Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
128 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
Muscles that move the eye |
Extraocular muscles Superior & inferior rectus move the eye up and down (elevation and depression) Medial and lateral rectus move eye toward and away from nose (addiction and abduction) Superior and inferior oblique muscles rotate around the optic axis |
|
|
Upper and lower eyelids are called |
Canthus |
|
|
Layers of the eye |
First : sclera Middle: uvea (vascular coat of the eye) The iris |
|
|
What area of the eye provide central vision |
Macula |
|
|
Light rays bending and changing speed |
Refraction |
|
|
⭐️The closest pointa person can clearly focus on an object is called |
Near point. If they have a problem with cataracts, their Nearpoint will be different |
|
|
A primary provider, or doctor of osteopathic medicine with specializes in the medical and surgical treatment of eye diseases, license to diagnose and treat eye disorders and prescribe medication, perform surgery, and prescribe corrective lenses |
Ophthalmologist |
|
|
An ophthalmologist with advanced training in plastic and reconstructive surgery of the eye |
Oculoplastic specialist |
|
|
A specialist who tests vision, examine eyes, prescribe corrective lenses, and in some states treat limited eye diseases including prescribing medication |
Optometrist |
|
|
A specialist who makes eyeglasses or contact lenses based on prescriptions from ophthalmologist and optometrist |
Optician |
|
|
Drooping upper eyelid |
Ptosis |
|
|
Proptosis |
An extended or protruded upper eyelid that delays closing or remains partially open |
|
|
Uncontrolled oscillating movement of the eyeball |
Nystagmus |
|
|
⭐️ A simple screening tool for determining visual acuity. The ability to see far images clearly, with the chart 20 feet away, the examiner asked the client to cover one eye and identify letters of decreasing size |
Snellen chart |
|
|
What I charged you use for clients who cannot read or who do not read English |
A tumbling E chart with fingers |
|
|
How often to get eye exams |
Every two years if OK, every year if at risk |
|
|
This test assesses the alignment of the eyes. The examiner holds the pen light approximately 12 inches from the clients base and ask the client sarah straightahead. The reflection of the light should be in the same spot on each eye, indicating parallel alignment. |
Corneal light reflex test |
|
|
This test assesses extraocular muscle function. The examiner asked the client to stare straight ahead and focus on an object in the distance while covering one eye within opaque card. As the eye is covered the examiner observes the uncovered eye for movement. |
Cover-uncover test |
|
|
This test is done to assess the eye muscle strength and cranial nerve function. Examiner asked the client to focus on an object that is approximately 12 inches away and move the object or six cardinal positions in a clockwise direction. The examiner watches for smooth eye-movement in all six directions |
Positions test |
|
|
An examination of the fundus or interior of the eye |
Ophthalmoscopy |
|
|
The use of what and trial lenses determines the focus in power of each eye |
Retinoscope |
|
|
What measures the intraocular pressure to screen for glaucoma |
Tonometry |
|
|
What measures peripheral vision and detect gaps in the visual field |
A visual field examination |
|
|
⭐️ clients with macular problems are initially tested with a _______ _____. It is made up of a ggeometric gridof identical squares with a central fixation point. The examiner instruct the client to stare at the Central fixation point on the grid and report it they see any disorders and of the squares. |
Amsler grid |
|
|
A binocular microscope that magnifies the surface of the eye |
Slit lamp |
|
|
What is used to detect vascular changes in blood flow through the retinal vessels |
Retinal angiography, or fluorescin angiography Sometimes a water soluble dye injected into the peripheral vein |
|
|
An opthalmologic screening tool uses a high retinal imaging stystem to produce a high resolution image of almost the entire retina without having to dilate the pupil |
Laser scanning |
|
|
What helps maintain balance |
Inner ear |
|
|
What transmits and amplifies sound (conductive hearing) |
Outer and middle ear |
|
|
What is the auricle |
The outer ear |
|
|
What is the pinna |
The fleshy external projection of the ear (included in the outer ear) |
|
|
What is the external acoustic meatus |
A 1 inch canal that extends to the tympanic membrane, or eardrum. Included in the outer ear |
|
|
What contains the glands that secrete cerumen |
The external acoustic meatus |
|
|
⭐️ where is the eustachian tube located, and what is it |
