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759 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Generally, nervous, connective, and muscular tissues is derived from?
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ectoderm (nervous), mesoderm (connective), and mesoderm (muscular)
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All tubular organs are lined with what?
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epithelium
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Trabecula are
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long beams of connective tissue
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Capsule
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dense connective tissue surrounding compact organs.
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Follicle
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a bag, usually without outlet, lined by epithelium as in the thyroid.
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Twelve major systems
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Cardiovascular
Endocrine Lymphatic Lymphoid/Immune Skelatal/Articular Urinary Nervous Digestive Respiratory Reproductive Integumentary Muscular |
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Epithelium exposed to the external environment is derived from what? (oral and nasal mucosae, cornea, epidermis of skin, glands of the skin, mammary glands)
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ectoderm
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Epithelium lining the gut (liver, pancrease, lining of respiratory and gastrointestinal tract.
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endoderm
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Epithelium lining the urogenital system, cardiovascular system, and serous cavities
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mesoderm
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Apical specializations? Basal specializations?
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(microvilli, cillia). (basal infoldings, hemidesmosomes).
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Epithelial tissue is vascular or avascular?
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avascular
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Typically, in IFs found in epithelia are made of what (exceptions: blood vessels and serous cavities which are)?
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Keratin (vimentin)
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What is mesothelium?
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Epithelium lining closed cavities (pleura, pericardium, peritoneum).
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Simple squamous is found...
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pulmonary alveoli, loop of Henle, parietal layer of Bowman's capsule, blood and lymphatic vessels, pleural and peritoneal cavities.
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Simple squamous epithelium is suitable for
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exchange of gases, metabolites, nutrients, and fluids (not for wear and tear areas).
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Endothelium and mesothelium are derived from what? and contain what?
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mesoderm and contain vimentin IFs.
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Simple cuboidal
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lines kidney tubules, thyroid follicles, and ducts of secretory units. Suitable for secretion and absorption.
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Simple columnar
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lines GI tract from stomach to anus, gallbladder, some glandular ducts, and parts of reproductive tracts.
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Ciliated simple columnar
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oviduct, uterus, efferent ductules, and small bronchi.
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Nonciliated simple columnar
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Small and large intestine, Have striated border microvilli, goblet cells. Also found in gallbladder and large ducts of glands.
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Stratified squamous keratinized
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found of dry surfaces. Epidermis of the skin. No nuclei found in outermost layers. Superficial layers are composed of dead cells whose neclei and cytoplasm have been replaced with keratin.
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Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
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wet surfaces such as the oral cavity, esophagus and vagina, and covers the tongue.
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Stratified cubiodal
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RARE. ducts of sweat glands. protection but some limited secretion.
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Stratified columnar
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RARE. Large excretory ducts of some glands. parts of the urethra and part of the conjunctiva of the eye.
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Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
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trachea, bronchi. goblet cells and cilia
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Pseudostratified nonciliated columnar
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epididymis. Stereocilia.
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Stratified epithelium never contains what?
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Cilia and stereocilia
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Transitional
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ureters and urinary bladder
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Neuroepithelial cells
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adapted to secrete chemical messengers. Sensory taste cells, mechanoreceptors of inner ear.
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Malignant tumor from epithelia
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Carcinoma
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Malignant tumors arising from glandular epithelia
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adenocarcinoma
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Metaplasia
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transformation of a cell from one type to another
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Dysplasia
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degenerative changes
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anaplasia
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completely disorganized
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Cytokines
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signaling molecules that perform cell-to-cell communication.
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Exocrine glands
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empty their products into ducts that empty onto the surface of an epithelium.
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Endocrine glands
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have no ducts. Secretions enter interstitial fluid then diffuse into the bloodstream.
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Only example of unicellular gland
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goblet cells
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Types of secretory units
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Tubular (tubular in shape), alveolar (rounded w/ large lumen), acinar (rounded w/ narrow lumen), tubuloalveolar, tubuloacinar
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Serous secretion product
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watery, protein-rich often high in enzyme activity. pancreas.
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mucus secretion product
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rich in glycoprotein. PAS+. Product exocytosed and hydrated to mucin. Goblet cells and mucosal glands of tongue and palate.
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Mixed glands
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contain mucous acini and serous acini. Mixed seromucous product. May posses serous demilunes. Submandibular and sublingual glands.
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Sebaceous glands look like...
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cellophane bag of marshmallows with dots in them.
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Capsule
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dense irregular connective tissue of type I collagen.
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Loose connective tissue
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type III collagen
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Myoepithelial cells
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stellate cells surrounding secretory portions of salivary, sweat, lacrimal and mammary glands, and glands along the bronchi and esophagus. Located between the lasal lamina and lasal pole of the secretory cells. Accelerate expulsion of secretory product into duct system.
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True or False. Connective tissues are highly vascular and supplied with nerves.
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True
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Parent tissue of all varieties of connective tissue?
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Mesenchyme
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Intermediate filament of all mesenchymal cells
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Vimentin
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Mesenchymal cells are attached by
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gap junctions
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Predominant fiber type in the ECM.
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Type III collagen
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Mucous connective tissue
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protects against pressure. abundant hyaluronic acid ground substance. umbilical cord and nucleus pulposus.
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Three groups of derivatives of mesenchymal cells
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1) Connective Tissue Proper
2) Hematopoietic tissues 3) Skelatal tissue |
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Connective tissue proper are classified according to:
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1) Relative density of collagen (loose vs. dense)
2) Predominant cell type 3) Predominant fiber types other than collagen 4) Location |
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Loose connective tissue - areolar
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embedding medium of many structures, superficial fascia
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Dense collagenous connective tissue
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Fibers: Type I Collagen.
Cells: Fibroblasts. Regular - parallel bundles. Tendons, ligaments, aponeuroses, deep fascia Irregular - bundles but not parallel. Dermis of skin, capsules of many organs, septa and trabeculae of many organs. |
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Adipose
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hypodermis, mesentaries, omenta, around kidneys
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Lamina propria
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mucosa of digestive, respiratory, urinary and genital tracts. Cells that participate in the immune response are found here.
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Myxedema
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Edema caused by excess GAGs in the ECM.
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Effects of cortisol on CT?
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Inhibits CT fiber synthesis and retards local inflammatory and immune responses.
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Areolar connective tissue ground substance
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hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate, and keratan sulfate.
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Areolar connective tissues is found
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suspending vessels and nerves, supporting epithelium, and fills in spaces between other tissues. Well-vascularized conveys oxygen and nutrients to avascular epithelia.
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Eight resident connective tissue cells
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Fibroblasts
Macrophages Endothelial cells Pericytes Vascular smooth muscle cells Adipocytes Mast cells Plasma cells |
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Fibroblasts
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Most common cells in CT proper. Limited mobility, limited mitosis.
Nonpolarized constitutive secretory cell. Make procollagen, proelastin, GAGs, all ECM components. Require fibroblast growth factor(FGF) and transforming growth factor (TGF-beta) to make all components of ECM. |
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Fibrocytes
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immobile, inactive. May revert to fibroblast.
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Myofibroblasts
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have bundles of actin and dense bodies similar to smooth muscle cells. Abundant in wound healing
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2 Macrophages types
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Free (wandering)
Fixed (histiocytes) |
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Four main characteristics of macrophages
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1) Common origin - all from monocytes
2) Peculiar morphology - lots of lysosomes, large Golgi and RER 3) Highly phagocytic (Non-specific, dead and dying cells, specific - antibody) 4) Fc receptor sites on PM |
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Macrophages of connective tissue have 3 major functions
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1) Turn over senescent fibers and ECM material
2) Presentation of antigens to lymphocytes 3) Secretion of cytokines (IL-1, TNF-alpha), chemotactic factors, and enzymes (lysozyme, collagenase) |
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Endothelial cells
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Develop from mesenchyme. Vimentin and desmin, NOT KERATIN.
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2 types of capillaries
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Continuous (no pores), fenestrated (pores)
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Pericytes
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functions like smooth muscle.
associated with continuous capillaries and postcapillary venules. |
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Vascular smooth muscle cells
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Occur in vessels, except capillaries and postcapillary venules (where it's place is taken by pericytes).
IFs are vimentin and desmin. |
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2 types of adipocytes
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Unilocular and Multilocular
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Unilocular adipocytes
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contain nonmembrane-bound lipid droplet. Few mitochondria, sparce RER, but many ribosomes. ONLY CT surrounded by basal lamina. Precursors are lipoblasts.
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Multilocular adipocytes
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numerous lipid droplets. numerous mitochondria. Thermogenin (UCP-1) permits proton flow across membrane producing heat. Single nucleus, lack RER, but have SER. Less free ribosomes. Develop before birth from mesenchyme.
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White adipose
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lipoprotein lipase - takes off triglycerides from chylomicrons for uptake. Leptin is produced (appetite suppressant).
Packing in potential spaces. |
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Brown adipose
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multilocular adipocytes. axilla, neck, mediastinum, kidney hilus.
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Adipose tissue
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richly vascularized, innervated via sympathetics. Epinephrine promotes lipolysis via hormone-sensitive lipase. Insulin stimulates uptake of glucose and conversion to triglycerides.
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Mast cells
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numerous in dermis and lamina propria of digestive and respiratory systems. 20-30 micrometers. life = months to years.
Secretory cell (paracrine). |
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Mast cell products
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Primary [granules] (Fast acting 1-5min):
Histamine - increase vascular permeability, hayfever, anaphylaxis Eosinophil chemotactic factor - attracts eosinophils to infection Neutrophil chemotactic factor - attracts neutrophils to infection Secondary [from membrane lipids] (5-30min): Leukotrienes C4 and D4 - increase vascular permeability and cause bronchospasms Prostaglandin D2 - causes bronchospasms. |
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Mast cell activation
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1) exposure to antigen elicits IgE antibody formation -> bind to Fc receptor -> cell sensitization
2) exposure to same antigen causes binding on IgE on mast cell surface, causes crosslinking of IgE antibodies and clustering of receptors. 3) Cross-linking and clustering activate membrane-bound receptor coupling factors, which causes the release of primary and secondary mediators. 4) Release of primary mediators is effected by activation of adenylate cyclase. 5) Increase of cAMP activates release of Ca++, causing secretory granules of fuse with each other as well as plasma membrane (compound exocytosis). |
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Plasma cells
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20 micrometers, live 2-3 weeks
basophilic, RER large Golgi oval, spherical "clockface" nucleus produce and secrete antibodies precursor is B lymphocyte. |
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Neutrophils (granulocyte)
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Multilobed (2-4) nucleus.
primarily phagocytose bacteria |
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Eosinophils (granulocyte)
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bilobed (maybe 3-4) nucleus
numerous, large cytoplasmic granules. degrades histamine and leukotrienes. phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes. combat parasites by release cytotoxins. especially in lamina propria of intestine (chronic immunologic responses). |
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Monocytes (agranulocyte)
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20 micrometers (largest leukocyte)
differentiate into macrophages look like macrophages |
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lymphocytes (agranulocyte)
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smallest of CT cells (7 micrometers)
round densely stained nucleus. pale blue cytoplasm (ribosomes) |
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b lymphocyte (agranulocyte)
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humoral immunity.
antigens bind causing mitosis. daughter cells differentiate into plasma cells |
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t lymphocyte (agranulocyte)
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cell-mediated immunity
cell divide when antigens bind. daughter cells surround, adhere to, and kill virus-infected cells. |
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epithelial layer plus underlying connective tissue =
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epithelial membrane
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Principle epithelial membranes of the body
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mucous membranes
serous membranes cutaneous membranes |
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Mucous membrane (mucosa)
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CT is lamina propria.
