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189 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are bitewing X-rays primary function?
a. To look for periapical abcess
b. Deciphering interproximal caries
c. Irradiate tumors in the gingiva
d. To look for gingival recession
e. To look for oral lesion
B
Flow of electrons in the X-ray tube is from...
a. Electrons do not flow in the X-ray tube
b. Cathode to anode
c. Anode to cathode
d. Cathode to cathode
e. Anode to anode
b
Low energy X-rays are...
a. Give a high quality radiograph
b. Ineffective in producing radiographs
c. Generated from the K shell of tungsten atom
d. Found in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum
b
Which of the following isn't a periodontal ligament fiber?
a. trans-septal fiber
b. oblique fiber
c. lingual fiber
d. apical fiber
e. horizontal fiber
c
5. A local anesthetic with the following pKa will enter the nerve axon the quickest...
a. 7.4
b. 7.8
c. 6.0
d. 6.5
e. 8.0
c
All of the following local anesthetics are currently used in dental offices except for:
a. Lidocaine
b. Bupivicaine
c. Mepivicaine
d. Articaine
e. Procaine
e
Tori:
a. are benign exostoses
b. usually occur bilaterally in the mandible
c. are a developmental defect
d. all of the above
d
You can refuse treatment to a patient:
a. if they have HIV
b. due to their ethnic background
c. if they do not sign the consent form
d. if they do not have insurance
c
All of the following refers to Nitrous Oxide EXCEPT:
a. anxiety relief
b. minimizes gag reflex
c. used to put the patient to sleep
d. is metabolized by the body quickly
c
The practice of dental hygiene includes the following:
a. Diagnosis
b. Removal of permanent restorations
c. Surgery
d. Prescribing medication
e. Prophylaxis
e
How many years after a patient's death should a dental office keep the patient's dental records?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 15
e. until dentist retires
b
What is proper disposal of patient's chart?
a. shredding
b. incinerated
c. trash disposal
d. public storage
e. on the ocean floor
a
What is the main patheogenesis of mandibular and maxillary tori?
a. genetics
b. environmental
c. mechanical stress
d. a+b
e. a+b+c
e
What is not examined in a I&E exam??
a. TMJ
b. lymph nodes
c. palpation of ears
d. gingival mucosa
e. tonsils
c
What is a symptom of periodontitis but not gingivitis?
a. swelling of gingiva
b. swelling of tonsils
c. cold sores
d. alveolar bone atrophy
e. halitosis
d
How many X-rays are typical of a new patient at the USC school of Dentistry?
a. 20 (16 PA, and 4 bitewings)
b. 22 (18 PA, and 4 bitewing)
c. 18 (14 PA, and 4 Bitewing)
d. 20 (14 PA and 6 Bitewing)
e. 22 (16 PA and 6 Bitewing)
a
Which of the following is not a required new patient sheet for USC school of Dentistry?
a. Medical History
b. CORAH
c. Smoker Assessment
d. Privacy Practice
e. Treatment Consent Form
e
Which of the following is a legal reason to turn down a patient?
a. HIV
b. Active Tuberculosis
c. Alveolitis
d. Endocarditis
e. Cancer
b
What is not a symptom of Gingivitis?
a. Swollen Gums
b. Bleeding Gums
c. Inflamed Gums
d. Bone Resorption
e. Gum Discoloration
d
What details must be included in informed consent?
a. Risks of proposed treatment
b. Alternative Treatments
c. Risks of alternative treatments
d. Risk of no treatment
e. All of the above
e
What details must be included in informed consent?
a. Risks of proposed treatment
b. Alternative Treatments
c. Risks of alternative treatments
d. Risk of no treatment
e. All of the above
e
The periapical film is the film of choice in evaluating: a. root surfaces b. occlusal caries c. proximal caries d. supporting bone e. the periodontal ligament space
a. a,b,e
b. a,c,d
c. a,d,e
d. b,d,e
e. all of the above
c
Cervical burnouts on a radiograph are defined as:
a. decreased x-ray absorption in the cervical area
b. interproximal caries
c. root surface caries
d. 2 and 3
e. none of the above
a
Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?
a. milliamperage
b. exposure time
c. H and D curve
d. machine output
e. half-value layer
e
All of the following are examples of electromagnetic radiation EXCEPT:
a. x rays
b. beta rays
c. gamma rays
d. microwaves
e. radio waves
b
Which of the following causes an increase in radiographic density?
a. decreased mA
b. decreased kVp
c. decreased target-object distance
d. increased object-film distance
e. none of the above
c
The maximum permissible dose equivalent of radiation per week to an occupationally exposed person is:
a. .1 rem (.001 Sv)
b. .2 rem (.002 Sv)
c. .3 rem (.003 Sv)
d. .4 rem (.004 Sv)
e. .5 rem (.005 Sv)
a
Cervical burnouts on a radiograph are defined as:
a. decreased x-ray absorption in the cervical area
b. interproximal caries
c. root surface caries
d. 2 and 3
e. none of the above
a
Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?
