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46 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What are 7 things that cause an arrhythmia?
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Automaticity
After-Depolarizations Re-entry SNS stimulation Ischemia Myocardial Infarction Heart Failure |
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How does automaticity change? (4)
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1. B adrenergic stimulation (speeds HR)
2. Muscarinic stimulation (slows HR) 3.Ectopic pacemakers Automatic behavior occurring in sites that ordinarily lack spontaneous pacemaker activity 4. Escape Rhythms SA node malfunction leads to a different pacemaker |
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What is a DELAYED after depolarization (DAD)?
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impulse that happens before its time is due.
After depolarization reaches threshold Intracellular Ca++ overload, adrenergic stress, ischemia, ex: Digoxin |
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What is EARLY after depolarization (EAD)?
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Your heart is so slow you have bradycardia & HYPOkalema
You prolong that AP duration or refractory period Now, you have an AP rolling on top of another ex: Quinidine |
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What is Re-entry?
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these patients have these accessory proteins that allows you to fire another AP w/out of pacemaker doing the initiation b/c you have this re-entry effect
accessory pathways allow the atrium to connect to the ventricle. Genetic Wolff-Parkinson-White 1) Anatomically circuit, 2) Heterogeneity in refractoriness, 3) Slow conduction Functional Alterations in cell-cell coupling following acute MI |
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How can you conduct an impulse through dead cells?
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Conduction goes through the cells that are still alive
MI slows down the conduction of that impulse After you have completely depolarize & repolarize, you have an early impulse forming that can continuously take away the synchronization of the heart. |
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Arrhythmia Definition
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A variation in either the site or rate of cardiac impulse formation, and/or a variation in the sequence of cardiac impulse propagation
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What are the 4 different ion channels?
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1.Passive
Always open and provide free exchange of ion Few numbers Few molecules cross it because electro different charges 2.Ligand-Gated (ex: GABA binds to receptor and opens Cl- channel) Usually closed & a ligand has to bind to the channel or receptor 3. Voltage-Gated (ex: Na+/Ca2+ channels) Usually closed at RMP and open at depolarization 4. Mechanic (ex: Baroreceptors: sensitive to stretch and open or close channels and change SNS firing) Gated and open in response to stress |
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1. What is the difference b/t a SLOW and FAST action potential?
2. How is that modulated? 3. What channels are involved in a SLOW AP? What causes the upstroke? 4. In the FAST AP, what causes the upstroke? |
1. How fast you reach the threshold
2.Quality, not quantity 3. Ca2+ channels 4. Na+ channels Can open up a lot faster so you get a fast AP & that steep upstroke |
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What is Impulse Propagation?
What phases are affected? What drugs affect those phases? |
1. Example of a SLOW action potential.
This is what is present on the SA node & AV node. You can have a SNS or PSNS system modulating how fast you get to that threshold. Once you reach the threshold, you can open voltage-gated channels & everything moves forward. 2. Phase 4 and 0 3. Phase 4 – beta blockers delay the SA node to fire Phase 0 – Ca2+ channel blockers decrease the slope to threshold |
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What is the PR interval?
What drugs affect the PR interval? |
1. PR interval reflects your AV node conduction. There is a conduction delay b/t the atrium & ventricle by the AV node
PROLONGED/LONG PR interval means your HR is SLOW. SHORT PR interval means your HR is FAST. By slowing things down, you allow for a full filling of the ventricles to have the best EF at the end of the day. 2. - Beta-blockers - Atropine (muscarinic antagonist) Not given to a lot of patients - Digoxin - Non-dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers: Verapamil & Diltiazem - All of these can prolong the PR interval b/c it slows down the conduction even more through the AV node & slows down your ability to reach threshold on the SA node So you have 2 effects: slows conduction on SA node AND AV node |
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What does QRS wave represent?
What channels affect this? |
1. impulse spread in the ventricle. Conduction time in the ventricle
The WIDER the QRS, the SLOWER the conduction of the ventricles. The NARROWER the QRS, the FASTER the conduction of the ventricles. 2. Na+ channels are fast so you have a fast upstroke. |
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What does the QT interval represent?
What channels affect the QT interval? What does the T wave represent? |
1. How long it takes for your ventricles to completely depolarize
So, your AP duration to depolarize & repolarize APD = action potential duration can be measured by the QT interval 2. K+ channels - K+ channel blocker Prolong/widen QT interval - HYPERkalemia Shorten QT interval(tachycardia) 3. repolarization |
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Na+ channels.
What are the 3 different states on an AP and what phases (0-4) apply to each. |
1. Resting State= Phase 4 (most Na)(no Na+ will go through)
2. Active State= phase 0 (allows Na+ to go through) 3. Inactive State= btw phase 1, 2, 3 (no Na+ will go through) Now, you can have those DADs or EADs b/c you have enough Na+ channels to start a new AP So, if there is any high SNS or some kind of infarction that is causing high levels of Ca2+ or K+, you can have an early or delayed after depolarization now you have an arrhythmia. |
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What is a refractory period?