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Serous membrane (serosa)
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CT is loose areolar.
mesothelium (simple squamous) parietal and visceral layer pleura, pericardium, peritoneum |
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Skin =
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Epidermis (epithelium) + Dermis (subjacent CT)
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Mucosa
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Epithelium (epithelium) + Lamina propria (subjacent CT)
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Serosa =
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Mesothelium (epithelium) + Submesothelial layer (subjacent CT)
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Fundamental difference between cartilage and bone
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Cartilage = avascular
Bone = highly vascular |
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Cartilage ground substance components
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aggrecan and chondronectin
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Bone ground substance components
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chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate, osteocalcin, osteopontin, bone sialoprotein, hydroxyapatite, carbonate
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Cartilage collagen types
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Type I (fibrocartilage)
Type II (hyaline and elastic) |
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Bone collagen types
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type I
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Cartilage blood vessels
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absent; nutrients received via diffusion through gel matrix
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Cartilage repair capacity
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low
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Bone repair capacity
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high
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Cartilage mitosis
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chondroblasts: yes
chondrocytes: yes |
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Bone mitosis
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osteoprogenitor: yes
osteoblasts: no osteocytes: no |
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Bone communication
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gap junctions between osteocytes and between osteoblasts
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Cartilage hormonal influence
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T3 and T4, testosterone, growth hormone, cortisone, hydrocortisone, estradiol
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Bone hormonal influence
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parathyroid hormone, growth hormone, estrogens, androgens
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How is cartilage different from other CTs?
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No nerves, blood supply, or lymphatics.
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Elastic cartilage
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ear, auditory tubes, epiglottis
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Hyaline cartilage
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nasal cartilage, thyroid cartilage, tracheal and bronchial cartilages, costal cartilages, articular cartilages
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Fibrocartilage
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Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, muscle insertions, meniscus
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No fibers visible
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Hyaline cartilage
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With an abundance of elastic fibers
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Elastic cartilage
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With dense collagenous fibers
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Fibrocartilage
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Prototype for all cartilage
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hyaline cartilage
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Hyaline cartilage is located in the
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septum of the nose, trachea, bronchi, larynx, ribs (vertebral ends), long bones (articular ends).
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In hyaline cartilage, chondrocytes are large cells that completely fill spaces in the matrix known as ...
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lacunae
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Chondrocytes
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round or oval nucleus
manufacture the matrix do not communicate with each other |
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2 types of lacunae
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primary and secondary.
secondary lacunae are formed from primary lacunae in which the parent cells have divided. |
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Number of cells found in secondary lacuna
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1
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Territorial matrix
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basophilic region around a cell nest (isogenous group)
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Predominant collagen in hyaline cartilage
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Type II. Minor IX, X, XI
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GAGs in hyaline cartilage
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chondroiton sulfate, keratan sulfate, hyaluronic acid
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Glycoprotein in hyaline cartilage
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chondronectin
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Proteoglycan in hyaline cartilage
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aggrecan
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Chondronectin is
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similar to fibronectin, has binding sites for type II collagen, chondroitin sulfate, hyaluronic acid, and integrins of chondroblasts and chondrocytes.
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Hyaline cartilage functions as
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shock absorber due to flexibility and resiliency to compression.
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Hyaline cartilage is enclosed in
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perichondrium
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Perichondrium has 2 layers
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fibrous and chondrogenic
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fibrous perichondrium
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well vascularized dense irregular connective tissue containing elastic fibers, type I collagen fibers, and fibroblasts.
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Cartilage formation is from
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mesenchyme
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Precartilage (centers of chondrification)
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aggregations of mesenchymal cells
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Isogenous group
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division of chondrocytes within primary lacunae
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Hyaline cartilage grows by 2 simultaneous methods
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Interstitial growth - results from proliferation of young chondrocytes
Appositional growth - chondrogenic layer of the perichondrium |
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Interstitial growth only occurs
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early phase of hyaline cartilage formation
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Articular cartilage only grows by
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interstitial growth (lacks a perichondrium)
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Increases growth rate of epiphyseal pates
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Testosterone and growth hormone via IGF-1
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Elastic cartilage is found
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pinna of the ear, auditory tube, epiglottis, larynx
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Predominant collagen in elastic cartilage
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Type II collagen
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True or false. Elastic cartilage does not calcify.
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True
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CT in fibrocartilage
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dense regular
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Location of fibrocartilage
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intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, tendons and ligaments.
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Collagen in fibrocartilage
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Type I collagen
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True or False. Fibrocartilage has no perichondrium.
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True
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2 arrangements of bone
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Spongy(epiphysis of mature long bones, core of short bones, between the flat bones of the skull) and compact (diaphyseal cylinder of long bones, thin covering over epiphysis, tables of flat bones of skull)
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Osteoid
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composed of fibers and unmineralized ground substance
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Osteoid is 90-95%
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type I collagen fibers
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Majority of the non-collagenous proteins of the osteoid
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Chondroitin sulfate and osteocalcin
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Osteoblast lineage
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osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteocytes. Outside bone.
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Osteoclast progenitor pathway
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osteoclasts. Inside bone
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Four types of bone cells
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Osteoprogenitor, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts.
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Osteoprogenitor cells are
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stem cells found in the endosteum and periosteum. Derived from mesenchyme, differentiate into osteoblasts. Most active during intense bone growth.
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Osteoblasts are
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major bone-forming cells. Cuboidal, one-cell-thick sheets on surfaces where bone is being deposited. Exhibit high alkaline phosphatase activity, well-developed RER and Golgi. Synthesize and secrete all organic components of bone matrix (osteoid). Osteoblasts + surrounding matrix --> osteocytes.
Secrete M-CSF |
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Osteocytes are
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bone cells found in lacunae. Canaliculi radiate from cell body, contact through gap junctions. Osteocytic osteolysis, stimulated by PTH.
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Osteoclasts are
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large (150 micrometer), multinucleated (up to 50 nuclei), motile cells found in Howship's lacunae. Ca++ homeostasis via bone resorption. Carbonic anhydrase and proton pumps in ruffled border reduce pH in bone resorbing compartment dissolving inorganic component of matrix.
Acid phosphatase and cathepsin K degrade organic components of bone matrix. PTD and vitamin D regulate bone-resorbing activity of osteoclasts. |
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Bone matrix is laid down in
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flattened rows called lamellae with osteocytes trapped in lacunae throughout.
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3 lamellar arrangements are
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1) Haversian system (osteon)
2) Interstitial lamella 3) Circumferential lamella |
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Osteon is composed of
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cylinders of lamellae arranged in concentric rings. Collagen fibers alternate between right and left handed helices. Haversian canal (vascular) passes along axis of system. Volkmann's canals connect Haversian canals. Canaliculi connect lacunae (lifeline). Cement line surrounds system.
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Interstitial lamella is
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located between Haversian systems, are chunks of older Haversian systems remaining after remodeling of compact bone by osteoclastic activity. Oldest lamellae of compact bone.
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Circumferential lamella are
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flat layers that border inner and outer edges of bome. Outer circumferential lamellae are produced by the osteogenic layer of the periosteum. Contains Sharpey's fibers anchoring the periosteum to the bone. Inner circumferential lamellae are those produced by the endosteum and encircle the inner aspect of the bone (marrow cavity). Trabeculae of spongy bone extend from the inner circumferential lamellae into the marrow cavity, interrupting the endosteal lining of the inner circumferential lamellae.
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Periosteum is a
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fibrocellular sheath present on bone, except at synovial articular surfaces and where tendons and muscles insert into the bone.
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Periosteum has 2 layers
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fibrous - dense,irregular collagenous connective tissue containing collagen fibers and fibroblasts
osteogenic - inner cellular layer (osteoprogenitor) that have the potential to become osteoblasts and secrete additional bone matrix. |
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Bone is restricted to what type of growth?
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Appositional
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The central cavity of bone is lined by
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endosteum
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Endosteum consists of a monolayer of
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osteogenic cells and osteoblasts and fine reticular fibers. Lines both Haversian and Volkmann's canals and is continuous with the periosteum.
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4 blood supplies of bone
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1) Periosteal arteries
2) Volkmann's canals 3) nutrient artery - divides into proximal and distal branches 4) Haversian canals |
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4 types of bone surfaces
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1) periosteal
2) Haversian 3) cortical-endosteal 4) trabecular-endosteal |
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Osteocalcin is a glycoprotein in osteoid that
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binds extracellular calcium ions leading to high local concentration
|
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alkaline phophatase is abundant in osteoblasts which
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increases local calium and phophate ion concentrations
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5 epiphyseal plate zones
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1) Zone of resting cartilage
2) Zone of proliferating cartilage 3) Zone of hypertrophying cartilage 4) Zone of calcifying cartilage matrix 5) Zone of ossification |
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Immature bone
|
interlacing arrangement of collagen fibers designated woven bone.
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Woven bone contain
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randomly arranged cells (more per area than mature lamellar bone)
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Two types of bone marrow
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Yellow and Red
|
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Yellow marrow is
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located in the long bones of adults
highly infiltrated with fate not hematopoietic, although has potential. |
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Red marrow is
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located in the epiphyses of long bones, as well as flat, irregular, and short bones.
highly vascular composed of stroma, large venous sinusoids, and many islands of hematopoietic cells the site where the various blood cells differentiate and mature postnatally. |
|
Bone marrow lacks
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lymphatics
|
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Blood vessels of marrow compartment
|
1) nutrient arteries
2) central longitudinal arteries 3) radial arteries 4) sinusoids |
|
Sinusoids are
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large (45-80 micrometer) vascular channels
associated on the extravascular surfaces with reticular fibers and adventitial reticular cells drain into a central longitudinal vein. prevented from collapsing because the veins are smaller than the arteries passage of blood cells into the sinusoidal lumen is transcellular (blood cells pass through migration pores) |
|
Stromal cells
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include macrophages, reticular cells, fibroblasts, and endothelial cells interspersed within trabecular bone. Produce and release various hematopoietic growth factors.
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Reticular cells manufacture
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reticular fibers (type III collagen) and seems to divide the bone marrow cavity into smaller compartments
|
|
Reticular cells may accumulate
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fat thus transforming red marrow into yellow marrow.
|
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Reticular cells also produce these adhesive glycoproteins
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fibronectin, laminin, and hemonectin
|
|
3 hematopoietic cells
|
1) Stem cells - self-renewal, multiple cell lineages, present in circulation and bone-marrow
2) Progenitor cells - single cell lineage (CFU), proliferate and differentiate in presence of growth factor. Look like stem cells 3) Precursor cells - all cells in each lineage that display distinct morphologic characteristics. |
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CFU-EO
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eosinophils
|
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CFU-Bas
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basophils
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CFU-GM
|
neutrophils, monocytes
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CFU-Meg
|
megakaryocytes
|
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BFU-E-->CFU-E-->
|
erythrocytes
|
|
Erythropoiesis
|
1) Unipotenial cell
2) Proerythroblast 3) Basophillic erythroblast 4) Polychromatophilic erythroblast 5) Orthochromatophilic erythroblast 6) Reticulocyte 7) Erythrocyte |
|
Thrombopoiesis, stimulated by thrombopoietin (produced in the liver and kidney)
|
1) Unipotential cell
2) Megakaryoblast 3) Promegakaryocyte 4) Megakaryocyte 5) Platelets |
|
Granulopoiesis
|
1) Unipotential cell
2) Myeloblast 3) Promyelocyte 4) (Neutro/Eosino/Baso)philic myelocyte 5) (Neutro/Eosino/Baso)philic metamyelocyte 6) (Neutro/Eosino/Baso)philic band 7) (Neutro/Eosino/Baso)phil |
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Monopoiesis
|
1) Unipotential cell
2) Monoblast 3) Promonocyte 4) Monocyte 5) Tissue Macrophage |
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Hematopoiesis is regulated by
|
colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
|
|
CFU-E responds to
|
erythropoietin (released as a result of hypoxia), a hormone from the kidney that stimulates erythropoiesis.
