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99 Cards in this Set

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Findings in ataxia telangiectasia
broken vessels in eyes and ears, Purkinje cell loss, immunodeficiency, chromosomal breakage, premature ovarian failure, leukemia and lymphoma predisposition
Females with ataxia telangiectasia are at risk for what?
premature ovarian failure
Describe Aarskog syndrome
saddlebag (shawl) scrotum, cryptorchidism
broad forehead
normal IQ
widow's peak
sandalfoot toe space
thin upper lip with long philtrum
short stature, short hands
linear dimple below lower lip
Chromosome breaks and sister chromosome exchanges are a signature feature of what syndrome?
Bloom syndrome
Features of Bloom syndrome
short stature, michrcephaly, malar hypoplasia, butterfly rash on face, leukemia in young, GI cancer in old
The protein causing Bloom syndrome in in which gene family?
RecQ family of helicases
Gene assoc. with Bloom syndrome
BLM on chromosome 15q26.1
What breast biopsy findings are associated with No increased risk of cancer?
adenosis, apocrine change, duct ectasia, mild hyperplasia
What breast biopsy findings are associated with SLIGHTLY increased risk of cancer?
hyperplasia that is mild or florid, sclerosing adenosis
When a woman has atypical hyperplasia of breast tissue but no family history of breast cancer, what is her lifetime risk of developing breast cancer?
20-25% cumulative lifetime risk
When a woman has atypical hyperplasia of breast tissue AND a family history of breast cancer, what is her lifetime risk of developing breast cancer?
up to 40% cumulative lifetime risk
What type of DCIS has the higher chance of becoming invasive?
Comedo type
BRCA2 lifetime risk of breast cancer? ovarian cancer? male breast cancer?
lifetime risk=50-85%
ovarian cancer =10-20%
male breast=5-10%
Other cancers assoc. with BRCA2
prostate, pancreatic, melanoma
About what % of high-risk pancreatic cancer families have BRCA2 mutations?
about 6%
Typical risk of pancreatic cancer in BRCA2
3-5%
2 different alleles of BRCA 2 mutations can lead to what?
Fanconi anemia
Describe Fanconi anemia
rare recessive childhood disease causing increased risk of leukemia and other cancers, skeletal and developmental anomalies, short stature.
Name the 3 founder BRCA mutations for Ashkenazi Jews
BRCA1--185delAG
BRCA1--5382insC
BRCA2--6174delT
Recommendations for a woman who screens positive for BRCA
Breast screening starting at 25:
mammogram every 12 months
clinical breast exam -12 months
self exam-6 months
MRI-12 months

Ovarian screening starting at 30-35:
CA-125-12 months
transvaginal u/s-12 months
Prophylactic ovary removal reduces BREAST cancer risk by how much in pre-menopausal women?
over 50%
Other cancers seen in HNPCC
endometrial, ovarian, stomach, kidney, brain, otehr CNS, small bowel
What is the first step in testing for HNPCC?
If they pass Amsterdam criteria, then sequence MLH1 and MSH2.
5 year survival rate fr ovarian cancer?
45%
Most ovarian cancers are of what type?
surface epitheliaum-serous cells
Recommendations for ovarian cancer screening for high-risk women
Start 10 years before earliest case in family. Biannual rectopelvic exam with 6 month alternating CA125 and ultrasound.
Ways to reduce risk of ovarian cancer
oral contraceptives
pregnancy
breastfeeding
diet, exercise
surgery (ligation, hysterectomy)
In surgical staging of ovarian cancer, what is the goal?
Leave no tumor more than .5 cm in diameter. Remove and scrape everything, making chemo more effective.
clinical and pathologic prognostic factors for ovarian cancer
Stage
histologic type and grade
age
performance status
volume of residual disease
What histologic types of ovarian cancer are worst?
clear cell, mucinous, poorly differentiated
Favorable findings for ovarian cancer prognosis
Stage 1A or 1B
well-differentiated tumors
no surface tumor
growth confined to ovary
no ascites
negative peritoneal cytology
Unfavorable findings for ovarian cancer prognosis, requiring chemo
ascites
poor differentiation
surface tumor
ruptured capsule
positive peritoneal washing
all stage 2 (no stage 1)
Chemo drugs for ovarian cancer: standard of care?
Paclitaxel
(Taxane) + Carboplatin
Management of advanced ovarian cancer
accurate and comprehensive surgical staging
cytoreduction
postop chemo
Taxane and Carboplatin
In ovarian cancer, what are goals of treatment in recurrent disease?
quality of life
symptom control
progression-free interval
overall survival
In ovarian cancer, what determines whether a patient is drug-sensitive or resistant?