a. milliamperage
b. exposure time
c. H and D curve
d. machine output
e. half-value layer
e
Which one of the following is not considered part of the initial interview of the new dental patient?
a. chief complaint
b. review of symptoms
c. treatment plan
d. drug allergy history
e. type of dental insurance
c
The essential components of informed consent are:
a. description of procedure
b. complications and adverse effects of procedure
c. other options to procedure
d. signature of patient, dentist and an observer third party
e. all of the above
e
In the presence of gingival recession, the clinical attachment level is:
a. the pocket depth
b. the pocket depth + gingival recession from the CEJ
c. gingival recession from the CEJ
d. pocket depth – gingival recession from the CEJ
b
What channels do local anesthesia block?
a. calcium
b. potassium
c. sodium
d. chloride
c
For administration of nitrous oxide, what type of supervision is required for the dental hygienist to perform a procedure?
a. direct supervision
b. general supervision
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
a
Dental Materials Safety Sheets are required by:
a. California State Law
b. Federal State Law
c. Both a and b
d. Not legally required
a
n order to refuse a new patient the following occurs: Refusal to sign release form.
a. Refusal to sign release form.
b. Is HIV Posititive?
c. Doesn't have dental insurance?
d. Is loud?
a
One of the ways we need to help Verna Williams is to educate her about the value of proper oral health care. The following are methods teach Ms. Williams:
a. Co-discovery process
b. Intra-oral cameras
c. Computer software
d. Digital Radiography
e. All of the above
e
Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria are important in the development of periodontal disease. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria are new organisms that have displaced native species of the oral flora
b. Porphyromonas gingivalis is a keystone species capable of disrupting recognition of ligand mediated host immune response
c. Prevotella intermedia is found in initial periodontal disease and is responsible for the tissue degeneration leading to attachment loss
d. Candida albicans is an initial gram-negative anaerobic bacteria that alters the microenvironment by blocking host anti-inflammatory response
e. Lactobacillus secretes of basic solution into the sulcus prompting the growth of other gram-negative anaerobic bacteria

38. It is important to schedule regular dental visits
b
In a healthy oral cavity, the most radiopaque region on the radiograph of the following is
a. Dentin
b. Enamel
c. Pulp
d. Alveolar Bone
e. Gingiva
b
Periapical radiographs should include the complete length of the tooth and a minimum of
a. 1 mm of periapical bone
b. 2 mm of periapical bone
c. 4 mm of periapical bone
d. 6 mm of periapical bone
b
Which of the following is NOT a vital sign?
a. Blood pressure
b. Pulse rate
c. Respiratory rate
d. Temperature
e. All are vital signs
e
What effects may smoking have on oral health?
a. Oral cancer
b. Periodontal disease
c. Delayed healing after truth extraction or other oral surgery
d. Halitosis
e. All of the above
e
What CORAH score requires an iatrosedative interview?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 15
e. 18
c
Which of the muscles of mastication cannot be palpated by extra-oral examination?
a. Lateral pterygoid
b. Medial pterygoid
c. Temporalis
d. Masseter
a
A patient with well-controlled diabetes would be considered what ASA Medical Type?
a. ASA Medical Type 1
b. ASA Medical Type 2
c. ASA Medical Type 3
d. ASA Medical Type 4
e. ASA Medical Type 5
b
When obtaining informed consent the patient must be informed of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. description of the proposed treatment
b. cost of the proposed treatment
c. potential risks involved with the treatment
d. benefits and prognosis of proposed treatment
e. risk, benefits, and prognosis of alternative treatments
b
Which of the following statements is true regarding the dental x-ray collimator?
a. It restricts the x-ray beam to a desired size.
b. Absorbs low energy x-rays.
c. Positioned proximal to the filter along the path of the x-rays.
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
No answer
A new patient enters the University of Southern California School of Dentistry clinic. Before being admitted, she is asked to fill out the CORAH Dental Anxiety Questionnaire. She scores 10 points on the questionnaire and this indicates that:
a. She feels tense in dental situations.
b. She is dentally anxious.
c. She feels relaxed in dental situations.
d. She is not dentally anxious.
e. None of the above.
d
A 30 year old male presents as a new patient to the dental clinic. He has no previous dental work and patient's hygiene is good to excellent. Upon exploring mouth during full mouth exam, dentist finds complete dentition with very little staining in pit and fissured grooves, gums lack redness or inflammation, but gum line has receded slightly. Which radiographic x-rays should be taken?
a. Full mouth series X-ray
b. Panoramic X-ray
c. Various periapical films
d. 4 posterior bite-wings plus panoramic X-ray
d
A 30 year old male presents as a new patient to the dental clinic. He has no previous dental work and patient's hygiene is good to excellent. Upon exploring mouth during full mouth exam, dentist finds complete dentition with very little staining in pit and fissured grooves, gums lack redness or inflammation, but gum line has receded slightly. Which radiographic x-rays should be taken?
