroid hormones (adrenal gland)
1) glucocorticoids
2) mineralocorticoids
3) androgens
Protein sex hormones (gonadotropins)
1) follicle stimulating hormone
2) luteinizing hormone
3) human chorionic gonadotropin
Steroid hormones (gonadal)
1) estrogen
2) progesterone
3) testosterone
Types of hormones (7)
1) Peptide
2) Thyroid
3) Catecholamine, serotonin & melatonin
4) Acetylcholine
5) Histamine
6) Nitric Oxide
7) Eicosanoid
Tissues that produce hormones include (8)
1) hypothalamus
2) anterior and posterior pituitary
3) adrenal cortex and medulla
4) gonads
5) thyroid and parathyroid glands
6) gastrointestinal tract cells
7) pancreas
8) heart
The neuroendocrine system is centered on
1) hypothalamus
2) pituitary gland
3) adrenal gland
The neuroendocrine system is responsible for regulating
hormone release and function throughout the body
The hypothalamus is a region of the brain responsible for
maintaining homeostatic mechanisms in the body
Pituitary gland receives input from
hypothalamus
Hormones which are amino acid derivatives
T4, T3, catecholamines, serotonin, melatonin, histamine
Homones which are arachidonic acid derivatives
Eicosanoids
Hormones which are cholesterol derivatives
Steroids
Nitric oxide is produced by nitric oxide synthase using what substrate?
L-arginine, NADPH, and O2
Overproduction of a particular hormone commonly results from
tumor formation
Underproduction of a particular hormone can be caused by
auto-immune disorders, genetic defects or cancer.
Target cell insensitivity is commonly caused by
a lack of functional receptors due to genetic defects, autoimmune disorders or overstimulation and downregulation of receptors
Synthesis pathway of peptide hormones
preprohormone(synthesized in rER)->prohormone (cleaved in rER)->hormone (packaged in Golgi with required processing proteins in "immature" secretory granules)
Processing in "immature" secretory granules includes
proteolytic cutting the prohormone at the C-terminal side of paired-basic residues (ie lysine and arginine) (requires acidic environment pH~4 generated by H+ATPases)
Resulting peptide hormines then have the C-terminal lysine/arginine removed and are amidated, which makes them more biologically active and helps preserve their halflife.
Peptide hormones have short half-lives (minutes) because they are
rapidly degraded by serum and cell surface proteases and taken up by cells through receptor mediated endocytosis and degraded by lysosomal proteases
Regulation of ACTH (peptide hormone) release is through (3)
1) Feedback inhibition by cortisol at the anterior pituitary (direct inhibition of ACTH release and production)
2) Feedback inhibition by cortisol at the hypothalamus (inhibits release of CRH)
3) Negative inhibition by dopamine (inhibits release of ACTH from anterior pituitary)
Peptide prohormones are cleaved by
processing enzymes called Prohormone Convertases (PC1/3, PC2)
Differential processing of prohormones is based on
different cleavage locations of PC1 and PC2. PC2 cleaves in more places. Other factors include conditions such as stress.
Difference between Cushing's syndrome and Cushing's disease?
Both are hypercortisolism.

Cushing's disease is caused by ACTH secreting tumors in the pituitary (most common form of Cushing's). Females >> males

Cushing's syndrome is an adenoma of the adrenal cortex, releasing excess cortisol.
Treatment of Cushing's syndrome
Ketoconazole or metyrapone
Treatment of Cushing's disease
surgical remove of ACTH secreting tumor
Diabetes Insipidus
1/10,000. Polyuria, polydypsia
Thyroid hormones
DIT + DIT -> T4
DIT + MIT -> T3
Five steps of thyroid hormone production
1) Thyroglobulin synthesis and processing in the ER and Golgi
2) Thyroglobulin is packaged and moved to colloid space where it is iodinated
3) TSH binds, iodinated TG moves back to the cell, fuses with lysosomes, proteases cleave the peptide bonds to form T3 and T4.
4) Release of T3 & T4 regulated by TSH - binds to receptors on follicular cells and increases cAMP. Secretion occurs rapidly after T3 & T4 production
5) T4 goes to T3 in peripheral tissue. Liver degenerates T4 and T3. Can also be conjugated with glucuronides and sulfates (bile).
Approximately how much plasma T3 is produced by the thyroid?
20%. The other 80% comes from deiodination of T4.
Thyroid hormones are primarily eliminated by the
kidneys. However approximately 20% of T4 reaches the colon.
TSH is produced by the
anterior pituitary
TRH is produced by the
hypothalamus
T3 & T4 negatively feeds back to the
hypothalamus (inhibits TRH production)
What do thyroid hormones do in the fetus?
Required for skeletal and CNS growth
What do thyroid hormones do in adult?
effect BMR as well as protein, lipid and carbohydrate metabolism.
T4 is converted to T3 by
5'-iodinase
Cause of hypothyroidism?
Insufficient circulation of free T3 or T4
Symptoms of hypothyroidism (3)
1) Lowered BMR
2) Diastolic hypertension
3) Goiter
Treatment for hypothyroidism?
Levothyroxine
Cause of hyperthyroidism?
Autoimmune - antibodies to TSH receptor
Symptoms of hyperthyroidism? (3)
1) Increased metabolic rate
2) Exophthalmos (protruding eyes)
3) Goiter
Treatment of hyperthyroidism? (2)
1) Surgical resection of the thyroid gland
2) 131-I to destroy hyperfunctioning thyroid acinar cell population
Sequence of hypothyroidism
decreased T3 and T4 production -> increased secretion of TSH from pituitary -> increased levels of TSH cause thyroid to increase T3 and T4 production -> enlarges thyroid to produce more hormone
Graves disease is
hyperthyroidism
Hyperthyroidism is caused by
continuous activation of TSH receptors by antibodies to TSH receptors. Increases T4 and T3 production which causes the thyroid to increase in size.
Function of epinephrine
Fight or flight response
Function of norepinephrine (2)
1) fight or flight response
2) attention
Function of dopamine (2)
1) focus
2) inhibits prolactin from pituitary
Rate limiting step in the synthesis of catecholamines
tyrosine hydroxylase
Enzyme for Tyrosine->L-DOPA
tyrosine hydroxylase
Enzyme for L-DOPA -> dopamine
L-Dopa decarboxylase
Enzyme for dopamine -> norepinephrine
dopamine-beta-hydroxylase
Enzyme for norepinephrine -> epinephrine
phenylethanolamine-n-methyl transferase
Degradation of catecholamines is done by what enzymes?
COMT and MAO
Synthesis location of epinephrine?
Adrenal medulla, where it constitutes 80% of the catecholamines
Synthesis location of norepinephrine? (3)
1) Sympathetic nerves
2) Adrenal medulla
3) CNS
Synthesis location of dopamine?
CNS (CANNOT cross the blood-brain barrier)
True or False. L-DOPA can cross the blood-brain barrier.
True
Pheochromocytoma is
a tumor of in the adrenal medulla
Symptoms of pheochromocytomas
hypertension and tachycardia caused by excessive production of catecholamines
Treatment of pheochromocytomas
surgery, radiation, chemotherapy
Serotonin plays a role in (5)
1) mood
2) sleep
3) emesis (vomiting)
4) sexuality
5) appetite
Disorders involving serotonin (4)
1) depression
2) migraine
3) bipolar disorder
4) anxiety
Melatonin is believed to be responsible for
regulating sleep/wake cycles
Serotonin and melatonin are produced in the
pineal gland
True or False. Serotonin is secreted by cells in the small intestine, where it serves as a potent vasoconstrictor and smooth muscle stimulator
True
Serotonin and melatonin levels undergo cyclic variations in phase with
circadian rhythms
Serotonin and melatonin are synthesized from
tryptophan.
Tryptophan is first transported into the cell and acted on by ... which is the rate limiting step for serotonin and melatonin biosynthesis
tryptophan hydroxylase
Synthesis of serotonin
tryptophan->5-hydroxytryptophan->serotonin

Enzymes:
1) tryptophan hydroxylase
2) 5-hydroxytryptophan decarboxylase
Synthesis of melatonin
serotonin->n-acetylserotonin->melatonin

Enzymes
1) serotonin n-acetyltransferase
2) hydroxy indole o-methyltransferase (HIOMT)
True or False. Serotonin must be removed or it will continue to elicit a response.
True
Two mechanism for serotonin removal
1) Broken down by MAO
2) Reuptake by sodium depended transport protein (vesicular transport)
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (2)
1) fluoxetine (Prozac)
2) paroxetine (Paxil)
Treatment for depression (2)
1) Inhibit MAO
2) Prevent removal of NT's from synaptic clefts allowing them to remain longer
Cocaine inhibits
reuptake of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin.
Inhibitors of tryptophan hydroxylase
p-chlorophenylalanine
alpha-propyldopacetamide
Inhibitor of MAO
Iproniazid
Vesicular monoamine transport blocker
reserpine
Cause of Hartnup's disease
Genetic metabolic disorder (defective absorption of the amino acid tryptophan)
Symptoms of Hartnup's disease
Early onset of
1) photosensitive dermatitis
2) intermittent neurologic symptoms
3) Blue diaper syndrome (indicanuria)
Treatment of Hartnup's disease
1)high protein diet
2)add di-peptide tryptophan-tryptophan, which is transported by a di-peptide transporter
The acetylcholinesterase of the end plate is attached to
the basal lamina in the synaptic space
True or False. 20% of release ACh is hydrolyzed by AChE before binding to the AChR.
True
ACh binding to AChR causes the cation-selective channel to open allowing entry to
Na+ and Ca++
Each vesicle in the motor nerve terminal contains a quantum of about
10,000 molecules of ACh
Enzyme which synthesizes ACh from Ch
choline acetyltransferase
ACh is concentrated in synaptic vesicles by
H+ dependent ACh transporter
Steps of ACh degradation and reuptake
1) Degraded to Ch and acetate
2) Ch taken up by nerve terminal Na+ dependent active transport
3) Ch->ACh
4) ACh into vesicles
Myasthenia Gravis is caused by
autoimmune disease (acetylcholine receptors are target of inflammation)
Treatment of myasthenia gravis
pyridostigmine, inhibits AChE so there is an increase in ACh in the neuromuscular junction
Common symptoms of myasthenia gravis
1) double vision
2) droopy eyelids
3) difficulty swallowing
4) generalized weakness
Organophosphates do what to AChE?
Inhibit
Prophylactic treatment of organophosphate exposure
Pyridostigmine or other competitve inhibitors of AChE
Post-Exposure treatment of organophosphate exposure
Atropine, Diazepam, Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
Function of histamine
potent vasodilator. Released locally at sites of trauma, inflammation, and allergic reaction. It causes enlargement of blood capillaries and can cause lowering of the blood pressure which can lead to shock.
Four histamine receptors
H1-4
H1 histamine receptor
found on smooth muscle, endothelium, and CNS tissue. Causes vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, smooth muscle activation, and separation of endothelial cells (responsible for hives), and pain and itching due to insect stings; the primary receptors involved in allergic thinitis symptoms and motion sickness. Stimulates gastric acid secretion in stomach.
H2 histamine receptor
located on parietal cells, which primarily regulate gastric acid secretion.
H3 histamine receptor
decreases neurotransmitter release: histamine, acetylcholine, norepinephrine, serotonin
H4 histamine receptor
unknown physiological role. Found primarily in the thymus, small intestine, spleen, and colon. It is also found on basophils and in the bone marrow.
Histamine synthesis
Histidine->histamine->stored in secretory vesicles inside until release by mast cells and basophils.
Histamine breakdown
done by histamine-N-methyltransferase and diamine oxidase. Histamine is taken up by a transporter.
Histamine responses
H1 receptor increases IP3 & DAG
1) smooth muscle, endothelium & brain
2) causes vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, smooth muscle activation
3) separation of endothelial cells (responsible for hives)
4) pain and itching due to insect stings
5) the primary receptors involved in allergic rhinitis symptoms and motion sickness
Treatment of allergic reactions
Antihistamines
1) diphenhydramine (benadryl) - 1st generation
2) Fexofenadine (allegra)
3) Loratadine (Claritin - 2nd generation
Overuse of nasal sprays may lead to
a rebound effect (rhinitis medicamentosa)
Diphenhydramine competitively antagonizes the effects of histamine of H1-receptors in (4)
1) GI tract
2) uterus
3) large blood vessels
4) bronchial muscle
Blockade of H1-receptors also suppresses the formation of
edema, flare, and pruritus that result from histaminic activity
Nitric oxide synthesis
Arginine + O2 + NADPH + nitric oxide synthase -> NO + Citrulline
NO is broken down by
SOD and H2O2.
Effects of ACh and Bradykinin on NOS
stimulates
Effects of glucocorticoids on NOS
inhibits
Nitric oxide increases cGMP synthesis which
acts to inhibit platelet aggregation
Sildenafil (Viagra) and tadalafil (Cialis) are selective inhibitors of
cGMP specific phosphodiesterase type 5, which is responsible for degradation of cGMP in the corpus cavernosum.
Types of eicosanoids (4)
1) Thromboxanes
2) Prostacyclin (PGI2)
3) Leukotrienes
4) Prostaglandins
Eicosanoids play a central role in
the inflammatory response
Eicosanoids are synthesized by all mammalian cells except
erythrocytes
Function of thromboxane
1) vasoconstrictor
2) induces platelet aggregation
Function of prostacyclin (OGI2)
1) Vasodilator
2) Inhibits platelet aggregation
Synthetic prostacyclin analogues
iloprost and cisaprost. Used as a vasodilator and to treat pulmonary hypertension
Production of prostacyclin is inhibited indirectly by
NSAIDS which inhibit COX1 and COX2
Function of leukotrienes
Chemotaxis
Inflammation
Allergic reactions
SRS-A (slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis = SM contraction)

-mixure of leukotrienes (C4,D4,E4)
-1000X more potent than histamine
Leukotriene B4 recruits
neutrophils and eosinophils to the site of inflammation
Leukotrienes act principally on a subfamily of
G protein coupled receptors
Leukotriene receptor antagonists are used to treat
asthma (eg montelukast)
Examples of leukotrienes
LTA4, LTB4, LTC4. LTD4, LTE4, LTF4
Function of prostaglandins (4)
1) muscle constriction
2) mediate inflammation
3) calcium movement
4) hormone regulation
Five stages to eicosanoids synthesis
phospholipid->arachidonic acid(occurs inside granules of mast cells)->stored in secretory vesicles.

Rapid degraded due to their own instability by oxidation of 15ahydroxyl group.
Inhibition of Phospholipase A2 by
lipocortins (annexins)
Inhibition of prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase by
Aspirin, ibuprofen, acetaminophen
Inhibition of lipoxygenase or leukotriene receptors by
Zileuton, montelukast and zafirlukast
3 steroid hormone classifications
1) glucocorticoids
2) mineralocorticoids
3) androgens (DHEA)
Glycocorticoids affect
intermediary metabolism
Mineralocorticoids affect
salt-retaining activity
Androgens (DHEA) affect
sex hormones
True or False. Steriods are not stored in vesicles like other hormones, but readily diffuse out of the cell as soon as they are made.
True
Steroids are degraded by
dehydrogenases in the hepatic and extrahepatic sites.
Two glucocorticoids
1) Cortisol
2) Corticosterone
Made in the adrenal cortex, involved in response to stress, increases blood pressure, blood sugar levels, suppresses immune system.
Cortisol
Made in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. Intermediate in the pathway from pregnenolone to aldosterone.
