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265 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Describe Einsmenger's Physiology.
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Elevated pulmonary blood flow can result in vascualr disease and shunt reversal
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This rare congenital heart defect is a shunting marked by a reversal of flow direction, and marked hind-limb exercise intolerance.
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Right to Left PDA
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What kind of murmur is associated with a right to left PDA?
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NONE!
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How is right to left PDA palliatively treated?
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Therepeutic phlebotomy
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LIst the four defects that make up the tetrology of Fallot.
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VSD
Pulmonic stenosis Right ventricular hypertrophy Aortic malposition |
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List three ways to address a Tetrology of Fallot.
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Surgical repair under bypass
Phlebotomy Beta-blockade |
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True or false: Most congenital cardiac defects are detected before the onset of clinical signs.
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True
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Are there more subaortic stenoses or aortic stenoses in the dog? In the cat?
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Subaortic stenosis in dogs
Aortic stenosis in cats |
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A mild semilunar valve stenosis is defined by a pressure gradient of under...
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40 mmHg
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A severe semilunar valve stenosis is defined by a pressure gradient of over...
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80 mmHG
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In which dog breeds is SAS most commonly seen?
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Newfoundland (genetic trait)
Golden Retrievers Rottweillers Boxers |
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Describe the physical findings associated with subaortic stenosis.
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Systolic murmur over left heart base
Hypokinetic (weak) arterial pulse. |
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True of false: Even a mild subaortic stenosis will drastically shorten the life of an affected patient.
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False. Mild SAS does not typically shorten the patient's life.
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What is the accepted screening method for SAS?
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Ascultation
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True or false: Surgical rediction of SAS tends to have a high success rate.
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False. Surgical gradient rediction may not affect survival.
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Name two non-surgical treatments for SAS.
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Balloon dilation
Beta blockers like atenolol may decrease HR and myocardial oxygen demand. |
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Is a patient with untreated SAS more likely to die of CHF or sudden cardiac arrest?
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Sudden cardiac arrest
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DO VSD's occur more commonly high or low in the interventricular septum?
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High, in the membranous septum, close to the aortic valve.
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An isolated VSD causes shunting of blood in what direction in the heart?
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Left to right
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The clinical importance of a VSD depends upon what two factors?
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Size of the defect
Presence of other defects |
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VSD blood shunting causes a volume overload of which side of the heart?
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Left atrium and left ventricle
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How commonly does VSD occur in cats?
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Relatively commonly
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In which dog breeds soes VSD occur most commonly?
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Bloodhound, English bulldog, shiba inu
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Describe the murmur associated with a VSD.
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Systolic murmur
Restrictive defects typically associated with a right apical "thrill" |
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True or false: Any VSD is inevitably fatal without surgical repair.
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False. Most VSD in small animals are small and do not require therapy.
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How are large VSD's treated?
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Surgery under bypass
Medical therapy (ACE inhibition, furosemide, digoxin, pimobendan) |
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List some defects that may occur concurrently with a VSD.
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Aortic valve insufficiency
R ventricular outflow obstruction. |
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List the four most common congenital heart diseases in dogs.
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Pulmonis stenosis
Subaortic stenosos PDA VSD |
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How common is atrial septal defect in the dog?
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Relatively uncommon
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Murmur associated with an atrial septal defect is caused by...
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Functional pulmonic stenosis
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Tricuspid valve dysplasia occurs most commonly in which dog breed?
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Labradors
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How common is AV valve dysplasia in cats?
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Relatively common
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How is an AV valve dysplasia corrected?
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Requires cardiopulmonary bypass.
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Heart defects that result in venous admixture fall under this classification.
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Cyanotic heart disease
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Cyanotic heart disease results from shunting of blood flow in what direction?
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Right to left
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Markedly elevated right atrial, right ventricular and/or pulmonary artery pressures cause blood flow shunting in which direction?
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Right to left
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Cyanotic heart disease results whenthere is a shunt and one of the following 3 conditions.
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Tricuspid stenosis
Severe pulmonic stenosis Pulmonary hypertension associated with elevated vascular resistance |
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True or false: Cyanotic heart disease may result from increased pulmonary vascular resistance or pulmonary edema.
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False. Not pulmonary edema.
