Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
126 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
T/F: Almost all cardiac defects in dogs and cats are associated with a cardiac murmur.
|
True
(p 134) |
|
Can the clinical signs be directly correlated to the severity of disease associated with CHD?
|
no.
Most are asymptomatic- this is not a prognostic factor. |
|
Newfie with a continous murmur has what?
|
PDA
|
|
What is the major limiting factor to treatment of CHD in animals?
|
lack of Cardiac Bypass
|
|
What is the mortality rate of untreated CHD?
|
high
|
|
What direction is blood shunted in PDA?
|
left-> right
|
|
PDA imposes a volume overload of what side of the heart?
|
LEFT atrium and ventricle
* therefore myocardial dysfunction and mitral valve regurgitation are potential consequences |
|
Poodles, Pomeranians and Maltese are highly predisposed to ___, especially females.
|
PDA
Females 3x greater risk than male |
|
What are the physical findings associated with PDA?
|
continuous murmur
bounding pulse (hyperkinetic) |
|
___ is due to a right ventricular outflow tract obstruction usually results from valvular dysplasia.
|
pulmonic stenosis
|
|
What CHD causes right ventricular hypertrophy? LV hypertrophy?
|
Right-- pulmonic stenosis (in order to maintain normal pulmonary artery pressures and flow, the RV must generate abnormally high systolic pressure)
Left: Subvalvular aortic stenosis (same mechanism) |
|
___ occurs commonly in:
Terriers English Bulldogs mini Schnauzers Samoyeds |
Pulmonic Stenosis
|
|
What is the most likely method of correction of pulmonic and subvalvular aortic stenosis?
|
percutaneous balloon valvulplasty
*surgical if that fails *therapy is only palliative and instituted only after the onset of heart failure |
|
Pulmonic stenosis imposes a pressure overload of the ____.
|
RV
|
|
What breeds are predisposed to Subvalvular Aortic Stenosis?
|
Large breeds
Golden Retrievers Rottweilers Boxers Newfoundlands German Shepherds |
|
What is the most common clinical sign of severe SAS?
|
CS are uncommon in puppies
syncope and sudden death in young adults |
|
Outflow tract obstruction results in a (systolic/diastolic) murmur.
|
systolic
*therefore pulse is hypOkinetic |
|
T/F: CHF is common in dogs with SAS.
|
False
CHF is UNcommon in SAS |
|
Ventricular Septal Defect is a (systolic/diastolic) defect.
|
systolic
|
|
Clinical importance of a VSD depends on 2 factors:
|
1- size
2- presence of other concurrent defects |
|
What species are more commonly affected by VSD?
|
cats and horses
|
|
What dogs tend to be more commonly affected by VSD?
|
english springer spaniel
English bulldog bloodhound shiba inu |
|
a VSD results in a ___ murmur due to the pressure difference between the ventricles (Drops to nearly zero during diastole).
|
systolic
|
|
T/F: Most VSDs in dogs and cats are small and well tolerated.
|
True
*systolic murmur left to right shunting volume overload of the LA, LV |
|
Unlike VSD which shunts blood through the defect and immediately into the pulmonary circulation during _____, an ASD increases the _____ volume of the right ventricle.
|
VSD -- systole
ASD-- increases RV diastolic volume |
|
Is an atrial shunt audible?
|
NO
*there may be relative pulmonic stenosis that creates an audible murmur |
|
AV valve dysplasia is a relatively common defect in the ___, that can result in regurgitation (more common) or stenosis. it is UNCOMMON and generally inaudible.
|
CAT
|
|
Cyanotic heart disease result when there is shunting (due to ASD, VSD, or PDA) + one of the following: (3)
all forms of Cyanotic HD are UNCOMMON |
severe PS
elevated pulmary vascular resistance tricuspid stenosis |
|
What is the most iportant clinical sequelae of chronic cyanosis?
|
polycythemia
due to systemic hypoxia (stimulates EPO) |
|
What is Eisenmenger's Physiology?
|
a reversed PDA, VSD, or ASD
|
|
What age is does shunt reversal occur in?
|
less than 6 months
|
|
What has to occur in order for Eisenmenger's Physiology?
|
pulmonary vascular resistance exceeds systemic resistance
|
|
Tetralogy of Fallot is an uncommon malformation consisting of (4):
|
pulmonic stenosis (MURMUR)
VSD override of the aorta over the VSD RV hypertrophy *clinical signs are related to hypoxemia and polycythemia |
|
RA enlargement will show a bulge from __--__ on a VD/DV view.
|
9-11 (right cranial heart border)
|
|
___ may cause dorsal deviation of the trachea on rads.
|
right atrial enlargement
*this is because elevation is cranial to the birfurcation (different from LA enlargement which is as or behind the carina) |
|
What do these have in common?