Corticosterone
Transcortin is
corticosteroid-binding globulin
Glucocorticoids inhibit
CRH, ACTH, and cortisol secretion
Effect of prolonged glucocorticoid administration (3)
1) suppression of CRH and ACTH release
2) atrophy of the zonae fasciculata and reticularis
3) suppressed HPA-axis fails to response to stress and stimulation
Approximately half of the total daily cortisol output is secreted during
3rd - 8th hours of sleep
Symptoms of stress (2)
1) ACTH and cortisol increase within minutes
2) Abolish circadian periodicity if the stress is prolonged
The stress response originates in the CNS by
increasing CRH secretion from the hypothalamus
Treatment for stress
1) Regular exercise
2) reassurance
3) biofeedback
4) counseling
Principle mineralocorticoid is
aldosterone
Mineralocorticoids are produced in the
zona glomerulosa
Principle action of mineralocordicoids is
regulation of electrolytes
Renin-angiotensin system
1) Decreased blood flow to kidneys
2) Kidney secrete RENIN
3) RENIN reacts with ANGIOTENSINOGEN to produce ANGIOTENSIN I (weak vasoconstrictor)
4) ACE in the lungs convert ANGIOTENSIN I->ANGIOTENSIN II (strong vasoconstrictor)
5) ANGIOTENSIN II acts on the adrenal cortex to release ALDOSTERONE
6) ALDOSTERONE stimulates Na+/K+ ATPase
7) Na+ reabsorbed (along with water)
8) Increased blood volume, decreased urine volume
9) Increased blood pressure
Release of renin by the kidney caused by (3)
1) sympathetic stimulation of beta1-adrenoceptors
2) renal artery hypotension
3) decreased sodium in the distal tubules
Functions of angiotensin II (6)
1) Constricts resistance vessels (via ATII receptors) thereby increasing systemic vascular resistance and arterial pressure
2) Acts upon the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone, which in turn acts upon the kidneys to increase sodium and fluid retention
3) stimulates the release of ADH from the posterior pituitary which acts upon the kidneys to increase fluid retention
4) stimulates thirst centers within the brain
5) facilitates norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerve endings and inhibits norepinephrine reuptake by nerve endings, thereby enhancing sympathetic adrenergic function
6) Stimulates cardiac hypertrophy and vascular hypertrophy
ACE inhibitors and AII receptor blockers are used to
decrease arterial pressure, ventricular afterload, blood volume and ventricular preload.

Reverses cardiac and vascular hypertrophy
Generic term for any natural or synthetic compound, usually a steroid hormone, that stimulates or controls the development and maintenance of masculine characteristics in vertebrates by binding to androgen receptors
Androgen
True or False. Androgens are the original anabolic steroids.
True
The primary and most well-known androgen is
testosterone
4 adrenal androgens (produced by the adrenal cortex)
1) DHEA
2) DHEA sulfate
3) androstenedione
4) testosterone
DHEA is a precursor of
natural estrogens
Androstenedione is produced by
testes, adrenal cortex, and ovaries. Metabolically converted to testosterone.
Steroid metabolite thought to act as the main regulator of gonadotropin secretion
Androstanediol
Breakdown product of androgens
Androsterone
A metabolite of testosterone that is actually more potent
dihydrotestosterone
Measurements of these are useful to detect excess adrenal activity as seen in adrenal cancer or hyperplasia, including certain forms of congenital adrenal hyperplasia
DHEA/DHEA sulfate
Mineralocorticoids are produced in the
zona glomerulosa
Glucocorticoids are produced in the
zona fasciculata
Androgens are produced in the
zona reticularis
Types of gonadotropins (3)
1) FSH
2) LH
3) hCG
FSH is produced by the
pituitary gland
Functions of FSH (4)
1) Promotes and sustains the ovarian follicular growth in women
2) Promotes and sustains spermatogenesis in men
3) Stimulates the synthesis of its own receptor on granulosa and Sertoli cells
4) Stimulates aromatase activity inside granulosa cells
Aromatase is an enzyme that converts
androgens into estrogens
FSH synthesis and secretion by the hypophysis is controlled by different regulators such as (3)
1) GnRH
2) ovarian estrogens
3) activin and inhibin
LH is produced by the
hypophysis (pituitary)
Three main functions of LH
1) Promotes androgen synthesis in a) thecal cells of ovaries b) interstitial cells of testes
2) Induces ovulation
3) Maintains the corpus luteum during the menstrual cycle
hCG is produced by
syncytiotrophoblast cells of the placenta
Functions of hCG (2)
1) Maintains corpus luteum of pregnancy (promotes progesterone secretion)
2) Anti-gonadotrophic effect (inhibits LH&FSH, Stimulates steroid secretion from fetal gonads)
Prolactin (a lactotroph) is produced by (2)
1) pituitary
2) stromal cells of endometrium
Functions of prolactin (2)
1) Breast development
2) Lactation
Pituitary prolactin secretion is inhibited by 1) ... and stimulated by 2) ...
1) dopamine
2) TRH and VIP
Steroid hormones (3)
1) esterogen
2) progesterone
3) testosterone
Rate limiting step of steroid hormone synthesis
Conversion to pregnenolone by remove of 6 carbon frament (isocaproic acid)
Steroid hormone synthesis is controlled by
LH from the anterior pituitary
Maintains a high local concentration of testosterone in the vicinity of developing spermatozoa
androgen binding protein
Three types of estrogen steroids
1) Estrone (E1)
2) Estradiol (E2)
3) Estriol (E3)
True or False. At equal concentrations, E2 > E1 > E3
True
Most common natural estrogen formulation
10% E1
10% E2
80% E3
Functions of estrogen (7)
1) Development of secondary sexual organs and features
2) Maturation of germ cells
3) Development of uterus
4) Maintenance of endometrium
5) Establish timing of ovulation
6) Maintenance of pregnancy
7) Mammary gland development and lactation
Estrogen circulating in the blood can feedback to reduce circulating levels of
FSH and LH
Synthesis of estrogens occurs in
1) developing follicles in the ovaries, corpus luteum, and placenta
2) liver, adrenal glands, breasts
Synthesis pathway of estrogen
cholesterol->androstenedione->estrone or estradiol
Androgens are produced by the thecal cells under the influence of
LH
Androgens are converted to E2 in the granulosa cells of the follicle through the enzyme
aromatase
E1 is produce in the
thecal cells, under the influence of LH
Very low concentrations of E3 are produce in
the liver, hydroxylation of E1 and E2
During pregnancy, E3 is produced in large quantities by the
feto-placental unit
Two sex hormones that play a role in the control of the menstrual cycle
estradiol and progesterone
Progesterone becomes critical during which phase of the menstrual cycle?
Luteal
Tests for ovulation check for the presence of
progesterone
FSH stimulates
follicles to grow
LH stimulates
ovulation
Corpus luteum secretes both
estradiol and progesterone
Functions of progesterone
1) Prepares uterus for implantation
2) Decreases maternal immune response
3) Decreases contractility of uterine smooth muscle
4) Helps maintain the pregnancy
3 Neurosteroids
1) Progesterone
2) Pregnenolone
3) Dehydroepiandrosterone
Starting material for all steroid hormones
Pregnenolone
Progesterone is a precursor for
aldosterone
Menstrual cycle is regulated by
LH and FSH (pituitary)
estrogen and progesterone (ovaries)
Before 6 weeks gestation, what is the main source progesterone? After 12 weeks?
Corpus luteum.
Placenta
Progesterone receptor antagonist
RU486
Enzyme which converts testosterone to DHT
5-alpha-reductase
Function of testosterone
1) sexual differentiation
2) spermatogenesis
3) development of secondary sexual organs, structures, and characteristics
4) anabolic metabolism and gene regulation
5) male-pattern behavior
In bones, estradiol accelerates maturation of
cartilage into bone
GnRH stimulates production of
LH
LH stimulates testosterone production from
interstitial cells of the testes (Leydig cells)
Maturation of spermatozoa requires both
LH and FSH
FSH stimulates testicular growth and an androgen binding protein necessary for
sustaining the maturing sperm cell
Two possible pathways to testosterone
1) delta-4 (major): hydroxylation of progesterone -> side chain cleaved to form androstenedione
2) delta-5: pregnenolone->DHEA->androstenedione
Immediate precursor of testosterone
androstenedione
Infants with 5-alpha-reductase disorder appear
female, lack of secondary sex characteristics. At puberty, females will virulize because of increase in testosterone levels
Proteins vs Steriods
see 40-136
Tubular organ lining epithelium and compact organs of the digestive system are derived from what germ layer?
Endoderm
The wall of the alimentary canal consists of four layers
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and adventitia
Alimentary Canal Mucosa: 2 types of epithelium
1) stratified squamous non-keratinized (protective)
2) simple columnar - secretoary/absorptive
Alimentary Canal Mucosa: glands in surface epithelium
1) exocrine - goblet cells
2) endocrine - DNES (APUD) cells
Alimentary Canal Mucosa: Characteristics of Lamina Propria
loose connective tissue with numerous reticular fibers. Part of immune system. GALT. Richly vascularized; fenestrated blood capillaries and lymphatic capillaries
Alimentary Canal Mucosa: Characteristics of Muscularis Mucosae
"thin smooth muscle; hallmark of esophagus, stomach, small/large intestine"
Alimentary Canal Muscularis Mucosae: Two layers of smooth muscle in muscularis mucosae
inner circular and outer longitudinal
Alimentary Canal Muscularis Mucosae: Function of muscularis mucosae
causes localized movements of mucosa which aid in digestion and absorption
Alimentary Canal Submucosa: Characteristics
"loose to moderately dense, irregular fibroelastic connective tissue (mostly type 1 collagen); GALT; contains largest blood and lymphatic vessels;"
Alimentary Canal Submucosa: Submucosal simple branched tubular glands are only present in
esophagus and duodenum
Alimentary Canal Submucosa: Submucosal plexus of Meissner
Parasym plexus synapses occur; also sympath. Fibers but no synapse. Controls motility of mucosa and secretory glands
Alimentary Canal Muscularis Externa
lips to upper 1/4 of esophagus = skeletal muscle; lower fourth of esophagus to rectum = smooth muscle. Anal canal = smooth muscle of internal sphincter and skeletal muscle of external sphincter
Alimentary Canal Muscularis Externa has
2 circular layers; peristaltic activity; inner circular control lumen; outer longitudinal shortens tube locally
Alimentary Canal Muscularis Externa: Myenteric plexus of Auerbach
2nd component of enteric nervous system; located between circular and longitudinal; parasymph gang. Synapses. Also sympath but no synapse
Alimentary Canal Adventitia: Characteristics
thin connective tissue (primarily type I collagen); sometimes covered by mesothelium; intraperitoneal = covered in serosa; retroperitoneal = behind serosa
The enteric nervous system is a self-contained nervous system composes of
numerous repeating ganglia known as the myenteric and submucosal plexuses
"The ENS, innervating the alimentary canal, is modulated by"
parasym and sym NS
"True or False. If the sym and parasym connection to the entire gut are severed, the alimentary canal can perform all of its functions without any major problems"
TRUE
Pacemakers which establish the rthythm of bowel contractions through their influence on electrical slow-wave activity are known as
interstitial cells of Cajal
The myenteric plexus of Auerbach is situated between
"muscle layers of the muscularis externa, contains neurons responsible for motility"
The smaller submucosal plexus of Meissner contains
"sensory cells that ""talk"" to the neurons of the myenteric plexus, and fibers that stimulate secretion from epithelial crypt cell into the gut lumen"
"True or False. The submucosal plexus contains fewer neurons and thinner interganglionic connectives (interneurons) than does the myenteric plexus, and has fewer neurons per ganglion."
TRUE
APUD cells in the gut secrete serotonin which acts to
"excite the mucosal afferent nerves, initiating the peristaltic reflex"
Neurotransmitters which cause inner circular layer of muscularis externa to contract
ACh and substance P
Neurotransmitters which cause inner circular layer of muscularis externa to dilate
vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) and nitric oxide
Increases peristalsis activity
parasympathetics
decreases peristasis activity
sympathetic
parasympathetic input comes from the … except in the colon and rectum where it comes from the …
"Vegas nerve, sacral outflow"
"Generally, parasympathetics"
"stimulate peristalsis, inhibit sphincters, trigger secretion"
sympathetic input comes from
splanchnic nerves (vasomotor)
"generally, sympathetics"
"inhibit peristalsis, activate sphincters"
Lining mucosa of oral cavity
stratified squamous nonkeratinized
Masticatory mucosa of oral cavity
stratified squamous parakeratinized
Specialized mucosa of oral cavity
stratified squamous nonkeratinized
stratified squamous parakeratinized is different because
stratum granulosum is missing and stratum corneum cells don't die
Specialized mucosa is specialized to
perceive taste
Lips are divided into 3 regions
"skin, vermilion border, mucosa"
V shaped groove between the body and root of tongue is called the
sulcus terminalis
"Extrinsic muscles of the tongue … the tongue, while intrinsic muscles … the tongue"
protrude/retrude. Alter the shape of
The dorsum of the tongue is uneven because of the presence of the
lingual tonsils
These are located in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue only
lingual papillae
Characteristics of filliform papillae
"sharp filimentous, most numerous, parakeratinized epithelium, contain tactile receptors but no taste buds"
Characteristics of fungiform papillae
"many blood vessels in LP, ~5 taste buds on upper surface, stratified squamous nonkeratinized"
Characteristics of vallate papillae
form an inverted V-shaped row proximal to terminal sulcus; ducts from von Ebner's glands empty into crypt; secrete lingual lipase; 100-300 taste buds on wall of crypts but not on upper surface; stratified squamous nonkeratinized
Characteristics of taste buds
"small intraepithelial structures; nearly 10,000; average lifespan of 10 days; entirely within epithelium not in LP; on fungiform,vallate papilla , soft palate, pharynx, larynx"
4 types of gustatory receptor cells
type IV (basal): unipotential stem cells; type I-III: taste cells synpase with nerve fibers; microvilli; neuroepithelial; SVA
Salty is detected by
Na+ enters through ion channels
Sour (acidic) is detected by
H+ enters through ion channels
Sweet and umami are detected by
G-protein
bitter is detected by
"G-protein (gustducin, similar to transducin)"
Fungiform papilla taste cells innervated by
CN VII
Vallate papilla taste cells innervated by
CN IX
Throat and epiglottis taste cells innervated by
CN X
3 glands of the tongue
1) Anterior Lingual 2) Posterial Lingual 3) von Ebner's glands
Posterior lingual glands are
mucous glands located in the root of the tongue
von Ebner's glands are
underlying the crypts surrounding the vallate papillae. All serous acini. Ducts open into crypts. Secrete lingual lipase.