The eustachian tube is located in the middle ear, do eustachian tube extends from the floor of the middle ear to the pharynx and is lined with mucous membranes. It equalizes air pressure in the middle ear. A chain of three small bones, the malleus, the Incas, and stapes collectively referred to as ossicles, stretches across the middle ear cavity from the tympanic membrane to the oval window. |
|
|
What are the two sensory systems located in the inner ear |
The auditory, hearing. And vestibular, balance. systems |
|
|
⭐️What provides for hearing within the inner ear |
The cochlea |
|
|
The sense of equilibrium is also reliant on |
Vision and stretch receptors in muscles and tendons |
|
|
General method used to assess a client growth auditory acuity |
The whisper test. The examiner covers the untested here with their palm and stands one to 2 feet from the clients uncovered year they whisper a number phrase and asked the client to repeat it |
|
|
⭐️ nursing assessment of the ear and basic hearing acuity |
Obtain clients appraisal of their hearing, including whether the client experiences tinnitus. Observe for actions that suggest a hearing problem such as leaning forward, turning the head, or copping a hand to ear to hear better. Document the use of a hearing aid. Ask client about allergies, a history of upper respiratory and middle ear infections, high fevers, or exposure to loud sounds, because all these can cause hearing loss. Inspect external ear for signs of infection, such as swelling redness drainage or evidence of trauma. Shine a pen light into the ear to grossly inspect the ear canal. Straighten the ear canal by gently pulling the ear up and back for an adult and downward and backward for small children. Palpate the areas in front of and behind the ear lobe for tenderness and swelling. Perform a basic hearing acuity test. |
|
|
This examination involves inspecting the external acoustic canal and tympanic membrane using an otoscope. |
Otoscopic examination |
|
|
An instrument that produces sound in the same range as human speech. It is used to screen for conductive or Senso radio hearing loss. Conductive hearing loss involved interference with the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. Since a radio hearing loss is the result of nerve impairment. |
A tuning fork |
|
|
For this test of the tuning fork is struck, placed on the mastoid process behind the ear and held there until the client indicates the sound is no longer heard. Immediately after the still vibrating tuning fork is held beside the year. Normally air conduction beside the ear measures twice as long as bone conduction through the mastoid |
The Rinne test |
|
|
This test is performed by striking the tuning fork and placing its stem in the middle of the clients skull or center of the forehead a person with normal hearing perceives the sound equally well in both ears. |
The Weber test |
|
|
This test is used to evaluate a persons ability to sustain balance. The client stand with feet together and both arms extended the client close their eyes. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting are abnormal responses |
The Romberg test |
|
|
The lowest level of sound in normal individuals can perceive |
20 dB. Painful sounds occur at 120dB. |
|
|
Normal hearing in dB |
0-15 normal hearing >15-25 slight hearing loss >25-40 mild hearing loss |
|
|
Describe Tonometry |
Measures intraocular pressure, IOP, to screen for glaucoma. Normal IOP is 12 to 22 mmHG |
|
|
This refers to a vision loss level that is defined in order to qualify individuals for specific benefits such as Social Security disability benefits. |
Legal blindness. Generally this means that the clients better I had a visual acuity of 20/200 or less with the best possible correction. |
|
|
What does it mean when light rays are bed to focus images precisely on the retina |
Normal vision, emmetropia |
|
|
Myopia |
Nearsightedness |
|
|
Hyper Opia |
Farsightedness |
|
|
Presbyopia |
Associated with aging and resulting in difficulty with near vision |
|
|
⭐️. Astigmatism |
A visual distortion caused by an irregularly shaped cornea. Many people have both a stigmatism and myopia or hyperopia |
|
|
Longer eyeball equals |
Shorter vision |
|
|
Myopia occurs in people with |
Elongated eyeballs |
|
|
⭐️ refractive errors are usually corrected with |
Eyeglasses or contact lenses. The lenses bend light rays to compensate for The refractive error. |
|
|
Under local anesthesia the eye surgeon reshape the cornea by making incision |
Incisional radial keratotomy (RK) |
|
|
This procedure is most common surgery for refractive errors. The eye surgeon uses a laser called a femtosecond laser or a surgical blade to create a thin corneal flap which is gently folded back to expose the inner cornea |
Laser assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) |
|
|
This type of Lasik surgery uses computer imaging technology to create a three dimensional map of the clients cornea which is used to program the Excimer laser for surgery |