a. Full mouth series X-ray
b. Panoramic X-ray
c. Various periapical films
d. 4 posterior bite-wings plus panoramic X-ray
e
The normal color of gingiva is pink, which is determined by several factors such as the
a. number and size of blood vessels in the lamina propria
b. concentration of epithelial pigmentation
c. width of attached gingiva
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
d
n regards to dental radiation exposure, deterministic effects are refered to as effects:
a. that cause apoptosis
b. that appear years later to an organism receiving the dose
c. that can potentially harm offspring
d. caused by acute doses after a threshold level has been reached
e. caused by chronic doses after a threshold level has been reached
d
What blood pressure is the highest blood pressure that is okay to treat a patient without further assessments or medical consultation at The Herman Ostrow School of Dentistry?
a. 140/90
b. 141 to 160/91 to 95
c. 161 to 180/96 to 105
d. 181 to 200/106 to 115
e. >201/>116
a
Which of the following is not an example of acquired tooth damage?
a. Erosion
b. Hypoplasia
c. Attrition
d. Abrasion
e. Abfraction
b
Which of the following is NOT a cause of an enlarged thyroid?
a. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
b. Atrophic thyroiditis
c. Iodine deficiency
d. Functioning adenoma
e. Increase in TSH
b
n Verna Williams’ perio-apical radiograph of teeth number 6, the radiolucent space between teeth number 6 and 7 is most likely which of the following:
a. Alveolar bone loss
b. Loss of attachment
c. Deep gingival pocket
d. Canine eminence
e. Inflammed periodontal tissue
d
Which statement is correct regarding oral prophylaxis?
a. Only a dental hygienist may perform the procedure
b. Root planing is an integral part of root maintenance associated with oral prophylaxis
c. Scaling is the supragingival and subgingival calculus removal along with portions of cementum
d. Sealant is applied to prevent the formation of dental plaque
e. All statements above are false
d
The advantages of Nitrous oxide include all of the following except?
a. Immediate pain reduction during a procedure
b. anxiety reduction
c. Long lasting pain reduction
d. none of the above
c
The extraoral finger fulcrum technique involves:
a. Placing the pads and fingers of your hands as support ourside the mouth.
b. Placing your finger fulcrum outside the mouth in order to establish a steady support for allowing wrist movements.
c. Placing the front or back surfaces of your hands on the outside of the mouth as support for instrumentation.
d. Both a & b
e. None of the above
c
Oral prophylaxis includes all of the following except: a) supragingival scaling b) removal of plaque c) subgingival scaling d) removal of calculus e) none of the above
a. Supragingival scaling
b. Removal of plaque
c. Subgingival scaling
d. Removal of calculus
e. none of the above
e
1) The biologically damaging effects of ionizing radiation are divided into the following categories except:
a. Somatic deterministic effects
b. Somatic stochastic effects
c. Genetic stochastic effects
d. Genetic deterministic effects
d
1. All of the following are possible causes of blackening/pigmentation of the gingival mucosa except”
a. Increased activity of melanin production
b. Oral Contraceptives
c. Increased number of melanocytes
d. Gingival tattooing
e. Both a & c
c
What class of malocclusion is characteristic of a protruding mandible?
a. Class I
b. Class II Division I
c. Class II Division II
d. Class III
d
Which of the following are classified as third molar impactions?
a. Mesial
b. Distal
c. Horizontal
d. Vertical
e. All of the above
e
True or False: Tungsten is a metal excited by electrons.
a
What is the proper dosage of Amoxicillin in adults for antibiotic prophylaxis?
a. 100 mg
b. 500 mg
c. 1 g
d. 2 g
d
True or False: Scaling and root planing remove enamel.
a. True
b. False
b
Our patient comes in to the dental office with infections in the base of the root, severe overbite, and some serious deep caries. What is the sequence of the best treatment plan to address these problems?
a. Correct severe overbite, infections, and caries restoration
b. # Address infections, severe overbite, then caries restoration
c. # Restore caries as you get rid of the infection. The overbite can be left alone.
d. # First, get rid of infections, and then restore caries. If patient agrees, overbite may be corrected by orthodontic measures.
e. None of the above
d
A dentist is about to perform dental procedures that require local anesthesia. The patient has high BP. What type of local anesthesia would he choose?
a. Lidocaine
b. CARBOCAINE (mepivacaine hydrochloride without vasoconstrictors)
c. Bupivacaine
d. Two of the above
e. None of the above
b
53. A patients dental records are the property of:
a. The patient
b. The dentist
c. HIPAA board
d. The state board
e. None of the above
b
Bitewing Radiographs are most helpful for identifying?
a. Root abscesses
b. Mal-occlusion
c. Caries in between the teeth
d. Xerostomia
e. Gingivitis
c
Class I occlusion is considered
a. Normal occlusion
b. Mesioocclusion
c. Distoocclusion
d. Malocclusion
e. Hyperocclusion
a
What is the proper sequence of the phases of treatment planning?
