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196 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
State four methods for controlling bleeding.
Direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, tourniquet
A person who is sweating profusely is showing signs of heat exhaustion
Describe the three classifications of burns
1st degree- redness, warmth, tender, mild pain
2nd degree- blistered severe pain
3rd degree- destroyed tissue, nerve damage
The ________will require that persons are instructed and drilled in all safety precautions and procedures that they complied with, and that all safety precautions are posted
5. The resulting total cost of reportable material property damage of $1,000,000 or more, or an injury or occupational illness resulting in a fatality or permanent total disability is what type mishap?
Class A
6. The Enlisted Safety Committee should meet how often?
7. The criteria for a command to have a Command Master Chief is ________?
8. Who is responsible for the policies and control of The Department of the Navy including its organization administration operation and efficiency.
Sec Nav
9. There is a dual chain of command to the operating forces.
An ____________ chain from the President through the Secretary of Defense to a commander of a unified or specified command to the assigned operational forces.
An ____________ chain through the Secretary of the Navy and the Chief of Naval Operations to the operating forces
10. The battle of _________ is considered the turning point of the war in the Pacific.
The name of the first aircraft carrier was
USS Langley
The birth date for the United Sates Navy is what date?
Identify the following ratings.

a. AB______________
b. AZ______________
c. AD______________
Aviation Boatswain Mate,
Aviation Maintenance Administrationman,
Aviation Machinist Mate
An object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by an outside force, This is the definition of
Newton's First Law
A severe thunderstorm warning will be issued when wind levels are reported in excess of _________mph gusts.
50 Mph
State the three primary movements of aircraft about the axis?
State the five basic sections of a jet engine?
Combustion Chamber
A re-settable protective device that opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value is
Circuit Breaker
What does RADAR stand for?
Radio Detection and Ranging
How are runways numbered
Magnetic heading rounded to nearest tenth
The maximum towing speed of an aircraft is?
As fast as the slowest walker
What is the primary navigation aid used by carrier based aircraft?
This aviation community performs duties such as plane guard, sea air rescue, mail delivery, and personnel transfer?
This aviation community fly’s the following type aircraft EA-6B, EA-7, EP-3A
The H-2 Seasprite belongs to which aviation community?
A ship which carries missiles, fuel, ammunition and general cargo and can be refrigerated and can carry two h-46 helicopters for vertical replenishment and support is
A ship classified as an “AS ‘ HAS WHAT MISSION?
Sub Tender
The intentional use of living organisms to disable or destroy people or their domestic animals, to damage their crops and or to deteriorate their supplies is the definition of.
Biological Warfare
With a nuclear explosion which type burst will produce the worst type fallout?
Surface Burst
What does MOPP stand for?
Mission Oriented Protection Posture
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
State the meaning of the term “WARNING” as it applies to NATOPS
Operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed
The _______ primary job is to respond to the hour-by-hour work center functions. This requires constant communication throughout the chain of command
W/C Supervisor
A message that is sent out on 31 October 1998 at 0800 Zulu time, the date time group on the message would read as follows.
The part of the enlisted service jacket used to record emergency data, and a reference for beneficiary data should the service member die while on active duty would be recorded where?
Page 2
Volume IV of the NAMP is
Aviation 3M Data Processing Requirements
Name the three levels of Maintenance
Organizational, I-Level, DEPOT
A daily inspection is valid for how long
72 hours
State who is authorized to sign the aircraft logbook
Anyone designated by the CO
When performing an inspection a QAR is considered a direct representative of th
What does the term NALCOMIS stand for?
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
A 9, 10, 11 character code which serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reporting (MDR) and maintenance control procedures.
Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures
Individual Component Repair List
National Item Identification Number
Consolidated Remain-in Place Listing
Awaiting Parts
National Stock Number
What are the six categories of Hazardous Materials?
Flammable or Combustible,
Compressed Gases
State the personal protective equipment required to handle hazardous material or hazardous waste:
Eye Protection,
The treatment for shock involves which of the following procedures?
Cover the victim, lay down, elevate the feet
The 3-letter designator for an Amphibious Assault Ship is?
When is a tourniquet removed?