# of permenant teeth
"32 (16 top, 16 bottom)"
# of deciduous teeth
"20 (10 top, 10 bottom)"
Makeup of permenant teeth
"8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, 12 molars"
Makeup of deciduous teeth
"8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 molars"
Dentin is a special hard connective tissue derived from
mesenchyme originating from neural crest
Only part of tooth derived from ectoderm
Enamel
Enamel-covered part of tooth is known as the
anatomical crown
Three divisions of the tooth
"crown, neck, root"
All three hard tissues of the tooth differ from bone in that they are
avascular
"Enamel differs from dentin, cementum, and bone in that it"
lacks collagen as its main organic component
Soft tissue in the middle of the tooth consisting of loose connective tissue supplied with numerous small blood vessels and nerve fibers that enter the apical foramen of the root canal is known as the
dental pulp
Cells responsible for producing dentin are the
odontoblasts
ligament which supports the tooth
periodontal ligament
periodontal ligament is richly vascularized and contains afferents sensitive to
pressure
bony socket in which the tooth is suspended by the periodontal ligament
alveolus
gomphosis is the
"dentoalveolar joint, classified as a synarthrosis (immovable joint)"
gingiva (gums) has what kind of epithelium?
stratified squamous parakeratinized
shallow ring-like groove where the gingiva borders the tooth
gingival sulcus
Bulk of the tooth
dentin
Dentin has a chemical composition similar to
bone
Hardest material found in the body consisting almost entirely of large apatite crystals
enamel
Enamel is produced prior to tooth eruption by
"ameloblasts, ectoderm-derived"
Cementum resembles bone except that it is
avascular
The palate is composed of the
"hard palate, soft palate, and uvula"
Characteristics of hard palate
"core of bone, lingual side is lined with stratified squamous parakeratinized"
Characteristics of soft palate
Core of skeletal musclel stratified squamous nonkeratinized
Characteristics of uvula
most posterior extension of soft palate; stratified squamous nonkeratinized
Three salivary glands
"parotid (ectoderm), submandibular (endoderm), sublingual (endoderm)"
parotid glands secrete
"serous from branched acinar glands, 25% of total salivary volume, Stensen's duct"
submandibular glands produce
"serous and mucus, 70% of salivary volume, branched tubuloacinar glands, serous demilunes, striated ducts, epidermal growth factor, Wharton's duct"
Sublingual gland secretes
"serous and mucous (mostly), 5% of salivary volume, no intercalated ducts, ducts of Rivinus"
2 types of interlobular ducts
1) intercalated - simple cuboidal 2) striated - simple columnar
Mostly from submandibular glands; about 1000 mL per day; parasym = greatly increase secretions - more watery; sym = moderately increase secretions - more viscous
saliva
Parotid glands innervated by
CN IX
Submandibular and sublingual glands innervated by
CN VII
"Primary saliva is of the same osmolarity as blood, but under the influence of"
aldosterone; can become hypotonic as Na+ is reabsorbed while passing through the striated ducts
Functions of saliva
"1) moisten and lubricate oral cavity 2) begins carbohydrate digestion via salivary amylase 3) aids in taste by dissolving food material 4) antibacterial activity - IgA, lactoferrin, lysozyme"
Middle oropharynx and laryngopharynx lined with
stratified squamous epithelium
"From the lips to the first 1/3 of the esophagus, what type of muscle?"
skeletal
Lining epithelium of esophagus is
stratified squamous nonkeratinized
Intersperse within esophagus epithelium are antigen-presenting cells known as
Langerhans cells
Muscularis mucosae in the esophagus is unusual in that it
consists of only a single layer of longitudinally oriented smooth muscle fibers that become thicker in the vicinity of the stomach
Mucous glands in the submucosa of the esophagus are the
esophageal glands proper
"Mucous glands in the lamina propria of the esophagus, especially inferior end"
esophageal cardiac glands
Muscularis externa of the esophagus contains
"only skeletal muscle in the upper 1/3, only smooth muscle in the lower 1/3, mixture of both in the middle third"
Outer surface of esophagus is covered by
"adventitia, except for the short serous-covered segment in the abdominal cavity between the diaphragm and stomach"
The esophagus has 2 physiological sphincters
1) pharyngoesophageal and 2) gastroesophageal
Four regions of the stomach
1) cardiac 2) fundus 3) body 4) pyloric antrum and canal
Region of the stomach which is the transition from the esophagus to the stomach
Cardiac region
Region of the Stomach which is above a horizontal line drawn from the cardia to the greater curvature
Fundus region
Region of the stomach which is located between the curvatures
Body region
"Region of the stomach which is the holding chamber, ends as the pylorus, contains pyloric sphincter"
Pyloric antrum and canal region
esophagus connects with the stomach at the
cardiac orifice
Stomach connects with the intestine at the
pyloric orifice
rugae are
major longitudinal folds in the lining of the stomach
the stomach is lined with
secretory simple columnar surface-lining cells that produce a neutral mucus product (NOT goblet cells)
(Stomach) epithelial sheet gland cells are attached by
tight junctions
Three types of gastric glands
1) Cardiac 2) pyloric 3) fundic
True or False. Gastric glands are exocrine glands without a true duct
TRUE
The gastric pit acts as the duct for 2-3 glands and is a surface invagination lined with
surface mucus epithelial cells
Cardiac glands secrete
mucus
Pyloric glands secrete
"mucus, lysozyme, and hormones"
Fundic glands are in the
body and fundus of the stomach
Five cell types of the fundic glands
1) Pluripotential stem cells 2) Mucous neck cells 3) Parietal cells 4) Chief cells 5) DNES Cells
Fundic glands: Pluripotential stem cells
have bidirectional migration; stimulated by APUD hormone 'gastrin' and EGF
Fundic glands: Mucous neck cells
in the neck only
Fundic glands: Parietal cells
"in the neck and base of the fundic gland; very large acidophilic, many mitochondria; invaginations of apical PM w/ microvilli = intracellular secretory canaliculus (only forms with cell is active)"
H+ is produced in the parietal cells by the enzyme
carbonic anhydrase
"In the parietal cells, H+ is pumped into the lumen of the intracellular canaliculus by a "
"H+, K+ ATPase. Simultaneously, K+ within the canaliculus is transported into the cell in exchange for the H+ ions. Cl- is transported through Cl- channels"
HCO3-/Cl- exchangers are located in the
"basolateral cell membrane, while H+,K+-ATPase is on the apical cell membrane"
#1 stimulator of acid production
histamine
Gastrin and histamine from APUD cells
stimulate acid production and release
Histamine comes from
APUD and mast cells
Histamine-blocking drugs
Tagamet and Zantac
Acetylcholine from parasympathetic
stimulates acid production
Prostaglandins inhibit
acid production
NSAIDs suppress
prostaglandin synthesis
Some APUD cells produce somatostatin which
inhibits the APUD gastrin producing cells and parietal cells
Parietal cells secrete gastric intrinsic factor (glycoprotein) which
binds to Vit B12 (needed for erythropoiesis) and is required for absorption in small intestine
Found only in the base region in the lower third of the fundic gland
Chief cells
"Have extensive RER in basal cytoplasm, apical cytoplasm contains zymogen granules that store pepsinogen, secrete gastric lipase"
Chief cells
Chief cells stimulated by
"everything that stimulates parietal cells (gastrin, histamine, parasympathetics)"
DNES cells produce and secrete
"histamine, gastrin, serotonin, VIP, and somatostatin"
DNES cells concentrate secretory granules in the
basal cytoplasm
"Stimulates parietal cells (acid), chief cells (pepsinogen)"
Histamine
affects smooth muscle cells (contraction stimulates motility) and parietal cells (inhibit acid secretion)
Serotonin
"Causes smooth muscle relaxation, blood vessel dilation, stimulates secretion and absorption"
vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
"Stimulates parietal cells (acid), chief cells (pepsinogen), smooth muscle cells (increases gastric motility)"
Gastrin
"Inhibits release of other GI hormones, gastric acid and pepsinogen secretion, pancreatic exocrine secretion, salivary amylase secretion, intestinal motility, and contraction of gallbladder"
somatostatin
Stimulates pancreatic intralobular ducts to secrete HCO3- and water
Secretin
"Stimulates muscularis of gallbladder to contract and release bile, pancreatic acinar cells to secrete enzyme, sphincter of Oddi to relax"
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Stimulates insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells
Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
"Stimulates gastric and duodenal motility, regulates contraction that occur in 2 hours cycles after meals"
Motilin
Bacteria which lives in the thick mucus and is primarily responsible for ulceration of the stomach
Helicobacter pylori
Substances absorbed by the stomach
"Water, salts, sugar, alcohol, drugs"
Predominantly produced in the stomach and stimulates appetite
Ghrelin
3 phases in gastric digestion
1) Cephalic 2) Gastric 3) Intestinal
The rate at which the stomach releases its chyme into the duodenum is a function of
"acidity, caloric and fat content, and osmolarity of chyme"
Factors that facilitate emptying
"distention of stomach, gastrin"
Factors that inhibit emptying
"distention of duodenum; over-abundance of fat, proteins, carbohydrates; increased osmolarity and excessive acidity of chyme"
CCK counteracts
gastrin
Meal time in stomach
carbs < proteins < fats; fats stimulate CCK which causes long setting in stomach
Digestion of chyme is primarily done in the
duodenum
Absorption of nutrients is primarily done in the
jejunum and proximal ileum
Production of hormones is by
APUD cells in the proximal small intestine
Small intestine specializations which increase surface area
"1) plicae circularis (circular folds) 2) intestinal villi (surface absorptive cells and goblet cells) lacteals, capillary loops 3) Microvilli (striated border microvilli)"
Invaginations of the epithelium into the lamina propria between the villi form intestinal glands known as
crypts of Lieberkuhn
Epithelium of the small intestine has 4 types of cells
1) Surface absorptive cells 2) Goblet cells 3) APUD cells 4) M cells
Apical surface of these cells presents with striated border microvilli
"Surface absorptive cells (tight junctions, absorpt much of the nutrients and fatty acids)"
"Unicellular glands, manufacture mucinogen"
Goblet cells
Produce paracrine and endocrine hormones
APUD cells
"These cells sample, phagocytose, and transport antigens present in the intestinal lumen"
M cells
Characteristics of LP of small intestine
"Part of GALT, numerous fenestrated capillaries, lacteals, some smooth muscle, intestinal crypts of Lieberkuhn(stem cells are here)"
Stem cells of the crypts of Lieberkuhn give rise to
"surface absorptive cells, goblet cells, APID cells, Paneth cells"
"Contain large acidophilic secretory granules, manufacture lysozyme, TNF-alpha, defensins, trypsin, and phospholipase A2"
Paneth cells
"These glands secrete a mucous, alkaline fluid in response to parasymp stimulation to help neutralize the acidic chyme that enters the duodenum"
Brunner's glands
The lamina propria and submucosa of the ileum house permanent clusters of lymphoid nodules known as
Peyer's patches
Monosaccharides and amino acids enter the absorptive cell through
microvillus membrane by transport proteins as a result of secondary active transport
Sugars and amino acids are released across the basal PM by
"facilitated diffusion, shuttled to the liver"
Long chain fatty acids and monoglycerides accumulate collect in the
"SER where they are reesterified to triglycerides, transferred to Golgi, form chylomicrons"
Lipid rich substance entering the lacteal is known as
Chyle
Permanent clusters of lymphoid nodules in the ileum are known as
Peyer's patches
Surface epithelium covering the lymphoid nodules are call
follicle-associated epithelium
Two additional cells found within the FAE
"Intraepithelial lymphocytes (most are helper T cells), and M cells"
Characteristics of large intestine
"plicae semilunares, crypts of Lieberkuhn, taeniae coli, haustra coli, no Paneth cells, no villi"
Apical membrane in large intestine have
Na+ and K+ channels responsible for Na+ absorption and K+ secretion.
Synthesis of Na+ channels is unduced by
aldosterone
"In diarrhea, high flow rate of intestinal fluid causes increases"
colonic K+ secretion (hypokalemia)
Colon also secretes
mucus and bicarbonate
"True or False. Epithelium of the anal mucosa is simple cuboid/columnar from the rectum to the pectinate line, first stratified columnar then stratified squamous nonkeratinized from the pectinate line to the external alan orifice, and stratified squamous keratinized (epidermis) at the anus"
TRUE
True or False. Lymph drainage is different above and below the pectinate line
TRUE
The exocrine pancreas is derived from
endoderm
Pancreatic acinar cells secrete
"trypsinogen (and trypsin inhibitor), chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, proelastase, pancreatic amylase and lipase, deoxyribonuclease, ribonuclease"
Enteropeptidase converts
trypsinogen to trypsin
A distinguishing characteristic of the pancreas is the presence of cells in the beginning of the duct system called
centroacinar cells
These type of intalobular ducts are not found in the pancreas
striated ducts
common duct between pancreas and liver
ampulla of Vater
The intercalated ducts manufacture
"serous, bicarbonate-rich alkaline fluid"
Daily production of pancreatic juices is about
1200 mL
Secretin promotes
water and ion transport by stimulating intercalated duct cells
CCK stimulates acinar cells to synthesize and release
digestive enzymes
Major effects of CCK
"Stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice rich in digestive enzymes, causes ejection of bile from the gallbladder and opening of sphincter of Oddi, induces satiety"
Minor effects of CCK
"Inhibits gastric emptying, promotes normal growth and maintenance of pancreas, and enhances effects of secretin"
Liver is divided into 2 principle lobes by the falciform ligament
right and left
2 other lobes of the liver
quadrate and caudate lobes
Primary stromal fibers of the liver are
reticular fibers
Structures that enter the porta hepatis are
1) Hepatic portal vein 2) Hepatic artery proper 3) Autonomic nerves
Structures that exit the porta hepatis are
1) Left and right hepatic ducts 2) efferent lymphatics
Branch of the portal vein is called the
terminal portal venule
Branch of the hepatic artery is called the
terminal hepatic arteriole
Branch of the biliary duct system is called the
bile ductule (usually lined with cuboidal epithelium)
Lymphatics are generally one or two small
lymphatic capillaries
Portal areas refer to sites within the septa that contain the five structures
1) terminal portal venule 2) terminal hepatic arteriole 3) bile ductule 4) lymphatic capillaries 5) nerve branches
A continuous wall of hepatocytes which surrounds entire interlobular septum is called the
limiting plate
The space between the connective tissue and the limiting plate is known as
periportal tissue space of Mall
Basic functional unit of the parenchyma of the liver is the
classic lobule
"Within lobules, hepatocytes are arranged in"
rows or radiating plates (chords) - 1 or 2 cells thick
Hepatocytes radiate out from a blood vessel in the center of the lobule called the
central vein
"Running between the hepatocytes cords, the liver has a special type of blood vessel that called the"
sinusoid
The primary vascular bed of the liver portal system is in the intestine (fenestrated capillaries). The secondary vascular bed consists of
the sinusoids in the liver
The arrangement in the liver is known as the
hepatic portal system
The blood in the sinusoids carries all of the absorbed materials from the intestines except for
the bulk of the lipid
Every hepatocyte makes at least 1 contact with
a sinusoid
Triad consists of
"hepatic arteriole, bile duct, portal venule"
True or False. Blood always flows from the periphery of the lobules (the portal areas) ->sinusoids -> central vein
TRUE
The liver is the only place in the body that has blood vessels lined by endothelial cells and
macrophages
Endothelial cells of sinusoids are highly fenestrated and have
very large pores without diaphragms
"Fixed macrophages, making up the lining of the sinusoidal wall, are called"
Kupffer cells
Space between the sinusoids and plates of hepatocytes is called the
perisinusoidal space of Disse
Contents of the perisinusoidal space (5)
1) tissue fluid 2) nerve fibers 3) fibroblasts 4) reticular fibers 5) hepatic stellate cells
True or False. Tissue fluid and plasma have the same composition
TRUE
True or False. Tissue fluid gives rise to all the lymph produced in the liver
TRUE
Hepatic stellate cells secrete
"type I collagen, laminin, proteoglycans, and growth factors"
Cirrhosis is
increased deposition of collagen and ECM components
"As the fibrotic process advances in the liver, hepatic stellate cells change into … constricting the lumen of the sinusoids and increasing vascular resistance"
myofibroblasts
An increase in resistance to flow of portal venous blood in the hepatic sinusoids leads to
portal hypertension in cirrhosis
"Under normal circumstances, hepatic stellate cells"
store fat-soluble vitamin A and produce collagen fibers and ECM components deposited in the space of Disse and around the central vein of the lobule
Lymphatic drainage pathway
"Plasma exits sinusoids into space of Disse (tissue fluid). Then leaks between hepatocytes into space of Mall, then seeps into connective tissue of portal area. Next, it enters lymphatic capillaries where it is now called ""lymph"""
Exocrine product of liver is
"bile, produced by hepatocyte"
Bile is released into the
bile canaliculus
True or False. Flow of bile is ALWAYS from the center of the lobules toward the peripheral portal areas
TRUE
"Very close to the limiting plate is the beginnings of the first true duct, which is the"
preductile canal of Hering
The preductile canal of Hering goes through the limiting plate and join with the
bile ductule in the portal area
Characteristics of Hepatocytes
"1) single nucleus (80%) or binucleates (20%) 2) 75% are polyploid (endoreduplication) 3) many mitochondria, Golgi, RER, SER, lysosomes, peroxisomes 4) poorly staining cytoplasm"
Hepatocytes have a life span of about
150 days
Surface adjacent to other hepatocytes (15% of cell surface) has
many desmosomes (hold cells together) and gap junctions (communicate with neighbors)
Cell surface bordering intercellular canaliculi (15% of cell surface) (secretory surface) contains
tight junction (close off the canaliculi)
Surface bordering the space of Disse (70% of cell surface) (secretory and absorptive surface) has
microvilli
Functions of hepatocytes
1) Secrete bile 2) Protein catabolism 3) Carbohydrate metabolism 4) Lipid metabolism 5) Detoxify drugs and alcohol
Two important components of bile
bile salts and bilirubin
Liver can convert what to produce glucose
"glycogen, amino acids, lactic acid, fructose, galactose"
Shape of liver acinus is
ovoid to diamond; two central veins at each end with two portal areas at the other two ends
The backbone of the acinus supply is the
arterial blood in branches of hepatic arters
Zone 1 (perilobular region) has
"highest nuterient and oxygen, most metabolically active, oxidative metabolism here. Active synthesis of glycogen and plasma proteins, most resistant to insult, first to regenerate"
Zone 2
intermediate region
Zone 3
"Cells closest to central vein, lowest in oxygen and nutrients, highest in metabolic wastes. Glycolysis happening here. Principle site of alcohol and drug detox. More vulnerable to damage"
Lipid deposits in zone 3 hepatocytes may indicate
consumption of hepatotoxic substances
Centrilobular necrosis of the liver is most likely to occur as a result of
"malnutrition, drug and chemical toxicity, or ischemic injury"
Function of gallbladder
store and concentrate bile
gallbladder epithelium
"simple columnar, interdigitation. Mucosa reabsorbs water and ions from bile"
"In the gallbladder, epithelial clefts or diverticula called ... extend into the wall"
Rokitansky-aschoff crypts
Bile duct system
right + left hepatic ducts -> common hepatic duct + cystic duct -> common bile duct + pancreatic duct -> ampulla of Vater --> sphincter of Oddi
Regulation of bile secretion is through
parasympathetics and CCK
CCK causes ejection of bile from gallbladder and relaxation of
sphincter of Oddi
Five major processes of the digestive system
Ingestion, Motility, Digestion, Absorption, Elimination
In the enteric nervous system, ACh causes (3)
1) Contraction of smooth muscle in wall of digestive tract
2) Relaxation of sphincters
3)Increased salivary, gastric acid and pancreatic secretions
In the enteric nervous system, Norepi causes (3)
1) Relaxation of smooth muscle in wall of digestive tract
2) Contraction of sphincters
3) Increased mucus secretion in saliva
In the enteric nervous system, Vasoactive Intestinal Polypeptide causes (2)
1) Relaxation of smooth muscle in wall of digestive tract
2) Increased small intestinal and pancreatic secretions
In the enteric nervous system, Gastrin-Releasing Polypeptide causes (1)
1) Increased gastrin secretion
In the enteric nervous system, Enkephalins cause (2)
1) Contraction of smooth muscle in wall of digestive tract
2) Decreased intestinal secretion
In the enteric nervous system, Neuropeptide Y causes
1) Relaxation of smooth muscle in wall of digestive tract
2) Decreased intestinal secretion
In the enteric nervous system, Substance P causes (2)
1) Contraction of smooth muscle
2) Increased salivary secretion
Vegas provide parasympathetics to which portion of the digestive tract?