Pulmonic stenosis Heartworms tricuspid insufficiency tetralogy of fallot R-->L PDA or VSD Cardiomyopathy chronic pulmonary disease |
can cause Right heart enlargement
|
|
You look at rads and notice an enlarged heart. There is a bulge from 2-3. What is this likely to be?
|
Left Auricle
|
|
What heart diseases are associated with Left Heart enlargement?
|
Mitral Valve insufficiency
PDA Aortic Stenosis Cardiomyopathy VSD |
|
You are examining rads of a dog with a heart murmur. You see a bulge at 1-2. What is this likely to be?
|
Pulmonary trunk enlargement
|
|
aortic stenosis results in a ___ (location) dilitation of the ascending aorta. This shows up on Rads as a bulge/widening of the aorta from ____ -____.
|
post-stenotic
11-1 |
|
What are the differentials for a giant globoid heart on rads?
|
pericardial effusion
peritoneal-pericardial diaphragmatic hernia biventricular enlargement CARDIOMEGALY! |
|
Why should increased sernal contact NOT be used as a criterion for feline right heart enlargement?
|
it may occur in normal geriatric cats and can be associated with LA and LV enlargement
|
|
what is the difference between concentric enlargement and eccentric enlargement on radiographs?
|
concentric-- maintains normal apex
eccentric-- rounded apex |
|
in the cat LA enlargement may take on the appearance of ___ (lat) or ___ (VD) if the LV is not dilated.
|
ice cream cone (lat)
valentine's heart (VD) |
|
What Explain the vertebral heart scale method.
|
measure the heart from the ventral border of the LEFT mainstem bronchus to the most most ventral point of the APEX
+ fattest girth of the heart (upper 1/3) = overall size (canine- 9.7 +/- 0.5, feline- 7.5 +/- 0.3) |
|
What drugs would be good to use for animal restraint during a cardiac ultrasound?
|
opioids (butorphanol, buprenophine, hydromorphone)
acepromazine (dogs) benzodiazepines p 109 notes |
|
The velocity of sound is a function of density and elastic properties of the transmitting medium. In soft tissues and blood this is about __ m/s.
|
1540 m/s
|
|
explain the relationship of the following transducer properties
resolution: frequency resolution: penetration |
resolution increases as frequency increases
resolution decreases as penetration increases |
|
___ is the abiliy of some materials o generate an electric field or electric potential in response to applied mechanical stress.
|
piezoelectricity
*how the crystals in the transducer tip work |
|
how should the beam be oriented to the interface in order to increase the received reflected sound waves?
|
perpendicular
*except for Doppler velocity interrogations of blood flow-- must be parallel |
|
___ is a measure of contractility. It is obtained by (LV end diastolic width- LV end systolic width)/ LV end diastolic width.
|
Fractional shortening
|
|
the transducer must be ___ to blood flow in order to obtain accurate measurements of velocity.
|
PARALLEL (angle should be less than 20)
*cosine 0 = 1 vs cosine 90 = 0 |
|
Continuous wave doppler is different from pulsed wave doppler how?
|
continuous: high velocity BF-- exact site of sampling is unknown
pulsed: samples blood velocity at a specific location (does not work for high velocities) |
|
What is Bernoulli's equation?
|
delta P = 4(Vsquared)
pressure gradient = 4 times velocity squared *used to predict a pressure gradient across a valve/stenotic region/ VSD |
|
_____ is required to characterize cardiac disease in cats.
|
echochardiograpic evaluation
|
|
T/F: ALL cases of Congenital heart disease require an echocardiogram and Doppler.
|
true
p 129 |
|
The ____ propogates as a wave of depolarization through the conduction system and myocardium.
|
action potential
*the wave is the electriccal signal that triggers myocardial contraction |
|
What information does an ECG provid?
|
heart rate
rhythym cardiac size (hypertrophy) mean vector of ventricular or atrial activation (direction) aka Mean electrical axis |
|
What two variables of the ECG can be controlled by th operator?
|
paper speed
sensitivity (units of the Y axis) |
|
What general direction does cardiac contraction move in?