a. control – maintenance – holding – definitive
b. maintenance – control – definitive – holding
c. control – holding – definitive – maintenance
d. definitive – control – maintenance – holding
c
Among the following, the most efficient method of brushing is:
a. sulcular brushing
b. the Stillman technique
c. the side-to-side technique
d. the Charter technique
a
Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in the patient with a heart valve abnormality is
a. penicillin.
b. lincomycin
c. C. tetracycline.
d. D. streptomycin.
e. erythromycin
a
Dental plaque arises as a result of enzymatic reactions using which of the following?
a. sucrose and lipid
b. sucrose and saliva
c. glucose and saliva
d. glucose and protein
b
The initial bacteria observed in dental plaque are
a. spirochetes
b. streptococci.
c. staphylococci.
d. actinomycetes.
b
Periodontitis is characterized by the following, except...
a. Loss of Epithelial Attachment
b. Destruction of the Periodontal Ligament
c. Resurgence of Interdental Papilla
d. Desctruction of Alveolar Bone
c
Oral contraceptives suppress which two of the following hormones?
a. FSH and LH
b. Estrogen and progestin
c. Estrogen and progesterone
d. LH and progesterone
e. FSH and progesterone
a
Dental plaque is composed of:
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Epithelial cells
c. Gram-negative bacteria
d. A & C
e. All of the above
e
Which of the following is NOT true with oral contraceptives (birth control pills) promoting hypercoagulation?
a. increases platelet count
b. elevates levels of prothrombin
c. decreases levels of protein S
d. resistance to activate protein C (APC)
e. decrease levels of antithrombin
a
In the State of California, which of the following is true about the duties of dental hygienists:
a. root planning
b. Apply pit and fissure sealants
c. Polish and contour restorations
d. periodontal charting
e. All of the above
e
Which one of the following is not considered part of the initial interview of the new dental patient?
a. chief complaint
b. review of symptoms
c. treatment plan
d. drug allergy history
e. type of dental insurance
c
Which of the following is NOT a part of the ethical principles set forth by the ADA?
a. Patient Autonomy
b. Compassion
c. Justice
d. Veracity
e. Benefice
b
define Veracity
Truth
Dental Assistants are able to perform all of the following procedures except?
a. asking about the patient's medical history and taking blood pressure and pulse
b. teaching patients appropriate oral hygiene strategies to maintain oral health
c. taking impressions of patients' teeth for study casts
d. perform oral prophylaxis
e. taking radiographs if certified
d
Which of the following causes an increase in radiographic density?
a. decreased mA
b. decreased kVp
c. decreased target-object distance
d. increased object-film distance
e. none of the above
c
Which of the following is NOT a type of dental supervision?
a. direct supervision
b. indirect supervision
c. general supervision
d. personal supervision
b
Where is the preferred location for tissue donation for a connective tissue graft?
a. palate
b. buccal surface
c. sublingual surface
d. gluteus maximus
a
Which of the following is NOT a part of the ethical principles set forth by the ADA?
a. Patient Autonomy
b. Compassion
c. Justice
d. Veracity
e. Benefice
b
Which tooth will mandibular tori most likely distort in a radiographic image?
a. . mandibular central incisor
b. mandibular third molar
c. mandibular fourth molar
d. mandibular second premolar
d
Which rule states that the amount of radiation decreases as the distance increases?
a. quadratic square law
b. proportional radiographic law
c. inverse square law
d. exponential exposure law
c
The essential components of informed consent are:
a. description of procedure
b. risks and benefits
c. other options to procedure
d. all of the above
d
1)Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of Nitrous Oxide (N2O) in a medical/dental setting? a] N2O can cause a modest increase in respiratory rate b] N2O can cause an increase in cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure c] N2O alone can be used as a complete general anesthetic d] N2O is a stimulant of the sympathetic nervous system e] N2O is associated with a higher incidence of epinephrine-induced arrhythmias
c
2)Which of the following best describe how an X-ray is produce in an X-ray tube a. An electron from the cathode interacts with an electron in the anode b. A photon from the cathode interacts with an electron in the anode c. An electron from the cathode interacts with the nucleus of an atom in the anode. d. A photon from the cathode interacts with the nucleus of an atom in the anode. e. A photon from the cathode interacts with the nucleus of an atom in the anode.
c
3) What is the most common "gold standard" anaesthetic used in dentistry? a Cocaine b. Lidocaine c. Novocaine d. Carbocaine e. Marcaine
b
4) All of the following duties must be done by RDA or RDAEF under direct supervision of a licensed dentist, EXCEPT: a. Administration of local anesthesia b. Placing a suture c. Placing a permanent restoration d. periodontal soft tissue curettage e. a and b
e
5) Which dental instrument(s) is/are primarily used for the removal of plaque? a. excavator b. scalers c. Periodontal probe d. condensers/pluggers e. carvers
b
Which of the following is true of an x-ray beam in dental imaging?