Wavefront guided Lasik |
|
|
What achieves vision corrected beyond what is possible with glasses or conventional LASIK |
Wavefront guided Lasik |
|
|
This procedure uses an examiner laser to remove the epithelial layer of the cornea |
Photorefractive keratotomy PRK |
|
|
What surgery sculpt the cornea to correct refractive errors without creating a flap |
PRK |
|
|
The eye surgeon in Plant B semi circular pieces of plastic or a small infusion in the cornea to correct mild myopia. The implant changes the shape of the cornea |
Intrastromal corneal ring segments |
|
|
An artificial lens is implanted in place of the clients lens, similar to a cataract surgery |
Refractive lens exchange RLE |
|
|
This procedure is used only for clients with presbyopia involves the application of heat thermal refraction to the periphery of the cornea to make it tighter and steeper |
Conductive keratoplasty cK |
|
|
Complications with Lasik |
Wrinkles in the flap, debris under the flap, a displaced flap, or infection or inflammation of the flap |
|
|
Client teaching of soft contact lenses |
Rub contact lenses with fingers, then rinse the lenses with solution before soaking them. The rub and rinse method is considered a superior cleaning method |
|
|
Visual acuity required to pass a driving test |
20/40 in at least one eye |
|
|
BCVA |
Best corrected visual acuity |
|
|
Low vision is defined as a BCVA of |
20/70 - 20/200. Blindness is a legal term for a BCVA of 20/200 or less with corrective lenses. The term visually impaired is used to describe a between 20/70 and 20/200 and the better I with the use of corrective lenses. |
|
|
A condition in which all three layers of the eye and vitreous are inflamed, removal of the eye may be necessary. Penetrating trauma can lead to this |
Endophthalmitis |
|
|
Client and family teaching instilling eye medication’s at home |
Wash hands thoroughly. Wipe the lids and lashes in a direction away from the nose with a moist and soft gauze pad, paper tissue, or cotton ball use a separate item for each wipe. All the tissue near the cheek downward, forming a sack in the lower lid. Tilt the head slightly backward and toward the inner eye in which the medication is to be installed. Do not allow the tip of the container to touch the eye. Instill the prescribed number of drops into the conjunctiva pocket, or apply a thin ribbon of ointment directly into the conjunctival pocket beginning at the inner corner and moving outward. Close the eye gently. Wipe away excess medication that falls onto the skin. If there is a dressing, secure it to the face with tape and use an eye shield for additional protection, especially at night. Do not rub the eye, and visit and ophthalmologist or return to the emergency department if the eye is not completely comfortable within a short time. Keep a follow up visit to check the condition of the eye and surrounding structures. |
|
|
Commonly called pink eye |
Conjunctivitis. Because of inflammation of the sub conjunctival blood vessels referred to as hyperemia which makes them more visible and causes redness or pink appearance. Some forms are highly contagious |
|
|
Inflammation of the uveal tract which consists of the iris, ciliary body, and choroid. |
Uveitis |
|
|
Accumulation of pus in the anterior chamber behind the cornea |
Hypopyon |
|
|
Mydriatic |
Eye dilating |
|
|
Inflammation of the cornea |
Keratitis |
|
|
Inflammation of the lid margin, where the eyelashes grow. |
Blepharitis |
|
|
Inflammation and infection of Zeis or Moll glands ;types of oil glands at the edge of the island |
Hordeum, or sty |
|
|
Most common causes of pathogen of a stye |
Staphylococcus aureus |
|
|
A cyst of one or more meibomian glands, A type of sebaceous gland in the inner surface of the eyelid at the junction of the conjunctiva and lid margin |
Chalazion |
|
|
The breakdown of or damage to the macula, the point on the retina where the light rays converge for the most acute visual perception. The disorder usually occurs in both eyes, but the vision in one eye tends to deteriorate more rapidly |
Macular degeneration. Affects straightahead vision, gradual onset typically from aging |
|
|
What grade is used to check central vision |
The Amsler grid |
|
|
What could be described as hypertension in the eye |
Glaucoma |
|
|
A group of eye disorders caused by an imbalance between the production and drainage of aqueous fluid |
Glaucoma |
|
|
The leading cause of blindness for people over 60 years old in the United States |
Glaucoma |
|
|
Most common type of glaucoma |
Open angle glaucoma. It’s onset is slow and the client may not experience noticeable symptoms for several years |
|
|
What type of glaucoma is less common but the onset is very sudden and immediate recognition and treatment are required to prevent blindness |
Angle closure glaucoma |
|
|
⭐️miotics |