What can change a refractory period? |
1. There are 2 types: Absolute & Relative
Point in time on the AP curve where you cannot fire another AP, it’s just not going to happen. -Inactive state is where you will not get an AP, known as absolute refractory period(??) -But as you move from phase 2 to 3, your Na+ is going from the inactive to the resting state. Now you can have a relative refractory period. If you have an AP high enough, you can trigger another AP leading to a DAD or EAD 2. Depending on what state your Na+ are, that’s going to change your refractory period. (ex: active, inactive, resting) |
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What channels are affected by each phase 0-4?
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Phase 4= Resting
Phase 0= Threshold Active Phase 1 & 2= K+ efflux Ca++ influx Phase 3= Ca++ close K+ efflux Phase 4= Na/K ATPase |
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Where does the FAST cardiac AP happen
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1. Atrium
2. Ventricle 3. Purkinje |
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What phase/stage do you have Absolute Refractory period?
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Phase 4 (INACTIVE STATE)
- period in which another AP cannot be elicited -Lack of Na+ channels in the resting conformation |
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Which phase/stage can you have Relative refractory period?
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Phase 3 up to phase 4
-A large AP can elicit a response but it is smaller in magnitude -Depend on how many channels have recovered from inactivation |
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what is the major determining factor in having another AP forming on the SA node or AV node (SLOW AP)?
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Time
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what is the major determining factor in having another AP forming in the Atrial, Ventricular, or Purkinje cells (FAST AP)?
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AP is determined by how many Na+ channels available in the resting state Na+ CHANNEL-DEPENDENT, Na+ channels have to be in the resting conformation
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What happens to these when you block Na+ channels?
1. Threshold 2. Slope 3. QRS wave |
1. increase threshold
so it’ll take a higher AP to go through & reach that threshold before it can open up all the Na+ channels 2. decrease steepness of upstroke so take longer for the impulse to propagate through the ventricles 3. QRS is wider (due to decreaesed conductance velocity) *Na+ channels are located on the FAST action potential **passive channels are not affected by our drugs |
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What happens when you Block K+ channels?
1. duration of AP 2. QT interval |
1. increase duration of AP
2. takes longer to repolarize 3. QT interval is prolonged |
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What happens when you Block Ca2+ channels?
1. AV node conduction 2. SNS |
1. decreases AV node conduction
2. SA node & AV node but more effects on the AV node 3. If HR decrease so much, body will increase SNS to try to increase HR. **Slow channels** |
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What does HR reflect on heart?
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SA NODE automaticity
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What does PR interval reflect?
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AV NODE conduction time
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What does QRS duration reflect?
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conduction time in the VENTRICLES
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What does QT reflect?
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a measure of VENTRICULAR APD action potential duration
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What drugs are Class I?
What drugs are in IA, IB, IC? |
Na+ Channel Blockers
1A: Intermediate Dissociation Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide 1B: Rapid Dissociation Lidocaine, mexiletine 1C: Slow Dissociation Flecainide, propafenone, moricizine |
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What are Class II drugs?
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β-Blockers
Propranolol, esmolol, sotalol |
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What are Class III drugs?
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AP Prolongation (K+ Channel Blockers)
Amiodarone, Sotolol, Dofetalide, Ibutilide |
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What are Class IV drugs?
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Class IV: Ca2+ Channel Blockers
Verapamil, Diltiazem |
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What effects does Na+ channel blockers have on the ECG? ***Test Quest***
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1. Widen QRS (decrease phase 0)
2. Prolong QT interval (Increases Duration of Action Potential) 3. Prolong PR interval (AV node conduction cuz non-selective (slow channels)) 4. Prolong the Refractory Period (b/c Na+ being blocked) 5. Increase Threshold (will take higher AP to reach threshold before all the Na+ channels open) |
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What is TONIC Na+ channel blockers?
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Slow onset & offset
doesn’t matter what phase you are in you can be at rest or exercising, you won’t be able to increase your HR ***Class 1C: Slow*** Flecainide, propafenone, and moricizine |
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What is Phasic Na+ channel blockers?