|
|
Proerythroblast
|
15-20 micrometers
large round central nucleus w/ dispersed chromatin thin rim of basophilic cytoplasm NO GRANULES mitosis |
|
Basophilic erythroblast
|
nucleus begins to condense and clump
darker blue cytoplasm |
|
Polychromatophilic erythroblast
|
8-10 micrometers
checkerboard chromatin grey cytoplasm last cell that can undergo mitosis |
|
Orthochromatophilic erythroblast
|
cytoplasm is color of erythrocyte
pyknotic eccentric nucleus postmitotic |
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Reticulocyte
|
no nucleus
pink cytoplasm slightly larger than RBC, no biconcave shape |
|
Erythrocyte
|
non-nucleated, biconcave-shaped
7.5 micrometers lack organelles (only PM, cytoskelaton, hemoglobin, and glycolytic enzymes) 120 day lifespan |
|
Myeloblast
|
round nucleus w/ finely dispersed chromatin
cytoplasm is lightly basophilic due to RER and no granules mitosis |
|
Promyelocyte
|
azurophilic granules (occurs exclusively at this stage)
|
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Myelocyte
|
round or oval nucleus
synthesis of specific granules (occurs exclusive at this stage) Neutrophilic = pale iliac granules Eosinophilic = red-orange granules Basophilic = blue-purple granules last stage capable of mitosis |
|
Metamyelocytes
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eccentric, indented, kidney-shaped nucleus
specific granules outweight primary granules postmitotic |
|
Band cells
|
U-shaped nucleus
|
|
Azurophilic granules contain
|
lysozyme - break down cell wall of some bacteria
acid hydrolases including acid phosphatase myeloperoxidase - reacts with H2O2 to generate potent, bacteria-killing oxidants cationic proteins called defensins (antibacterial) |
|
Specific granules contain
|
lactoferrin - binds iron required to bacterial growth
lysozyme |
|
Myeloperoxidase produces
|
hypochlorite
|
|
Eosinophils
|
1-4% of WBCs (increase in parasitic infections and allergic responses)
10-14 micrometers nucleus is bilobed cytoplasm contains large, refractile specific granules (major basic protein - kills parasitic worms by forming pores in their cell membranes; histaminase - deactivates histamine) |
|
Basophils
|
<1% or WBCs (increases in allergic reactions)
8-10 micrometers bilobed, S-shaped nucleus large specific granules express IgE receptors(like mast cells) and release histamine to mediate allergic reactions when activated by antigen binding |
|
Function of neutrophils
|
eliminate opsonized bacteria or limit the extent of an inflammatory reaction in the connective tissue
|
|
Function of eosinophils
|
phagocytose antigen-antibody complexes and kill parasitic invaders; also participate in triggering bronchial asthma.
|
|
Function of basophils
|
play a role in immediate (bronchial asthma) and delayed hypersensitivity (allergic skin reaction) and in the propagation of the immune response.
|
|
Promonocytes
|
16-18 micrometers
somewhat kidney-shaped eccentric nucleus azurophilic granules extensive Golgo, many mitochondria, RER |
|
Monocytes
|
12-15 micrometers (largest circulating blood cells
4-10% of WBCs large, eccentric, kidney-shaped nucleus abundant cytoplasm w/ numerous azurophilic granules 12-100 hour lifespan in blood then move to connective tissue |
|
Function of monocytes
|
differentiate into macrophage after entering connective tissue. Macrophages phagocytose unwanted particulate matter, produce cytokines that are required for the inflammatory and immune responses, and present epitopes to T lymphocytes.
|
|
Megakaryoblasts
|
25-40 micrometers
single large nucleus w/ fine chromatin divide endomitotically basophilic, nongranular cytoplasm containing large mitochondria, numerous polysomes, some RER, and well-developed Golgi |
|
Megakaryocytes
|
40-100 micrometers
single, large polyploid nucleus is highly indented well-developed Golgi associated with alpha granules, lysosomes (lambda granules), and dense bodies (delta granules) numerous mitochondria and RER lie just outside sinusoids in the bone marrow form platelet demarcation channels from the plasma membrane, which fragment into platelets. |
|
Platelets
|
2-4 micrometers
biconvex disc, non-nucleated hyalomere (peripheral clear region) 10-15 microtubules arranged parallel forming a ring within the hyalomere granulomere (central darker region) - contain alpha, delta, lambda granules |
|
Needed for RBC DNA synthesis
|
Transferrin and Transcobolamin
|
|
Variable and constant regions of light chain? Heavy chain?
|
"V J, C. V D J, C"
|
|
What accounts for the vast diversity of amino acid sequences in the variable regions?
|
Somatic recombination
|
|
Coagulation proteins' mission?
|
To form a stable plus (fibrin and platlets)
|
|
Components of coagulation are all synthesized in the liver except for
|
VIII
|
|
Vitamin K is important for clotting because
|
gamma carboxyglutamate formation
|
|
Fibrinolysis
|
tPA cleaves plasminogen to plasmin
|
|
Platelets are
|
cell components for homeostatis.<br>-activate coaggulation factors<br>-aggregate<br>-interlace w/ fibrin
|
|
3 granulocytes are
|
"eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils"
|
|
Hematopoiesis sites
|
"Yolk sac: 2 weeks (nucleated RBC, no lympho)<br>Hepatosplenic: 6 weeks (nucleated RBC, some lympho)<br>Bone marrow: 5 months (mature)"
|
|
Capabilities of stem cell
|
differentiation or self-renewal
|
|
asymmetric mitosis
|
self-renewal and differentiation
|
|
Bone marrow stromal cells
|
"Fibroblasts, endothelial cells, reticular cells, macrophages<br>Also, ECM proteins (collagen, laminin, fibronectin) and growth factors."
|
|
Hematopoietic growth factors
|
Myeloid: CSFs(GM/G/IL-3)<br>Lymphoid: IL-6<br>Erythroid: Epo<br>Thromboid: Tpo
|
|
Feedback mechanisms of hematopoiesis:
|
trigger/sensor/growth factor/target/effect<br>Drop in O2/kidney baroreceptors/erythropoietin/CFU-E in BM/erythropoiesis<br>Microbial invasion/immune system alert/CSFs+interleukins/GEMM-CFU in B.M./WBC<br>Injury/bleeding+hypoxia/thrombopoietin/megakaryoblast in B.M./platelet production
|
|
Acute Leukemia
|
Results from a block in differentiation of leukemic stem cells. Leukemic blasts accumulate because of a failure of maturation into functional end cells. Leukemic blasts diffusely replace the bone marrow and usually spill over into the blood. Clinical presentation will be bacterial infection.
|
|
Growth factor needed for erythropoiesis
|
Erythropoietin (Epo) synthesized by kidney.
|
|
Role of RBC in CO2 transport
|
CO2 diffuses thru RBC membrane->carbonate (carbonic anhydrase)->bicarbonate->transported out of cell by Band 3.
|
|
Cofactors of enzymes needed for DNA synthesis
|
Vitamin B12 & folate
|
|
Anemia
|
"decrease in total circulating RBC, in hemoglobin concentration in blood, or in hematocrit."
|
|
"Microcytic, hypochromic anemias"
|
Conditions that interfere with hemoglobin production<br>1) iron deficiency<br>2) disorders of globin synthesis (thalassemia)<br>3) disorders of porphyrin and heme synthesis
|
|
Macrocytic: megaloblastic anemia
|
"Defective DNA synthesis that interferes with red cell maturation, resulting in large red cells that do not function properly. Vit B12, IF, or folate deficiencies."
|
|
Granules in neutrophil
|
primary/azurophilic; secondary/specific.
|
|
Eight steps of phagocytosis
|
1) Adherence/transendothelial migration (diapedesis)<br>2) Chemotaxis<br>3) Recognition<br>4) Ingestion<br>5) Degranulation of granules content to the interior of phagosome<br>6) Formation of reactive oxygen products<br>7) Release of particles after killing and release of inflammation mediators for cell recruitment<br>8) Detoxification of reactive oxygen products
|
|
WBC exits blood vessel by
|
1) rolling and initial contact (through selectins)<br>2) diapedesis (throught integrins)
|
|
Enzyme which forms 1) reactive oxygen 2) hypochlorite
|
1) NADPH oxidase<br>2) myeloperoxidase
|
|
Buffering enzymes
|
SOD/glutathione system and catalase
|
|
Exhaustion in overwhelming infection means
|
exhaustion of marrow granulocyte reserves. Neutropenia in the course of infection is a poor prognostic sign.
|
|
Voltage gated Na and K channels mediate
|
"electrical signaling in neurons, cardiac muscle and skelatal muscle."
|
|
Voltage gated Ca channels mediate
|
"hormone and neurotransmitter release. When they open, intracellular Ca concentration increases, which stimulates calcium-dependent processes such as exocytosis."
|
|
What causes the negative RESTING POTENTIAL of an excitable cell?
|
"K concentration gradiants, and that there are only K-channels open @ resting potential, allow K ions to diffuse."
|
|
Voltage-gated ion channels are formed by how many domains?
|
4
|
|
Each domain in a voltage gated ion channel is made up of how many transmembrane segments?
|
"6, plus a p-loop"
|
|
Which segment of the voltage gated ion channel is the voltage sensor?
|
S4. It contains charged amino acids.
|
|
Difference between genes for (Na and Ca channel) and (K channel)?
|
K channel encodes for only 1 domain. 4 domains must come together to form pore. Na and Ca encodes for all 4 domains.
|
|
Voltage-gated Na channel open @ what voltage?
|
begin @ -50mV. Max open @ -10mV.
|
|
"Most voltage-gated ion channels have 2 states, open and closed. Na channels have 3. What is the third? Why is it considered a third state?"
|
"Inactivated. It has a different conformation from the "closed" state. Part of the protein moves into the pore and blocks it. This happens when the cell is more positive than the resting potential for a long time. In order to "reactivate", the membrane potential must return to a very negative potential."
|
|
Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
|
"associated with a mild elevation of blood potassium (exercise, stress, fasting, or eating K+ rich foods)."
|
|
Tetrodotoxin
|
"Puffer fish toxin. Highly specific, reversible blocker of Na channels. Paralysis and death at very low concentrations."
|
|
Lidocaine and Novacaine
|
local anesthetics that act by blocking Na channels.
|
|
Calcium channels
|
T-type channels open around -50 to -40 mV similar to Na. High voltage activated (HVA) ~ +10mV: long openings (L-type) and short openings.<br><br>Diversity allows performance of unique functions.
|
|
Agents that block voltage-gated L-type Ca channels
|
Nifedipine and Verapamil
|
|
Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome
|
"Patients produce antibodies to N,P,Q voltage-gated calcium channels, causing destruction of calcium channels at the presynaptic nerve terminal. Synaptic transmission is impaired causing muscle weakness and fatigue."
|
|
6 different types of voltage gated Ca channels
|
LNPQRT
|
|
Ca channel blockers are primarily used in the treatment of ?
|
"Cardiovascular diseases including angina, arrhythmia and hypertension."
|
|
Nerve and muscle synapse have what type of neurotransmitter receptors?
|
Acetylcholine
|
|
Reversal potential is
|
the potential at which no net current occurs when a channel is open. It is an important characteristic of a ligand-gated ion channel.
|
|
Reversal potentials are
|
equal to the Nernst potential for the ion that they pass.
|
|
Ach receptors pass what? It's reversal potential is what?
|
Na and K. 0mV
|
|
Ach receptor is EXCITATORY because
|
it make the cell potential more positive
|
|
Inhibitors of Ach receptor
|
d-tubocurarine and Vecuronium
|
|
Agonists of ionotropic and metabotropic ACh receptors
|
"Nicotine (ionotropic). Muscarine (metabotropic). Therefore, nicotinic receptor means ACh-gated ion channel."
|
|
ACh receptor structure
|
"transmembrane protein, 5 subunits each with multiple transmembrane segments. <br><br>2 identical alpha-subunits which contain the ACh binding site, taking 2 ACh molecules to open the channel.<br><br>Fetal: alpha,alpha,beta,gamma,delta<br>Adult: alpha,alpha,beta,epsilon,delta<br><br>Fetal has long openings w/ small amplitudes<br>Adult has short openings w/ large amplitudes"
|
|
Types of glutamate receptors
|
"AMPA, kainate, NMDA"
|
|
Non-NMDA channels are
|
"non-selective cation channels similar to the ACh channel. Pass Na and K, 0mV reversal potential. EXCITATORY."
|
|
NMDA channels are
|
"non-selective cation channels that pass Na, K, and Ca. Binding of glutamate and glycine required. Blocked by zinc. If opened @ a negative potential, Mg blocks the channel. Therefore, Na and K move out, and Ca moves in @ +70mV. Excess glutamate is CYTOTOXIC because it will cause an increase in intracellular Ca and cause cell death."
|
|
"Made up of 4 subunits. Can be homomer, or heteromer"
|
glutamate receptors
|
|
Competitive antagonist of AMPA receptors
|
NBQX
|
|
Competitive antagonists of NMDA receptors
|
D-AP5 and D-AP7
|
|
Non-competitive antagonists of NMDA receptor
|
Ketamine and MK-801
|
|
GABA receptors
|
"post-synaptic, Cl- ion channel, INHIBITORY, 5 subunits, subunits encoded by multiple genes = diversity."