|
cranial to caudal
right to left dorsal to ventral |
|
Setting up leads allow for the generation of multiple lines of ECG to read. Waht is the significance of this?
|
allows for different vantage points fromw hic to view the electrical activity of the heart.
|
|
____ and ___ are superior to the ECG as a means of assessing heart size.
|
echo and rads
|
|
How is the p-wave different for LA and RA enlargement?
|
RA-- prolonged p wave
LA-- increased amplitude of p wave |
|
What do small QRS complexes mean in a dog? in a cat?
|
dog-- pleural or pericardial effusion, obesity
cat-- QRS normally small |
|
What is electrical alternans?
|
alternating QRS size
* assocated with pericardial effusion |
|
What can you tell from the width of a QRS?
|
narrow: supraventricular origin
wide: ventricular origin (or intraventricular conduction delay-- uncommon) |
|
Rhythm analysis:
(3) important steps/questions |
1. determine HR
2. is the rhythm regular or not 3. association b/t atrial and ventricular activity? |
|
T/F: ALL real QRS complexes MUST have an associated T wave.
|
True
|
|
T/F: T waves can be positive, negative, or biphasic in dogs.
|
true
|
|
Whats the range for sinus tachycardia?
|
160+ for dogs
240+ for cats |
|
Whats the range for sinus bradycardia?
|
below 70 in dogs
below 160 in cats |
|
Premature Supraventricular Complexes result in an abrupt decrease in the ___ .
|
RR interval
*p wave is usually superimposed on or even obscured by the T wave |
|
Premature supraventricular tachycardias differ from Sinus tachycardia and atrial fib because they arise from ___ which makes them very regular in pattern.
|
a single supraventricular focus
*they are usually rapid (>240bpm) |
|
What is the shining characteristic of atrial fib?
|
NO P WAVES!!!!
rapid irregular |
|
_____ must precede the development of AF.
|
marked atrial enlargement
*this is b.c a critical mass of atrial myocardium is required to support the arrhythmia |
|
Premature Ventricular Complexes occur early relative to the previous RR. What does the QRS look like?
|
WIDE and bizarre
dump= lub dub so its like dump dump dump WHOMP dump dump WHOMP dump dump. (where as Supraventricular Premature complexes would be like dumpdump dumpdump dumpdump) |
|
Ventricular tachycardia is defined as more than ____ ectopic ventricular complexes in a row.
|
3
|
|
Ventricular fibrillation is ____ rhythm.
|
pulseless
|
|
ventricular fib is a pulseless rhythm that is lethal without prompt _____
|
DC cardioversion
(direct-current-- IE: the toaster!) |
|
T/F: Vtac can degenerate to Vfib.
|
true
|
|
____ is an important cause of sudden arrhythmic death and is the final cardiac rhythm of many dying patients.
|
Ventricular Fib
|
|
Name some "extracardiac diseases" that might cause ventricular arrhythmias.
|
GDV
road trauma splenic disease neurologic disease sepsis electrolyte, autonomic, pH imbalances |
|
Ventricular Arrhythmias are relatively (fast/slow).
|
slow
|
|
Describe a second degree AV block and causes.
|
failure of 1 or more atrial depolarizations to conduct to the ventricles
d/t: high vagal tone (will resolve with atropine admin) diseased AV node (atropine has no effect |
|
T/F: first degree AV block has NO effect on Cardiac output.
|
True
*may hear S4 (gallop) |
|
____ is an important cause of syncope-- many patients can be effectively treated with the implantation of a permanent electronic pacemaker.
|
3rd degree AV block
|
|
What breeds are predisposed to Sick Sinus Syndrome?
|
older, smaller breeds
miniature schnauzers cockers terriers |
|
How do you differ between physiologic sinus bradycardia and pathological sinus node?
|
atropine will resolve physiologic forms
*diverse appearance on ECG |
|
T/F: Hyperkalemia will cause a tachycardia.
|
False
bradycardia *no p-wave *wide QRS |
|
What causes syncope? ie: define the process not the diseases.
|
transient decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure caused by either a decrease in cardiac output or an inappropriate degree of peripheral vasodilation
|
|
what arrhythmogenic diseases cause syncope?
|
rapid VTACH
rapid SVT high grade 2-3 AV block |
|
What structural cardiac diseases cause syncope? (think about limiting Cardiac output)
|
aortic stenosis
pulmonic stenosis pulmonary hypertension mitral valve regurgitation |
|
Whats in the minimum database of syncope diagnosis?