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List some clinical signs associated with cyanotic heart disease.
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Exercise intolerance
Complications of polycythemia |
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Cardiac output is a function of what two factors?
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Stroke volume
Heart rate CO= SV X HR |
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At what point does HR no longer correlate with CO?
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When HR becomes so high that ventricular filling is impaired.
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The force that stretches the myocardium prior to contraction. Estimated by end-diastolic volume.
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Preload
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Name the principle that states that preload and cardiac output are directly related.
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Frank-Starling
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The forces that oppose ventricular ejection.
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Afterload
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How is afterload related to cardiac output: inversely or directly?
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Inversely
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An important determinant of cardiac afterload is the pressure in this vessel.
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Aorta
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List three determinants of cardiac output.
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Heart rate
Stroke volume Contractility |
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How is contractility related to CO: inversely or directly?
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Directly
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Refers to the intrinsic, load independent ability of cardiac muscle to shorten.
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Contractility
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A syndrome of clinical signs that results from impaired emptying or filling of the heart.
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Heart failure
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True or false: Heart failure and heart disease are synonymous.
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False. Heart failure is a syndrome that can result from any heart disease.
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What is the prognosis for heart failure in the event that the cause cannot be determined?
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Terminal
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Left heart failure results in what primary clinical finding?
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Pulmonary edema
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Ascites is usually associated with failure of which side of the heart?
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Right side
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The most common heart disease in dogs is...
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Chronic degenerative valvular disease
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The most common heart disease in cats is...
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Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
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Describe the typical signalment for a dog with chronic degenerative valvular disease.
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Small dogs
Geriatric Male Breed or familial predisposition |
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List an easily preventable canine heart disease with a high distribution in the Southeastern US.
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Heartworm disease
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Describe the typical signalment for dilated cardiomyopathy in dogs.
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Large or Giant breeds
Middle age or younger Male Familial (especially Dobermans and Boxers) |
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This breed has a very strong predisposition for arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy.
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Boxers
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German Shepherds and Golden Retrievers seem to have an increased incidence of this neoplastic pericardial disease.
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Hemangiosarcoma
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What group of dogs seem to be predisposed to heart base tumors?
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Brachycephalic breeds
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List some dog breeds that have a predisposition for patent ductus arteriosis.
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Shetland sheepdogs
German shepherd Miniature poodle |
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PDA is seen more commonly in which gender in dogs?
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Female
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List some dog breeds that have a predisposition for subaortic stenosis.
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Golden retrievers
Newfoundlands Boxers |
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List some dog breeds with a predisposition for pulmonic stenosis.
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Bulldogs
Terriers Pomeranians |
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The American Cocker Spaniel is commonly afflicted with these two acquired heart diseases.
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Chronic degenerative valvular disease
Dilated cardiomyopathy |
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Describe the typical signalment for feline HCM.
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Young to middle aged
Male Familial in Maine Coon, Persian breeds |
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Describe the typical signalment for feline RCM.
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Older
Male End stage HCM? |
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This heart condition may be the end-stage result of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
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Restrictive cardiomyopathy
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This feline heart disease has been linked to taurine deficiency.
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Dilated cardiomyopathy
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A patient with heart disease will likely have some of these clinical signs.
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Exercise intolerance
Anorexia Weight loss Dyspnea Cough Syncope Nocturnal restlessness |
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True or false: Cats with congestive heart failure commonly present with a history of weight loss.
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False
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True or false: Small dogs with congestive heart failure commonly present with a history of weight loss.
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True
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Is inspiratory dyspnea or expiratory dyspnea associated with upper airway obstruction?
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Inspiratory dyspnea
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Often the first clinical sign of feline heart disease.
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Dyspnea
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Primary client complaint in both dogs and cats with pulmonary edema.
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Dyspnea
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True or false: Cough is a primary indicator of heart disease in cats.
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False
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Are dogs or cats more often capable of concealing the early signs of heart disease, such as exercise intolerance?
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Cats (less active)
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Describe an incidence of cardiac-related syncope.
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Brief
No post-ictus No defecation No tonic/clonic movements Rear limb weakness May cry out |
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List the best initial diagnostic test to find out why a patient is coughing or dyspneic.
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Radiographs
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List the best initial diagnostic test to find out why a patient has a cardiac arrhythmia.