|
|
Allosteric potentiators of GABA (increase the effect of GABA)
|
Benzodiazepines (anti-anxiety) and barbituates (sedatives).
|
|
Blockers of GABA receptor
|
"Cause excessive neuronal excitation, which lead to seizures. Picrotoxin (non-competitive antagonist) and bicuculline (competitive antagonist)"
|
|
Only glial cells in the PNS
|
Schwann cells
|
|
Multipolar neurons
|
3 or more processes (one of which is axon) Cell bodies in CNS and in autonomic ganglia.
|
|
Bipolar neurons
|
"2 processes (2 axons). Cell bodies in retina, and vestibular and acoustic ganglia."
|
|
Unipolar (pseudounipolar) neurons
|
Derived from bipolar neurons during development. 1 process (axon) which bifurcates. Soma in DRG and sensory ganglia of certain CNs.
|
|
Three types of neurons
|
"Sensor, motor, Interneurons (interconnectors - usually in CNS)"
|
|
Neural tube derived cells
|
soma inside CNS
|
|
Neural crest derived cells
|
soma outside CNS
|
|
Only stem cells in the PNS
|
bipolar olfactory neurons within the olfactory epithelium
|
|
Nissl bodies are
|
basophilic clumps of RER and polysomes in perikaryon
|
|
Dendrites carry
|
"graded potentials (EPSP, IPSP) to the cell body (decremental conduction)."
|
|
Axon contains
|
"neurofilaments, microtubules, actin filaments, mitochondria and various vesicles. NO Nissl bodies in the axon or hillock."
|
|
Axon hillock
|
"contains microtubule bundles, trigger zone, carry action potentials away from soma. Axon branches (rare) occur @ only right angles and only nodes of ranvier."
|
|
Slow axon transport (1-5mm/day)
|
"unidirectional waves of material with defined composition, providing growth and maintenance (actin, tubulin, neurofilament proteins, metabolic enzymes. Regeneration."
|
|
Fast axon transport (100-500mm/day)
|
Bidirectional. ATP dependent. Dyenin and Kinesin (microtubules).
|
|
Neuronal signaling involves
|
"Ion pumps, voltage-gated Na and K channels, voltage-gated Ca channels, ligand-gated channels (neurotransmitters)"
|
|
Unmyelinated axon Na channels
|
are uniformly distribuand few in numberted
|
|
Myelinated axon Na channels
|
clustered at nodes of Ranvier.
|
|
"Only type of glial cell in PNS, neural crest derivatives, surrounded by external lamina, contain GFAP IFs."
|
Schwann cells
|
|
Schwann cells around a soma is called
|
satellite cells
|
|
Schwann cells around axons are called
|
Schwann sheath
|
|
Schwann cells around 1 axon
|
myelinated axon
|
|
Schwann cell around many axons
|
unmyelinated axon
|
|
Axon hillock...Myelinated or unmyelinated?
|
Unmyelinated
|
|
Neurilemma is always known as
|
Schwann sheath
|
|
Region where the lips of the encircling Schwann cell approach each other
|
mesaxon
|
|
Major dense lines
|
fused P surfaces of the inner leaflets of the Schwann cell plasma membrane, adherence by Myelin basic protein
|
|
Fusion of the E surfaces
|
results in the intraperiod lines, self-adherence by Protein zero (P0)
|
|
Cytoplasm at the node of Ranvier is called
|
perinodal cytoplasm
|
|
Schmidt-Lantermann clefts
|
discontinuities in the myelin sheath (unknown fxn). Only in myelinated.
|
|
Synaptic vesicles attached to active zone of presynaptic membrane by
|
synaptophysin
|
|
Synaptic vesicles attached to microfilaments by
|
synapsin
|
|
Smaller clear synaptic vesicles contain ... Larger dense core synaptic vesicles contain ...
|
Acetylcholine. epinephrine (norepinephrine)
|
|
Asymmetric synapses are generally associated with what type of neuron?
|
EXCITATORY post-synaptic
|
|
6 classes of neurotransmitters
|
Acetylcholine, amino acids, monoamines, peptides, purines, nitric oxide.
|
|
Where are voltage-gated Na channels are concentrated in myelinated axons?
|
Nodes of Ranvier
|
|
Type A fiber
|
1-20 micrometer, 15-120m/s (High velocity), Heavily myelinated, acute pain temperature touch pressure proprioception (GSA)
somatic effect fibers (GSE) |
|
Type B fibers
|
1-3 micrometers, 3-15m/s (moderate velocity), myelinated, visceral afferents (GVA) preganglionic ANS (GVE)
|
|
Type C fibers
|
0.5-1.5 micrometers, 0.5-2m/s (slow velocity), unmyelinated, chronic pain (GVA) postganglionic ANS (GVE)
|
|
Endoneurium
|
loose connective tissue (reticular fibers) in fascicles. Blood vessels also in fascicles
|
|
Perineurium
|
dense irregular connective tissue surrounding fascicle.
|
|
Epineurium
|
bind nerve fascicles into one nerve trunk. dense irregular connective tissue.
|
|
Site at which an axon ends on the muscle fiber
|
neuromuscular, or myoneural, junction
|
|
Flattened mound on the surface of the muscle fiber at the site of contact of the axon terminal
|
motor end plate
|
|
motor unit
|
motor neuron, its axon, and muscle fiber.
|
|
Fast-twitch muscle fibers have
|
many long, branched sarcolemmal infoldings
|
|
Slow-twitch muscle fibers have
|
fewer and shallower sarcolemmal infoldings.
|
|
Exoreceptors
|
at or near the surface of the body
|
|
Interoceptors
|
blood vessels and viscera
|
|
Mechanoreceptors
|
mechanical pressure or stretching: touch, pressure, vibration, proprioception, hearing, equilibrium, and blood pressure.
|
|
Chemoreceptors
|
taste, smell
|
|
Thermoreceptors
|
temperature
|
|
Nociceptors
|
physical or chemical damage to tissues; pain
|
|
Naked nerve fibers (free nerve endings)
|
Cornea (touch), skin and most connective tissue (pain)
|
|
Nerve ending associated with Merkel cells (free nerve endings)
|
Epidermis of skin, oral mucosa, and other sensitive epithelia (touch)
|
|
Pacinian corpuscles (encapsulated)
|
Subcutaneous tissue, joints, tendons, interosseous membranes, perimysium, mucous membranes, serous membranes, pancreas, heart, dermis, cornea (Deep pressure, vibration)
|
|
Meissner's corpuscles (encapsulated)
|
External genitalia, nipples, lips, connective tissue papillae, palmar surface of the hands and fingers, mucous membranes of eyelids (touch - tactile discrimination)
|
|
Muscle spindles (encapsulated)
|
Striated muscle cells (stretch reflex)
|
|
All DRGs use what neurotransmitter?
|
glutamate (main transmitter), which is excitatory.
May contain co-transmitters (calcitonin gene related peptide (CGRP), substance P, and somatostatin. |
|
GSE, preganglionic GVE, and postganglionic parasympathetics use what neurotransmitter, typically?
|
Acetylcholine
|
|
Postganglionic sympathetics typically use what neurotransmitter?
|
norepinephrine
|
|
Modalities are
|
various forms of perception (heat, cold, hearing, sight, taste, touch, smell, etc)
|
|
Parasympathetic cranial nerves
|
3,7,9,10
|
|
Eccrine sweat glands (besides palms of hands and feet) use what neurotransmitter at the postganglionic neuron?
|
Acetylcholine. Palms and feet use norepinephrine.
|
|
Sensory ganglia are associated with cranial nerves ...
|
5,7,8,9,10
|
|
Sensory ganglia house
|
unipolar cell bodies enveloped by flattened satellite cells
|
|
All autonomic ganglia house
|
multipolar cell bodies that are motor in function (smooth or cardiac muscle contraction, or glandular)
|
|
Sympathetics synapse either in the
|
sympathetic chain ganglia or the collateral ganglia along the abdominal aorta.
|
|
Parasympathetics originate either
|
CN3,7,9,10 or in S2-S4
|
|
Parasympathetic CN synapse in one of the four terminal ganglia except
|
10, where the terminal ganglia are located in the walls of the viscera.
|
|
Ganglia of sensory neurons (no synapse in ganglia)
|
DRG
Trigeminal ganglion of CN V Geniculate ganglion of CN VII Spiral ganglion (contains bipolar neurons) of CN VIII Vestibular ganglion (contains bipolar neurons) of CN VIII Sup and Inf ganglia of CN IX Sup and Inf ganglia of CN X |
|
Ganglia of postsyn autonomic (synapses)
|
Sympathetic:
Sympathetic chain ganglia Prevertebral ganglia (celiac, sup and inf mesenteric, aorticorenal) Parasympathetic: Ciliary of CN III Submandibular of CN VII Pterygopalatine of CN VII Otic of CN IX Terminal intermural ganglia (includes Meissner's and Auerbach's plexuses) |
|
G protein coupled receptor is
|
a single polypeptide with seven transmembrane segments.
|
|
GTPase associated with transmitter and hormone receptors is called a heterotrimetic G protein because
|
it is made up of alpha (GTPase), beta and gamma (regulatory)
|
|
alpha subunit of Gs (stimulatory) binds to what enzyme?
|
Adenylate cyclase and activates it
|
|
alpha subunit of Gi (inhibitory) binds to what enzyme?
|
adenylate cyclase and inhibits it
|
|
alpha subunit of Gq binds to what enzyme?
|
phospholipase C and stimulates it
|
|
Adrenergic receptors are
|
G protein coupled receptors which bind epi and norepi
|
|
alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
|
Gq, Inc PLC, Inc IP3 DAG, Inc Ca, Inc PKC
|
|
alpha-2 adrenergic receptor
|
Gi, dec AC, dec cAMP, dec PKA
|
|
beta-1 adrenergic receptor
|
Gs, inc AC, inc cAMP, inc PKA
|
|
beta-2 adrenergic receptor
|
Gs, inc AC, inc cAMP, inc PKA
|
|
M1, M3, M5 muscarinic ACh receptors
|
Gq, Inc PLC, Inc IP3 DAG, Inc Ca, Inc PKC
|
|
M2, M4 muscarinic ACh receptors
|
Dec AC, Dec cAMP, Dec PKA
|
|
Cholera toxin causes
|
excessive activation of Gs and leads to overproduction of cAMP.
|
|
Pertussis toxin causes
|
inhibition of Gi, leading to excessive production of cAMP.
|
|
Two types of guanylate receptors
|
Transmembrane (activated by peptide hormones - Atrial natriuretic peptide/factor ANP)
Soluble Guanylate Cyclase Receptor (activated by nitric oxide - target for anti-angina drugs: nitroglycerin) |
|
cGMP activates
|
Protein Kinase G
|
|
Soluble Guanylate Cyclase Receptor has
|
2 domains: NO binding (heme) and Guanylate Cyclase domain.
|
|
Neuropil is
|
a region between neuronal cell bodies in the gray matter of the brain and spinal cord
|
|
Aggregations of cell bodies embedded in gray matter are called
|
nuclei (PNS counterparts are called ganglia)
|
|
Grey matter consists of
|
neuron cell bodies and glia
|
|
White matter consists of
|
myelinated axons and glia
|
|
4 Subdivisions of white matter
|
Tract or fasciculus...group of axons having specific function
Column or funiculus...aggregations of tracts Lemniscus...bundle of sensory fibers in the brain Peduncle...a band connective parts of the brain |
|
Lateral grey horns of the spinal chord are only present where?
|
thoracic segments, contain the cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons.
|
|
Four major parts of the brain
|
1) Brainstem
2) Diencephalon 3) Cerebellum 4) Cerebrum |
|
Three parts of the brainstem
|
1) medulla oblongata
2) pons 3) midbrain |
|
Cranial dura
|
Outerlayer = dense irregular collagenous CT. Serve as periosteum, contains meningeal vessels.