Upper (up to left colic flexure)
Sacral outflow provides parasympathetics to which portion of the digestive tract?
Lower (descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum)
Submucosal and myenteric plexuses are innervated by
parasym and sym
Parasympathetic neurotransmitters
ACh, Substance P, Vasoactive intestinal peptide
Sympathetic neurotransmitters
Norepinephrine
Four sympathetic ganglia serve the digestive tract
Celiac, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric and hypogastric
During mastication, sensory information is relayed via
CN V
Muscles of mastication are innervated by
CN V
Three phases of deglutition (swallowing)
Oral (voluntary), Pharyngeal (involuntary), Esophageal (involuntary)
Cranial nerves involved in swallowing 1) sensation 2) motor
1) V, IX, X
2) V, IX, X, XII
Upper esophageal sphincter prevents
reflux of bolus back into pharynx
During swallowing, 1) soft palate and 2) epiglottis are coverings for
1) nasopharynx
2) larynx
Slow waves originate into the
interstitial cells of Cajal
Slow waves are
oscillating depolarization and repolarization of the membrane potential of the smooth muscle cells.
Phasic contractions happen when
action potential threshold is met (strong)
Tonic contractions happen when
action potential threshold is not met
Interstitial cells of Cajal are electrically connected to smooth muscle via
gap junctions
Upswing of the slow wave is due to
inward Ca++ current due to gating of voltage-gated Ca++ channels
Plateau of the slow wave is due to
inward Ca++ current due to gating of L-type Ca++ channels
Downswing of the slow wave is due to
outward K+ current due to gating of voltage-gated K+ channels
Frequency of slow waves in the stomach and colon
3 per minute
Frequency of slow waves in the duodenum
12 per minute
True or False. Frequency of slow waves is not affected by neural or hormonal input.
True
Periodic contractions followed by relaxation (organized by slow waves); propel and mix contents
phasic contractions
Maintain a constant level of contraction of tone ("latch state"); found in sphincters
tonic contractions
Primary peristaltic contractions in the esophagus are mediated by
the swallowing reflex
If swallows are taken in rapid succession, esophageal motility is inhibited. This is called
deglutitive inhibition
Opening of lower esophageal sphincter is caused by
primary peristaltic contractions and mediated by the vegas nerve which relaxes it
Secondary peristaltic contractions are
a second series of contractions (if needed) to clear remaining contents
Secondary peristaltic contractions begin at
point of distention
What happens in receptive relaxation?
1) Orad region of the stomach relaxes (mediated by vegas)
2) Decreases pressure and increases volume of orad making it easier for bolus to enter
Mixing starts in caudad region of stomach and moves toward
antrum, getting stronger along the way
Full gastric emptying takes approximately
3 hours
True or False. Liquids empty from the stomach quicker than solids.
True
True or False. Isotonic chyme empties from the stomach quicker than hypo or hypertonic chyme.
True
True or False. Carbohydrates empty from the stomach the fastest while lipids empty the slowest.
True
Motilin mediates
migrating myoelectric complex, occuring an 90 minute intervals
Ductal cells modify saliva by
secreting K+ and HCO3-, and absorbing Na+ and Cl-
Ductal cells are impermeable to
water
Osmolarity of saliva
100 mOsm
4 organic components of saliva
1) salivary amylase
2) lingual lipase
3) mucin glycoprotein
4) antibodies (IgA) and lysozyme
Alkaline tide is caused by
gastric venous blood
Proton pumps transfer H+ into the lumen and ... into the cell
K+
Gastric secretions include (4)
1) Pepsinogen
2) Intrinsic Factor
3) Gastric Lipase
4) Mucus
Pepsinogen is secreted by
Chief cells
Function of pepsin
digest protein
Intrinsic factor is secreted by
parietal cells
Intrinsic factor is necessary for
proper vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum
Lack of intrinsic factor leads to
pernicious anemia
Parietal cells are located in the body of the stomach and secrete
HCl and Intrinsic factor
Chief cells are located in the body of the stomach and secrete
Pepsinogen
G-cells are located in the antrum of the stomach and secrete
Gastrin
Mucous cells are located in the antrum of the stomach and secrete
Mucus and pepsinogen
Protein digestion in the stomach is done by
pepsin
Protein digestion in the small intestine is done by
trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, carboxypeptidase A, carboxypeptidase B and peptidases in the brush border
Triglycerides are broken down by
lingual, gastric, and pancreatic lipases
cholesterol ester is broken down by
cholesterol ester hydrolase
Phospholipid is broken down by
phospholipase A2 into lysolecithin and fatty acid
Glucose is absorbed by
Na+-glucose cotransport via SGLT-1 cotransporter via secondary active transport on apical membrane. Then facilitated diffusion via GLUT-2 transporter on basolateral membrane
Galactose is absorbed by
Na+-galactose cotransport via SGLT-1 cotransporter via secondary active transport on apical membrane. Then facilitated diffusion via GLUT-2 transporter on basolateral membrane
Fructose is absorbed by
Facilitated diffusion via GLUT-5 cotransporter on apical membrane. Facilitated diffusion via GLUT-2 transporter on basolateral membrane
There are 4 separate transporters/cotransporters for amino acids
1 for basic, 1 for acidic, 1 for neutral, and 1 for imino
Amino acids first get into cell by
Na+/amino acid cotransporter, then out by facilitated diffusion through amino acid transporter
Most protein absorption is in the form of
di and tripeptides
Apical membrane peptide transport is through
H+/peptide cotransporter (one for di and one for tri)
Basal membrane peptide transport is
same as amino acids because the peptides are broken down once in the cell
Absorbed lipids are (4)
1) Cholesterol
2) Monoglycerides
3) Lysolecithin
4) Free Fatty Acids
All products of lipid digestion are contained within
micelles
Once mycelle-released lipids diffuse across the apical membrane, they
are re-esterified with free fatty acids to form original ingested lipids
Lipids are packaged with apoproteins and together are known as
chylomicrons
Chylomicrons are packaged in secretory vesicles in the
Golgi
Chylomicrons are exocytosed into
lacteals
External respiration is 1)... where as internal respiration is 2)...
1) Exchange of O2 in the inspired air for CO2 in the blood
2) Exchange of CO2 for O2 in the vicinity of the cells
Upper respiratory system includes
nose and pharynx
Lower respiratory system includes
larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs
Functionally the respiratory system consists of 2 parts
1) conducting portion and 2) respiratory portion
Main sites of gas exchange
alveoli
Volume of the conducting portion
150mL
Volume of the respiratory portion
5-6L
Starting with the trachea, the air may pass through as many as ... generations of branchings
23
The first 16 generations of airways are in the ... zone
conducting
Even though Poiseuille's law suggest that the smallest airways have the highest resistance to airflow, the do not because of
their parallel arrangement
Four elements which aid in respiration
1) rib cage
2) diaphragm
3) intercostal muscles
4) elastic connective tissue of the lung
Normal quiet inhalation involves contraction of what muscles of inhalation?
diaphragm and external intercostals
During normal quiet breathing, exhalation results from
elastic recoil
During normal quiet breathing, exhalation results from
elastic recoil
Normal quiet breathing is called
eupnea
Average healthy adult tidal volume
500mL
Characteristic epithelium of the conducting portion is
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
The respiratory epithelium is composed of 5 cell types
1) Goblet cells - mucus
2) Ciliated solumnar cells-move mucus toward oropharynx
3) Basal cells - stem cells
4) Brush cells
5) DNES cells - regulation
Nasal cavity is made up of 4 parts
1) External nares
2) Vestibule
3) Nasal cavity proper
4) Olfactory Mucosa
Divided by nasal septum; mostly lined by typical respiratory epithelium; communicates with pharynx through choanae; vascular lamina propria; countercurrent head exchange system
Nasal cavity proper
Swell bodies are
a large venous plexus which engorge on one side every half hour to allow mucosal rehydration
Conchae cause
airflow turbulence
Where the lamina propria blends with the periosteum of the underlying bone in the nasal cavity proper is called
mucoperiosteum
Olfactory epithelium is tall
pseudostratified epithelium
Three cell types if olfactory mucosa
1) Olfactory receptors - middle 1/3
2) Supporting cells - upper 1/3
3) Basal cells - stem cells - lower 1/3
Olfactory cilia and receptors for odors and are linked to
G-proteins: cAMP->open Na+ channels->nerve impulse
Are olfactory receptors are myelinated?
no
Produces thin, watery fluid that is carried to the surface of the olfactory epithelium which contains lysozyme, IgA and odorant-binding protein
olfactory glands of Bowman
Perinasal sinuses are lined with
respiratory epithelium
Boundaries of the nasopharynx
Choanae and soft palate
Nasopharynx is lined with
respiratory epithelium
oro and laryngeopharynx are lined by
stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
Hyaline cartilages of the larynx
Thyroid, cricoid, and lower part of arytenoids
Elastic cartilages of the larynx
Epiglottis, corniculate, and tips of arytenoids
True and false vocal chords are covered by
stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
False vocal chords are positioned 1) ... while the true vocal chords are positioned 2) ...
1) superiorly
2) inferiorly
Between the true and false vocal chords is a recessed region called the
vestibule
True or False. There are no glands in the lamina propria of the true vocal chords.
True
Inferior to the true vocal chords the lining epithelium changes to
respiratory epithelium
Boundaries of the trachea
from cricoid cartilage until bifurcation
Tracheal walls are supported by
10-12 C-rings
Dense fibroelastic connective tissue between adjacent C-rings permits
elongation of the trachea during inhalation
Contraction of the trachealis (smooth muscle) decreases the diameter of the trachea, resulting in faster airflow, which
assists in the dislodging of foreign matter from the larynx during coughing
The trachea consists of three layers
1) Mucosa - respiratory epithelium - thick basement membrane
2) Submucosa - dense irregular fibroelastic w/ seromucous glands
3) Adventitia - C-rings
The bronchial tree begins at the
bifurcation of the trachea, as right and left primary bronchi, which arborize
The airways outside of the lungs are
the primary bronchi, extrapulmonary bronchi
The airways inside of the lungs are
the intrapulmonary bronchi, conducting bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, and respiratory bronchioles.
With successive branching, there is a decrease in the diameter of the
lumen, but an increase in total surface area
Decreased airway diameter means decreases cartilage but
increased smooth muscle and elastic fibers
Decreased airway diameter means decreases
cilia (height and number) and glands
Have mixed glands, O-rings of cartilage, accompanied by pulmonary arteries, veins, and lymph vessels. Pierces the hilus of the lung.
Primary (Main) bronchi
The left main bronchus bifurcates but the right main bronchus
trifurcates
secondary bronchi is the airway to the
lobes (AKA lobar bronchi)
As secondary bronchi enter the lobes of the lung, they subdivide into smaller branches called
tertiary bronchi
Each tertiary bronchus arborizes but leads to a discrete section of lung tissue known as a
bronchopulmonary segment
How many bronchopulmonary segments does each lung have?
10
Conducting bronchioles supply air to a
pulmonary lobule. Lack cartilage and glands.