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Electrocardiogram
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List the best initial diagnostic test to find out why a patient has a heart murmur or gallop sound.
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Echocardiogram
(Color flow Doppler) |
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List two diagnostic tests used to find out why a patient has pleural effusion or ascites.
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Cytology
Central venous pressure |
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When a patient who displays signs of right ehart failure but has a non-definitive diagnosis, this minimally invasive diagnostic test can provide more information.
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Central venous pressure
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A central venous pressure above 15 mmHg is indicative of...?
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Right heart failure
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List a leakage enzyme that is indicative of myocardial inflammation or ischemia.
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Cardiac troponin I and T
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List a cardiac biomarker that can be used to determine whether a patient's dyspnea is cardiac or respiratory in origin.
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Brain natriuretic peptide
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This cardiac biomarker is released from the ventricle in response to increased wall tension and can be used to rule in or rule out heart failure in dyspneic animals.
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Brain natriuretic peptide
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Any structural or functional cardiac abnormality can be classified as...
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Heart disease
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Many clinical signs that result from heart disease may also result from...
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Respiratory tract disease
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Typical pulse range for a dog in the clinic.
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70-160
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Typical pulse range for a cat in the clinic.
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160-240
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Typical pulse range for a horse.
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24-50
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Typical pulse range for a cow.
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60-110
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Common site for taking the pulse in dogs and cats.
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Femoral artery
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List two characteristics that are important when feeling a pulse.
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Amplitude (strength)
Quality |
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What determines the amplitude of a pulse?
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Pulse pressure
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Pulse pressure depends upon what cardiac factors?
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Stroke volume
Aortic distensibility Resistance to flow End diastolic volume of the arteries Heart rate |
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Equal to the difference between the systolic pulse and diastolic pulse.
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Pulse pressure
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What is indicated by a hypokinetic/weak arterial pulse?
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Small stroke volume
Seen with hypovolemia ,or possibly heart disease |
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What are some causes of an absent arterial pulse?
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Obstruction due to thromboembolism
Artifact of poor technique or a fat patient |
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List some causes of a bounding/hyperkinetic arterial pulse
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Anemia
Hyperthyroidism Aortic valve insufficiency PDA |
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What is indicated by the height and degree of distension of the jugular pulse?
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Right atrial/ right ventricular diastolic pressure
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How should a patient be positioned if central venous pulse is to be measured?
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Standing or sternal
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True or false: When CO drops suddenly, CRT immediately becomes prolonged.
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False. CRT maintained for a while even post mortem.
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List two causes of mucous membrane pallor.
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Anemia (decrease in oxyhemoglobin)
Vasoconstriction |
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List some causes of peripheral cyanosis.
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Blood stasis
-low CO -Thrombus |
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List some causes of central cyanosis.
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Lung disease
Rarely due to heart defects such as Tetrology of Fallot. |
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Cyanosis occurs when deoxyhemoglobin exceeds this level
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> 4 mg/dL
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Where is the point of maximal intensity for asculting the heart beat in healthy animals?
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Over the left apex
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Palpable vibration of chest wall associated with a high intensity murmur.
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Thrill
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S1 is associated with this cardiac event.
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AV valve closure
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S2 is associated with this cardiac event
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Semilunar valve closure
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S3 is associated with this cardiac event.
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Early diastolic filling
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S4 is associated with this cardiac event.
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Atrial contraction
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Outflow tract stenosis, volume load, bundle branch block (PVC's) or physiologic responses to respiration may all delay this cardiac event.
As a result, which heart sound is split? |
Semilumar valve closure (S2)
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A delay in AV valve closure may be the result of this condition.
As a result, which heart sound is split? |
Bundle branch block
Splits S1 |
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A high frequency, systolic sound associated with mitral valve prolapse.
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"Click"
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Is a "click" associated with mitral valve regurgitation heard during systole or diastole?
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Systole
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A "click" heard while asculting an older, small-breed dog could be a precursor to this condition.
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Mitral valve regurgitation
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Refers to the audibility of S3 or S4 in dogs and cats.
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Gallop sounds
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When does a "gallop sound" become audible in dogs and cats?
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When atrial pressures are high and the ventricle is close to its elastic limit.