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Fast onset & offset
depend on the phase that you are in: rest or have high HR will only affect you if you have a high HR **Class 1B: Fast*** Lidocaine (IV) Mexiletine (Oral) |
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Quinidine (1A)
1. MOA 2. CV effects |
1. Blockade of Na+, K+, Ca++ & α-adrenergic and muscarinic (M2)
2. By blocking the Na+ channels, you can increase the QRS -By blocking the K+ channels, you are going to prolong the QT (could lead to Torsades) -By blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors you are going to get orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia -Block Ca2+ channels at a high dose = INCREASE PR interval -Block muscarinic receptors= DECREASE PR interval |
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Quinidine
1. ADRs 2. DDIs |
1. Diarrhea (Unknown MOA)
2. Hypotension 3. Immunological reactions 4. Headache and tinnitus 5. Marked QT prolongation and TdP 2. Potent inhibitor of CYP2D6 Codeine Propafenone Inhibits P-glycoprotein-mediated transport of digoxin Quinidine metabolism is induced by phenobarbital and phenytoin |
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Procainamide (1A)
1. MOA 2. CV effects |
1. Blockade of Na+ & K+ (Procainamide)
K+ (N-acetyl procainamide) 2. Blocks Na+ channels = - Widen QRS interva (Decrease steepness of the slope) -↓ Automaticity -↓ Conduction through the ventricles -Threshold will go up Block K+ channels -Prolongs QT interval -Prolongs effective refractory period (ERP)- due to Na+ blockage on phase 0. -Increases APD (action potential duration QT) Na channel blocker, class 1A which means it has intermediate or medium onset and offset; it binds fast but it takes a little bit longer to leave. What kind of confirmation does it bind to? The ACTIVE and the INACTIVE In phase 2 and 3, what confirmations are your sodium channels at? majority are in the INACTIVE state, but some are going into the resting state so b/c it takes a little bit longer for the drug to come off the channels, you are going to prolong the ability to go from the inactive to the resting state; thus the refractory period is going to be prolonged |
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Procainamide (1A)
ADRs |
Hypotension & Slow of Conduction (IV)
Dose related nausea (oral) Torsades de Points Potential fatal bone marrow aplasia Lupus syndrome (chronic) |
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Disopyramide (Norpace) (1A)
1. MOA 2. CV effects 3. ADRs |
1. Higher anti-muscarinic Blockade and also blockage of Na+, K+, Ca++ (similar to Quinidine)
2. - Wider QRS - Prolong QT (APduration) 3. -Anti-SLUDE -Depression of contractility, which can precipitate heart failure |
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Lidocaine (1B)
1.MOA 2. CV effects 3. ADRs |
1. Blocks both open and inactivated cardiac Na+ channels
Greater effects in depolarized (ischemic/MI) and/or rapidly driven tissues 2. Only in fast beating or ischemic tissue (normal tissue lidocaine has no effect) - Increase threshold -so it takes longer for you to fire an AP -Decrease steepness of the slope (slower) -wider QRS (decrease in phase 0) - Decreases automaticity - NO EFFECT on PR, or QT 3. Least cardiotoxic with rare proarrhythimic effects -Neurologic effects (slurred speech, nausea,tremor) |
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Mexiletine (1B)
1. MOA 2. CV effects |
1. Analog of Lidocaine with reduced 1st pass effect
- blocks Na+ channels -only works on ischemic tissue 2. - Increase threshold -so it takes longer for you to fire an AP -Decrease steepness of the slope (slower) -wider QRS (decrease in phase 0) - Decreases automaticity - NO EFFECT on PR, or QT |
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Flecainide (1C)
1. MOA 2. CV 3. ADRs |
1. Potent Na+ blockers
In vitro studies have shown it to block K+ (Ikr) and Ca++ 2. Very slow binding offset kinetics (>10 s) -TONIC (works on both normal and fast HR) -Substantially decrease phase 0 (Na+) -Decrease automaticity ( threshold) -Increase APD (K+) and -Increases refractory period, especially in rapidly depolarizing atrial tissue **Increases PR (Ca2+), QRS, and QT intervals** 3. -Dose-related blurred vision -It can exacerbate CHF in pts with depressed LV function -It can cause or exacerbate lethal arrhythmias |
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Propafenone (1C)
1. MOA 2. CV 3. ADRs |
1. Potent Na+ blockers, K+, Ca2+ (same as flecainide) AND B-BLOCKER (s-isomer)
2. Increase PR (ca2+) -Prolong QRS interval 3. It can cause or exacerbate lethal arrhythmias -Sinus bradycardia (b-blocker) - bronchospasm (b-blocker) |
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How do B-blockers (class II) work?
How are they similar and different from Ca2+ channel blockers? |
1. -Reduce HR
-Decrease intracellular Ca2+ overload -Inhibit afterdepolarization-mediated automaticity (DAD, EAD) ECG: = increase PR interval = increase refractive period = decrease HR = decrease mortality 2. Ca chan blockers and beta blockers both work on slow AP, they do diff things Beta blockers reduce the ability of pacemaker to get to threshold; it delays the TIME it takes you to create a pace or rhythm Ca channel blockers slow the slope of phase 0, and, by dec this slope, you’ll change the refractory period |
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Propanolol (b1/b2) and Esmolol (b1 given IV) (class II)
MOA ADRs |
MOA
-Have shown to decrease mortality in the 1st week following MI -Increase AV nodal conduction time (Increase PR interval) -Prolong AV node refractoriness ADRs: Fatigue (Propanolol) Bronchospasm (Propanolol) Hypotension (both) Depression (Propanolol) Aggravation of HF ( both) Masking the symptoms of hypoglycemia in diabetics (Propanolol) |