Epithelium of conducting bronchiole is
simple solumnar ciliated with goblet cells
Has prominent thick layers of helically oriented smooth muscle
Conducting bronchioles
Sympathetic stimulation of bronchiolar smooth muscle causes
relaxation and increases the diameter of the airways (beta-2 adrenergic receptors)
Parasympathetic stimulation of bronchiolar smooth muscle causes
constriction and decreases the diameter of the airways. Also caused by histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins
Each conducting bronchiole subdivides to form smaller
terminal bronchioles, which constitute the end of the conducting portion of the respiratory system.
Terminal bronchioles have epithelium of
ciliated simple cuboidal and lacks goblet cells
Clara cells are
columnar with dome-shapes apices that have short, blunt microvilli. Secretory granules, anti-inflammatory.
Functions of clara cells
1) secrete glycoprotein
2) secrete surfactant-like product
3) secrete enzymes
4) release Cl-
5) Stem cells
First part of the respiratory portion. Simple cuboidal, clara cells with some cilia (last place for cilia)
respiratory bronchioles
In the respiratory bronchioles, usually one side of the wall is interrupted by
alveoli. In the connective tissue of the opposite wall is a branch of the pulmonary artery
walls consist of nothing but alveoli
alveolar ducts
The respiratory passages from the trachea to the alveolar ducts contain about
25 orders of branching
Expanded outpouchings of numerous alveoli located at the distal ends of alveolar ducts. No smooth muscle in the walls.
Alveolar sacs
Alveoli are separated from each other by
interalveolar septa which contain one or more alveolar pores.
Alveoli are rimmed by
elastic fibers
Alveoli are lined by
highly attenuated simple squamous epithelium composed of type I and type II pneumocytes
about 95% of the alveolar surface is composed of simple squamous made up of
type I pneumocytes
These cells have tight junctions, thin cytoplasm, function in gas exchange, cannot divide
type I pneumocytes
Cuboidal in shape, microvilli, tight junction, can divide into both types of pneumocytes
type II pneumocytes
Secretory product of type II pneumocytes is
pulmonary surfactant = DPPC
Alveolar macrophages make this enzyme which breaks down elastic fibers
elastase
Alveolar macrophages of patients with pulmonary congestion and congestive heart failure contain phagocytosed, extravasated red blood cells, and are referred to as
heart failure cells
Interalveolar septum has 2 regions
1) Thick - continuous capillaries
2) Thin - form blood-air barriers
Blood-air barriers consist of 3 payers
1) surfactant and type I pneumocytes
2) Fubed basal laminae of type I pneumocytes and capillary endothelial cells
3) Endothelium of continuous capillaries
True or False. In the lung lobules, pulmonary veins are separated from the arteries
True
Pulmonary vascular supply
1) Pulmonary artery
2) Pulmonary veins
3) Bronchiole arteries and veins
Pulmonary nerve supply
autonomic nerve fibers to smooth muscle of bronchi and bronchioles. PNS causes contraction. SNS causes relaxation.
External respiration is
gas exchange between the lungs and the blood
Internal respiration is
gas exchange between the blood and body cells
Zones 1-16 are
conducting zones
Zone 17-23 are
respiratory zones
Relax smooth muscle, dilate brochioles via beta-2 adrenergic receptors
sympathetics
contract smooth muscle, constrict bronchioles vis muscarinic receptors
parasympathetics
beta-2 agonist
Albuterol
muscarinic antagonist/anchicholinergic
Ipratropium
beta-2 agonists and anticholinergics work to
treat asthma
Last place in the respiratory system where cilia is found
respiratory bronchioles
Last place in the respiratory system where smooth muscle is found
alveolar ducts
Last place in the respiratory system where cartilage is found
bronchi
Tidal volume (500mL) is the
volume of air inspired or expired during normal, quiet breathing
Inspiratory reserve volume (3.0-3.3L) is the
maximum amount of air that can be inspired at end of a normal inspiration
Expiratory reserve volume (1.0-1.2L) is the
maximum amount of air that can be expired at end of a normal expiration
Residual volume (~1.2L) is the
volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forced expiration
Total lung capacity (5.7L-6.2L) is the
volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration
Vital capacity (4.5L-5.0L) is the
volume of air forcefully expired from lungs after a maximal inspiration
Functional residual capacity (2.2L-2.4L) is the
volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration
Inspiratory capacity (3.5L-3.8L) is the
volume of air that can be inspired after a normal expiration
FVC (5L) is the
volume of air forcefully expired after a maximal inspiraction
FEV1 (4L) is the
volume of air forcefully expired in the first second
FEV3 (4.75L) is the
volume of air forcefully expired in three seconds
FEV1/FVC * 100% =
80%
1 cm H2O ~=
0.74 mmHg
Compliance (dV/dP) is the
measure of how volume changes as a result of a pressure change
Normal compliance value of the lung is
0.13 liters / cm H2O
Compliance is directly/inversely proportional to elastance.
inversely
Increase in lung compliance happens in
emphysema. Loss of elastic fibers, Elastance decreases, lung volumes are increased
Decrease in lung compliance is seen in
Fibrosis. Stiffening of lung tissue, lung resists expansion, lung volumes are decreased.
Infant respiratory distress syndrome. Lack of pulmonary surfactant. Increased surface tension. Difficult to keep alveoli inflated. Atelectasis (collapse of alveoli)
Changing radius two fold will change air flow
sixteen fold
Change in pressure for tidal volume is approximately
1-2 cm H2O
Pleural pressure is always less than
alveolar pressure. Aids in keeping alveoli inflated
Pleural pressure is produced by
tendency of lungs to recoil and chest wall to expand
Transpulmonary pressure is
pressure across the alveoli and airways (Ppl - Palv)
External respiration occurs between
alveoli and pulmonary capillaries
Anatomical dead space (conducting zone volume) is approximately
volume in mL is equal to weight in pounds
Alveolar dead space is due to
lack of blood supply or damage to alveoli
Physiological dead space is a combination of
anatomical and alveolar dead spaces
Partial pressure exerted by gaseous water molecules
47 mmHg
[Dissolved gas]=
(Pgas) X (solubility coefficient of gas)
Partial pressure of oxygen in dry air
160 mmHg
Partial pressure of CO2 in dry air
negligible
Partial pressure of H2O in conducting zone
47 mmHg
Partial pressure of O2 in conducting zone
150 mmHg
Partial pressure of CO2 in conducting zone
30 mmHg
Partial pressure of O2 in alveoli
104 mmHg
Partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli
40 mmHg
Partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood
95 mmHg or torr
Partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood
40 mmHg or torr
Partial pressure of O2 in venous blood
40 mmHg or torr
Partial pressure of CO2 in venous blood
45 mmHg or torr
Partial pressure of O2 in interstitial space
40 mmHg or torr
Partial pressure of CO2 in interstitial space
45 mmHg or torr
Partial pressure of O2 in cells
20 mmHg or torr
Partial pressure of CO2 in cells
46 mmHg or torr
Diffusion of gas across a membrane is directly proportional to
diffusion coefficient, surface area, pressure gradient
Diffusion of gas across a membrane is inversely proportional to
membreane thickness
Body needs approximately ...mL of O2/min
250
Oxygen transferred in blood as
98% bound to hemoglobin, 2% dissolved in plasma
Percentage of hemoglobin saturation @ venous block PO2 (40 mmHg)
75%
Percentage of hemoglobin saturation @ arterial blood PO2
98%
Inc PCO2, dec pH, inc temp, inc 2,3-DPG cause a shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the
right.
Inc PCO2, dec pH, inc temp, inc 2,3-DPG cause a shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the
right.
As more oxygen is bound to Hb, more CO2 will be released from Hb which is known as the
Haldane effect (occurs at the lungs)
70-90% of CO2 is transported as
HCO3-
This contains a respiratory center that shapes breating. Bilateral network of meurons with pacemaker-like activity throughout it.
Medulla
Voluntary aspect of breathing
Cerebral cortex
Emotional aspect of breathing
Hypothalamus
Regulates duration of inspiration (shortens inspirations)
Pontine respiratory group / Pneumotaxic center
Central chemoreceptors are located in multiple areas of the
medulla and pons
Peripheral chemoreceptors (glomus cells) are located in walls of
carotid arteries (carotid body)
Strongest chemostimulus to breathing
CO2 / pH
Located throughout the airways and alveoli. Detect the amount of stretch in the lungs
Pulmonary stretch receptors
Located throughout limbs and the body
Proprioceptors and exteroreceptors
Kidneys are intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal
retroperitoneal (as is the entire urinary system)
Kidneys are at approximately what spinal level?
T12
Blood pressure is regulated by the kidneys through the
renin-angiotensin system
The kidneys also secrete 1) Erythropoietin and 2) Calcitriol which do what?
1) Stimulate red blood synthesis in the blood marrow
2) Regulates calcium homeostasis
Waste products excreted in urine include
ammonia, urea, bilirubin, creatinine, uric acid, foreign substances such as drugs and environmental toxins
Renal sinus includes
Major and minor calyx, and renal pelvis
Kidneys are encapsulated by a
thin dense irregular connective tissue capsule
Seven structures of the kidney
1) Renal sinus
2) Hilus
3) Cortex
4) Medulla
5) Renal lobes
6) Medullary rays
7) Renal lobules
The renal cortex contains (5)
1. Renal corpuscles
2. proximal tubules
3. distal tubules
4. peritubular capillaries
5. medullary rays
8-18 conical medullary pyramids whose bases abut the corex and apices (renal papillae) are located in the
renal medulla
Renal medulla contains (4)
1) Medullary pyramids
2) collecting ducts
3) loops of Henle
4) vasa recta
Renal papillae, cradled by a minor calyx, are perforated by openings of about
20 collecting ducts
Several minor calyces empty into a
major calyx, which empties into the renal pelvis, which drains into the ureter.
Portions of the renal cortex that extend between renal pyramids are called
renal columns
Each kidney has approximately how many lobes
8-18
Each renal lobe consists of
a medullary pyramid and associated cortex and numerous renal lobules
Medullary rays are what and are comprised of what?
extensions of ,edullary tissue into the cortex. clusters of collecting tubules and ducts.
One medullary ray occupies the center of each
renal lobule
Cortical material between medullary rays is know as the
labyrinth
Interlobular arteries and veins mark the borders between
adjacent renal lobules
highly convoluted structure that modified the fluid passing through it to form urine as it's final product
uriniferous tubule
Uriniferous tubule consists of two parts
nephron and collecting tubule
Approximately how many nephrons in each kidney
1.3 million
Several nephrons drain into a single
collecting tubule
multiple collecting tubules join in the deeper aspect of the medulla to form larger and larger
collecting ducts
Nephrons are located in the
cortical labyrinth surrounding the ray
# nephrons per collecting duct
10
Nephrons consist of 4 parts
1) Renal corpuscle
2) Proximal tubule
3) Loop of Henle
4) Distal tubule
Each renal corpuscle consists of (3)
1) fenestrated capillaries
2) glomerulus
3) Bowman's capsule
Bowman's capsule consists of what two layers
Visceral and parietal
The space between the visceral and parietal layers is known as
Bowman's space
The glomerulus is in intimate contact with which layer of Bowman's capsule
visceral
The glomerulus is supplied by 1) the short, straight ... and 2) drained by the ...
1) afferent glomerular arteriole
2) efferent glomerular arteriole
The renal corpuscles and proximal and distal tubules are located in the ... while the loops of Henle are located in the ...
cortex
medulla
Two types of nephrons are
1) cortical nephrons
2) juxtamedullary nephrons
Characteristics of cortical nephrons
short, most common (86%), renal corpuscle in middle and outer portions of cortex, very short loop of Henle
Characteristics of JM nephrons
about 40 mm long, renal corpuscle is located in the cortex, but at the boundary of the cortex and medulla. Loop of Henle is long and projects into the medullary papilla
Kidneys receive approximately what percent of resting cardiac output?
20-25%
Approximate output of kidneys per day
1-2 liters
A branch of the abdominal aorta, divides into anterior and posterior segmental branches
Renal artery
Arise from the branches of the renal arteries in the renal hilus and penetrate the columns between the pyramids
Interlobar arteries
Branches of interlobar arteries at the corticomedullary junction
arcuate arteries which branch into interlobular arteries
Interlobular arteries branch to form these which drain into these
afferent arterioles
glomerular capillaries
feeds the peritubular capillaries
efferent arteriole
Two capillary beds in the cortex connected by an arteriole
efferent arteriole from renal corpuscle of cortical nephrons supply peritubular capillaries in the cortex.
efferent arteriole from juxtamedullary nephrons supply vasa recta in the medulla
The descending vasa recta carry isotonic blood into the medulla but the blood
loses water and picks up sodium as it passes deeper into the medulla
Unlike the loop of Henle, the ascending vasa recta are
permeable to salt and water.
Passive exchange of salt and water between the vasa recta and the interstitium is known as the
countercurrent exchange mechanism
The countercurrent exchange mechanism is important in
maintaining the osmotic gradient set up by the countercurrent multipler of Henle's loop
Blood in the ascending vasa recta drains into the
arcuate veins
Blood leaves the kidney through a single
renal vein and drains into the inferior vena cava
There are no anastomoses between interlobar arteries or between arcuate arteries. This, these arteries are examples of
end arteries
Each kidney receives 10% of the total blood volume per minute with >90% of this going to the
cortex
All the blood that reaches the medulla has already passed through the
cortex
Erythropoietin is manufactured and released by endothelial cells of the
peritubular capillary network
Most renal nerves original in the
celiac ganglion
Renin secretion is enhanced by
norepinephrine
Norepinephrine binds to what receptors in the afferent arteriole to cause vasoconstriction?
alpha-1-adrenergic
The fluid within Bowman's capsule is called the
glomerular filtrate
Glomerular filtrate contains
most inorganic ions and low molecular-weightorganic solutes (eg glucose and amino acids). Virtually no proteins and no cells.
The composition of the glomerular filtrate is altered by two general processes
tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion.
The tubule is all points intimately associated with the
peritubular capillaries
Glomerular capillaries lie between
afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole
In the glomerulus, blood filtering depends on three main pressures
1) blood hydrostatic pressure (promotes filtration)
2) capsillar hydrostatic pressure (oppose filtration)
3) Blood colloid asmotic pressure (oppose filtration)
Net filtration pressure is
blood hydrostatic pressure minus capsular hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure
Parietal layer of Bowman's capsule is composed of what type of epithelium?
simple squamous
Visceral layer of Bowman's capsule is composed of
podocytes
Characteristics of podocytes
long primary processes, interdigitate betweel glomerular capillaries. Slits between are covered by filtration slit diaphragm.
Bowman's space contains
urinary filtrate (not urine)
What extends from the urinary pole of the renal corpuscle?
proximal tubule
What is the entrance of afferent and exit of efferent arterioles?
Vascular pole
The glomerular basement membrane is actually
fused basal lamina (one central lamina densa sandwiched between two lamina rara.
Lamina rara contain what proteoglycan
heparan sulfate
Lemina densa contains what collagen type?