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In which species is a "gallop" sound considered normal?
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Horse
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Is a "click" associated with mitral valve regurgitation heard during systole or diastole?
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Systole
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A "click" heard while asculting an older, small-breed dog could be a precursor to this condition.
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Mitral valve regurgitation
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Refers to the audibility of S3 or S4 in dogs and cats.
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Gallop sounds
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When does a "gallop sound" become audible in dogs and cats?
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When atrial pressures are high and the ventricle is close to its elastic limit.
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In which species is a "gallop" sound considered normal?
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Horse
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Almost all heart murmurs can be explained by this change in blood flow.
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Acceleration
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How can anemia (HCT < 17) cause a murmur?
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Decreases viscosity of blood
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These three qualities are used to characterize a murmur.
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Intensity
Timing PMI |
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A very soft, focal murmur is likely a Grade...
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Grade 1
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Grade given to a loud murmur with a thrill that is audible even when the stethoscope is lifted from the chest.
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Grade 6
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A murmur occurring between S1 and S2 is described as...
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Systolic
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A murmur occurring between S2 and S1 is described as...
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Diastolic
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A murmur that begins during systole and that persists beyond S2 is described as...
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Continuous
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The PMI for aortic and pulmonic murmurs is over the...
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Left heart base
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The PMI for a mitral valve murmur is over the...
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Left apex
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Most murmurs in cats are heard here.
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Along the sternal borders
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Type of murmur resulting from an outflow tract obstruction.
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Ejection
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Type of murmur resulting from AV reguritation. Like a mid-systolic "plateau."
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Regurgitant
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Murmurs that occur int he absence of structural cardiac disease in animals that are otherwise normal. Typically heard in puppies, kittens, and adult horses.
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Innocent murmurs
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These kinds of murmurs occur in high cardiac output states like thyrotoxicosis, fever, or athleticism.
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Flow/ Functional murmurs
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The two physiologically disctinct polulations of cells within the heart.
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Specialized conduction cells ("pacemaker" cells)
Working cardiomyocytes |
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What exactly is measured by an EKG?
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Potential differences across the leads
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When is an EKG indicated?
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When the heart rate is too fast, too slow, or irregular.
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When a wave of depolarization moved toward the positive lead of an EKG, is the resulting deflection recorded as positive or negative?
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Positive
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Describe the standard positioning and lead placement for an EKG.
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Patient is right lateral recumbency, with leads just below the olecranon and over the patellar ligament.
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On Lead II of an EKG, where is the positive pole located on the body?
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Left leg
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Describe the directions in which the normal heart depolarizes.
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Right to left
Cranial to caudal Dorsal to ventral |
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What event does the P wave indicate on an EKG?
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Atrial depolarization
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What event does the QRS complex indicate on an EKG?
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Ventricular depolarization
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What event does the T wave indicate on an EKG?
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Ventricular repolarization
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The dominant direction of ventricular activation is called the...
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Mean electrical axis (MEA)
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Any deviation from regular sinus rhythm
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Arrhythmia
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List two ways in which arrhythmias may develop.
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Prevention of initiation or propagation of the wave front.
Spontaneous depolarization of working myocytes. |
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Electrolyte abnormalities, acid base abnormalities, "autonomic imbalances," and structural cardiac disease can all cause this type of arrhythmia.
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Tachyarrhythmia
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Fibrosis of the conduction system of the heart and high vagal tone can both cause this kind of arrhythmia.
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Bradyarrhythmia
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What makes an arrhythmia a "sinus arrhythmia?"
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P wave of normal morphology precedes every QRS by a consistent and believable PR interval.
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Is sinus arrhythmia physiologic or pathologic? What causes it?
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Physiologic, dependent on vagal discharge
Often accompanies by wandering sinus pacemaker |
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How does the sinus rhythm change with respiration in a healthy individual?
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HR increases on inspiration
HR decreases on expiration |
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Tachycardia in the dog occurs when the HR is above...
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160 bpm
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Tachycardia in the cat occurs when the HR is above...
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240 bpm
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Tachycardia in the horse occurs when the HR is above...
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50 bpm
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Bradycardia in the dog occurs when the HR is below...
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70 bpm
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Bradycardia in the cat occurs when the HR is below...