Innerlayer = thinner fibrous tissue. Dural reflections (falx cerebri, falx cerebelli, tertorium cerebelli) |
|
Spinal dura
|
only the inner layer present. Separated from vertebral periosteum by epidural space.
|
|
Arachnoid
|
avascular, no collagen. (neural crest)
Outer layer = arachnoid membrane Inner layer = arachnoid trabeculae, located in the subarachnoid space. |
|
Pia
|
richly vascularized. Neural crest. Denticulate ligaments suspend spinal cord. Filum terminale anchors spinal cord to coccyx.
|
|
Excitatory multipolar neurons communicate via
|
glutamate or acetylcholine
|
|
Inhibitory multipolar neurons communicate via
|
GABA and/or glycine
|
|
Golgi type I and II
|
Type I = large cell body and long axon (local curcuit neurons)
Type II = small cell body and short axon (projection neurons) |
|
Neuron cell body pigments
|
Lipofuscin and melanin
|
|
Neurons that do not accumulate lipofuscin
|
Perkinje cells of the cerebellar cortex
|
|
True of False. Glial cells are capable of cell division throughout life
|
True
|
|
Two types of macroglia
|
astrocytes and oligodendrocytes. All derived from neuroectoderm.
|
|
Two types of astrocytes
|
1) Fibrous astrocytes (white matter): contain GFAP
2) Protoplasmic astrocytes (gray matter): Muller cells and pituicytes. |
|
Functions of astrocytes
|
Bind neurons to capillaries and pia mater.
Regulate K ion concentration Form cellular scar tissue. Brain tumers (gliomas) Exhibit adrenergic receptors, amino acid receptors (GABA) and piptide receiptors (ANP, angiotensin II, endothelins, VIP, TRH). |
|
Oligodendrocytes
|
Smaller than astrocytes, no IFs, numerous organelles and microtubules
|
|
Functions of oligodendrocytes
|
myelinization (white matter) and supporting network (gray matter)
|
|
Microglia
|
derived from mesoderm. Function = phagocytosis. Derived from monocytes.
|
|
Ependyma
|
derived from neuroectoderm. Epithelial glial cells.
|
|
2 types of epenymal cells
|
1) Ependymocytes: main type. cells attached to each other by gap junctions. striated border microvilli and cilia (facilitate movement of CSF)
2) Choroidal cells: secretory epithelium covering choroid plexus. Choroid plexuses are found in all four ventricles (sites of CSF production). |
|
Choroidal cells attach by
|
tight junctions (blood-brain barrier)
|
|
Circulating within the ventricular system and central canal is
|
CSF
|
|
CSF is produced continuously at a rate of
|
400-500 mL/day
|
|
Arachnoid villi represent
|
sites of reabsorption of CSF.
|
|
CNS consists of 3 fluid compartments
|
1) vascular compartment
2) CSF compartment 3) neuronal (extracellular) compartment |
|
True or false. Dopamine, epi and norepi cannot cross the BBB.
|
True. They must be synthesized in the brain.
|
|
Areas of the brain without a BBB
|
pituitary gland, median eminence, pineal gland, preoptic recess.
|
|
CNS: Major dense line is due to
|
P surface and Myelin Basic Protein (like in PNS)
|
|
CNS: Intraperiod line is due to
|
E surface and proteolipid protein (PLP). In PNS, Protein 0.
|
|
Acetylcholine is always
|
EXCITORY
|
|
All somatic motor neurons release
|
Acetylcholine
|
|
Neurotransmitter and receptor type in ganglion
|
ACh/nicotinic receptor (both parasympathetic and sympathetic)
|
|
Receptor types in effector organs
|
alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, beta-2 (sympathetic), muscarinic (parasympathetic), nicotinic (somatic)
|
|
80% of parasympathetic outflow is through
|
CN X
|
|
Two types of terminal ganglia
|
1) Cranial nerve head ganglia: ciliary, sphenopalatine, submandibular, otic
2) intramural ganglia |
|
Presynaptic sympathetic fibers are typically short except for
|
fibers going to adrenal medulla.
|
|
White ramus contains...
Gray ramus contains... |
myelinated, type B axons
unmyelinated, type C axons |
|
White rami can be found
|
T1-L2
|
|
Cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in
|
the lateral horns of gray matter in L1-S2
|
|
autonomic plexuses
|
cardiac, pulmonary, celiac (solar), sup and inf mesenteric, hypogastric, renal plexuses
|
|
Cholinergic neurons release
|
acetylcholine. Receptors for ACh are called cholinoreceptors
|
|
Adrenergic neurons release
|
norepinephrine
|
|
Two types of cholinergic receptors
|
Nicotinic and muscarinic
|
|
Nicotinic receptors are present in
|
in dendrites and cell bodies of sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons (ANS ganglia), motor end plate at NM junction, and adrenal medulla. Blocked by hexamethonium.
|
|
True or False. Nicotinic receptors are ionotropic receptors.
|
True
|
|
Muscarinic receptors are
|
in all effectors (smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands) innervated by parasympathetic postganglionic axons. Blocked by atropine. Metabotropic receptors.
|
|
True or False. Effects triggered by adrenergic neurons typically are longer than those triggered by cholinergic neurons.
|
True
|
|
Activation of alpha-1 and beta-1 receptors generall produces
|
excitation
|
|
Activation of alpha-2 and beta-2 receptors causes
|
inhibition
|
|
Alpha-1 receptors are found
|
smooth muscle fibers in blood vessels
sweat glands on palms and soles |
|
Beta-1 receptors are found in
|
cardiac muscle fibers
adipocytes |
|
Beta-2 receptors are found in
|
smooth muscle in walls of airways
|
|
In CNS:
norepinephrine stored in ... acetylcholine stored in ... |
small dense-core vesicles
small clear vesicles |
|
Balance between symp and parasymp is regulated by
|
hypothalamus
|
|
Fight-or-flight response (4 E's)
|
Exercise
Emergency Excitement Embarrassment More widespread and longer lasting than parasymp response. Norepi broken down slower than ACh. |
|
Parasymp rest-and-digest (SLUDD)
|
Salivation
Lacrimation Urination Digestion Defecation Decreased heart rate Decreased airway diameter Decreased pupil diameter |
|
Sympathetic actions are
|
inc HR, inc contactility, inc AV node conduction, constricts blood vessels, dilates bronchiolar smooth muscle, ejaculation, inc sweating, inc renin secretion, inc lipolysis
|
|
Parasympathetic actions are
|
dec HR, dec contractility, dec AV node conduction, increased GI motility, constricts bronchiolar smooth muscle, erection
|
|
Hypothalamus regulates
|
temperature regulation, thirst, food intake, micturition, breathing, and cardiovascular activity.
|
|
Medulla contains nuclei that control
|
cardiovascular center, basic rhythm of breathing, vomiting, coughing, swallowing, hiccupping, and sneezing.
|
|
Pons contains
|
pneumotaxic and apneustic areas.
|
|
Maximal heart rate
|
= 220 - age
|
|
Types of Ca channels
|
LNPQRT
|
|
Theshold potential is
|
-55mV
|
|
Action potential peaks at
|
+30mV
|
|
Absolute refractory period refers to:
|
Once an action potential is initiated, it takes a short amount of time before the next action potential can be generated.
|
|
Membrane potential vs Time.
|
Positive slope means: Na+ or Ca++ influx and/or Cl- efflux
Negative slope means: K+ efflux and/or Cl- influx |
|
Bleed into brain can cause
|
depolarization of brain cells because blook [K+] is 1.6 greater than CSF [K+]. Can cause seizures.
|
|
Novacaine blocks
|
opening of voltage-dependent Na+ channels. Dangerous in circulation because they work on ALL Na+ channels (heart).
|
|
Ethanol blocks
|
both Na+ and K+ channels
|
|
Tetradotoxin blocks
|
only Na+ channels. Most dangerous toxin. On ingestion, first affects phrenic nerve.
|
|
Tetraethyl-ammonium ("TEA"), 4-aminopyridine, and dendrotoxin block
|
only K+ channels
|
|
Halothane opens
|
a special type of K+ channel-->increased K+ current --> hyperpolarize a firing neuron --> inhibit this neuron
|
|
Ionotropic = ...
Metabotropic = ... |
chemically-gated ion channel
elicits 2nd-messenger cascades |
|
Cocaine blocks
|
dopamine reuptake
|
|
EPSP are ...
IPSP are ... |
depolarizing
hyperpolarizing |
|
EPSP are caused by the flow of ...
IPSP are caused by the flow of ... |
Na+
K+ or Cl- |
|
Fast EPSPs or IPSPs are capable of ...
Slow EPSPs or IPSPs are capable of ... |
eliciting action potentials
suppressing action potential generation |
|
Receptor desensitization
|
When a ligand-gated receptor is exposed to the ligand, it sensitivity to that ligand DECREASES (succinylcholine).
|
|
Receptor Down-regulation
|
Postsynaptic receptors decrease in density
|
|
End Plate Potential
|
EPSP @ the neuromuscular junction = summation of 50-100 smaller components ("miniature EPPs")
|
|
Radiculopathy (compression neuropathy of lower-back pain)
|
pressure on sensory axons projecting into spinal cord. Due to herniated intervertebral disk.
|
|
Multiple Sclerosis
|
Demyelinating disease. Treated with 1) immunosuppression (interferon-beta) 2) increase action potential duration (4-aminopyridine) 3) rewrap the myelin (stem cells???)
|
|
Common MS symptom
|
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia. unilateral CN 3,4,6 demyelination.
|
|
Diagnostic tools
|
ECG, EMG, EEG, EP, ERP, Peripheral Nerve conduction velocity
|
|
5 special senses
|
taste, smell, vision, hearing, and balance
|
|
2 classes of receptors
|
Neuronal receptors - sensory nerve ending received the stimulus directly and fires an action potential
Epithelial receptors - specialized epithelial cells that generate a receptor potential which causes release of neurotransmitters. |
|
True or False. Olfactory receptors are bipolar neurons.
|
True
|
|
The eyeball consists of ...
|
1) three coats (tunics): fibrous tunic, vascular tunic (uvea), and retinal tunic
2) three chambers: anterior chamber, posterior chamber, and vitreous chamber 3) four refractive media: cornea, lens, aqueous humor, and vitreous body. |
|
Sclera
|
white of eye. dense connective tissue, type I collagen, avascular, receives insertions of the extraocular eye muscles.
|
|
Cornea
|
transparent, highly innervated, avascular.
|
|
Canal of Schlemm
|
where aqueous humor drain from the anterior chamber of the eye.
|
|
5 layers of the cornea
|
1) Anterior epithelium
2) Anterior limiting membrane of Bowman 3) Substantia Propria 4) Posterior limiting membrane of Descemet 5) Posterior epithelium |
|
Cornea: Anterior epithelium
|
stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium. microfolds and microvilli trap moisture preventing dehydration. many free nerve endings.
|
|
Cornea: Anterior limiting membrane of Bowman
|
Noncellular layer. Type I collagen
|
|
Cornea: Substantia propria
|
forms 90% of cornea. Blood vessels not present. 200-250 regular lamellae of type I collagen fibers (also type V).
|
|
Cornea: Posterior limiting membrane of Descemet
|
basement membrane of posterior epithelium
|
|
Cornea: Posterior epithelium
|
simple squamous epithelium with pinocytotic vesicles and mitochondria; joined by tight junctions. many Na pumps maintain cornea in a dehydrated state.
|
|
Eye: Fibrous tunic consists of
|
Sclera and Cornea
|
|
Eye: Vascular tunic consists of
|
Choroid, ciliary body, and iris.
|
|
Choroid
|
highly vascular, pigmented (melanocytes) layer. Choriocapillaries (dense network of large fenestrated capillaries) supplies nutrients to the outer five layers of the retina.
|
|
Choriocapillaris is separated from the retina by
|
Bruch's membrane (center is composed of elastic fibers; on each side of the elastic core is a basement membrane)
|
|
Cilliary body
|
wedge-shaped anterior expansion of the choroid.