IR
Glomerular basement membrane is the site of
blood-urine barries in the kidney
Space between pedicels (processes of podocytes) is called the
filtration slit
What links adjacent pedicels?
filtration slit diaphragm
Sit in center of capillary loops, produce axial support for anastomosing glomerular capillaries. Sensitive to angiotensin II
Mesangial cells
Functions of mesangial cells
support of capillary loop system. Control blood flow through glomerular loops via angiotensin mechanism. Maintenance of glomerular basal lamina (phagocytosis of macromolecules lodged in GBM). Release and respond to growth factors. Able to divide
Begins at renal corpuscle's urinary pole. simple low columnar-to-cuboidal lining cells, tight junctions, brush border microvilli, basal infoldings.
proximal tubule
Reabsorption at the proximal tubule
100% of AA, glucose, small peptides, vitamins, HCO3-, 80% of sodium ions, 65% of water
Henle's loop: part which is permeable to salt and water
thin descending limb
Henle's loop: part which is impermeable to water
thick ascending limb
Extends from the proximal convoluted tubule in the cortex, dips into the medulla, and returns to the cortex where it empties into the distal convoluted tubule
Loop of Henle
Loop of Henle is a prerequisite for hypertonic urine and acts as a
countercurrent multiplier to establish an osmotic gradient in the interstitial fluid of the medulla
Tubular fluid delivered to the thin descending limb by the descending thick loop of Henle's loop is
isotonic, but proximal tubule reduces the volume from its raw state in Bowman's space
Maximum theoretical osmolarity is
1200 mOsm
Part of Henle's loop that has a more active role in setting up the gradient making medullary interstitium hypertonic
Ascending portion (impermeable to water). Contain Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in the apical membrane, which accounts for about 20% of the reabsorption of these ions from the tubular fluid.
Final segment of the nephron which lies in the cortex. Low cuboidal, no brush border. Folds of the basal plasma membrane
Distal tubule
Monitors MaCl concentration or flow rate of the tubular fluid
macula densa
Makes final adjustments of salt, water, and acid. Sensitive to aldosterone and ANP
distal convoluted tubule
Different embryologically from nephrons. Have distinct intercellular borders. Cuboidal in smaller tubules and columnar in larter ducts
Collecting ducts
Principle cells make up the
distal tubule
Helps to adjust pH in the collecting ducts
intercalated cells
Collecting ducts are under the influence of what hormone?
ADH
ADH causes
principle cells to become permeable to water through aquaporins.
Without ADH, urine is
hypotonic
Renal interstitium is
dense irregular collagenous connective tissue. Reticular and elastic fibers
Nerve fibers of the kidney are myelinated or unmyelinated
unmyelinated (sympathetic from the renal plexus)
papillary ducts are also known as the
ducts of Bellini
Area cribosa is the
sieve-like region near the ducts of Bellini
The portion of the apex of the pyramid that projects into the minor calyx is covered by
transitional epithelium (forms osmotic barrier that protects the surrounding tissues from the hypertonic urine and the urine from dilution)
Urine is propelling to the major calyx by
smooth muscle in lamina propria
In order to be filtered, a molecule must be
<69,000 daltons
not carry a high negative charge
Chief barrier to negatively charged macromolecules is
heparan sulfate
Hypertonicity of the medullary interstitium is due to
Na, Cl, and urea
Responds to hypoxia by releasing EPO
EPO-producing cell
Cells that respond to a decrease in renal arterial blood flow are
juxtaglomerular cells (release renin when blood volume is decreased)
Juxtaglomerular apparatus is located
near each renal corpuscle's vascular pole
Juxtaglomerular apparatus includes
juxtaglomerular cells, macula densa, and lacis cells (mesangial cells)
JG cells are
modified smooth muscle cells in the afferent arteriole's wall. Source of renin (proteolytic enzyme)
Angiotensis I is converted to angiotensin II by
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in the lungs
function of angiotensin II
vasoconstrictor, increases blood pressure, stimulates aldosterone production by adrenal cortex thereby increasing Na+ and Cl- reabsorption by the distal tubule.
Angiotensin II inhibits
renin release
Lumen of ureters are lined by
transitional epithelium
Muscularis of ureters are
inner circular and outer longitudinal
Urinary bladder is composed of
transitional epithelium
During bladder distention, large round dome-shaped cells become stretched and change their morphology to become
flattened
These help to maintain strong cohesion between epithelials of bladder
Desmosomes
Reduce leakage in urinary bladder (form blood-urine barrier in the urinary bladder)
tight junctions
Triangular region of the bladder whose mucosa is always smooth
trigone
Muscularis of the bladder is also called the
detrusor muscle. Thin inner longitudinal, thick middle circular, thin outer longitudinal. Middle circular layer forms the internal sphincter.
Male urethra has 3 main parts
1) prostatic (transitional epi)
2) membranous (stratified columnar or pseudostratified epi) - skeletal muscle for external sphincter
3) penile (stratified columnar or pseudostratified. Patches of squamous)
Female urethra is
shorter. carries only urine. lined by stratified squamous with patches of pseudostratified columnar. External sphincter is formed by the urogenital diaphragm.
Starling equation
P(Filtration) = P(capillary) - P(interstitial) - pi(capillary) - pi(interstitial)

P = hydrostatic pressure
pi = oncotic pressure
Hydrostatic pressure in capillaries depend on constriction of
precapillary sphincters
Nephron includes
glomerulus, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule
Proximal tubule primarily absorbs
solutes and water
Loop of Henle
absorbs solute and aid further water absorption
distal tubule and collecting duct
control final solute absorption and contribute to acid/base balance.
The kidney has a portal system of what two capillary beds in series?
glomerular (high hydrostatic pressure) and peritubular capillaries (low hydrostatic pressure)
arteriole between the glomerular and pertubular capillaries
efferent arteriole
In the kidney, the filtered fluid has to pass through
the epithelium of the nephron before returning to the curculation
Net filtration in the glomerular capillaries is how much higher than the amount filtered by all other capillaries combined?
6 fold
Filtration rate per 100g tissue is how much more in the kidneys than the rest of the body?
10,000X
Glomerular filtrate passes through 3 layers
endothelium, basement membrane, and filtration slits.
Effective pore size of the glomerulus
3-5 nm
Rate-limiting barrier in filtration is formed by the
basement membrane
The presence of negatively charged proteoglycans (heparan sulfate) reduces the effective pore size for
anions
Forces driving filtration are the same as in systemic capillaries, except for the absence of a significant
oncotic pressure in Bowman's space
Oncotic pressure of the glomerular capillaries rises because of the increase in plasma protein concentration resulting from the large
filtration fraction
What percent of water is removed in glomerular capillaries? Systemic capillaries?
20%
<0.1%
Glomerular filtration rate is determined by
hydraulic conductivity, area, hydrostatic pressure of capillaries, hydrostatic pressure of Bowman's space, and oncotic pressure of capillaries
2 ways filtration pressure can be increased
1) lowering the resistance of the afferent arteriole
2) increasing the resistance of the efferent arteriole
The low permeability of the tight junction enables tight epithelia to maintain
large gradients of ion concentration and osmolarity
A specific inhibitor of Na/K pumps, which blocks fluid absorption across renal tubule cells. (Can also be blocked by lowering temperature)
ouabain
The primary driving force of fluid reabsorption is
active Na+ absorption
Transport of Na+ requres
uptake across the apical membrane AND extrusion across the basolateral membrane
Sugars, amino acids, peptides, phosphate, carboxylic acids are cotransported using
Na+ gradient created by Na/K pumps
In proximal tubule cells, glucose is taken up by
Na+:monosaccharide cotransporters (SGLT2) which can be inhibited by phlorizin.
Normal glucose plasma concentration
5mM
Renal threshold for glucose
10mM
Renal diabetes mellitus is characterized by
glucosuria despite normal plasma glucose levels
Renal diabetes mellitus is a reduced ability
to absorb glucose in the proximal tubule
The thick ascending limb of Henle's loop actively absorbs
Cl- (through Na+:K+:2Cl-cotransporters and K+channels). Na absorption through paracellular pathways. Driving force through Na+/K+ pump.
Na+:K+:2Cl- cotransporter can be inhibited by
furosemide (Lasix)
The thick ascending limbs are impermeable to
water (resulting in marked hypotonicity of the tubular fluid). Refered to as the diluting segment.
Na+ reabsorption in the early distal tubule proceeds bia
electroneutral Na+:Cl--cotransporters. Inhibited by thiazide diuretics.
Na+ absorption in the late distal tubule and collecting duct is
electrogenic, involving apical membrane Na+ channels.
Two types of cells are present in the colecting duct
Principle cells and intercalated cells
These cells actively absorb Na+ and secrete K+
Principle cells
These cells secrete hydrogen ions or bicarbonate, depending on acid-base status
intercalated cells
Na+ reabsorption by the principle cells is inhibited by
amiloride (block apical Na+ channels)
Absorption of Na+ in the late distal tubule and collecting duct is regulated by
aldosterone (stimulates Na+ transport by increasing the number of Na+ channels and Na+/K+ pumps)
Sustained plasma pH outside of this range is incompatible with life.
7.0-7.8
90% of bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the
proximal tubule (with the remaining absorbed in the late distal tubule and collecting duct)
Bicarbonate absorption in intercalated cells is driven by
proton pumps in the apical membrane, which create a large pH gradient between the cell and tubule lumen.
Exit of bicarbonate across the basolateral membrane is mediated by an
anion exchanger
pH of the final urine reaches values as low as
4.5
Normal production of nonvolatile acids in the body
60 millimoles
For human plasma,
1) pK' = ?
2) [HCO3-] = ?
3) Pco2 = ?
4) Solubility coefficient of CO2
1) 6.1
2) 24mM
3) 40 mmHg
4) 0.03 mM/mmHg
pH of normal blood plasma is
7.40
Metabolic acid/base disorders
ketoacidosis (diabetes)
lacticacidosis (exercise, hypoxia)
bulemia (alkalosis)
Respiratory acid/base disorders
COPD (acidosis)
hyperventilation (alkalosis)
Step 1 - Determine if the blood is alkaline or acid
Normal range is 7.38-7.42
Step 2 - Determine if the main disorder is respiratory or metabolic.
If pH INVERSES pCO2, then it's respiratory
If pH FOLLOWS pCO2, then it's metabolic.
Step 3 - ONLY FOR RESPIRATORY - is it acute or chronic?
(acute) dpH = 0.08 (Pco2 - 40)/10
(chronic) dpH = 0.03 (Pco2 - 40)/10
Steps 4,5,6 are for
METABOLIC ONLY
Step 4 - Determine nature of a metabolic acidosis by calculating anion gap
anion gap = [Na] - [Cl] - [HCO3-]
Normal value for [Na]
140 mM
Normal value for [Cl]
104 mM
Normal value for [HCO3]
24 mM
Normal anion gap
12+-2 mM
Step 5 - Is the respiratory compensation of a metabolic disorder appropriate?
Pco2 (normal range) = [1.5(HCO3-)]+(8+-2)
Step 6 - Does the anion gap explain the whole dHCO3-?
Normal HCO3- = 24mM => HCO3-(actual) + (AG-12)
Default phenotypic sexual development is
femail
Two functions of the ovaries
gametogenesis and steroidogenesis
Production of gametes (female) is called
oogenesis
Developing gametes (female) are called
oocytes
Mature gametes (female) are called
ova
These hormones promote growth and maturation of the internal and external sex organs (female) and are responsible for the female secondary sexual characteristics that develop at puberty.
Estrogens (17-beta-estradiol, estrone, estriol)
Estrogens and progesterone both work on
brests (Progesterone -> Alveoli, Estrogen -> Ducts)
Prepare the internal sex organs, mainly the uterus, for pregnancy by promoting secretory changes in the endometrium. Also prepares the mammary gland for lactation by promoting proliferation of the mammary gland alveoli
Progesterone
The surface epithelium covering the ovaries is called the
germinal epithelium (low cuboidal)
Directly beneath if germinal epithelium is the
tunica albuginea. Poorly vascularized, dense irregular collagenous capsule. No septae or trabeculae.
The primordial germ cells are derived from
endoderm
This gives rise to almost three fourths of all ovarian tumors
germinal epithelium
True or False. The ovary has no ducts.
True
The ovary consists of three regions
Cortex, Medulla, Hilus
The most prominent cortical structures are
oocyte-containing ovarian follicles
Contains loose connective tissue, a mass of relatively large coiled blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves. Ovarian follicles are absent.
Medulla
Provide the microenvironment for the developing oocyte
ovarian follicles
Early stages of oogenesis occur during fetal life when mitotic divisions massively increase the number of
oogonia
The oocytes present at birth remain arrested in development at the
first meiotic division (dictyotene stage of meiosis I).
True or False. There are no new oocytes after birth.
True
Most of the 400,000 primary oocytes present at menarche do not complete maturation and are gradually lost through
atresia
atresia is mediated by
apoptosis of cells surrounding the oocyte
Everything in the ovary is derived from ... except for oocytes which is derived from ...
mesoderm
endoderm
Follicular cells are derived from
mesothelial epithelium
Primary oocyte is derived from
endoderm
Primordial follicles are composed of a single layer of
squamous follicular cells that surround the primary oocyte
Primordial follicles are separated from the ovarian stroma by a
basement membrane
Organelles of the oocyte include
single nucleolus, numerous mitochondria, abundant Golgi, rER but with few ribosomes, occasional annulate lamellae.
The nucleus of the primary oocyte becomes suspended in meiosis at the
diplotene stage of the first meiotic division. The suspended state is called dictyotene.
The nucleus of the primary oocyte contains
46 chromosomes (4N)
The flattened follicular cells completely surround the primary oocyte and are attached to each other by
desmosomes, gap junctions. NO TIGHT JUNCTIONS.
A follicle with only a single layer of cuboidal follicular cells encircling the oocyte
unilaminar primary follicle
A follicle with several layers of cells around the primary oocyte
multilaminar primary follicle (granulosa cells, collectively form the stratum granulosum, an avascular epithelium)
Grows to about 100 to 150 micrometers in diameter with an enlarged nucleus. Several Golgi, rER becomes rich with ribosomes, free ribosomes are abundant, and mitochondria are numerous. Numerous cortical granules containing hydrolytic enzymes are located in the oocyte's cytoplasm just below the plasma membrane
primary oocyte
Proliferative activity of granulosa cells is due to
activin, produced by the primary oocyte
An amorphous substance which separates the oocyte from the surrounding follicular cells, composed of three different glycoproteins, ZP1, ZP2, and ZP3
zona pellucida
Serves as the sperm receptor
ZP3
Oocyte and follicular cells communicated with each other through
gap junctions formed between microvilli of oocyte and filopodia of the follicular cells
Stromal cells begin to be organized around the multilaminar primary follicle, formin an inner
theca interna, composed mostly of a richly vascularized cellular layer
The theca cells produce an angiogenesis factor that promotes
development of blood vessels
The cells composing the theca interna posses
LH receptors in their plasma membranes
Theca interna cells produce
androstenedione which enters the granulosa cells, where it is converted by the enzyme cytochrome P450 aromatase into estradiol
Several intercellular spaces develop within the mass of granulosa cells and become filled with a fluid known as
follicular fluid
Once a multilaminar primary follicle displays the presence of follicular fluid, it is known as a
secondary follicle
Granulosa cells develop plasma membrane receptors for
FSH
Continued proliferation of the granulosa cells of the secondary follicle depends of
FSH released by basophils of the anterior pituitary
As more fluid is produced, individual droplets of follicular fluid coalesce to form a signle, fluid-filled chamber called
the antrum
7 layers of a mature Graafian follicle
1) theca externa
2) theca interna
3) antrum
4) stratum granulosum
5) primary oocyte
6) cumulus oophorus
7) corona radiata
These follicles undergo ovulation, with a diameter reaching 15-20 mm
Graafian follicles
Small group of granulosa cells that project out from the wall into the fluid-filled antrum that surrounds the oocyte is known as the
cumulus oophorus
Single layer of granulosa cells that immediately surrounds the primary oocyte is called the
corona radiata
Continued formation of liquor folliculi causes the cumulus oophorus composed of the primary oocyte, the corona radiata, and associated follicular cells to become
detached from its base to float freely within the liquor folliculi.