|
CBC
chem UA resting EKG |
|
What are the Determinants of Cardiac output according to Dr. Abbot?
|
Heart rate
Preload Afterload Contractility |
|
____ is a potential consequence of practically ANY cardiac disease.
|
Heart failure
|
|
What is the anatomical classificaiton of heart disease?
|
pericardial disease
myocardial disease endocardial disease disease of the conduction system |
|
what is the pathophysiologic classifcation of heart disease?
|
volume overload
pressure overload contractile dysfunction diastolic dysfunction arrhytmias high CO states |
|
T/F: a cat with a cough likely has CHF.
|
False.
*cats with heart disease rarely cough |
|
____ is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
|
pulse pressure
|
|
Where can you measure the Central Venous Pressure non-invasively?
|
external jugular... should pulsate 5-8cm (1/3) above the thoracic inlet ie: the level of the RA
|
|
What occurs during S1?
|
closure of the AV valves
LA-> mitral-> LV RA-> tricuspid -> RV (also begins atrial diastole) |
|
What occurs during S2?
|
closure of the semilunar valves
L- aortic R- pulmonic (also begins ventricular diastole: remember T wave follow QRS which is S2) |
|
What occurs during the p-wave?
|
S4: atrial systole/ late ventricular diastole
|
|
What is the difference between a gallop and a click?
|
gallop is an actual heart sound-- S4-- that is generally not audible
click is the splitting of S1 into 2 audible components (generally occurs so close that we cannot differentiate) |
|
___ is a prolonged series of vibrations that originate from the cardiovascular system and is audible with a stethoscope.
|
Murmur
|
|
What are the 3 determinants of blood flow character?
|
velocity-- acceleration explains almost all murmurs
viscosity-- anemia may explain murmurs when HCT<17 vessel diameter |
|
How are murmurs characterized?
|
intensity, location, timing
|
|
Explain the grading system for Murmur intensity.... generally.
|
1-2 soft, require expert
3,4 - intermediate, loud 5,6- precordial thrill |
|
Significant weight loss is common in ___ with CHF but not ___.
|
weight loss is common in dogs
not cats |
|
___ is often the first clinical sign of heart disease in cats.
|
Dyspnea
|
|
Mid-systolic clicks are common in what breed?
|
Cavalier King Charles Spaniel
|
|
diminished heart sounds may be appreciated with ____ where as diminished lung sounds may be a result of ___, ___, and ___.
|
heart: pericardial effusions
lung: pleural effusion, pneumothorax, atelectasis, masses |
|
Louder than norma lung sounds are indicative of ___.
|
pulmonary edema
|
|
What heart disease are males more predisposed to than females?
|
Dilated cardiomyopathy
|
|
What breeds are predisposed to dilateive cardiomyopathy?
|
Dobies, Boxers
giants: Danes, Irish Wolfhounds, Newfies, Borzois... |
|
what breeds tend to get 3rd degree AV block?
|
labrador retrievers
chow chows |
|
What diagnostic test would you do to determine why a patient is coughing?
|
Rads
|
|
What diagnostic test would you do to determine why a patient has an irregular heart beat?
|
ECG
|
|
What diagnostic test would you do to determine why a patien has a murmur?
|
Echo
|
|
What diagnostic test would you do to determine why a patient has pleural effusion?
|
echo, cytology, minimum.
|
|
What is Holter monitoring?
|
24 hour ambulatory ECG monitoring
|
|
What information can an echo provide?
|
cardiac anatomy and function
diastolic and sytolic pulmonary arterial pressure in the presence of pulmonic and tricuspid valve insufficiency, respectively |
|
What is Central venous pressure? where is is measured?
|
CVP is a reflecction of RA pressure and therefore RV EDP.
it is measured in the great veins just before they enter the RA |
|
What cardiac leakage biomarkers show up on a chem profile of a cardiac disease patient?
|
cardiac troponin I
cardiac troponin T creatine kinase isoenzyme MB functional biomarkers include: brain natriuretic peptide, atrial natriuretic peptide |
|
___ and ___ are myofibrillar proteins in the cardiac muscle cells that regulate the calcium mediated action between actin and myosin filaments in cardiac muscle.
|
Cardiac troponin I and T
|
|
___ and ___ generally oppose the physiologic action of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
|
atrial natriuretic peptide
brain natriuretic peptide |