Drug-sensitive=more than 6 months until recurrence
Drug-resistant=less than 6 months until recurrence
Drug refractory=no response to initial therapy
A family pedigree iwth breast cancer and males with earlier-onset prostate cancers suggests what gene?
BRCA1
Factors affecting BRCA penetrance
hormones/reproductive factors
carcinogens
modifier genes
response to DNA damage
Possible ways that alcohol increases risk of breast cancer
Effect on steroid hormone production
Influence of IGF
Generation of free radicals, etc
Interaction with low folate levels
Describe the Women's Health Initiative (WHI) study of 2003 and what was found.
Randomized study to look at effects of hormone replacement therapy on breast cancer. Given placebo vs. Estrogen/progesterone. Slightly increased risk, but risk with estrogen alone. Increased risk of cardiovasc. disease also. We now think HRT ok for 5 years, protective for heart dis. in women in 50s.
Name some concerns assoc. with mammography in BRCA mutation carriers
exposure to radiation
increased breast density
high incidence on interval concerns
Digital mammography is better than standard for whom?
women under 50
women with dense breasts
pre- or peri-menopausal women
Mammogran vs. MRI: whichis better for what?
MRI is better for invasive timors
Mammogram better for DCIS
Advantages of breast MRI over mammogram?
Picks up things not seen on mammogram
detects multifocal disease
more preceise estimates of size and margins
reduces biopsy number
Evidence supports the idea that which categories of women should have annual MRI?
Women with 20-25% or greater risk of br. cancer by BRCAPRO or other based on Fam Hx
Women with BRCA mutation
Untested first deg. relative of BRCA carrier
THe NIH consensus statement on prophylactic oophorectomy in BRCA carriers
surgery at 35 or when childbearing complete
Tubal ligation is assoc. with what decreased risk in ovarian cancer? How?
30-40% decreased risk due to interruption of circulation, alterd hormone levels, blockage of carcinogens
What is the purpose of the breast cancer prevention trial (BCPT)?
To evaluate the effects of Tamoxifen in reducing:
invasive breast cancer
breast cancer mortality
cardio mortality
bone fractures
Found that Tamoxifen gives 50% reduction in new cancers
What is the STAR study, and what did it find?
Tamoxifen vs. Raloxifene. Found that Realoxifene is as effetive for invasive disease, but less effective for in situ disease. Raloxifene more protective for uterine cancer and hyperplasia. Equal for heart disease.
Advantages to calculating breast cancer risk based on family history
Takes into account multiple variables:
environmental factors
age of onset
common cancers
distinctive predisposition syndromes
2 Models for prior probability for Lynch syndrome (MLH1 and MSH2 only)
Bayes Mendel
PREMM1, 2
How many cases of thyroid cancer per year in the US?
20,000
What percent of non-skin cancer is thyroid (in the US)?
1.8%
Subtypes and percentages of thyroid cancer
90% well-differentiated (mostly papillary, 10% follicular)
5-10% medullary
small %=anaplastic, lymphoma, other
Of all thyroid cancer, what % is medullary? What % of that is genetic?
10% of all thyroid cancer is medullary. Of that, 25% is genetic, 75% sporadic.
Most genetic medullary thyroid cancer is due to what?
MEN2A
20% of all medullary thyiod cancer, 80% of genetic medullary thyroid cancer.
Besides medullary thyroid cancer, what other abnormalities are seen in MEN2A?
pheochromocytomas
hyperparathyroidism
Besides medullary thyroid cancer, what other abnormalities are seen in MEN2B?
pheochromocytomas
mucosal neuromas
intestinal gangioneuromas
Marfanoid habitus
problems with colonic function
What type of protein is RET? How does is cause tumerogenesis when mutated.
proto-oncogene
Stuck in ON position, causes overproliferation. AD inheritance, dominant negative.
3 major risks assoc. with a RET mutation and percentages of each
medullary thyroid cancer=100%
pheochromocytoma=50%
hyperparathyroidism=10-20%
What % of MEN2 families have MEN2B?
5%
Testing for which metabolite is LESS reliable that RET gene testing?
calcitonin
What pathology result is highly suggestive of a mutation in RET?
C-cell hyperplasia=carcinoma in situ for medullary thyroid. If no RET mutation found, seek research testing.