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140 bpm
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Bradycardia in the horse occurs when the HR is below...
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24 bpm
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These tachyarrhythmias arise proximally to the bundle of His.
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Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias (SVTA)
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How does the QRS appear with an SVTA?
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Narrow (normal)
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These arrhythmias often occur early, have a narrow QRS, and are ofted associated with diseases that cause atrial distension (CVD, DCM, etc)
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Supraventricular premature complexes
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These arrhythmias are usually regular and rapid, start and stop abruptly, and have a narrow QRS.
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Supraventricular tachycardia
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These arrhythmias are rapid, irregular, have a narrow QRS, and lack a P wave. They are usually associated with diseases that result in atrial distension like DCM.
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Atrial fibrillation
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Why does atrial fibrillation occur primarily in larger animals?
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Critical mass of atrial myocardium required to support arrhythmia of fibrillation.
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Atrial fibrillation may occur in these species in the absence of structural disease.
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Horses
Giant breed dogs |
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What can help distinguish a physiologic tachyarrhythmia from a pathologic one?
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Pathologic arrhythmias start and stop abruptly.
Physiologic changes occur gradually. |
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On an EKG, this arrhythmia has a regular pace, starts and stops abruptly, and has a narrow QRS complex.
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Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
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This arrhythmia is rapid and irregular, with a narrow QRS wave. No P wave present.
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Atrial fibrillation
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On an EKG, these arrhythmias occur early and have "wide and bizarre" QRS complexes.
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Ventricular premature complexes
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On an EKG, these arrhythmias are rapid (over 160 bpm in a dog), regular, initated by a VPC, and have abnormally wide QRS complexes.
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Ventricular tachyarrhythmia
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Are ventricular tachyarrhythmias usually associated with structural disease or extracardiac disease?
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Structural diseases (ex = DCM)
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This arrhythmia can cause signs of low CO and is sometimes the prodrome of severe myocardial dysfunction. It runs the risk of degenerating into a deadly ventricular fibrillation.
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Ventricular tachycardia
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List some extracardiac causes of VTA in the dog.
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Trauma
GDV splenic disease neurologic disease sepsis |
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True or false: If the inciting extracardiac cause of a VTA is resolved, the arrhythmia will go away.
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True
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Describe 3 ways in which extracardiac disease can lead to VTA.
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Autonomic factors
Electrolyte imbalances Acid-base disturbances |
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Describe the VTA seen in extracardiac disease. What is unique about it?
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SLOW tachyarrhythmia (under 160 bpm)
Abnormally wide QRS Initiated by LATE diastolic ventricular complexes Electrically benign Resolve spontaneously |
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This arrhythmia is often seen in critically ill dogs. It is electrically benign and resolves when the inciting condition improves.
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"Slow" ventricular tachyarrhythmia
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This general type of arrhythmia occurs when there is interruption of communication between the SA and AV nodes.
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AV block
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Why is AV block typically seen in anesthetized patients?
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Increased vagal tone.
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How are AV blocks in anesthetized patients resolved?
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Atropine
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This specific arrhythmia is marked by a prolonged PR interval and is not usually detectable on physical exam.
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1st degree AV block
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This specific arrhythmia is marked by an intermittent failure of AV conduction, such that there are occasional orphaned P waves on an EKG.
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2nd degree AV block
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This specific arrhythmia occurs when there is complete failure of AV conduction, such that the P waves on an EKG are not associated with the QRS complexes at all. At this point all major cardiac contractility is up to the AV node.
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3rd degree AV block
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What is the clinical relevance of a 1st degree AV block?
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Not clinically relevant.
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What is the expected HR in a dog with 3rd degree AV block?
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40 bpm (roughly the rate of AV node depolarization)
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Why in 3rd degree AV block is there atrial tachyarrhythmia in light of the slow ventricular contraction?
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SA node is still functional and responding to increase in sympathetic tone initiated by low HR.
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On an EKG, this physical condition causes a wide QRS complex, low amplitude P waves (if any), and peaked T waves.
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Hyperkalemia
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List 3 conditions that can cause hyperkalemia.
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Urethral obstruction
Oliguric renal failure Addison's disease |
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Transient loss of consciousness usually due to a decrease in cerebral perfusion resulting from cardiac disease or vasovagal events.