Each menstrual cycle stimulates approximately how many follicles?
20-40
FSH from the anterior pituitary binds to
granulosa cells
granulosa cells are stimulated to
divide, form cytochrome p450 aromatase, which converts androstenedione to estradiol, stimulate gap junction and LH receptor formation
LH from the anterior pituitary binds to receptors on the
theca interna cells
Theca interna cells form
androstenedione, which diffuses across the basement membrane of the follicle into granulosa cells where it is converted to estradiol
Estrogen synthesis by ovarian follicles involves two cell types
theca interna cells and granulosa cells
Effects of estradiol in the ovary (2)
1) increase mitosis of granulosa cells
2) stimulates formation of LH receptors on granulosa cells
Estradiol is carried to the anterior pituitary where it increases its sensitivity to
GnRH, which results in the LH surge that induces ovulation.
The LH surge causes (3)
1) release of meiosis-inducing substance (maturation promoting substance)
2) MIS(MPS) causes the Graafian follicle to complete its first meiotic division, resulting in secondary oocyte and first polar body
3) Newly formed secondary oocyte enters the second meiotic division and is arrested in metaphase
The process of releasing the secondary oocyte from the Graafian follicle is known as
ovulation
By the 14th day of menstruation, elevated blood estrogens cause (2)
1) Negative feedback inhibition shuts off FSH release by the anterior pituitary
2) Surge of LH released by basophils of the anterior pituitary
Several hours prior to ovulation, 7 things occur
1) Cumulus mass breaks up
2) Primary oocyte becomes secondary oocyte
3) Follicular fluid accumulates in the antrum, but NO increase in pressure.
4) Increased blood flow to ovaries results in edema (histamine, prostaglandins, and collagenase released near follicle)
5) Surface of ovary near follicle loses blood supply (stigma)
6) Connective tissue at stigma degenerates
7) Stigma ruptures releasing secondary oocyte and cumulus mass into oviduct
Ovulation is always on the
14th day BEFORE the BEGINNING of menstruation
Luteinization is the convertion of
remnants of the Graafian follicle into the corpus hemorrhagicum then into the corpus luteum.
Stages of fertilization and time frames
1) Fertilization (24-48 hours after ovulation)
2) Morula in uterine cavity (2-3 days after fertilization)
3) Implantation (6-7 days after fertilization)
Corpus hemorrhagicum is the
remainder of the Graafian follicle plus blood clot
Blood clot is removed from the corpus hemorrhagicum and LH converts it into
corpus luteum
Corpus luteum functions as an
endocrine gland
Corpus luteum is composed of
granulosa lutein cells (modified granulosa cells) and theca lutein cells (modified theca interna cells)
80% of the cell population of the corpus luteum
granulosa lutein cells
Granulosa lutein cells mostly produce
progesterone and convert androgens produced by the theca lutein cells into estrogens
Progesterone stimulates growth and secretory activity of the
uterine endometrium, preparing it for implantation.
The theca interna cells become modified into hormone-secreting cells known as
theca lutein cells
Theca lutein cells specialize in the production of
estrogens (some progesterone and androgens)
Progesterone and estrogens inhibit the secretion of
LH and FSH (prevents second ovulation)
If pregnancy, hCG maintains the corpus luteum for 3 months. hCG is secreted by the
placenta
If pregnancy does not occur, absence of hCG leads to degeneration of the
corpus luteum
Inherent lifespan of the corpus luteum
14 days
Corpus luteum is invaded by fibroblasts, becomes fibrotic, ceases to function, undergoes luteolysis and is phagocytosed by macrophages. Fibrous connective tissue forms in its place and is known as the
corpus albicans
Once a single mature follicle ruptures and releases its secondary oocyte and associated cells, the remaining follicles
undergo atresia and the resulting atretic follicles are eventually phagocytized by macrophages
Of all of the follicles present in the ovaries at menarche, what percentage develop to maturity and undergo ovulation?
0.1-0.2%
Last structure to be broken down during atresia
zona pellucida
The incidence of atresia is greatest in the
least mature follicles
The medulla of the premenstrual ovary has interstitial cells that secrete ... and hilus cells that secrete ...
estrogens
androgens
Oviducts are suspended by a thin mesentery known as the
mesosalpinx
Mesosalpinx is derived from the
broad ligament
4 regions of the oviduct
1) infundibulum (with fimbriae)
2) ampulla (site of fertilization)
3) isthmus
4) intramural part (within the wall of uterus)
Lumen of the oviduct is lined by
simple columnar epithelium (some ciliated, some secretory)
2 cells founds in the oviduct epithelium
1) Ciliated cells - beat towards uterus
2) Peg cells - secretes nutrition for sperm and ovum
Muscularis of oviduct (inner circular and outer longitudinal) propel oocyte via
peristaltic waves of contraction
Greatest amount of oviduct folding is in the
ampulla
Estrogen affects the oviduct and causes changes such ash
increased coliogenesis, secretory activity and height of the lining epithelial cells.
3 parts of the uterus
body, fundus, cervix
uterine wall of body and fundus is composed of
endometrium (serosa), myometrium (muscularis), and either adventitia or serosa
Outer serous layer or visceral peritoneum covering the uterus
perimetrium
Thicked subcompartment of the wall of the uterus
myometrium
Myometrial layers
Outer and inner longitudinal, plus richly vascular middle layer of circular (house arcuate arteries).
At the cervix, the myometrium is composed of
dense irregular connective tissue containing elastic fibers
Size and number of the myometrial muscle cells are related to
estrogen levels
Luminal surface of the endometrium is composed of
simple columnar (ciliated and nonciliated secretory)
In the endometrium, the epithelium forms simple tubular glands that invaginate the endometrial stroma and extend as far as
the myometrium
The structure of the endometrial glands vary as the endometrium pass through the phases of
the menstrual cycle
Subdivisions of the endometrium
stratum functionalis - structural changes during menstruation (lost)
stratum basalis - unaffected by menstruation (cell source)
Dual blood supply of the endometrium
Spiral arteries - supply functional layer
straight arteries - supply basal layer
The presence of endometrial tissue in the pelvis or in the peritoneal cavity is known as
endometriosis
Cervical canal lined by
mucus-secreting simple columnar epithelium
Cervical glands may become blocked and form
Nabothian cysts (not pathological)
This luteal hormone induces lysis of collagen in the cervical walls during parturition.
relaxin
During menstruation, cervical epithelium is
unaffected. However, mucus consistency changes during the cycle.
Cervical mucus is water, serous fluid during
proliferative phase
Cervical mucus is more viscous during
secretory phase and pregnancy
Hormone that regulates the changes in the viscosity of the cervical gland secretions
Progesterone
Abrupt transition between simple columnar and stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium at the
cervical-vaginal junction
Cervical carcinoma develops from
stratified squamous epithelium of the cervix
Three phases of the menstrual cycle
1) Proliferative - secretion of estrogen by growing follicles. Corresponds to follicular phase of the ovary
2) Secretory - secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum. Corresponds to the luteal phase of the ovary
3) Menstrual - decreased hormone production and decline in the corpus luteum.
Proliferative phase
days 5-14 (most variable). Functional layer becomes much thicker (MITOSIS of the surface endometrial epithelium and stroma).
During the proliferative, glycogen accumulates
in the basal cytoplasm of the glandular epithelial cells
Ovulation occurs on day
14 of a 28 day cycle
The secretory phase
(days 15-24) begins the day after ovulation and is less variable in duration. Divided into early and late stage. Corresponds to the luteal phase of the ovary.
The uterus is prepared for implantation during the
Early secretory phase
Most of the increase of the endometrium in the secretory phase is due to
edema
During early secretory phase, endometrial glands have a
tortuous SACCULATED appearance, due to the accumulation of secretions.
In the early secretory phase, glycogen accumulates in the glandular epithelial cells
basal cytoplasm, but then shifts to the apical cytoplasm.
Late secretory (premenstrual) phase
(day 25-28) AKA ischemic phase. Endometrium shrinks due to loss of interstitial fluid. Blow flow is impaired causing necrosis of the functional layer
Menstrual phase
(days 1-4). Reduced levels of progesterone and estrogen.
During menstruation, approximately how much blood is lost?
35mL
Vaginal discharge during menstruation consists of
blood, uterine fluid, and sloughing stromal and epithelial cells from the stratum functionalis.
Blood clotting during menstruation is inhibited by
fibrinolysin
Disintegration of the endometrium appears to be the result of impairment of its blood supply that is closely related to
decreased progesterone secretion by the degenerating corpus luteum
A solid mass of ~16 cells
morula
hollow ball of cells
blastocyst
Outer layer of trophoblast (fetal tissue)
syncytiotrophoblast
Function of syncytiotrophoblast
exchanges between maternal and fetal blood must occur across it
Simple cuboidal epithelium deep to the syncytiotrophoblast. Dividing cells of this contribute to the overlying syncytiotrophoblast
cytotrophoblast
Region of the chorion which is the fetal component of the placenta is called the
chorion frondosum
The layer of the placenta from which the villi project is called the
chorionic plate
Maternal blood flows through the intervillous spaces, and the blood is in contact with the
surface of villi (fetal villi-maternal blood interface)
Villi anchored to the decidua basalis are called
anchoring villi
Villi suspended in maternal blood of the lacunae are known as
free villi
Formed by the syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast and associated connective tissue
chorion
Placental villi arise from the
chorionic plate
Between the myometrium and developing embryo
decidua basalis
Exchange of gases and metabolites occurs between fetal and maternal blood across the
placental barrier (sinusoidal capillaries, no tight junctions, no paracellular route)
Cells and layers across which material must be transported (6)
1) syncytiotrophoblast
2) cytotrophoblast
3) basal lamina of the trophoblast
4) connective tissue of the villus
5) basal lamina of the placental capillary
6) endothelium of the capillary
Molecules that passively diffuse across placenta
O2, CO2, fatty acids, steroids, electrolytes
Molecules that diffuse by facilitation across placenta
glucose
Molecules that are actively transported across the placenta
amino acids
Molecules that cross the placenta by receptor-mediated endocytosis
Insulin, IgG
Other molecules that can cross the placental barrier
viruses (rubella, HIV), alcohol, drugs
Placental hormones
hCG, progesterone, estrogens (with fetoplacental unit), human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS) - growth-promoting and lactogenic hormone, human chorionic thyrotropin (hCT), relaxin, leptin
decidual cells enlarge and synthesize
prolactin and prostaglandins
Mucous tissue in the umbilical cord is referred to as
Wharton's jelly
Vaginal epithelium
stratified squamous nonkeratinized (langerhans cells present). Accumulate glycogen under the influence of estrogens.
Lactic acid in the vagina is formed by
vaginal bacterial flora
True or False. Vagina does not contain any glands.
True
Sexual stimulation increases vaginal secretions which is
derived from transudate from thin-walled veins in the lamina propria combined with secretions from cervical glands.
Vaginal muscularis consists of
inner circular and outer longitudinal smooth muscle, and a ring of skeletal muscle circles the opening of the vagina.
The vestibule between the labia minora receives secretions of the
Bartholin glands
True or False. Mammary glands are modified sweat glands.
True
There are 15-20 lobes in each gland and each lobe opens onto the apex of the nipple via
a lactiferous duct
Dilated lactiferous duct for milk storage
lactiferous sinus
Promotes the development of mammary ducts
estrogens
Promotes the development of secretory alveoli
progesterone
Milk contains
minerals, electrolytes, carbohydrates (including lactose), IgA, proteins (including caseins), and lipids
Two types of breast cancer
ductal carcinoma (80-90%) and lobular carcinoma
Milk ejection reflex is stimulated by (3)
1) mechanical stimulation (afferent impulses to hypothalamus)
2) Oxytocin (contraction of myoepithelial cells)
3) Prolactin (production of milk)
Lipids in milk are secreted by
apocrine secretion
Proteins in milk are secreted by
merocrine secretion
interstitial cells of Leydig secrete
androgens (especially testosterone)
conversion of testosterone to DHT occurs via
5-alpha-reductase
Sertoli cells secrete
inhibin and androgen-binding hormone
Extension of the peritoneum carried through the inguinal canal by the descending testis which covers the anteriolateral surface of the testes.
tunica vaginalis
thick fibrous capsule of dense irregular collagenous connective tissue with some smooth muscle while covers the testis
tunica albuginea
The tunica albuginea thickens around the posterior side to form the
mediastinum testis
The inner surface of the capsule is a thin vascular loose connective tissue layer called the
tunica vasculosa
Each lobule of the testis contains 1-4 highly coiled
seminiferous tubules (each 30-70cm in length). In total about 0.3 miles of tubule dedicated to sperm production.
loose connective tissue between the seminiferous tubules contains small clusters of
interstitial cells of Leydig (plus fenestrated and lymphatic capillaries)
stratified epithelium surrounding the seminiferous tubules
seminiferous epithelium
true epithelial cells of the seminiferous tubules
sertoli cells
Everything in the testis is derived from mesoderm except
germ cells (endoderm)
Germ cell differentiation
Spermatogonia->primary spermatocytes->secondary spermatocytes->spermatid->sperm
Sertoli cells are resistant to
heat,x-rays,infection and malnutrition
Most numerous epithelial cells before puberty
Sertoli cells
Tall columnar epithelial cells that line the lumen of the seminiferous tubule
Sertoli cells
Sertoli cells have plasma membrane receptors for
FSH
Sertoli-germ cell junctions
desmosomes
Sertoli-basal lamina junctions
hemidesmosomes
Sertoli-Sertoli junctions
Gap and tight junctions
Difference in Sertoli-Sertoli tight junctions from regular tight junctions
independent of the zonula adherens, includes more than 50 parallel fusion lines in adjacent membranes, stimulated by FSH.
Sertoli-Sertoli tight junctions setup 2 compartments
1) Basal - cell are in mitosis and early stage of meiosis
2) Adluminal - meiosis and spermiogenesis (primary and secondary spermatocytes and spermatids are restricted to this compartment)
"Passing through" tight junctions by the primary spermatocytes is accomplished by
a tight junction forming on the basal side of the spermatocyte while the apical tight junction breaks down.
Sertoli-Sertoli tight junctions also form
blood-testis barrier
The adluminal compartment contains a high concentration of
ABP (and therefore testosterone). Important for gamete development.
Functions of Sertoli cells
1) Blood-testis barrier
2) Supporting cells - metabolic exchange medium for germ cells
3) Phagocytic - residual bodies and failed germ cells
4) Exocrine (testicular fluid, transferrin, ABP) and endocrine (inhibin, anti-mullerian hormone in embryo)
True or False. Prior to puberty, only spermatogonia exist.
True
Meiosis begins...
at puberty
The process of producing sperm requires
FSH, LH, prolactin, testosterone. 64 days
Three phases of spermatogenesis
1) spermatogonial phase (spermatocytogenesis)
2) spermatocyte phase (meiosis)
3) spermatid phase (spermiogenesis)
What germ layer are spermatogonia derived from?