Inner surface is lined by two layers of simple columnar epithelium (outer, pigmented (melanin) and inner, nonpigmented) |
|
Ciliary processes
|
covered by 2 epithelial layers. Inner, nonpigmented layer forms the aqueous humor, have tight junctions forming blood-aqueous barrier. Have suspensory ligaments of the lens (zonule fibers) composed of fibrillin, anchors lens.
|
|
Ciliary muscle
|
smooth muscle, contraction permits the lens to become thicker (accomodation). Parasympathetic of CN III.
|
|
Iris
|
every iris is unique. convered by incomplete layer of pigmented cells and fibroblasts on its anterior surface
|
|
Dilator pupillae muscle
|
consists of myoepithelial cells. contract upon stimulation by sympathetic fibers, dilating the pupil.
|
|
Sphincter pupillae muscle
|
smooth muscle contracts upon stimulation by parasympathetic fibers of CN III. Constrict pupil
|
|
Refractive media of the eye
|
Aqueous humor, lens, vitreous body
|
|
Aqueous humor
|
plasma-like fluid in anterior chamber formed by nonpigmented cells lining ciliary processes. secreted into posterior chamber, through pupil into anterior chamber then down canal of Schlemm.
|
|
Lens
|
ALL epithelium, biconvex transparent flexible composed of lens capsule, subcapsular epithelium, and lens fibers.
|
|
Lens fibers
|
lack nuclei and organelles when mature. filled with crystallins which increase refractory index of the lens fibers.
|
|
Vitreous body
|
thick refractile gel (water, collagen, hyaluronic acid) in vitreous cavity. no turnover. contains hyaloid canal (fetal hyaloid artery)
|
|
Point of highest visual acuity
|
Fovea centralis - all cones
|
|
Nonphotosensitive retina
|
lies anterior to the ora serrata consists of Iridial (pigmented apex to apex) an Ciliary retina (outer pigmented, inner nonpigmented).
double layer of epithelial cells have 3 functions: produce aqueous humor, form blood-aqueous barrier, secreting and anchoring of zonule fibers. |
|
Photosensitive retina has 10 layers:
|
1) Pigment epithelium
2) Layer of rods and cones 3) Outer limiting membrane 4) Outer nuclear layer 5) Outer plexiform layer 6) Inner nuclear layer 7) Inner plexiform layer 8) Ganglion layer 9) Optic nerve fiber layer 10) Inner limiting membrane |
|
PS Retina: Pigmented epithelium
|
columnar cells attached to Bruch's membrane. tight junctions (blood-retinal barrier), basal infoldings, SER (esterify VitA), melanin granules, processes interdigitate with rods and cones.
During the day, melanin granules migrate into cell processes; migrate to apical cytoplasm at night. Phagocytose out segments of rods, synthesize melanin. |
|
PS Retina: Layer of rods and cones
|
Rods: low intensity light, synapse with bipolar neurons. Outer segment shed disks. Rhodopsin = opsin (IMP) + cis-retinal. 11-cis-retinal --> 11-trans-retinal (dissociates from opsin). Opsin facilitates the binding of GTP to alpha-subunit of transducin --> activation cGMP phosphodiesterase --> closes Na+ channels --> hyperpolarization
|
|
PS Retina: Cones
|
only photosensitive cells found in the fovea centralis.
Similar to rods except: 1) apical terminal shaped like cone 2) outer segment has invaginations 3) synthesized proteins are passed to the ENTIRE outer segment. 4) [Iodopsin] varies -->RGB 5) Single cone synapse w/ single bipolar neuron. |
|
PS Retina: Outer limiting membrane
|
NOT membrane but zonula adherens netween photoreceptor cells and Muller cells.
|
|
PS Retina: Outer nuclear layer
|
Nuclei of rods and cones
|
|
PS Retina: Outer plexiform layer
|
Axodendritic synapses between axons of photoreceptor cells and dendrites of bipolar and horizontal cells.
|
|
PS Retina: Inner nuclear layer
|
cell bodies of bipolar neurons, horizontal cells, and amacrine cells and the nuclei of Muller cells.
|
|
PS Retina: Inner plexiform layer
|
Axodendritic synapses between axons of bipolar neurons and dendrites of ganglion cells. Processes of amacrine cells.
|
|
PS Retina: Ganglion cell layer (absent in fovea centralis)
|
Cell bodies of ganglion cells (large multipolar sensory neurons that project axon into optic disk, activated by hyperpolarization of rods and cones --> AP transmitted to horizontal and amacrine cells.)
|
|
PS Retina: Optic nerve fiber layer
|
unmyelinated axons of ganglion cells, form the fibers of the optic nerve, pierces sclera at the optic disk (acquire myelin sheath).
|
|
PS Retina: Inner limiting membrane
|
consists of terminations of Muller cell processes and their basement membranes. Separates retina from vitreous body.
|
|
Detachment of retina
|
occurs when the neural and pigmented retinae become separated from each other. It can be treated successfully by laser surgery.
|
|
Outer ear
|
Auricle (pinna), External auditory meatus, tympanic membrane.
|
|
Middle ear
|
tympanic cavity, oval and round windows, ossicles
|
|
Inner ear
|
bony labyrinth, membranous labyrinth
|
|
Bony labyrinth
|
houses membranous labyrinth, filled with perilymph (similar to extracellular fluid, low protein)
|
|
Semicircular canals
|
house semicircular ducts
|
|
Vestibule
|
houses saccule and utricle
|
|
Cochlea
|
2.5 winds around modiolus (bony core) containing blood vessels and spiral ganglion. The bony spiral lamina is the lateral extension of the modiolus. Subdivided into 3 spaces (scala vestibuli and scala tympani [perilymph], scala media (cochlear duct) [endolymph])
|
|
Membranous labyrinth
|
Endolymph, utricle, saccule, semicircular ducts, endolymphatic duct, endolymphatic sac, scala media (cochlear duct)
|
|
Utricle and Saccule
|
located in the vestibule, possess maculae w/ 2 types of hair cells.
|
|
Vestibular hair cells
|
stereocilia and kinocilium.
Type I = bulbar, round nucleus Type II = columnar, round basal nucleus |
|
Otolithic membrane
|
thick, gelatinous layer. contains otoliths. static equilibrium. linear acceleration. vestibular division of CN VIII -> bipolar neurons
|
|
Semicircular ducts
|
Ampullae- dilated regions
Cristae - specialized sensory regions, similar to maculae but have thicker, cone-shaped glycoprotein layer called cupula (no otoliths). dynamic equilibrium - rotational movement. angular acceleration. neurotransmitter = glutamate. |
|
Stereocilia moving toward kinocilium = ...
Steriocilia moving away from kinocilium = ... |
stimulatory
inhibitory |
|
Endolymphatic sac is functions in
|
reabsorbing endolymph
|
|
Cochlear duct (scala media)
|
specialized diverticulum of the saccule that contains the spiral organ of Corti. Bordered by scala vestibuli(above) and scala tympani(below). These scalae, which contain perilymph, communicate with each other at the helicotrema, located at the apex of the cochlea.
|
|
Vestibular (Reissner's) membrane
|
composed of 2 layers of flattened squamous epithelium separated by basement membrane. Helps maintain the high ionic gradients between the perilymph in the scala vestibuli and the endolymph in the cochlear duct.
|
|
Stria vascularis
|
vascularized pseudostratified epithelium that lines the lateral aspect of the cochlear duct, secretes endolymph.
|
|
Spiral prominence
|
epithelium-covered protuberance that extends the length of the cochlear duct.
|
|
Basilar membrane
|
thick later of amorphous material that extends from the spiral ligament to the spiral limbus.
|
|
Tectorial membrane
|
projects over the organ of Corti from the spiral limbus. Its free end points to the outer lateral wall of the cochlear duct. Makes contact with the stereocilia of the hair cells.
|
|
Spiral organ of Corti
|
lies on the basilar membrane, displays the inner tunnel of Corti, composed of hair cells and various supporting cells.
|
|
Spiral organ of Corti: Hair cells
|
Inner hair cells - 95% of hearing, single row along entire length of cochlear duct.
Outer hair cells - 3-5 rows. Reception of sound. A tip link protein connects the tip to stereocilium to mechanically gated ion channel (transduction channel) - allow K+ to enter the hair cell, depolarizing -> open Ca++ channels in the base. Releases glutamate. |
|
Spiral organ of Corti: Inner and outer pillar cells
|
rest on the basilar membrane, enclose and support the inner tunnel of Corti.
|
|
Spiral organ of Corti: Inner and outer phalangeal cells
|
tight junctions, cup-shaped apices cradle hair cells -> do not reach free surface of organ of Corti. Phalangeal process extends to the reticular lamina.
|
|
Function of inner ear
|
Movement of stapes @ oval window causes disturbances in perilymph -> deflect basilar membrane -> oval window -> round window.
Low freq are detected farther away from the oval window. High freq detected near oval window. |
|
Pillar cells attached to the basilar membrane
|
move laterally in response to deflection, causing a lateral shearing of the stereocilia of the organ of Corti against the tectorial membrane -> electrical impulses via cochlear nerve.
|
|
Vestibular function
|
flow of endolymph in semicircular ducts (circular movement) or in saccules and utricles (linear movement).
|
|
Movement of endolymph in semicircular ducts
|
displaces cupula overlying the cristae, causing bending of the stereocilia.
|
|
Movement of endolymph in the saccules and utricles
|
displaces otoliths, transmitted to maculae via gelatinous later, bends stereocilia, electrical impulses via vestibular nerve.
|
|
All three muscle types are derived from mesoderm except for
|
muscles of the iris and arrector pili.
|
|
Skeletal muscles develop from the mesoderm of somites except for
|
skeletal muscles of the head and limbs.
|
|
Cardiac muscle develops from
|
mesodermal cells that migrate there.
|
|
4 key functions of muscle
|
1) Body movements
2) Stabilizing 3) Storing and moving substances 4) Generating heat |
|
5 special properties of muscle
|
1) Irritability
2) Conductivity 3) Contractility 4) Extensibility 5) Elasticity |
|
Muscle cell is synonymous with
|
muscle fiber
|
|
Three layers of connective tissue extend from the deep fascia
|
1)epimysium, outermost, major vascular and nerve supply of the muscle penetrates the epimysium. Dense, irregular type I, fibroblasts.
2) Perimysium, 10-100 fibers (fascicles = functional units). Dense, irregular type I, fibroblasts. 3) endomysium, loose CT, reticular fibers. Only capillaries and finest neuronal branches |
|
Diameter of mature muscle fiber.
Length of muscle fiber. |
10-100 micrometers
10-30 centimeters |
|
Skelatal muscle fibers are
|
long, cylindrical, multinuscleated, enveloped by external lamina and reticular fibers. Formed by fusion of myoblasts --> myotube (a syncytium) = does not contract.
|
|
T (transverse) tubules
|
deep tubular invaginations of the sarcolemma extending into the center of the muscle fiber. Open to the outside of the fiber (interstitial fluid). Ensures that AP excites all parts of the muscle fiber at almost the same instant.
|
|
Myofibrils are
|
cylindrical units (1-2 micrometers diameter) extending the entire length of the fiber. Alignment results in characteristic banding pattern (dark A bands, light I bands, dark Z disks.
|
|
Sarcoplasm holds
|
beta-glycogen, lots of mitochondria, myoglobin.
|
|
Occupy 80% of sarcoplasm
|
myofibrils
|
|
Myofibrils are built from three kinds of proteins
|
1) contractile proteins
2) regulatory proteins 3) structural proteins |
|
Myofibrils are held in alignment by the intermediate filaments of
|
desmin
|
|
Desmin filaments encircle the
|
Z disks of the myofibrils and are linked to the Z disk and to each other by plectin filaments.
|
|
Boundary of the sarcomere
|
Z disk
|
|
Length of sarcomere
|
2.25 micrometers
|
|
Only source of Ca++ in skeletal muscle
|
Sarcoplasmic reticulum = smooth ER
|
|
Triads are
|
only found in skeletal muscle. Specialized complexes consisting of a narrow central T tubule flanked on each side by terminal cisternae of the SR.
