Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
127 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Hallmark of dilated cardiomyopathy
|
Heart Failure
|
|
Most common cause of right heart failure
|
Left heart failure
|
|
Most common sites of arterial claudication (2 sites)
|
Femoral and Popliteal arteries
|
|
Most common & 2nd most common heart mm dz?
|
dilated cardiomyopathy & hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
|
|
What type of cardio myopathy is this:
ventricular enlargement w/impaired systolic contractile fnx |
dilated
|
|
Hallmark of dilated cardiomyopathy
|
Heart Failure
|
|
Most common cause of right heart failure
|
Left heart failure
|
|
Most common sites of arterial claudication (2 sites)
|
Femoral and Popliteal arteries
|
|
Most common & 2nd most common heart mm dz?
|
dilated cardiomyopathy & hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
|
|
What type of cardio myopathy is this:
ventricular enlargement w/impaired systolic contractile fnx |
dilated
|
|
What type of cardiomyopathy is this:
Abnormal thickened ventricle w/abnormal diastolic relaxation |
Hypertrophic
|
|
What type of cardiomyopathy is this:
Abnormal stiffened myocardium d/t fibrosis/infiltration, decreased diastolic relaxation, but usually preserved systolic contractile fnx |
restrictive
|
|
What type of 2nd degree AV block has a gradually lengthening PR interval until a P wave does not produce a QRS
|
Wenckerbach
|
|
A bundle branch block is likely if the QRS is larger than how many squares
|
3 tiny squares
|
|
T/F - A Right BBB is likely if the RR' is seen in V1 or V2
|
True
|
|
T/F - A Left BBB is likely if the RR' is seen in V5 or V6
|
True
|
|
In 1st degree AV block, the PR is consistent & greater than 0.2 sec or ___ large square(s)
|
1
|
|
What is normal sinus rhythm
|
60-100 bpm
|
|
What is the rate for Bradycardia
|
<60 bpm
|
|
What is the rate for Tachycardia
|
>100 bpm
|
|
For ECG lead AVF what body part is the "positive electrode"
|
the left foot
|
|
Chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia is called ...
|
angina
|
|
Dyspnea which occurs when your patient is recumbent or lying down is called
|
orthopnia
|
|
What typically happens to the ST segment of your pt's EKG when he is experiencing angina
|
depression
|
|
what type of angina involves intense vaso spasm
|
variant
|
|
What is the upper limit of normal JVP level when your pt is at 45 deg
|
4 cm
|
|
What cardiac condition is dyspnea most commonly a sign of
|
congestive heart failure
|
|
what are small dermal growths around the eyes which are associated with hypercholesterolaemia called
|
xanthomas
|
|
Coronary ischemia is cased by what two main things
|
Fixed vessel narrowing and epithelial cell dysfunction
|
|
Stenosis narrowing of an artery less than what percentage of the maximal potential blood flow is not significantly altered, as the vessels can compensate, dilating in response to exertion
|
60%
|
|
S1 corresponds to closure of which valves
|
Tricuspid & Mitral
|
|
What are the three tests available for diagnosising stable angina
|
Stress test
|
|
What is the heart rate when there are 2 & 3 big boxes separating “R waves” on an EKG strip
|
150 & 100
|
|
An EKG can permit you to assess
|
Rate, Rhythm, Axis, Hypertrophy and infarction
|
|
What is the inherit rate of the atria
|
60-80 bpm
|
|
What is the inherit rate of the AV junction
|
40-60 bpm
|
|
What is the inherit rate of the ventricles
|
20-40 bpm
|
|
What does several P waves for one QRS complex indicate on an EKG, also known as the "saw tooth" pattern
|
Atrial Flutter
|
|
T/F Chest pain, N/V, fever, friction rub, diaphoresis and rales are all sxs fo MI
|
T
|
|
T/F with an MI irreversible cell injury happens w/in 1-3 hours
|