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Syncope
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Are tachyarrhythmias generally treated pharmacologically or by cardiac pacing?
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Pharmacologically
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Are bradyarrhythmias generally treated pharmacologically or by cardiac pacing?
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Cardiac pacing
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A high grade 2nd degree AV block may be caused by these conditions...
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Usually idiopathic
Myocardial disease Aortic valve endocarditis |
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A high grade 2nd degree or 3rd degree AV block can cause these sequelae...
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Syncope
Exercise intolerance CHF Sudden death |
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This heart disease is marked by EKG changes that include sinus pauses, sinus bradycardia, and occasional SVT. It is most commonly manifested as syncopal episodes.
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Sick sinus syndrome
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What dog breeds are predisposed to sick sinus syndrome?
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Older miniature Schnauzers, dachshunds, terriers
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Will severe hyperkalemia cause bradycardia or tachycardia?
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Bradycardia
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In a normal dog, will the normal T wave be positive, negative, or either?
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Either
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True or false: All real QRS complexes must be followed by a T wave.
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True
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In an EKG recorded at 50 mm/sec, how many beats per minute are there if there are 5 beats in a 15 cm interval?
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100 bpm
50 mm/sec so 15cm= 3 seconds. 5 beats *60s/3s= 100 bpm |
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Why will there be no P waves in atrial fibrillation?
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P wave indicated organized atrial activity. In atrial fibrillation there is no organized atrial activity.
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In which species is a biphasic T wave considered normal?
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Horse
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This arrythmia produces a lethal, pulseless heart rhythm.
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Ventricular fibrillation.
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Describe the two best positions for radiographic evaluation of the heart.
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Right lateral
DV |
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During which phase of the respiratory cycle does the heart appear larger: inspiration or expiration?
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Expiration
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The heart will normally have much more sternal contact on a lateral radiograph in what group of dogs?
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Brachycephalic
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Compare the normal DV appearance of a brachycephalic heart to a typical heart.
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Apex shifted left
Heart looks wider Normal tracheal deviation to the right. |
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Is a VD view or DV view more accurate for measuring cardiac enlargement?
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DV
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On a DV view, where is the relative location of the left atrium?
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Center of heart
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Enlargement of this half of the heart will result in a "reverse D" appearance of the DV cardiac silhouette.
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Right heart
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How does right heart enlargement manifest on the lateral radiograph?
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Increased width
Increased sternal contact Elevation of apex |
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A bulge at 1:00 of the DV cardiac silhouette is likely due to an enlarged...
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Pulmonary trunk
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On a lateral radiograph, there is enlargement of the dorsocaudal border, and dorsal deviation of the trachea. This indicates enlargement of which area of the heart?
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Left atrium
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A bulge at 2:00-3:00 on the DV cardiac radiograph is indicative of enlargement of the...
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Left auricle (and by extension the left atrium)
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Lateral deviation of the stem bronchi on a DV cardiac view may be due to enlargement of the...
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Left atrium
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On a lateral radiograph, the caudal border of the heart appears elongated to the point that the carina of the trachea is elevated. This is most likely indicative of enlargement of the...
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Left ventricle
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Distension of the pulmonary veins on a thoracic radiograph is often associated with enlargement of which side of the heart?
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Left
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List some differentials for radiographic enlargement of the pulmonary trunk.
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PDA
Heartworm disease Pulmonic stenosis Many more |
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On a DV thoracic radiograph, a bulge from 11:00-1:00 on the heart may indicate an enlarged...
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Ascending aorta
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How will an enlarged ascending aorta appear on a lateral radiograph?
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Craniodorsal bulge
Cranially slanted heart |
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How does an enlarged descending aorta appear on a lateral radiograph?
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Not visible
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How does an enlarged descending aorta appear on a DV radiograph?
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Subtle bulge under the pulmonary trunk (~2:00), which can be followed caudally along the path of the aorta.
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List some conditions that may cause generalized cardiomegaly.
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Pericardial effusion
Biventricular enlargement Pericardial-peritoneal diaphragmatic hernia |
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The trachea may be elevated on a lateral radiograph so that it appears paralled with the spine if this side of the heart is enlarged.