a. The incident beam is spatially homogenous; the remnant beam is spatially homogenous.
b. The incident beam is spatially homogenous; the remnant beam is spatially heterogenous.
c. The incident beam is spatially heterogenous; the remnant beam is spatially heterogenous.
d. The incident beam is spatially heterogenous; the remnant beam is spatially homogenous.
b
A patient with a prominent, protruded mandible and (usually) a normal maxilla is said to have a jaw structure that is:
a. Prognathic
b. Retrognathic
c. Mesognathic
d. Mandoprotrusional
a
Which of the following is false?
a. X-rays are high-energy photons.
b. X-rays are characterized by their frequency, measured in eV.
c. X-rays are produced from electron interactions with large nuclei.
d. X-rays are an example of electromagnetic radiation.
b
What is the correct order of biofilm formation?
a. Colonization, expansion, production of matrix.
b. Colonization, production of matrix, expansion.
c. Production of matrix, colonization, expansion.
d. Production of matrix, expansion, colonization.
a
Normal gingiva has:
a. Pocket depth, 2mm; mobility, 3mm; furcation, class II.
b. Pocket depth, 3mm; mobility, 1mm; furcation, class I.
c. Pocket depth, 2mm; mobility, 0mm; furcation, none.
d. Pocket depth, 1mm; mobility, 1mm; furcation, none.
c
A typical TMJ examination would NOT include:
a. range of movement
b. tooth mobility measurements
c. muscle tenderness
d. headache experience
e. occlusion
b
itewing radiographs are used to
a. detect caries between teeth
b. examine the margins of restorations
c. determine the length of the root trunk
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
d
order of information gathering during the check-in procedure is the following:
a. Radiographic examination, patient history, clinical examination, diagnostic aids
b. Clinical examination, radiographic examination, patient history, dignostic aids
c. Patient history, radiographic examination, clinical examination, dianostic aids
d. Patient history, radiographic examination, clinical examination, diagnostic aids
e. Diagnostic aids, patient history, clinical examination, radiographic examination
d
Health Insurers and Providers who are covered entities must comply with your right to:
a. Ask to see and get a copy of your health records.
b. Have corrections added to your health information
c. Receive a notice that tells you how your health information may be used and shared
d. Decide if you want to give your permission before your health information can be used or shared for certain purposes, such as for marketing
e. All of the above
e
What form should be used by the dentist to know about patient anxiety scale?
a. HIPAA
b. ADA form
c. CORAH
d. Medical history
e. Pain scale
c
Which is NOT true of acetaminophen?
a. Increases the pain threshold by inhibiting cyclooxygenase in the CNS
b. If taken in excess of the recommended dosage, a toxic metabolite can cause liver injury.
c. Produces antipyresis by blocking the effect of endogenous pyrogen on the hypothalamic heat-regulating center
d. Exerts anti-inflammatory effect by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the peripheral tissues
d
The lateral border of the gingival sulcus is
a. lamina propria
b. epithelial attachment
c. sulcular epithelium
d. dental cuticle
e. junctional epithelium
c
X-rays are produced when
a. neutrons are released by the bombardment of an atom by accelerated electrons
b. electrons shift from a lower to a higher level in an atom
c. protons are released by the bombardment of an atom by accelerated electrtons
d. high speed electrons are suddenly stopped or slowed down by the nucleus of an atom
d
Which of the following causes gingival mucosal discoloration?
a. Jaundice
b. Inflammation
c. Diet
d. Tobacco Use
e. All of the above can cause discoloration in gingival mucosa
e
Blood pressure should be measured on the _______ artery and pulse should be measured on the _______ artery.
a. brachial, ulnar
b. brachial, radial
c. axillary, ulnar
d. axillary, radial
e. axillary, brachial
b
The cardinal signs of inflmmation are:
a. rubor
b. rubor, dolor
c. rubor, dolor, tumor
d. rubor, dolor, tumor, calor
e. rubor, dolor, tumor, calor, functio laesa
e
Temporomandibular joint disorders includes those with true pathology of the joint and those with involvement of the muscles of facial expression.
a. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false.
b. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
c. Both parts of the statement are true.
d. Both parts of the statement are false.
a
Which of the following types of intra-oral radiographs are most useful in detecting interproximal caries?
a. Periapical radiographs
b. Bitewing radiographs
c. PAN radiographs
d. Occlusal radiographs
e. None of the Above
b
What does ASA 3 classification mean?
a. Severe systemic disease, definite functional impairment
b. Severe systemic disease, constant threat to life
c. Mild systemic disease, no functional limitation
d. Unstable moribund patient, not expected to survive 24 hours
a
Which is true when interpreting radiographs?