Miotics such as Carbachol and pilocarpine constrict the pupil. These medication to pull the iris away from the drainage channel so that the aqueous fluid can escape. |
|
|
What should never be given to a patient with glaucoma |
Mydriatics |
|
|
Reminders for glaucoma |
Avoid all drugs that contain atropine. Check with primary provider or pharmacist before using any non-prescription drug, reparations for cold or allergy symptoms may contain atropine like drug. Maintain regular bowel habits, straining at school can raise IOP. Avoid heavy lifting and emotional upset especially crying |
|
|
A condition in which the lens of the eye becomes a pack, one or both eyes may be affected. If both are affected each I may progress differently |
Cataract. Cataracts form on the lens, which is behind the Iris and the pupil. |
|
|
Symptoms of cataracts |
One of the earliest symptoms is seeing a halo around lights. Other symptoms include difficulty reading, changes in color vision, colors that look faded or yellow, glaring of objects in bright light, distortion of objects blurred vision poor night vision and double vision in one eye. On inspection a white or gray spot is visible behind the pupil |
|
|
Can cataracts be treated medically or are they surgically removed |
Cataracts cannot be treated medically, they are surgically removed |
|
|
Most common method for improving vision with a cataract |
An intraocular lens IOL implant involves insertion of an IOL at the time of cataract surgery. It is the most common method for improving vision. IOLs are inserted behind the iris. Ultrasonography is performed before the surgery to determine the size and prescription of the IOL. A monofocal single vision or multifocal lens is implanted and reduces the need for corrective glasses. |
|
|
The sensory layer becomes separated from the pigmented layer of the retina |
Retinal detachment |
|
|
Assessment findings for retinal detachment |
Many clients noticed definite gaps in their vision or Blindspot. They describe the sensation of a curtain being drawn over their field of vision and they often see flashes of light. Seeing spots, cobwebs, or moving particles in one’s field of vision called floaters is common. Complete loss of vision may occur in the affected eye the condition is not painful but clients are usually extremely apprehensive. When the retina is inspected with an ophthalmoscope the tissue appears gray in the detached area |
|
|
Nursing management for clients with retinal detachment |
Clients are kept on bedrest and sometimes positioned on their side with the affected side of the eye independent position. Until surgery is performed sedation may be ordered. If an air bubble is instilled to promote contact between the retina and sclera, the client is positioned with the face parallel to the floor so that the bubble floats to the posterior of the eye |
|
|
Surgical removal of an eye, it is necessary when I is destroyed by injury or disease when a malignant tumor develops or to relieve pain if the ice is really damaged and sightless |
Enucleation |
|
|
⭐️Nursing management after enucleation |
The nurse observes the client after surgery for signs and symptoms of bleeding or infection. The client is usually allowed out of bed the day of surgery. When healing is complete in about 2 to 4 weeks the nurse teaches the client how to insert and remove the prosthetic shell. The prosthesis is typically removed before going to bed and inserted the next morning. The nurse instruct the client to hold the head over a soft surface such as a bed or padded table, when removing or inserting the prosthesis to avoid damage if the prosthetic eye falls. The client should clean the shell after removal and keep it in a safe place where it will not become scratched or broken. |
|
|
Mild hearing impairments cannot hear consonants such as |
S and F |
|
|
What type of hearing loss occurs from obstructions in the outer or middle ear such as accumulation of cerumen in the external acoustic meatus or disease such as failure of the tiny ear bones to vibrate |
Conductive hearing loss |
|
|
Involves damage to the inner ear from conditions sensory hair cells or the nerves |
Sensorineal hearing loss |
|
|
This hearing loss involves been conducted and sensor radio problems involving damage within the outer middle ear in the inner ear or auditory nerve |
Mixed hearing loss |
|
|
This hearing loss involves injury or damage to the nerves or the nuclei of the central nervous system |
Central hearing loss |
|
|
Clients with A hearing impairment often have |
Tinnitus |
|
|
Describe tinnitus |
Tinnitus is a condition in which the client hears a buzzing, whistling, or ringing noises in one or both ears |
|
|
Risks for hearing loss include the following |
Family H acts of sensor radial impairment. Congenital malformation of the cranial structure. Use of ototoxic medication e.g. gentamicin loop diuretics. Recurrent ear infections. Bacterial meningitis. Chronic exposure to loud noises. Perforation of the tympanic membrane |