Located at the A-I junction. Function to provide uniform contraction throughout muscle fibers. |
|
Terminal cisternae are
|
sarcoplasmic reticulum which encircle myofibrils at the A-I junction.
|
|
Calsequestin is
|
present in the lumen of the terminal cisternae, low-affinity for Ca,
|
|
Myofilaments are
|
thick filaments + thin filaments
|
|
Muscle: Satellite cells
|
significant in muscle maintenance, repair, and regeneration
|
|
A band
I band H band M line Z disc |
A band = thick filament + thin filament
I hand = thin filament H band = thick filament M lines = mid-line Z disc = delimits sarcomeres, alpha-actinin + nebulin During muscle contraction, H and I bands disappear. |
|
Microfilament is composed of
|
F actin. has myosin binding site
|
|
Tropomyosin
|
extends for a length of 7 actin monomers, binds troponin complex.
|
|
Troponin is
|
associated with tropomyosin, composed of Troponin T(bind tropomyosin),C(binds calcium),I(binds actin - inhibits interaction of myosin and actin)
|
|
alpha-actinin is
|
short, bipolar, rod-shaped actin-binding protein. bindles thin filaments into parallel arrays and anchors them at the Z disk.
|
|
Nebulin is
|
an elongated, inelastic protein associated with thin filaments, inserts into Z disk and runs parallel to the thin filaments, helps alpha-actinin anchor thin filaments to Z disks and acts as a template for determining the length of actin filaments.
|
|
Cap Z
|
binds for the plus end of the thin filaments. The thin filament (+) ends are anchored in the Z disc, which is built from CapZ and alpha-actinin.
|
|
Tropomodulin caps
|
the minus end of the thin filaments
|
|
Dystrophin (largest known human gene) links
|
thin filaments to integral membrane proteins of the sarcolemma. reinforce and stabilize the sarcolemma during stress of muscle contraction.
|
|
Thick filaments are made of
|
myosin II, myomesin, titin, C protein
|
|
Titin
|
anchors the thick filaments to the Z discs.
|
|
Slow oxidative fibers
|
Postural muscles, maintain posture and aerobic endurance activities.
|
|
Fast Glycolytic fibers
|
Upper limbs, rapid intense movements of short duration (wright lifting, sprinting)
|
|
Sarcolemma is depolarized at the
|
myoneural junction, spreads via T tubules.
|
|
Muscle power stroke is triggered with
|
the release of the phosphate group
|
|
4 steps of skeletal muscle contraction
|
1) Myosin (with ATP bound) hydrolyzes ATP and becomes reoriented and energized
2) Myosin heads bind to actin, forming crossbridges 3) Myosin heads rotate toward center of the sarcomere (power stroke) 4) As myosin heads bind ATP, the crossbridges detach from actin. |
|
Phosphocreatine kinase
|
is an enzyme located at the M line and provides quick burst (9 seconds) of energy (transfer phosphate group to ADP)
|
|
End plate potential is
|
not an ACTION POTENTIAL but is the value about halfway between the equilibrium potentials for Na+ and K+ (0mV).
|
|
Growth of skeletal muscle after birth is due to
|
hypertrophy (not hyperplasia)
|
|
Cardiac muscle fiber
|
accumulates lipofuscin with age. T tubules are located at the Z disks, not the A-I junction. Cardiac = diads (T tubule and 1 SR), not triads.
|
|
2 sources of Ca in cardiac muscle.
|
SR and extracellular space. Extracellular calcium levels affect the heartbeat.
|
|
Cardiac muscle mitochondria are
|
larger and have many more cristae
|
|
2 portions of the intercalated disks
|
Transverse portions (fascia adherens, desmosomes)
Lateral portions (jap junctions) --> functional syncytium. |
|
Only example of mesoderm derived cell which produce peptide hormone and not steroid hormone
|
Atrial cardiac muscle fibers. Contain atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). Both are diuretics and act to decrease reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys; inhibits renin release by the kidneys; decreases blood pressure.
|
|
Cardiac heart beat initiates
|
in the heart but is modulated by the ANS
|
|
Cardiac muscle regeneration
|
does not occur
|
|
Cardiac hypertrophy is due to
|
increased workload. Cardiac muscle fibers become longer and thicker.
|
|
Smooth muscle
|
No striations, no T tubules, ANS
|
|
2 types of smooth muscle
|
1) Visceral (single-unit) smooth muscle. Gap junctions. Stimulation of 1 fiber propagates to many.
2) Multiunit smooth muscle. Few gap junctions. 1 fiber stimulation = 1 fiber contraction. |
|
Visceral (single-unit) smooth muscle is found
|
Valls of small arteries and veins and of hollow organs such as stomach, intestines, uterus, and urinary bladder.
|
|
Multiunit smooth muscle is found
|
walls of large arteries, vas deferens, airways to the lungs, arrector pili muscles, muscles of the iris that adjust pupillary diameter, and in the ciliary body that adjusts focus of the lens.
|
|
Smooth muscle not only contracts but synthesizes
|
extracellular proteins including type III collagen, elastin, GAGs, proteoglycans, external lamina, and growth factors.
|
|
Smooth muscle caveolae are
|
invaginations of the sarcolemma and act as T tubules.
|
|
Souce of calcium for smooth muscle is from
|
extracellular fluid
|
|
True or False. SER in smooth muscle is sparse.
|
True
|
|
"Z disks" in smooth muscle are called
|
dense bodies. formed of alpha-actinin
|
|
Contracted smooth muscle has what shape nucleus
|
corkscrew
|
|
Initiation of smooth muscle contraction varies by type
|
1) vascular smooth muscle...by a nerve impulse
2) visceral smooth muscle...by stretching of the muscle 3) smooth muscle of the uterus...by oxytocin 4) smooth muscle elsewhere...by epinephrine |
|
Type of neural component of the smooth muscle synapse
|
en passant(in passing) - neurotransmitter is released along the length of the axon. Innervated by both SNS and PNS.
|
|
True or False. Smooth muscle can regenerate.
|
True. They retain their mitotic capability, hyperplasia.
|
|
Comparison between muscle tissue
|
see page 34-27
|
|
Muscle cell is synonymous with
|
muscle fiber
|
|
Formation of myofibrils
|
myocytes fuse --> syncytial myotube --> myofibrils
|
|
The length of the A band at rest
|
1.65 micrometers
|
|
In the center of the H zone is
|
the M line
|
|
Skeletal muscle organization from whole muscle to myofilaments
|
Whole muscle-->fasciculus-->muscle fiber-->myofibril-->sarcomeres-->
myofilaments |
|
Thick filament is made up of
|
myosin = non covalently linked light and heavy chains
|
|
Myosin is cleaved by 2 enzymes
|
trypsin (light meromyosin [tail] + heavy meromyosin [heads])
pepsin further cleaves heavy meromyosin (S1 [fist] + S2 [forearm]) |
|
Thin filaments are made up of
|
actin, tropomyosin and troponin
|
|
For polymerization of F-actin to occur, what needs to bind?
|
ATP binds to G-actin
|
|
Tropomyosin covers how many G-actin monomers?
|
7
|
|
Troponin has 3 subunits
|
TnT: tropomyosin binding
TnC: calcium binding TnI: actin binding, inhibits myosin from binding to actin. |
|
4 step to skeletal muscle contraction (starting with myosin head bound to actin)
|
1) ATP binds to myosin head, detaches myosin and actin
2) ATP->ADP+Pi, myosin undergoes conformational change [reaches out about 10 nm] 3) myosin head attaches to actin filament (loses Pi) 4) ADP dissociates, pulls actin about 10 nm, back to step 1. |
|
When no ATP is available to bind to myosin, this causes
|
rigor
|
|
Passive length curve is due to
|
muscle stretching (skeletal muscle is quite elastic)
|
|
Slower repolarization in the muscle action potential is due to
|
slower kinetics of the delayed rectifying K channel
|
|
Long tail depolarization in skeletal muscles is due to
|
T tubules. K+ accumulates in the lumen of the T tubules, shifting the K+ equilibrium potential.
|
|
Where do T tubules occur in skelatal muscle?
|
At the A-I junction
|
|
A triad is made up of
|
2 terminal cisternae and a T tubule
|
|
The terminal cisternae, lateral sacs (intermediate cisternae) and fenestrated collar collectively constitute ...
|
The sarcoplasmic reticulum
|
|
After skeletal muscle contraction, the lateral sacs and fenestrated collar serves to
|
re-sequester the cytoplasmic calcium.
|
|
In skeletal muscle, much of the calcium in the SR lumen is bound to
|
calsequesterin (binds 43 Ca++ per molecule)
|
|
In skeletal muscle, calcium is pumped into the SR via
|
Ca ATPase
|
|
Upon depolarization of the T tubular membrane, dihydropyridine receptors deform and
|
exerts a mechanical force on the calcium release channel causing it to open.
|
|
Muscle can undergo 2 types of contraction
|
1) Isomeric (equal length)
2) Isotonic (equal force) |
|
In muscle contraction:
temporal summation refers to... spatial summation refers to... |
frequency of nerve impulses to muscle
activation of more motor units |
|
True or False. Total cardiac muscle tension increases monotonically with length.
|
True
|
|
3 roles of extracellular calcium in cardiac muscle
|
1) directly activate muscle contraction, although small
2) triggers Ca-release from SR (Ca-induced Ca release) 3) increases the amount of Ca in the SR and thereby increases the force of contraction over time. |
|
Positive inotropic effect is
|
an increase in the force of cardiac muscle contraction (e.g. Ca-channel blockers, digitalis = Na pump inhibiter)
|
|
Calcium is 1)resequestered to the SR and 2)pumped out to extracellular space by
|
1)Ca pump
2)Ca/Na exchanger |
|
Inibits Na pump and increases cardiac contractility
|
digitalis, cardiac glycoside
|
|
Ratio of thin/thick filaments in 1)smooth muscle and 2)skeletal muscle
|
1) 15:1
2) 2:1 |
|
This type of smooth muscle is most common. Cells are electrically coupled to one another and can undergo spontaneous contraction, depolarized by stretch
|
Unitary smooth muscle
|
|
This type of smooth muscle does not contract spontaneously, has more direct innervation and does not react to stretch. Examples are vas deferens(ejaculation) and pilomotor muscles (goosebumps) of the skin.
|
Multi-unit smooth muscle
|
|
Smooth muscle latch state is characterized by
|
a reduced crossbridge cycling rate but high, maintained force.
|
|
Source of calcium in smooth muscle contraction is
|
largely extracellular
|
|
Submembrane vacuoles in smooth muscle which houses SOME calcium
|
caveoli
|
|
In smooth muscle, troponin is absent and smooth muscle contraction is activated by
|
calcium binding to calmodulin
|
|
In contrast to skeletal muscle, control of smooth muscle contraction resides with
|
myosin filament, not the actin filament
|
|
Steps of smooth muscle contraction
|
1) Calcium binds to calmodulin
2) activates myosin light chain kinase which phosphorylates myosin. 3) phosphorylated myosin interacts with actin and contraction ensues. |
|
von Willebrand factor (associated with factor VIII) is stored in...
|
Weibel-Palade bodies of arterial endothelial cells.
|
|
Vascular smooth muscle secretes
|
elasin
|
|
In vasculature, fibroblasts secrete 1) what type of collagens? 2) Main GAG in arteries? 3) Main GAG in veins?
|
1) Type I and III
2) Chondroitin sulfate 3) Dermatan sulfate |
|
All vessels except capillaries are innervated by
|
sympathetic nervous system. Norepinephrine causes vasocontriction.
|
|
von Willebrand disease is associated with
|
prolonged coagulation times
|
|
Vessels have 3 concentric tunics
|
1) Tunica intima
2) Tunica media 3) Tunica adventitia |
|
In arteries, the intima is separated from the media by a fenestrated layer of elastin called the
|
internal elastic lamina (obvious in muscular arteries and arterioles)
|
|
Tunica media consists mainly of
|
vascular smooth muscle
|
|
Larger arteries often exhibit what between the media and the adventitia?
|
an external elastic lamina
|
|
Tunica adventitia consists mainly of
|
type I collagen and elastic fibers
|
|
In veins, which layer is the thickest?
|
Tunica adventitia
|
|
In large vessels, the adventitia contains small blood vessels called
|
vasa vasorum that supply oxygen and nutrients to the cells in the vessel wall.
|
|
4 types of arteries
|
1) elastic (conducting)
2) muscular (distributing) 3) arterioles 4) metaterioles |
|
Properties of elastic arteries
|
thick tunica media, 40-60 elastic lamina, pressure reservoir, vasa vasorum. eg aorta, brachiocephalic, common corotid, subclavian, vertebral, pulmonary, common illiac
|
|
Properties of muscular arteries
|
thick tunica media, 30-40 layers of smooth muscle (can be as little as 3-4), prominent internal elastic lamina, vasa vasorum, most named arteries (eg brachial, radial)
|
|
properties of arterioles
|
terminal vessels of the arteriole system, 1-3 layers of smooth muscle in tunica media, prominent internal elastic lamina, key in regulating blood flow (peripheral resistance)
|
|
Vasoconstriction primarily involves
|
arterioles (sympathetic nerve fibers)
|
|
Vasodilation occurs when
|
sympathetic stimulation decreases (small affect due to parasympathetic)
|
|
True or False. Tunica media is thicker in the lower extremities than in the upper extremities.