a. White image represents metal fillings
b. Dark grey image represents healthy enamel
c. Black image represents dense bone material
d. Creamy white image represents the air
a
Anatomic considerations in obtaining excellent periapical dental x-rays include knowledge of the location of the
a. long axis of the teeth
b. apices of the teeth
c. occlusal plane
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
d
Systolic blood pressure is determined by the
a. degree of elasticity of the wall of systemic arteries
b. force of ventricular contraction
c. stroke volume of ventricular contraction
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
e
The short cone dental radiography technique
a. is generally used to take x-rays with the bisecting angle technique
b. produces a larger image than the long cone techniques
c. employs a 12 inch target-film distance
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
d
Which of the following is NOT a standard vital sign in most extra-oral examinations?
a. Body temperature
b. Pulse rate
c. Pain as perceived by patient on a pain scale
d. Blood pressure
e. Respiratory rate
c
Which of the following is NOT protected by HIPAA?
a. Billing Information
b. Information your doctors put in your medical record
c. Conversations between you and your doctor about treatment
d. The right to be informed about all risks associated with a procedure
e. Information about you in your health insurer's computer system
d
Which of the following term best describes the ability for different tissue densities to absorb radiation?
a. Bremsstrahlung effect
b. Inverse square law
c. Attenuation
d. T1-weighted image
e. Radiation disintegrations per second
c
Undisturbed dental plaque is associated with a change in the oral flora from gram positive aerobes to:
a. Gram positive anaerobes
b. Gram negative anaerobes
c. Gram negative aerobes
d. Gram indeterminate aerobes
e. Gram indeterminate anaerobes
b
Saliva can BEST be described as: I. A multifunctional liquid that helps in the body's immunity and digestion II. Made primarily during the process of chewing III. Uniform, made up of the same components throughout the mouth IV. Is mostly produced by the total contribution of nearly 400 minor salivary glands
a. I, II, III and IV
b. I and III
c. I, II, and III
d. I, III, and IV
e. None of the above
e
According to the Patient Bill of Rights, USCSD clinic patients have the right to the following except:
a. considerate, respectful, and confidential treatment
b. select the student doctor who will treat the patient
c. know in advance the type and expected cost of treatment
d. expect dental team members to use appropriate infection and sterilization controls
e. ask your student doctor to explain all the treatment options regardless of your dental insurance benefit coverage or cost
b
According to HIPAA, under which conditions can a health care provider disclose protected health information, without an individual's authorization?
a. Treatment
b. Health care operations
c. Payment
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
e
Which of the following is NOT a USC guideline for infection control?
a. Treat all patients as they are infectious.
b. Patients should wear protective eyewear during all treatment procedures.
c. Disinfect all clinical contact surfaces.
d. Dispose of contaminated tan waste bag in the large, red biohazardous waste containers.
e. None of the above.
e
What is the ASA (American Society of Anesthesiology) classification status of a patient with severe systemic disease and definite functional impairment?
a. ASA II
b. ASA III
c. ASA IV
d. ASA V
e. ASA VI
b
Which of the following describes a benefit of taking a COX-2 inhibitor as opposed to a traditional NSAID?
a. COX-2 inhibitors have a more significant effect on platelet aggregation.
b. COX-2 inhibitors show a lower risk for the development of GI bleeding.
c. COX-2 inhibitors can be taken for a long time without any adverse effects.
d. COX-2 inhibitors do not affect prostaglandin synthesis.
b
Define NSAID
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, usually abbreviated to NSAIDs or example ibuprofen. They are drugs with analgesic and antipyretic (fever-reducing) effects and which have, in higher doses, anti-inflammatory effects.
Over 90% of intraoral cancers are squamous cell carcinomas, the majority of which originate from non-keratinized mucosa.
a. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false.
b. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
c. Both parts of the statement are true.
d. Both parts of the statement are false.
c
Which of the following types of cells contribute to a darkish color of gingiva in some individuals with dark skin colors?
a. Melanocytes
b. Keratinocytes
c. Merkel Cells
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
d
Standard Precautions Guidelines does NOT apply to
a. blood
b. urine
c. nonintact skin
d. sweat
e. mucous membranes of nose and mouth
d
The following medical condition may have an oral - systemic association
a. Cardiovascular disease
b. Fetal development
c. Diabetes
d. Orthopedic implant failure
e. All of the above
e
Which of the following show up as radiolucent structures in an x-ray?
a. Mental foramen
b. Cervical burnout
c. Lamina dura
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
d
119. Which of the following is NOT a vital sign
a. Blood pressure
b. Temperature
c. Pulse rate
d. Pulse pressure
e. Respiratory rate
d
Normal body temperature?
98.6 F or 37. C
Normal Blood pressure?
120/80
Pulse rate
A normal pulse rate for a healthy adult, while resting, ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute (BPM).