|
|
Hearing loss during what period of life is the most critical period for learning to make sounds |
The first three years |
|
|
Clients with what type of hearing loss benefit from the use of a hearing aid because the structures that convert sound into energy and facilitate perception of sound in a brain continue to function |
Conductive hearing loss |
|
|
Describe an infrared hearing system |
Infrared light waves transmit sound from the television, can be used in homes theaters or classrooms. |
|
|
Describe the induction loop system |
An induction loop system is installed in the ceiling or floor and connects with the speakers microphone. The client turns the hearing aid to the T ( Telecoil/telephone) and hearing a Tele coil received the electromagnetic signal. The client can adjust the volume of the other hearing aid |
|
|
What device has an external microphone that captures incoming sounds as well as external sound processor and planted behind the ear that captures the sound converts it to digital signals and send them to an internal implant |
Cochlear implant |
|
|
⭐️Impacted cerumen is common among people who have excessive thick or dry cerumen that interferes with what |
The trap cerumen interferes with the transmission of sounds carried on airwaves |
|
|
⭐️Nursing management for impacted cerumen |
Your drops can be warmed by holding the container in the hand for a few moments or placing it in the water warm. Teach clients not to clean the external auditory canal with objects such as cotton tip swabs or toothpicks because it is traumatic to the surface and can harm the tympanic membrane. |
|
|
Otitis media is |
An acute inflammation or infection in the middle ear. The middle ear leads to the eustachian tube, which leads to the sinuses. Per Julen otitis media results from the spread of micro organisms from the eustachian tube to the middle ear during upper respiratory infection. Pathogens that are unresponsive to antibiotic fear therapy can spread, causing mastoiditis, or they travel deeper in the inner ear causing labyrinthitis, they can also travel to the meninges causing meningitis. |
|
|
What is a myringotomy or tympanotomy |
An incisional opening of the tympanic membrane. Plastic surgery, my Ringo plasty, is usually successful in repairing the perforated tympanic membrane. |
|
|
What is the result of the bony overgrowth of the stapes in a common cause of hearing impairment among adults, fixation of the stapes occurs gradually over many years |
Otosclerosis |
|
|
Assessment findings for a otoslerosis |
A progressive bilateral loss of hearing is the most characteristic symptom. The client notices the hearing loss when it begins to interfere with the ability to follow conversation. There is a particular difficulty hearing others when they speak in a soft low tone but hearing is adequate when the sound is loud enough. Tinnitus appears as the loss of hearing progresses. It is especially noticeable at night, when surroundings are quiet, and can be distressing to the client. |
|
|
What is the sensation of movement when there is none, or a sense of exaggerated movement when moving |
Vertigo |
|
|
Is vertigo a disease |
Vertigo is not a disease, but a symptom of a disease |
|
|
Define objective and subjective vertigo |
Objective vertigo in which a person is stationary and the environment is moving Subjective vertigo when a person feels motion but the surrounding environment is stationary |
|
|
People with vertigo are likely to have a peripheral vestibular disorder such as |
Ménière’s disease, or a benign peristomal positional vertigo BPPV |
|
|
What involves brief periods of severe vertigo when the clients move their heads |
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo |
|
|
Also referred to as endolymphatic hyper drops, a disorder characterized by fluctuations in the fluid volume and pressure in the endolymphatic sac of the inner ear |
Ménière’s disease. Increased production of endolymph and decreased production of perilymph |
|
|
⭐️ assessment findings of Ménière’s disease |
The *onset of Ménière’s disease may be sudden*, and symptoms may occur daily or in frequently. Vertigo is the most incapacitating symptoms, clients report whirling dizziness and the need to lie down severe vertigo causes nausea and vomiting. Typically clients who experience tinnitus and hearing loss that last for several hours as well as headaches and abdominal discomfort. Nystagmus of the eyes may result from imbalance in vestibular control of IV movements. |
|
|
⭐️ what describes the detrimental effect of certain medication’s on the eighth cranial nerve or hearing structures |
Ototoxicity |
|
|
Also known as vestibular swan Irma, a benign Schwann cell tumor that progressively enlarges and adversely affects cranial nerve eight |
Acoustic neuroma |
|