|
True
|
|
True or False. Longitudinal smooth muscle bundles accomodate the repeated bending of arteries in areas such as the elbow.
|
True
|
|
True or False. Near the heart, the roots of vessels may have cardiac muscle in the tunica media.
|
True
|
|
Arteries that do not anastomose are known as
|
end arteries
|
|
Blood flow is slowest in the
|
capillaries
|
|
Capillary endothelial cells are generally joined by
|
fascia occludens, desmosomes, and gap junctions
|
|
3 types of capillaries
|
1) continuous (lack pores, have basal lamina, pericytes, do transcytosis)
2) fenestrated (most common, pores 60-80nm w/ diaphragm, basal lamina, no pericytes) 3) sinusoidal (NOT sinusoids, pores without diaphragms 30-40micrometers) |
|
Metabolic functions of endothelial cells of capillaries
|
1) Deactivation of pharm. substances such as bradykinin, serotonin, thrombin, norepi, prostaglandins
2) Breakdown of lipoproteins 3) Release of prostacyclin 4) Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II 5) Metabolism of vasoactive factors |
|
Continuous capillaries are found
|
1) Muscle
2) Fat 3) Bone 4) Connective Tissue 5) CNS 6) BBB 7) Lung 8) Spleen 9) Thymus 10) Gonads 11) Exocrine glands |
|
Fenestrated capillaries are found
|
1) Ciliary body
2) Choriocapillaris 3) Choriod plexus 4) Intestinal villi 5) Stomach 6) Kidney 7) Endocrine glands |
|
Bypassing a capillary bed can happen in 2 ways
|
1) contraction of precapillary sphincter
2) AV shunts (thermoregulation) |
|
3 portal systems
|
1) hepatic portal vein
2) hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system 3) glomerulus-cortical tubule portal system |
|
Veins contain approximate what percent of the blood
|
60
|
|
In veins, most of the wall mass is made up of
|
tunica adventitia
|
|
These vessels drain the capillary beds, have pericytes, don't run with arterioles, allow WBCs to exit.
|
Postcapillary venules
|
|
Histamine looses the cell junction in these vessels.
|
Postcapillary venules
|
|
These vessels run with arterioles
|
muscular venules
|
|
The right atria produces what hormone?
|
atrial natriuretic peptide (increases sodium and water secretion by the kidneys, inhibits renin release, and decreases blood pressure)
|
|
Endocardium is composed of what type of epithelium?
|
simple squamous
|
|
Cardiac skeleton consists of thick bundles of
|
collagen fibers (dense irregular)
|
|
Insulates electrical activity of atria from ventricles
|
cardiac skeleton
|
|
Papillary muscles and chordae tendonae attach to which heart valves?
|
Bicuspid (mitral, LT AV) and Tricuspid (RT AV)
|
|
SA node generates impulses that spread over atria through
|
gap junctions
|
|
Runs from AV node, split into RT and LT, continues as Perkinje fibers
|
AV bundle of His
|
|
Large modified cardiac muscle cells, contain large amounts of glycogen, few myofibrils, fast conduction
|
Perkinje fibers
|
|
How many liters per day drains into lymphatic vessels?
|
3 liters per day
|
|
Lymphatic vessels that transport lipids absorbed by the small intestine
|
lacteal
|
|
Tissues that lack lymphatics
|
cartilage, epidermis, cornea, CNS, bone marrow
|
|
How is lymph pumped?
|
Lymph vessels have 1-way valves
1) Skeletal muscle 2) Respiratory pump |
|
Function of lymph node?
|
Filter the lymph
|
|
Two large lymphatic trunks
|
thoracic and right lymphatic
|
|
Shape of lymph vessels
|
"angular". Very thin wall, large lumen
|
|
5 types of cardiac muscle cells
|
1) Atrial muscle cells
2) Ventricular muscle cells 3) Purkinje fibers 4) Pacemaker cells 5) Atrioventricular cells |
|
The resting membrane potential in fast response cardiac myocytes is determined by the equlibrium potential of
|
K+ (most permeable ion)
|
|
Resting membrane potential in fast response cardiac myocytes is (mV)
|
-90mV
|
|
Slow response cardiac muscle cells have a more depolarized resting membrane potential and therefore there must be...
|
a larger degree of resting permeability to Na+ and/or Ca++
|
|
7 types of channels involved in cardiac action potential
|
1) Voltage-gated Na channels
2) Voltage-gated Ca channels 3) K+ Inward rectifier 4) K+ Transient outward rectifier 5) K+ Delayed outward rectifier 6) ATP-sensitive K+ channel 7) ACh-activated K+ channel |
|
Phase 0 is due to
|
activation of voltage gated Na channels
|
|
Phase 1 is due to
|
inactivation of Na channels and activation of transient outward K channels
|
|
Phase 2 is due to
|
activation of L-type (and T-type) Ca++ channels
|
|
Phase 3 is due to
|
inactivation of L-type Ca channels, activation of *delayed outward rectifying* (also "transient outward rectifying" and "inward rectifying") K+ channels.
|
|
Once at resting potential, the cell can returns to steady state ([Ca++], [K+], [Na+]) via
|
Na/K ATPase, surface Na/Ca exchanger (main), surface Ca++ ATPase (lesser)
|
|
Slow depolarization in nodal cells is due to
|
opening of voltage-gated L-type Ca++ channels (which is slow)
|
|
Fast response cells can be converted to slow response cells by
|
inhibiting Na channels or starting cells at a depolarized potential
|
|
Full atrial systole take approximately how long?
|
90 ms
|
|
Natural rhythm of the AV node
|
15-35 beats/min
|
|
Ventricular systole takes approximately
|
75ms
|
|
Rapid rise in passive tension of cardiac muscle serves to prevent
|
overfilling of the heart
|
|
The P-R interval represents
|
atrial contraction
|
|
The QRS complex represents
|
beginning of ventricle contraction
|
|
The beginning of the T wave represents
|
ventricular relaxation
|
|
3 things that cause residual volume to decrease
|
1) increased heart rate
2) decreased peripheral pressure 3) increased contractility |
|
Passive ventricular filling phase is ended by
|
atrial contraction
|
|
True or False. Atrial contraction accounts for very little filling of the ventricle.
|
True
|
|
Atrial contraction can become important in filling the ventricles during
|
increased heart rate (passive filling time is reduced)
|
|
Starling's Law
|
CO=SV x HR
|
|
Important determinant in determining the energy requirement of the heart
|
afterload. Heart does more "pressure work" than kinetic work.
|
|
2 ways to increase cardiac output
|
1) Increase HR (requires more work = more pressure work/time)
2) Increase SV (requires less work) |
|
Most of the blood pressure drop is across the
|
arterioles (70 mmHg down to 35 mmHg)
|
|
Biggest regulator of blood pressure?
|
Vessel diameter (varias as r^4)
|
|
Portal circulation
|
blood flows through 2 capillary beds instead of 1
|
|
3 main types of intrinsic control
|
1) Myogenic - stretch of vessel = stretch of smooth muscle = contraction of SM
2) Metabolic - metabolic end products result in smooth muscle dilation 3) Endothelial - high sheer stress = NO production by endothelium = smooth muscle dilation |
|
2 types of extrinsic factors
|
1) hormonal - norepi, renin-angiotensin
2) neural - baroreflex, chemoreceptor reflex |
|
1) Blood flow to skin
2) Blood flow to skeletal muscle 3) Blood flow to brain, heart |
1) extrinsic regulation
2) rest = extrinsic, activity = intrinsic 3) intrinsic |
|
Sensory nerve endings in epidermis
|
1) free (nociceptors)
2) Merkel cells |
|
Classification of epidermis
|
stratified squamous keratinized epithelium (from ectoderm)
|
|
epidermis is composed of
|
keratinocytes, melanocytes, langerhans cells, merkel cells
|
|
5 layers of the epidermis
|
1) Stratum basale
2) Stratum spinosum 3) Stratum granulosum 4) Stratum lucidum 5) Stratum corneum |
|
Stratum basale has
|
unipot. stem cells, gives rise to keratinocytes. Mitosis only occurs at night. Melanocytes and Merkel cells
|
|
Stratum spinosum contains
|
2 types of granules (membrane-coating and lamellar bodies) contain glycolipid, prevents water loss/gain.
|
|
Stratum granulosum contains
|
keratohyalin granules (filaggrun), involucrin. Forms waterproof barrier.
|
|
Stratum lucidum (not present in thin skin) contains
|
no distinctive cytologic features. Keratinocytes
|
|
Stratum corneum (dead layer - waterproof layer) contains
|
25-30 layers of flattened, nonnucleated, "keratinized" cells fill with tonofilaments.
|
|
Melanocytes in epidermis are referred to as
|
clear cells
|
|
Melanocytes in epidermis transfer melanin to
|
keratinocytes
|
|
Melanin pigment is degraded by
|
lysosomes of keratinocyte
|
|
Langerhans cells look like
|
melanocytes
|
|
Langerhans cells are located
|
in the stratum spinosum
|
|
Langerhans cells are referred to as
|
clear cells
|
|
Clear cells can refer to
|
Langerhans cells (in stratum spinosum) or melanocytes (in stratum basale)
|
|
tennis racked-shaped granules are
|
Birbeck granules (in Langerhans cells)
|
|
Langerhans cell function
|
antigen presenting cell. Express both MHC-I and MHC-II
|
|
Present in small numbers in the stratum basale, pale cytoplasm with dense-core granules (glutamate), receive afferent nerve terminals, contact Merkel disc, mechanoreceptors. Most numerous in the fingertips
|
Merkel cells
|
|
Thick skin is characterized by
|
prominent stratum corneum and distinct stratum lucidum. More sweat glands than thin, but lack hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and arrector pili muscles.
|
|
Thin skin is characterized by
|
less prominent stratum corneum, lack stratum lucidum, contains hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands.
|
|
Mesodermal origin, dense irregular collagenous, type I collagen, reticular fibers, dermatan sulfate, forms dermal papillae and rete ridges.
|
dermis
|
|
Meissner corpuscles are found in
|
dermis
|
|
Reticular layer of dermis is composed of
|
dense bundles of type I collagen fibers and thick elastic fibers.
|
|
Langer's lines represent
|
varying directions are referred to as the cleavage lines of Langer
|
|
= sudoriferous glands, simple coiled tubular glands. Dark cells secrete mucus-rich material by exocytosis. Clear cells secrete watery, electrolyte-rich material into the canaliculi. Myoepithelial cells contract to expell contents.
|
Eccrine sweat glands
|
|
Aldosterone affects
|
eccrine sweat glands
|
|
Odoriferous glands, located in axilla, areola of nipple, perianal region, eyelids and external auditory canal. Empty into hair follicles. React to emotion and sensory, but not heat.
|
Apocrine Sweat Glands
|
|
Holocrine glands, stimulated by androgens, controlled only by hormones
|
Sebaceous glands
|
|
Hair growth is
|
cyclic
|
|
Autonomic receptor activated by low concentrations of epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla and causes vasodilation?
|
Adrenergic beta 2
|
|
autonomic receptor mediates secretion of epinephrine by the adrenal medulla
|
Cholinergic nicotinic receptors
|
|
autonomic receptor mediates an increase in heart rate
|
adrenergic beta 1 receptors
|
|
adrenergic receptor which produces its stimulatory effects by formation if IP3 and increase in intracellular Ca++?
|
alpha 1 receptors
|
|
autonomic receptor blocked by hexamethonium at the ganglia, but not at the neuromuscular junction?
|
nicotinic receptors
|
|
Cardiac:
1) Fast response action potentials happen in the ... 2) Slow response action potentials happen in the ... |
1) atrial and ventricular muscle cells
2) SA and AV nodes |
|
Cardiac: Norepinephrine speed depolarization at the SA and AV nodes by
|
activating Na+ and Ca++ channels and inhibiting K+ channels
|
|
Cardiac: Acetylcholine slows depolarization at the SA and AV nodes by
|
opening K+ channels and closing Ca++ channels.
|