Normal respiratory rate
14 to 20 per minute
Which Title covers health care professionals under the Americans With Disabilities Act?
a. Title I
b. Title II
c. Title III
d. Title IV
c
A digital radiographic image is composed of pixels, each pixel representing pure black or pure white.
a. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false.
b. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
c. Both parts of the statement are true.
d. Both parts of the statement are false.
a
Oral cancers occur most often on the
a. lower lip, tongue, floor of mouth
b. upper lip. tongue, soft palate
c. lower lip, tongue, soft palate
d. upper lip, tongue, floor of mouth
e. lower lip. upper lip, tongue
a
Which of the following is NOT an advantage/application of panoramic X-rays?
a. Assess tooth development in a child
b. Help identify a fractured jaw
c. Detailed detection of proximal caries
d. Forensic identification of unrecognizable bodies
e. Save time and radiation exposure
c
Which of the following medical type shows the patients with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
a. ASA I
b. ASA II
c. ASA III
d. ASA IV
e. ASA V
d
Define Medical Type
Several protocols have been developed to facilitate efficient and accurate preoperative assessment of medical risk. These are the guidelines to assess any hazards associated with dental or oral surgical procedures under local or regional anesthesia.
Define Medical type ASA 1
ASA 1 A normal healthy patient None (stress reduction is indicated)
Define Medical type ASA II
ASA 2 A patient with mild systemic disease Possible stress reduction and other mild modifications as needed
Define Medical type ASA III
ASA 3 A patient with severe systemic disease that limit activity; but is not incapacitating Possible strict modifications; stress reduction and medical consultation are priorities
ASA 4
A patient with an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life Minimal emergency care in office (may consist of pharmacological management only); hospitalized for stressful elective treatment; medical consultation urged
ASA 5
A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation Treatment in the hospital is limited to life support only e.g airway and hemorrhage management
ASA 6
A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes Not applicable
Where is the Cusp of Carabelli most likely found?
a. Mandibular first molars
b. Mandibular second molars
c. Maxillary first molars
d. Maxillary second molars
e. Both maxillary and mandibular third molars
c
1) When palpating during a lymph node examination of a patient, a node that denotes cancer generally would be ________ and NOT _________ .
a. painful, enlarged
b. soft, sensitive
c. warm, mobile
d. firm, mobile
e. None of the above
d
torus or tori grow(s) on which of the following places?
a. Lingual surface of mandible
b. Midline of the palate
c. Mandibular symphysis
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
d
An extraoral examination includes palpation of the
a. lymph nodes
b. TMJ
c. salivary glands
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
e
Who is exempt from HIPAA regulations?
a. Health Insurance Companies (e.g. HMOs, company health plans)
b. Government Health Care Programs (e.g. Medicare and Medicaid)
c. Military and veterans health care programs
d. American Red Cross providing emergency communication services for military servicemen and women
e. Health Care Clearinghouses (entities that process nonstandard health information into a standard)
d
According to the ADA what is the purpose of Informed Consent?
a. Your dentist wants you to understand the risks and benefits of treatment you are considering
b. Your dentist wants you to understand the alternatives available
c. Have your dentist answer any questions
d. All of the above are correct
e. None of the above are correct
d
It has been found that cell radiosensitivity is directly proportional to the rate of cell division and inversely proportional to the degree of cell differentiation.
a. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false.
b. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
c. Both parts of the statement are true.
d. Both parts of the statement are false.
c
Choose the answer that best fill in the blanks. About ____% of non-stimulated saliva in the oral cavity is produced by the ___________gland(s).
a. 60%, parotid
b. 80%, sublingual
c. 70%, submandibular
d. 50%, minor salivary
e. none of the above are correct
c
Which of the following statements about x-rays is FALSE:
a. X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation.
b. X-rays have no mass or charge.
c. Characteristic x-rays have a continuous spectrum of energy.
d. X-rays are a form of ionizing radiation.
e. X-rays are emitted by electrons that drop down from a higher energy level of the bombarded atom
c
Which of the following is NOT a type of cell found in the epithelium of the attached gingiva?
a. Melanocyte
b. Merkel cell
c. Langerhans cell
d. Keratinocyte
e. Clara cell
e
Which of the following is true about HIPAA?
I. Title I protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs.
II. Privacy Rule establishes regulations for the use and disclosure of Protected Health Information (PHI), which is any information that concerns health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to an individual.
III. While the Privacy Rule pertains to all Protected Health Information (PHI) including paper and electronic, the Security Rule deals specifically with Electronic Protected Health Information (EPHI).