What does “MOPP” in relation to Chemical, Biological, and Radiological protection refer to?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
Defined as “the resulting total cost of reportable material property damage is $1,000,000 or more; or an injury or occupational illness resulting in a fatality or permanent total disability”.
Class “A” Mishap
A civilian, in charge of the Department of the Navy, responsible for policies and control of Department of the Navy organization, administration, operations, and efficiency. Known as
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
What is the purpose of Safety Stand Down?
Provides a dedicated time for safety training awareness and enhancement of command
safety climate
Who was the first Naval Aviator in space?
Alan Shepard
Which of the following fuels has a flashpoint of 140 degrees, a flame spread rate of 100 feet per minute, and is the only fuel approved aboard Naval vessels:
What type inspection is a “bird strike” inspection?
Conditional Inspection
Serves as a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere or where more detailed information may be required to clarify entries on other pages of the service record. This is the......
Page 13
What is the definition of RADAR stand for and what is it?
A pulse echo of 12.36 microseconds, for each mile of travel. (Radio Detection and
The Navy purchased its first aircraft from Glenn Curtis on this date. It was an A-1 Triad aircraft for $5,500. This date is considered the birthday of Naval Aviation:
08 May 1911
Identify the mission of the C-130 Hercules, C-20 Gulfstream, and C-9 Skytrain aircrafts:
What is the function of the Command Master Chief ?
To advise and assist the Commanding Officer in matters concerning the welfare,
morale, and living conditions of the enlisted personnel.
The requirement to receive a Good Conduct Award is?
3 years; no mark below 3.0 on evaluations; no Non-Judicial Punishment.
Which of the following types of ships is designated as an Ammunition ship?
Defined as a 9-, 10-, or 11- character alphanumeric code that serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reports and maintenance control procedures. Composed of an Organization Code, day, serial number, and suffix (suffix used at I-level). It is known as:
Job Control Number
Which volume of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program deals with concepts, policies, Organizational level maintenance, and Intermediate level maintenance support procedures?
Volume 1
Technical bulletins containing information about materials such as their composition, chemical and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use of hazardous material are called what?
Material Safety Data Sheets
Which report lists a squadron or ship’s billets and who is filling them?
Navy Manning PlanManpower Authorization Document (OPNAV 1000/2)
Issued to pilots making extended flights, they contain instructions to obtain material or services which may be necessary for the continuation of a flight. They are known as:
Flight packets
List 4 of the 6 categories of hazardous material
Flammable or Combustible
Compressed Gases
A Functional Check Flight (FCF) is required if an aircraft does not fly for 30 days.
Which statement is true concerning a National Stock Number
A 13-digit number used by all branches of the military.
A consolidated list specifying items and quantities of Support Equipment end items required for a particular aircraft maintenance activity or activity component to perform its assigned maintenance level is called a........
Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL)
An administrative means for providing managers with aircraft and equipment age, status, modification, configuration, and historical data to plan, maintain, and operate aircraft and equipment. This information is found in........
Aircraft logbooks and AESR’s
A 14-Day Inspection is an example of which type inspection?
Special Inspection
Defined as: “a warning for harbor and inland waters and ocean areas for winds 34-47 knots”.
Which of the following defines a “rocket”:
A weapon containing an explosive section and a propulsion section that is unable to change it’s direction of movement after firing.
A “Tornado Warning” means
Tornadoes have been sighted or detected by RADAR in or adjacent to the warning area
Turning the rudder left or right has what effect on aerodynamics?
Effects yaw
The Naval Aircraft Flight Record is also known as what?
The Yellow Sheet
What is the primary mission of a “VAQ” type aircraft squadron?
Tactical Electronic Warfare
What World War II Naval battle saved Australia from invasion?
Battle of Coral Sea
Aviation Gas-Free Engineers are designated by who?
Commanding Officer
“Voltage” is defined as...
The force which causes electrons to move
Defined as a “protective device which opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value. They can be reset.” Known as.......
Circuit Breaker
Which of Newton’s Laws of Motion states the following:
“Every body continues in its state of rest or motion unless acted on.”
It is known as the law of Inertia.
First Law
States that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and pressure is decreased.