F - irreversible damage happens btw 7-10 days
|
|
The most common complication with drugs like tPA, rPA & TNK-tPA in tx of MI is
|
bleeding
|
|
T/F an elevated CK-MB isoenzyme, always indicates myocardial injury
|
False
|
|
T/F CK-MB is the fastest rising cardiac specific enzyme
|
False
|
|
Name 4 nutrients that can reduce a pt's BP
|
MG, K, Ca, Vit K, Vit E, Vit C, CoQ10
|
|
What are 5 complications to educate patients on for untreated HTN
|
Renal dz, Heart dz, Retinal dz, stroke, Peripheral vascular dz
|
|
ONce you've diagnosed your pt w/ HTN, r/o 2ary causes, and begun tx, what must you assess for
|
End organ damage
|
|
GIve 3 examples of how you could assess for end organ damage
|
Radiographic tomography, biopsy, eye exam
|
|
What agents might interact with antihypertensive drugs to raise BP
|
NSAIDs, Asprin, Alcohol
|
|
What are dietary changes you could recommend to your pt w/HTN
|
decrease sugar intake, increase fiber
|
|
What category of HTN is a BP of 160-180/100-115
|
Moderate
|
|
A pt with a normal EKG axis will have a positive QRS in which leads
|
Lead 1 and AVF
|
|
When evaluating axis rotation (not deviation), which leads typically have an isoelectric appearance
|
V3 & V4
|
|
What wave on the EKG do you examine for atrial enlargement
|
P wave
|
|
What lead is best source for evaluating atrial enlargement
|
V1
|
|
With R atrial enlargement, which component of the diphasic P wave is longer
|
First
|
|
With L atrial enlargement, which component of the diphasic P wave is longer
|
Second
|
|
With RV enlargement, what do you see on an EKG in V1
|
Large downward R wave
|
|
IN RV enlargement there is a large downward R wave in V1, what trend is seen in this R wave in subsequent chest leads
|
It gets smaller
|
|
What happens in EKG QRS deflection (compared to normal) in LV enlargement
|
increases
|
|
LV hypertrophy is suspected if the sum of S in V1 and R in V5 is
|
>35
|
|
Most EKG info in hypertrophy is provided with which lead
|
V1
|
|
T/F Nitrous oxide, prostacycline, thromboxane & serotonin are potent vasodilators
|
F - thromboxane and serotonin are vasoconstrictors
|
|
Is a L ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of of 35% normal, low or high
|
low
|
|
What is a normal LV ejection fraction?
|
40-60 %
|
|
Quiescent, calcified, coronary plaque is best assessed with what test
|
EBCT
|
|
What does STEMI stand for
|
ST Elevated MI
|
|
What does NSTEMI stand for
|
Non ST Elevated MI
|
|
NSTEMI is also referred to as a
|
non Q wave MI
|
|
Asprin is often recommended for pts having an MI, what mineral should also be given since it helps cell respiration, can improve mortality, and possibly reduce re-perfusion injury
|
Mg
|
|
T/F In STEMI, T wave inversion persists
|
False
|
|
The major determinant of prognosis in a pt after MI is
|
LV Ejection Fraction
|
|
T/F Post-MI scarring and fibrosis is completed at 4 weeks
|
F
|
|
What % of Unstable angina results in the potential complication of death
|
5-10%
|
|
What % of Unstable angina results in progression to MI
|
30-40%
|
|
T/F CK-MB is the fastest rising cardiac-specific enzyme
|
False - Troponin is
|
|
T/F Antioxidant supplementation, antioxidant containing foods adn Mg can all reduce reperfusion injury following MI
|
T
|
|
What does a large dip following and QRS segment represent on an EKG
|
PVCs
|
|
What does a double spike QRS signify
|
R BBB
|
|
What does a double peaked QRS signify
|
L BBB
|
|
What are the 3 main categories of arrhythmias
|
Atrial, junctional and ventricular
|
|
What is the most life threatening ventricular arrhythmia
|
fibrillation
|
|
What are potential consequences of atrial fibrillation
|
Risk of thrombosis formation and pulmonary congestion
|
|
What determines myocardial oxygen demand?