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. I and II
e. I, II, and III
e
Which of the following is NOT true about radiation safety?
a. The operator should stand at least 6 feet away from the patient or behind a protective barrier when making an exposure to radiation.
b. Each patient undergoing dental radiography should be covered with a protective apron of greater than 0.25 mm lead equivalent material to shield the gonadal area and thyroid glands.
c. ALARA Policy applies to patients but not to occupational workers.
d. Two layers of 5/8 inch thick dry wall should be provided between rooms when dental x-ray units are installed in adjacent rooms.
e. Neither the x-ray tube housing or the cone shall be hand held during exposure.
c
A doctor may refuse treatment to accept an individual as a patient if the individual
a. refuses to sign the consent form
b. has been diagnosed with HIV
c. is from a different ethnic backgrown
d. is disabled
a
In what area of the mouth is oral cancer most likely to be found during an intra-oral examination?
a. Dorsal tongue
b. palate
c. Floor of mouth
d. buccal mucosa
e. Gingiva
c
All of the following are included in the medical history form, except
a. allergies
b. current medications
c. ethnic backgrown
d. emergency information
e. date of last dental visit
c
When a new patient who has not seen a dentist in several years comes to a dental facility, in what order should the following procedures be performed? A. Extra-oral examination B. Determination of medical typing C. Intra-oral examination D. Give a series bite-wing x-rays
a. CABD
b. BDAC
c. BCAD
d. DBCA
e. BACD
e
Which of the following are ADA guidelines for prescribing dental radiographs?
a. Protective thyroid collars and aprons should be used.
b. Used by the dentist only after reviewing the patient's health history and completing a clinical examination.
c. The recommendations are subject to the clinical judgment of the dentist.
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
e
The HIPAA privacy rule pertains to all protected health information while the security rule pertains to electronic protected health information.
a. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false.
b. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
c. Both parts of the statement are true.
d. Both parts of the statement are false.
c
Lymphadenopathy is an abnormality in the size/character of lymph nodes caused by the invasion/ propagation of either inflammatory cells or neoplastic cells into the nodes.
a. The first part of the statement is true, the second part is false.
b. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is true.
c. Both parts of the statement are true.
d. Both parts of the statement are false.
c
Which of the following causes distortion in the parallel dental x-ray technique?
a. Film and object not parallel to each other.
b. Central x-ray beam is not perpendicular to the object
c. Smaller focal - object distance.
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
e
Which one of the following is true about the gingiva?
a. The width of attached gingiva extends from the free gingival groove to the mucogingival line.
b. The attached gingiva displays relatively non-prominent rete ridges.
c. The attached gingiva is covered by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
a
Which of the following is NOT true about a torus palatinus/mandibularis?
a. Known as an exostosis
b. Gradual growth in size, but self-limiting
c. Pre-malignant lesions
d. Can be uni- or multi-lobated
e. Removal of tori generally not necessary unless the need for prosthetic treatment
c
Which of the following is NOT a cause of an enlarged thyroid?
a. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
b. Atrophic thyroiditis
c. Iodine deficiency
d. Functioning adenoma
e. Increase in TSH
b
Hashimoto disease
an autoimmune disease causing chronic inflammation and consequential failure of the thyroid gland.
Which of the following is not an example of acquired tooth damage?
a. Erosion
b. Hypoplasia
c. Attrition
d. Abrasion
e. Abfraction
b
Hypoplasia
Hypoplasia is underdevelopment or incomplete development of a tissue or organ.[1] Although the term is not always used precisely, it properly refers to an inadequate or below-normal number of cells.[2] Hypoplasia is similar to aplasia, but less severe. It is technically not the opposite of hyperplasia (too many cells). Hypoplasia is a congenital condition, while hyperplasia generally refers to excessive cell growth later in life.
What blood pressure is the highest blood pressure that is okay to treat a patient without further assessments or medical consultation at The Herman Ostrow School of Dentistry?
a. 140/90
b. 141 to 160/91 to 95
c. 161 to 180/96 to 105
d. 181 to 200/106 to 115
e. >201/>116
a
what are the systolic and diastolic values for Stage 1 hypertension
140-159/90-99
What blood pressure is the highest blood pressure that is okay to treat a patient without further assessments or medical consultation at The Herman Ostrow School of Dentistry?
a. 140/90
b. 141 to 160/91 to 95
c. 161 to 180/96 to 105
d. 181 to 200/106 to 115
e. >201/>116
a
what are the systolic and diastolic values for Stage 1 hypertension
140-159/90-99
In regards to dental radiation exposure, deterministic effects are refered to as effects:
a. that cause apoptosis
b. that appear years later to an organism receiving the dose
c. that can potentially harm offspring
d. caused by acute doses after a threshold level has been reached
e. caused by chronic doses after a threshold level has been reached
d
The normal color of gingiva is pink, which is determined by several factors such as the
a. number and size of blood vessels in the lamina propria
b. concentration of epithelial pigmentation
c. width of attached gingiva
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
d
An amalgam tattoo
a. occurs as a macular or slightly raised "lesion"
b. appears as a blue, black or gray pigmentation
c. is most commonly found in the gingiva, alveolar mucosa, buccal mucosa
d. b and c
e. a, b and c
e
A student-doctor takes the blood pressure (b.p.) of a new patient. He notices that the patient has a systolic b.p. of 165 and a diastolic b.p. of 100. What should the student-doctor do next?
a. Continue on with the intra/extra-oral examination
b. Call Dr. STAT immediately.
c. Repeat the b.p. measurement three times at 5-10 min. intervals.
d. Take a blood sample of the patient
e. Refer immediately to hospital E.R. or M.D. with help.
c