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Left heart
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Is an echocardograph better suited to pinpointing the cause of an arrhythmia or a murmur?
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Murmur
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You are examining an apparently healthy, 7 year old, male, neutered cat and you hear a III/VI left parasternal systolic murmur amongst the purring. What would be the best initial diagnostic test?
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Echocardiogram
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You are examining an 11 year old, female, spayed Golden Retriever for exercise intolerance and you detect an arrhythmia. What would be the best initial diagnostic test?
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Electrocardiogram (EKG)
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You are examining a 10 year old, male, neutered Yorkshire Terrier for a chronic cough (has always coughed when excited has been coughing more for the past 6 months) and a grade II-III/VI left apical systolic murmur. What would be the best initial diagnostic test?
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Thoracic radiograph
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What are some general indications for an echocardiogram?
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Source of murmur
Evaluate myocardial function |
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What kinds of diseases can be detected on an echocardiogram?
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Pericardial effusion
Tumors Thrombi Heartworms LA enlargement in a CAT |
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An echocardiograph is the best tool to detect LA enlargement in what species?
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Cat
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List the three echocardiographic modalities.
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M-mode
2D Doppler |
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Resolution of an echocardiographic U/S improves with (high/low) frequency and (high/low) wavelength.
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High frequency
Low wavelength |
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Penetration of an echocardiographic U/S improves with (high/low) frequency and (high/low) wavelength.
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Low frequency
High wavelength |
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Is resolution or penetration more important for distinguishing between close structures on an echocardiogram?
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Resolution
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Will an echocardographic transcucer for a horse need to have a higher or lower frequency when compared to that used for a cat? What about wavelength?
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Lower frequency
Longer wavelength |
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Name 3 standard imaging planes used when evaluating the heart per echocardiogram.
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Right parasternal
Subcostal Left parasternal |
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This echocardiographic imaging plane allows the cardiologist to visualize the heart as if it were laying on its side.
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Right parasternal long axis
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This echocardiographic imaging plane allows the cardiologist to visualize the heart in cross section.
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Right parasternal short axis
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This electrocardiographic imaging approach is utilized most often to measure velocity within the LV outflow tract from the caudal aspect.
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Subcostal
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In this echocardiographic modality, cardiac echoes are displayed as a single, uni-dimensional view of the heart. The movement of the cardiac structures is displayed over time on an x-y graph.
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Motion (M) mode
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This echocardiographic modality lets us make measurements of cardiac structures, measure the amplitude of motion of the ventricular wall, and evaluate fractional shortening.
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M-mode (motion mode)
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What is fractional shortening?
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Refers to how much the heart contracts down from maximal filling. Assesses systolic function and contractility.
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The most anatomically descriptive echocardiographic modality.
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2D mode
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List some other names by which 2D echocardiography may be known.
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Real-time cardiac ultrasonography
Cross-sectional ultrasonography Cardiac Echotomography Echocardiographic sector scanning |
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What is the Doppler principle?
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The frequency of a wave changes or shifts when a waveform is reflected from a moving object.
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This echocardiographic modality is best for evaluating blood flow velocity.
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Doppler
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Describe the ideal angle of intercept between the emitted ultrasound pulse and the long axis of blood flow when using Doppler echocardiography to evaluate blood flow velocity.
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As close to 0 degrees as possible
Doppler wave should be parallel with blood flow |
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On Doppler echocardiography, blood moving toward the probe appears this color.
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Red
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On Doppler echocardiography, blood moving away from the probe appears this color.
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Blue
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This form of spectral Doppler is used to measure high blood flow velocity but cannot pinpoint the exact sampling site.
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Continuous wave
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This form of spectral echocardiography permits the examiner to sample blood velocity at a specific location in the heart; however it is incapable of measuring excessively high blood flow.
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Pulsed wave
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What is the name and formula of the equation used to predict a pressure gradient across a stenotic region once echocardiography has been used to measure blood flow velocity?
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Bernoulli's equation
P = 4* v^2 |
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True or false: An echocardiographic evaluation is required to characterize any cardiac disease in cats.
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True
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True or false: An echocardiographic evaluation is required to characterize any cardiac disease in dogs.
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False
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The most sensitive clinical technique available for detecting pericardial effusion.
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Echocardiography
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