Bernoulli’s Principle
This person is primarily responsible for the organization, performance of duty and good order and discipline of the command. He is a direct representative of the Commanding Officer. Who is he/she?
Executive Officer
An “LSD” type ship is defined as an......
Amphibious Dock Landing Ship
Which of the following ratings is known as an Aviation Antisubmarine Warfare Operator?
On a Naval message, “references” are........
Strategic Air Command (SAC), Aerospace Defense Command (ADCOM), and Military Airlift Command (MAC) are all what type commands?
Specified Commands
Normally a civilian who has direct contact with the Commanding Officer on family matters and represents the dependent is known as what?
Which of the following jet fuels has the lowest flashpoint (-10 degrees F), and is never allowed on a ship?
a collier (coal-carrier) known as the Jupiter, it was recommissioned on 20 March 1922 after its conversion to the Navy’s first carrier. It was renamed to the......
USS Langley
The possible loss of radios, phones, vehicle ignition systems after a nuclear explosion is caused by what?
Electromagnetic Pulse
An inspection of evaluating a part or sample of material without impairing its future usefulness. Methods include visual, optical, liquid penetrant, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic and radiographic. What type inspection is it?
Non-Destructive Inspection
Which of the following is/are capabilities of the C-130T?
A tactical transport that can be converted readily for ambulance or aerial delivery.
Provide in-flight refueling and rapid transportation of personnel or cargo for delivery by parachute or landing.
Take-off or land on short runways
What is the purpose of the aerial delivery system (ADS)?
To allow the aircraft to deliver many types of cargo by parachute
What type of propeller is used on the C-130T aircraft?
Hamilton Standard, four-blade, electro-hydromatic full feathering reversible pitch propeller.
How many life rafts are installed on the C-130T?
4-20 man life rafts
What is the location of the outflow valve?
Right aft side of the flight station.
Where is the hydraulic ground test checkout valve located?
Aft of the left hand main landing gear wheel well
What safety precautions should be observed during refueling operations?
Locate aircraft outside, 100 feet from hangar or building
Do not taxi, tow or operate any aircraft within 50 feet of fueling operation
Cease all fueling operations whenever a fire hazard appears
Warning as defined by the C-130T NATOPS and Maintenance Instruction Manuals is:
May result in injury or death if not carefully followed
How long can the wing and empennage anti-icing be run on the ground?
30 seconds
Which type and model engine is used on the C-130T aircraft?
Allison T56-A-16
The utility hydraulic system operates from the output of the _____________?
#1 and #2 engine driven hydraulic pumps.
How many emergency exit lights are installed on the C-130T?
What does HERO stand for?
Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance
What are the three methods of servicing the aircraft hydraulic systems?
System fill connection, gravity filling through the filler opening and the single point refill system
What is the function of the safety valve?
Opens to relieve excessive positive or negative cabin pressure.
Who is responsible for the safe and orderly conduct of a flight?
Open fuel cells can be worked on as soon as authorized by maintenance control
The purpose of the squadron PBFT is?
Evaluate and accomplish medium, short and long range training
State the purpose of (ORM) Operational Risk Management
Systematic decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards before they happen
Crew rest is for a period of how many hour’s prior to reporting for a mission
Where is the emergency depressurization hatch located?
Part of the center overhead escape hatch.
Who assists the Flight Engineer during interior inspection of the cargo compartment?
List two capabilities of the C-130T.
Transportation of cargo and personnel
Can be converted for ambulance missions
State the purpose of the yellow/black areas on the aircraft.
Identify emergency exit, which may be cut through
Which of the following anti-icing systems use electrical elements?
Pitot tubes
Identification friend or foe
Tactical air Navigation
Ground Proximity warning system
Radio detection and ranging
Instrument Landing System
A steady light in the APU fire handle is the indication of _____________?
An APU fire.
Who is responsible for assisting the pilot in the performance of his duties?
How many first aid kits are on board the C-130T
Which of the following support equipment supplies external electrical power to the C-130T?


What is the purpose of an RJQR?
Define training requirements
What is the location of the safety valve?
Cargo door.
What are the two types of refueling methods used on the C-130T?
Single point refueling and over the wing refueling.