|
Ventricular wall stress, Heart rate and contractility
|
|
What do quick QRS complexes that do not go below base line represent on EKG
|
A-fib
|
|
T/F Crataegus is indicated in dilated cardiomyopathy
|
T
|
|
T/F + Inotropic agents are helpful in Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
|
F
|
|
T/F In pts with IHSS, + inotropic agents (which augment the force of contraction) are helpful
|
F
|
|
What is standard medical tx (class of drug) for patients with dialated cardiomyopathy
|
B-Blockers
|
|
What imaging (non-invasive) can show heart wall motion abnormalitis due to ischemia or infarction
|
U/S
|
|
What ht sound (AKA a ventricular gallop) occurs in early diastole, is due to rapid ventricular filling, is normal in kids and young adults due to expansion of the L ventricle, but pathological in middle/older adults indicating volume overload
|
S3
|
|
Which pathologic heart sound (AKA atrial gallop) occurs in late diastole, is generated by L/R atrium vigorously contracting against a stiffened ventricle
|
S4
|
|
S1 & S2 are best heard with which side of the scope
|
Diaphram
|
|
When is S2 splitting normal
|
inspiration
|
|
Give an example of a pansystolic murmur
|
Mitral regurge
|
|
Give an example of a midsystolic (systolic ejection type) murmur
|
Aortic Stenosis
|
|
Give an example of a late systolic murmur
|
MVP
|
|
Give an example of a early diastolic murmur
|
aortic regurge
|
|
Give an example of a late diastolic murmur
|
mitral valve stenosis
|
|
S3 & S4 are best heard with which part of the scope
|
bell
|
|
For mitral regurg when exactly would you hear the murmur with respect to systole, diastole the time between
|
pan systolic
|
|
in physiologic splitting of S2, which valve is closing later
|
pulmonic
|
|
What is paradoxical splitting of S2
|
Splitting with expiration
|
|
How can one differentiate splitting of S2 from S3
|
Have pt take a breath in, if sound goes away it is S2 split
|
|
3 pathologies that cause pan (holosystolic) murmurs
|
Mitral valve regurg
Tricuspid valve regurg Ventricular septal defect |
|
2 pathologies that cause "ejection type" systolic (crescendo-decrecendo) murmurs
|
aortic stenosis and pulmonary stenosis
|
|
What are 2 late systolic murmurs often followed by a midsystolic click
|
Mitral valve prolapse (most common)
Tricuspid valve prolapse |
|
What 2 valve problems produce early (decracendo) diastolic murmurs
|
aortic and pulonic regurg
|
|
What 2 valve problems produce a prolonged mid to late diastolic murmur
|
mitral and tricuspid stenosis
|
|
What is an EKG finding you would expect with atrial hypertrophy
|
enlarged P wave
|
|
Name one EKG finding expected in pt w/ventricular hypertophy
|
Large R wave in V1 if RV hypertrophy
|
|
Name 3 classes of antihypertensive drugs
|
Beta blockers
ACE inhibitors diuretics |
|
In what % of pts is HTN 2ary to another cause
|
10%
|
|
What wave do you examine for atrial enlargement
|
P wave
|
|
What lead is best for examining for atrial enlargement
|
V1
|
|
What is the most definitive diagnostic option for chamber dilation
|
U/S
|
|
What is the most definitive diagnostic option for Hypertrophy
|
U/S
|
|
What is the most definitive diagnostic option to demonstrate blood flow
|
Doppler U/S
|
|
What is the most definitive diagnostic option to demonstrate and quantify valve incompetency
|
Ultrasonography
|
|
What is the most definitive diagnostic option can identify pericardial dz
|
Ultrasonography
|
|
What is the most definitive diagnostic option for measuring intracardiac chamber pressure
|
Cardiac catheterization
|
|
What is the most definitive diagnostic option for myocardial tissue perfusion
|
Nuclear imaging
|
|
What is the most definitive diagnostic option for pulmonary vascular markings
|
chest x-ray
|
|
T/F PA chest x-ray, the adult heart shadow should normally not occupy greater than 60% of the maximal width of the thorax
|
F - 50%
|
|
What is the most common pathogen attributed with vascular dz
|
streptococcus
|
|
Most common affliction of the pericardium
|
acute pericarditis
|
|
Most serious affliction of the pericardium
|
cardiac tamponade
|
|
Can differentiate acute pericarditis from myocardial ischemia/infarction as pericardial pain is
|
pleuritic & varies w/position
|