In MEN2 patients, when should they be screened for pheochromocytomas?
before any surgery
annually based on plasma metanephrines
CT imaging every 3-5 years (controversial)
Age of onset of parathyroid tumors in MEN1
20-25
What are paragangliomas?
Tumors that arise in neuroendocrine tissue
Sympathetic paragangliomas are neuroendocrine tumors that secrete what?
catecholemines
Sympathetic paragangliomas are neuroendocrine tumors that are found where?
Usually retroperitoneal, may be abdomen or thorax
Parasympathetic paragangliomas are neuroendocrine tumors that are found where?
head and neck
Name 3 genetic syndromes assoc. with pheochromocytomas
von Hippel-Lindau
MEN2
NF1
3 main features of von Hippel-Lindau
hemangioblastoma of brain, spine, retina
clear cell renal canc
pheochromocytomas
PGL-1 (head and neck paragangliomas)--what gene?
SDHD
PGL-1 (head and neck paragangliomas)--inheritance pattern?
AD, but tumors only develop if inherited from dad, due to maternal imprinting
Biggest danger in PGL-4?
50% of pheochromocytomas are malignant
Inheritance of PGL-4
AD, no maternal imprinting
Guidelines for testing a patient for melanoma genes
3 or more melanomas
or
1 melanoma and 2 or more cases of melanoma or pancreatic in FDR or SDR in same lineage
40% of hereditary melanoma is due to what gene?
CDKN2A/p16
(FAMMM)
By age 80, risk for melanoma due to CDKN2A mutation
58% in Europe
78% in US
91% in Australia
4 genes assoc. with familial melanoma
CDKN2A
p14ARF
CDK4
MC1R
Difference btwn pheochromocytomas in VHL vs. MEN2
VHL=normetanephrine predominant
MEN2=metanephrine predominant
What % of melanoma is hereditary?
5-12%
Up to what % of Gorlin is de novo?
30%
Dx criteria for Gorlin
2 major 1 minor,
or 1 major 3 minor
Major features of Gorlin
multiple basal cell skin cncers
skull calcium deposits
jaw keratocysts
palmar/plantar pits
FDR with Gorlin
Minor features of Gorlin
medulloblastoma in childhood
macrocephaly
cleft lip/palate
bifid ribs
polydactyly
eye problems
heart/ovarian fibromas
abdominal cysts
Cancers assoc. with Xeroderma Pigmentosum
basal cell carcinoma
squamous cell
melanoma
mucosal tissue an tongue cancers
How do you test for Xeroderma pigmentosum?
9 complementation groups, and only 50% test positive. So test by checking cells response to UV radiation.
Features of ataxia telangiectasia
immunodeficiency
progressive cerebellar ataxia
telangiectasias
radiation sensitivity
malignancy risk (leukemia, lymphoma)
Best way to test for ataxia telangiectasia
Immunoblotting for ATM protein is more effective than genetic testing.
Also, serum AFP high in 95%.
Radiosensitivity assay.
May have 7;14 translocation.
Physical manifestations of Fanconi anemia
short stature
changes in skin pigmentation
radial malformations
Features of Fanconi Anemia
short stature, skin pigmentation changes, radial malformations
progressive bone marrow failure
myelodysplastic syndrome or AML
solid tumors--head/neck, esophagus, cervix, liver
How does diagnostic testing work for Fanconi anemia?
Subject cells to DNA damaging substances, measure chromosomal breakage and formation of radials
How many complementation groups for Fanconi anemia? Most common?
13 complementation groups
FANCA=66%
What % of retinoblastoma is unilateral? bilateral?
unilateral=60%
bilateral=40%
With a negative Fam Hx, what % of unilateral retinoblastoma patients test positive for RB1? bilateral?
with no family history, 15% of unilateral have RB1 mutation, 90% of bilateral have RB1 mutation
What % of Wilms tumor patients have a family history?
1-2%
Overgrowth syndromes assoc. with Wilms tumor
Beckwith-Weidemann
Isolated hemihypertrophy
Features of Beckwith-Weidemann
macroglossia
ear creeases
visceromegaly
hemihyperplasia
macrosomia
omphalocele/abdominal wall defects
neonatal hypoglycemia
8% malignancy risk (Wilms, hepatoblastoma, neuroblastoma and rhabdomyosarcoma)
Causes of Beckwith-Weieemann with percents
loss of DMR2 methylation=50%
parental UPD=20%
unknown=15%
CDKN1C mutation=10%
gain of DMR1 methylation=~5%
duplication=less than 1%
translocation/inversion=less than 1%