What is the location of the air deflector doors?
Fwd of the paratroop doors, forming the rear section of the main landing gear wheel well fairing
Who is the principal scheduling authority for Naval Reserve C-130T airlift
Navy Air Logistics Office
Ice detection probes for the automatic control of the anti-ice and de-ice systems are located in the __________?
#2 and #3 engine inlet air duct.
How many hand-operated fire extinguishers are installed on the C-130T?
What is the source of air for the flight deck and cargo compartment air conditioners?
Engines and APU
The Aileron control’s
The Rudder control’s
A flashing light in an engine fire handle is an indication of ______________?
Turbine overheat
Which of the following is a precaution of operating the APU?
Operation in sandy/graveled or loosely surfaced areas may cause foreign object damage.
Personnel must stand clear of the compressor air intake/exhaust and plane of rotation of the turbine and compressor.
Monitor the leading edge temperature indicators for rise, which indicates an anti-icing valve, may be stuck open
The booster hydraulic system operates from the output of the _____________?
#3 and #4 engine driven hydraulic pumps
Who computes the take-off and landing data (TOLD), and records power plant cruise data?
The engine compressor assembly:
Compresses air for engine to run
The white strobe light should only be viewed:
At a distance of 75 ft.
What type of propeller is used on the C-130T aircraft?
Hamilton Standard, four-blade, hydromatic full feathering reversible pitch propeller.
UHF provides frequency in which range?
300-3000 MHz
What is the purpose of PBFT?
To accomplish short and long-range objectives
To accomplish medium-range goals
Crew members must be provided rest commencing _____ hours prior to reporting.
What type and model engine is used on the C-130 aircraft?
Allison T56-A-16
External tanks have _____ low-point drains each.
The safety valve is located ______________?
Near the cargo door
How many Walk-Around Bottles are there aboard the aircraft?
How long can you operate the ice detector on deck?
30 seconds
Engines #3 and #4 operate which hydraulic system?
How many First Aid Kits are onboard the C-130?
The radar altimeter is the altitude above sea level. (True/False)
Where is the FLIGHT STATION located?
Right side, forward of the 245 bulkhead
How many wheels are there TOTAL on the C-130 aircraft?
How far can the CABIN ALT pressurization knob go?
Combined Altitude Radar Altimeter
Inertial Navigation System
Ground Proximity Warning System
Instrument Landing System
Tactical Air Navigation
Who is responsible for maintaining a safe center of gravity for the aircraft?
The nacelle overheat system activates warning lights when what condition exists?
Who acts as the principal scheduling authority for all C-130 flights?
The AFT FUSELAGE is located_______?
Aft of fuselage 737
While the Auxilary Power Unit is operating, a safety observer will man a fire bottle to ensure no fires start near the unit. (True/False)
What do the FLAPS do?
Increase lift at slower speeds
Cargo compartment under floor heating provides how much aircraft pressure at 35,000 feet?
What provides the means to equalize tank pressure and prevent purge tanks from overfilling?
Control Panels
The aircraft battery provides what kind of power supply?
24 Volt DC
TACAN will provide ______________?
What is used to illuminate nacelles on the C-130?
Wing leading edge lights
Where is the BLEED AIR SYSTEM located?
The engine nacelles

The auxiliary hydraulic system operates from ____________?
An electrically driven hydraulic pump and manual operation
Where are the WALK-AROUND BOTTLES located?
1 next to the Pilot, 1 next to the Co-Pilot, 1 at the 245 bulkhead, 1 aft of starboard main landing gear
How far does the radiation hazard extend on RADAR?
35 feet
Figure 8 with one hand, point to area with other
Arms above head, palms open
Fanning motion with one hand, point to wheel with other
Arms crossed over head, fists clenched
Arms down, fists closed thumbs out, arms out
What are the primary colors of the emergency exits on the C-130?
When handling Liquid Oxygen, all the following items are not to be in the area EXCEPT
The auxiliary hydraulic system is located _____________?
Port side of the cargo compartment, aft of the paratroop door.
Instrumental Flight Rules
Visual Flight Rules
Instrumental Meteorological Conditions
Visual Meteorological Conditions