Endoderm
Three types of spermatogonia
1) Type A dark spermatogonia (reserve cells)
2) Type A pale spermatogonia (replicating population)
3) Type B spermatogonia
Type A dark cells can give rise to
Type A dark and type A pale cells (self-renewing)
Type A pale cells are
true stem cells induced by testosterone (ABP) to proliferate
Type A pale cells produced from the division of a type A dark cell remains
attached to one another by a cytoplasmic bridge (likewise with daughters of subsequent mitosis)
After several divisions, type A pale cells differential into
type B cells
Type B cells are
progenitor cells (non-self-renewing), differentiate into primary spermatocytes.
haploid number of primary spermatocyte
4N
Primary spermatocytes remain in the
adluminal compartment
DNA composition of type A pale spermatogonia
46 (2N)
DNA composition of type B spermatogonia
46 (4N)
DNA composition of primary spermatocyte after first meiotic division
23 (2N)
DNA composition of secondary spermatocyte after second meiotic division
23 (1N)
Process by which early spermatids differentiate into late spermatids
spermiogenesis
During the transformation of spermatids into sperm
accumulate hydrolytic enzymes, rearrange and reduce the number of organelles, form flagella, shed some cytoplasm
4 phases of spermiogenesis
1) Golgi phase
2) cap phase
3) acrosomal phase
4) maturation phase
Where to morphological changes of spermatids occur?
while the spermatids are embedded in invaginations of the luminal surface of the Sertoli cells
During the golgi phase, hydrolytic enzymes are formed in the
rough ER, modified by Golgi, packaged by trans-golgi->small, membrane bound, PAS-positive granules called proacrosomal granules
What determines the anterior pole in the developing sperm?
acrosomal vesicle
The cap phase of spermiogenesis is characterized by
the formation of the acrosomal cap, and the migration of the paired centrioles from the juxtanuclear region to the newly established posterior pole of the spermatid where it initiates synthesis of the axoneme of the flagellum.
During the acrosomal phase
the spermatid reorients itself so that the head points toward the basal lamina of the seminiferous tubule. The centrioles return to attach to the posterior nucleus, and form the neck of the spermatid.
The maturation phase of spermiogenesis is characterized by
pinching off of the excess cytoplasm as residual bodies that are phagocytized by Sertoli cells. The cytoplasmic bridges that have characterized the developing gametes since the type A pale spermatogonia remain with the residual bodies.
The mature spermatids are released from the surface of the Sertoli cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule which is a process known as
spermiation (100 million per day per testis)
The middle piece of the sperm tail is filled with
mitochondria
The acrosome covers the anterior two-thirds of the nucleus. The acrosome is a highly specialized
lysozome.
The acrosome contains enzymes including
hyaluronidase, acid phosphatase, and a trypsin-like protease known as acrosin.
Binding of a sperm to the 1)... molecule of the zona pellucida triggers the 2)
1) ZP3
2) acrosomal reaction
Transport of the newly released sperm (nonmotile)
seminiferous tubules->straight tubules->rete testis->efferent ductules->epididymal duct.
Most of the fluid secreted in the seminiferous tubules is reabsorbed in the
efferent ductules
Sperm develop motility as they poass through the 4-5 meters of the highly coiled
epididymal duct
Sperm are propelled to the distal portion of the epididymal duct by
peristaltic contractions of smooth muscle that surrounds the efferent ductules
Where are sperm stored before ejaculation?
distal portion of the epididymal duct
Mature sperm can live for ... in the male genital duct system
several weeks
Sperm only survive ... in the female reproductive system
2-3 days
Sperm acquire the ability to fertilize an ovum only after existing some time in the female tract, by a process called
capacitation
6 factors that affect spermatogenesis
1) dietary deficiencies
2) infections
3) administered hormones
4) toxins
5) irradiation
6) elevated testicular temperature
Temperature within the scrotum
2-3 degrees C below body temp (essential for spermatogenesis)
Blood supply to the testis is through the
testicular artery
Testicular artery is surrounded by the
pampiniform plexus of veins which forms a countercurrent heat exchanger
Spermatic chord is made up by
artery, veins, nerves, lymphatics, and the vas deferens
Cremaster muscle is continuous with the
internal oblique
Leydig cells (Nondividing in adult) are derived from
mesoderm
Leydig cells differentiate early in fetal life and secrete
testosterone
At puberty, Leydig cells are exposed to
LH stimulation (from anterior pituitary) and again differentiate into androgen-secreting cells that produce testosterone.
In the adult, secretion of testosterone is essential for the
maintenance of spermatogenesis
Leydig cells are acidophilic. What accounts for this?
They are hormone-secreting, so they have numerous lipid droplets, mitochondria with tubular cristae, and an elaborate smooth ER.
There are no secretory granules in the Leydig cells because...
testosterone is released constituitively
GnRH from the hypothalamus binds to anterior pituitary basophils stimulating the release of
LH.
LH is carried to the testis in the blood stream and binds to
LEYDIG CELLS (causes testosterone production, negative feedback to hypothalamus and anterior pituitary)
Testosterone stimulates
SERTOLI CELLS, which is a requirement for support of sperm production (also secondary sex characteristics).
Prolactin binds to
LEYDIG CELLS and enhances the stimulatory effect of LH on Leydig cells
GnRH from the hypothalamus stimulates release of
FSH from the anterior pituitary basophils.
FSH exclusively binds to
SERTOLI CELLS to stimulate ABP production.
ABP binds and concentrates
androgens in the lumen of the tubules
FSH also stimulates SERTOLI CELLS to produce
inhibin, which inhibits the FSH release from the anterior pituitary.
Intratesticular ducts include
straight tubules, rete testis, and proximal portion of efferent ductules.
First half of the straight tubules is solely lined by
Sertoli cells
Second half of the straight tubules is lined by
simple cuboidal epithelium
A complex series of interconnecting channels in the highly vascular connective tissue of the mediastinum testes
rete testis (low cuboidal epithelium)
Approximately 15 short efferent ductules leave the testis by penetrating the tunica albuginea and connect the rete testis to the proximal portion of the
epididymal duct
Efferent ductules are lined with two types of cells
1) tall columnar ciliated
2) short cells (w/ microvilli)
Amount of testicular fluid reabsorbed in the efferent ductules
95% (this causes a downstream current which moves sperm)
Contraction of the fibromuscular coat help to move sperm from the efferent ductules to the
epididymis
distal portions of the efferent ductules, epididymal duct, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra make up the
excurrent duct system
The epididymal duct is a very long, highly coiled tube in which sperm undergo maturation, and is contained within the
epididymis
The coiled epididymal duct measures
4-6 meters in length
The epididymal duct is lined with
pseudostratified epithelium, consisting of tall columnar principal cells and short basal cells.
Basal cells are
stem cells, synthesize glutathione S-transferase
Principal cells are characterized by
long, apical stereocilia
Principal cells are secretory with well-developed rough ER, large Golgi. They secrete
1) sialic acid and glycoproteins - added to sperm glycocalyx
2) organic acids - keep sperm nonmotile
3) glycerophosphocholine - inhibits capacitation
Principle cells phagocytize
any sperm that degenerate in the duct
Principle cells absorb
HCO3-, helps to keep a low lumen pH
Smooth muscle of the epididymis
1) Head and body - thin layer of circular muscle
2) Tail - inner longitudinal, middle circular, outer longitudinal = continuous with vas deferens
Sperm entering the head of the epididymis are not capable of fertilization, but
once they reach the tail where they are stored, they are.
In the head region, the smooth muscle is not innervated (spontaneous contractions), but in the tail region, the smooth muscle becomes heavily innervated by
sympathetic fibers (all muscle cells are directly innervated)
Vas deferens connects to which part of the urethra?
Prostatic
The thick smooth muscle of the vas deferens is composed of what three layers? Innervation and pattern?
inner and outer longitudinal, circular middle. Controlled by sympathetics in multiunit pattern.
As the ampulla of the vas deferens approaches the prostate, it is joined by the
seminal vesicle
True or False. The ejaculatory ducts have no muscle coat.
True
The power for ejaculation comes primarily from
smooth muscle of the vas deferens and caudal portion of the epididymis.
Accessory genital glands include
seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral glands. All androgen dependent
True or False. Seminal vesicles are one continuous, highly folded, sheet of epithelium
True
Seminal vesicle epithelium is
pseudostratified columnar. Contains tall nonciliated (secretory) and short cells
The secretory product of the seminal vesicles constitutes
50-70% of the volume of semen.
Pale yellow color of semen is due to
flavins (lipochrome pigment). Causes an intense green fluorescence with UV light.
Seminal fluid contains
fructose (and other sugars), seminal vesicle-specific proteins, amino acids, ascorbic acid, and prostoglandins.
Prostate gland is derived from
endoderm
The formation, synthesis, and release of prostatic fluid is regulated by
dihydrotestosterone (5-alpha-reductase)
Prostatic secretions are rich in
zinc, citric acid
Prostatic epithelium also secretes
acid phosphatase, prostate-specific acid phosphatase (PAP), prostate-specific antigen (PSA), fibrinolysin
Typical prostatic cancer is in the
main gland
Bulbourethral glands are known as the
Cowper's glands
Cowper's glands secrete
galactose, galactosamine, galacturonic acid, sialic acid, and methylpentose
Responsible for preseminal fluid
Root of the penis consists of
two crura, bulb, and associated muscles
Body of the penis consists of
two dorsal masses of erectile tissue (corpora cavernose) and a ventral mass of erectile tissue surrounding the penile urethra(corpus spongiosum)
Corpus spongiosum ends distally in the
glans penis
Dense fibroelastic layer that binds the three vacernosa together
tunica algubinea
Foreskin is known as the
prepuce
Erectile tissues of the corpora cavernosa receive blood from branches of the
dorsal and deep arteries of the penis
Venous drainage occurs by the
deep dorsal vein
When the penis is flaccid, much of the arterial blood flow is diverted into
AV anastomoses that connect the branches of the deep arteries of the penis to veins that deliver their blood into the deep dorsal vein.
In the FLACCID STATE, the AV SHUNT is
OPEN (blood flow bypasses the vascular spaces of the erectile tissue)
The shift in blood flow that leads to erection is controlled by the
parasympathetics
The parasympathetic impulses trigger local release of ... which cases relaxation of smooth muscles of the branches of the deep and dorsal arteries, increasing blood flow into the organ.
nitric oxide. Simultaneously, the AV anastomoses undergo construction, diverting the blood flow into the helicine arteries.
During erection, the AV SHUNT is
CLOSED (helicine arteries dilate and blood flows into the cavernous spaces/
Two chemicals control erection
nitric oxide and phosphodiesterase
cGMP, produced in response to NO, causes
relaxation of the smooth muscle cell wall.
What enzyme is produced to destroy cGMP and terminated erection
phosphodiesterase
Emission is a sequential release of products into the urethra. The order of release...
1) Bulbourethral glands add lubricant
2) Prostate adds enzymes
3) Testicular ducts (tail of epididymis and vas deferens) add sperm
4) Seminal vesicles add nutrients
Ejaculation is regulated by the
sympathetic nervous system
Impulses from the sympathetic nervous system trigger
1) contraction of the smooth muscles of the genital ducts and accessory glands forces the semen into the urethra
2) The sphincter muscle of the urinary bladder contracts, preventing the release of urine
3) The bulbospongiosus muscle, which surrounds the proximal end of the bulb of the penis, undergoes powerful, rhythmic contractions, resulting in forceful expulsion of semen from the urethra.
Ejaculation is followed by
cessation of parasympathetic inpulses to the vascular supply of the penis.
Volume of ejaculate
3ml. 20% of sperm are morphologically abnormal, and nearly 25% are nonmotile.
sterile male has a sperm count of less than
20 million sperm/ml
sperm maturation happens in the
epididymis
sperm capacitation happens in the
female reproductive tract
Sperm released from the testis and entering the epididymal duct have circular motion. After a 2-week maturation process, sperm acquire
forward motility
Sperm head consists of three components
condensed nucleus, acrosome, plasma membrane
The acrosome consists of 3 things
outer acrosomal membrane, inner acrosomal membrane, hydrolytic enzymes (hyaluronidase and acrosin)
Three main events during fertilization
1) acrosomal reaction
2) sperm binding to ZP3
3) sperm-oocyte fusion
Hyaluronidase dissolves
intercellular material between the cells of the corona radiata
Binding to ZP3 causes
release of acrosin
Acrosin facilitates
penetration of the zona by the sperm head
Sperm binding induces Ca+-dependent exocytosis of the
cortical granules
Plasma membrane fusion is induced by
disintegrin
Cortical reaction prevents
polyspermy
Fast component of cortical reaction
change in resting membrane potential of the oocyte (only lasts a few minutes)
Slow component of cortical reaction
release of contents of cortical granules into perivitelline space (hydrolyzes ZP3)
Entry of sperm nucleus triggers
secondary oocyte to resume second meiotic division (results in ovum and second polar body)
Femail pronucleus and male pronucleus fuse forming
zygote (46,2N)
Unfertilized egg lacks
centriole (provided by sperm)
Window of time between ovulation and fertilization is about
24 hours
Meiosis is termed
reduction division
The first meiotic division is characterized by
a prolonged prophase
During the first meiotic division the centromere does not
divide
During the second meiotic division the chromosomes become arranged in a
metaphase plate and the centromeres divide
In the male, 4 cells are produced from 2 meiotic divisions (all viable sperm). How many in the female?
3 cells, but only 1 viable egg
Stages of meiosis
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I
Prophase II
Metaphase II
Anaphase II
Telophase II
Stages of Prophase I (meiosis)
1) leptotene
2) zygotene
3) pachytene
4) diplotene
5) diakinesis
"Let's Zip & Package Diploid DNA"
In this stage, sister chromatids appear as single rather than double threads. The telomeres of the chromosomes are attached to the nuclear envelope
leptotene
In this phase, the homologous chromosomes pair (point-for-point correspondence along their length), process called synapsis, forming synaptonemal complex. Resulting structure of this phase is a tetrad.
zygotene
In this stage, chromosomes pack and genetic exchange, called crossing over, occurs between chromatids (can occur between sister and nonsister)
pachytene
In this stage, the synaptonemal complex disassembles and the bomologous chromosomes separate from each other except at two of more specific connecting sites call chiasmata (where crossing over occured)
diplotene
In oocytes, meiosis is arrested at this stage until puberty.
diplotene
This refers to suspended diplotene state
dictyotene stage
In this phase, sister chromatids have beens attached via their centromeres as well the chiasmata. The nuclear envelope disappears
diakinesis
In this stage, the bivalent chromosomes are arranged on an equitorial plate. Each centromere is attached to spindle fibers
Metaphase I
In this state, the chromosomes (2 chromatids each) move to opposite poles. The chiasmata separate.
Anaphase I
In this phase, dyads lie near the poles. Cytokinesis takes place. AKA reduction division because haploid number is reduced.
telophase
There is a short interphase between
first and second meiotic division, during which neither DNA synthesis nor centriole duplication takes place.
During this phase, nuclear envelope breaks down, chromosomes move equatorially. No crossing over!
Prophase II
Chromatids are aligned on the equatorial plate and centromeres device and attach to spindle fibers
metaphase II
Chromatids (daughter chromosomes) move to opposite poles
anaphase II
Nuclear envelope reforms, uncoiling of chromosomes, development of daughter cells
telophase II
Chromosome configuration through the stages of meiosis
46,2N->46,4N->23,2N->23,1N
Aneuploidy refers to
any deviation in the normal number of chromosomes (detected by karyotyping). Includes trisomy and monosomy.
Trisomy 21. Characterized by mental retardation, short stature, stubby appendages, congenital malformations.
Down's syndrome
Associated with aneuploidy of the sex chromosomes (XXY). Characterized by infertility, variable degrees of masculinization, and small testes.
Klinefelter's syndrome
Assiociated with monosomy of the sex chromosomes (XO). Characterized by short stature, sterility. Compatible with life in contrast to other types of monosomy, which are lethal.
Turner's syndrome