C-130 Eaws Specific Vr 55

Front 1

101.1 Discuss the basic requirements for each of the following Navy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH) programs:

a.Respiratory protection:
b.Hearing conservation:
c.Sight conservation:
d.Personal protective equipment:

Back 1

101.1 Answers:
a.Respiratory protection: If respiratory protection is required activities shall establish/maintain a respiratory protection program. Respiratory protection training shall be provided for all workers required to use such equipment.
b.Hearing conservation: All noise areas must be labeled. If the use of hearing protection is required, it shall be so labeled. Periodic hearing tests shall be conducted, a list of those working in areas requiring protection, shall be maintained and monitored for yearly testing.
c.Sight conservation: Emergency eye wash facilities shall be maintained in areas where the eyes of workers may be exposed to corrosives. Workers who have visual impairment, shall not be assigned duties which present a hazard to his or her remaining eye.
d.Personal protective equipment: Activities shall ensure that an assessment of all work places is conducted to determine if hazards are present that necessitate the use of personal protective equipment.

Front 2

101.2 Define the following terms as they apply to the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) and the Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIMS):

a.Warning:
b.Caution:
c.Note:
d.Shall:
e.Should:
f.May:
g.Will:

Back 2

101.2 Answers:

Operating procedure, practice, or condition, that….
a.Warning: may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed

b.Caution: may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed

c.Note: must be emphasized

d.Shall: means a procedure that is mandatory

e.Should: means a procedure that is recommended

f.May: May" and "need not" mean procedure is optional.

g.Will: Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure

Front 3

101.3 Discuss the following as they apply to hangar deck safety:

a.Portable fire extinguisher:
b.Fire lanes:
c.Smoking or open flames:
d.Aircraft grounding:

Back 3

101.3 Answers:
a.Portable fire extinguisher: Used to extinguish fires, they shall be visually inspected monthly, inspections shall include serviceability, access, and evidence of physical damage, and broken seals.

b.Fire lanes: Fire lanes are specifically designed to allow fire apparatus unobstructed access at all times to an aircraft in the event of a fire or medical emergency. They shall be clearly marked and kept clear. Parking in designated fire lanes is strictly prohibited

c.Smoking or open flames: Smoking and/or open flames shall not be permitted within 50 feet of parked aircraft, hangar bays, etc.

d.Aircraft grounding: Aircraft shall be electrically grounded during all maintenance evolutions. Grounding procedures- Attach grounding wire to the ground first, then to aircraft. Un-grounding procedure- Disconnect the grounding wire from aircraft, then disconnect it from the ground.

Front 4

101.4 Define the term (HERO) and discuss the safety precautions associated with handling Cartridge Actuated Devices (CADS):

Back 4

101.4 Answers:

"HERO" or Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance

The potential for electromagnetic radiation, radio waves, radar, etc, to adversely affect munitions, ordnance, or electro explosive devices.

Physical contact with the cartridge actuated device during handling and loading operations is prohibited.

Front 5

101.5 Discuss the safety precautions that must be observed during Liquid Oxygen (LOX) servicing:

Back 5

101.5 Answers:

Liquid oxygen is formed when the temperature of gaseous oxygen is lowered to -297° F under 720 psi pressure, will remain a liquid under-normal atmospheric pressure, as long as the temperature is maintained below -297° F. Expansion ratio is 862 to 1, which means that one volume of LOX will expand about 862 times when converted back to gas Thus, 1 liter of LOX produces about 862 liters of gaseous oxygen.

Before servicing the liquid oxygen system ensure that hands, clothing, and all tools and equipment are clean. Extreme care must be taken not to splash or spill LOX on clothing.
When LOX is mixed with cloth, an ideal and deadly situation for a fire exists...a fire that cannot be put out.
LOX itself will not burn, but mixed with the smallest amount of nearly any material, will cause the liquid to boil and splash violently, making combustion possible. Once an oxygen enriched fire is started, it is virtually impossible to extinguish until the oxygen supply is cut off.

Front 6

101.6 Discuss the safety precautions to be observed during fueling operations:

Back 6

101.6 Answer:

a.Cease all fueling operations whenever a fire hazard appears, no matter how minor the hazard appears.

b.Locate the aircraft outdoors, at least 100 feet from any hangar or building.

c.Do not taxi, tow, or operate any aircraft within 50 feet of any fuel servicing operations.

d.Do not perform fuel-servicing operations within 50 feet of any fuel spill until the spill has been removed and the hazard site is safe.

Front 7

101.7 Discuss the hazards associated with aircraft jacking:

Back 7

101.7 Answers:

- Do not jack the aircraft before ensuring that the center of gravity and gross weight are within safety limits.
- Do not jack the aircraft unless it is statically grounded, and ensure all ground power is secured.
- Use fuselage nose jacks only in manifolded pairs. Do not manifold any jacks except fuselage nose jacks.
- Do not attempt to jack the aircraft by inflating the main landing gear shock struts.
- Ensure that the nose gear upper and lower torque arms (scissors) are connected prior to jacking.
- Do not extend the wing jack ram screw beyond 15 inches maximum, and the fuselage ram screw beyond 18 inches maximum.
- Maintain communications among the director, plumb bob observer, and personnel jacking the aircraft.
- Place caution signs on the ground at the nose, wing tips, and tail of the aircraft. String a safety line around the aircraft.
- Ensure all ground support equipment is clear of aircraft.
- Only jacking team members are allowed within the safety lines while aircraft is being jacked.
- Only personnel assigned to work on the aircraft discrepancies are permitted on aircraft or within the safety lines while aircraft is on jacks.
- Do not jack the aircraft when the cargo ramp is resting on the ground.
- Do not jack the aircraft unless the base of the jack is on a firm level surface.
- Do not jack the aircraft in winds that exceed 45 mph.
- Prior to lowering the aircraft, ensure that the nose gear safety pin is installed and the lower shock strut barrels have been wiped down with hydraulic fluid.

Front 8

101.8 Discuss the safety precautions to be observed for an open fuel cell:

Back 8

101.8 Answer:

- Adjacent aircraft shall not be allowed to operate under their own power within 100 feet of the repair area.

- No one will be allowed in the fuel cell, unless they are actively enrolled in the squadron Fuel Cell Maintenance Program.

- All open fuel cells must be certified gas free by an Gas Free Engineer, GFE, before any maintenance is done in the fuel cell. A GFE makes sure that it is safe for personnel to enter and/or work in closed or poorly ventilated spaces. The GFE makes sure that all necessary measures have been taken to eliminate the risk of fire, explosion, exposure to toxic substances, suffocation and/or asphyxiation.

Front 9

101.9 Discuss the safety hazards involved with hydraulic fluid under pressure:

Back 9

101.9 Answer:

To work properly, hydraulic systems must store hydraulic fluid under high pressure. This fluid, under pressure, gets extremely hot. There are 3 hazards associated with hydraulic fluid under pressure:

1. Burns from the hot, high pressure fluid

2. Cuts and abrasions from flailing hydraulic lines and

3. The injection of fluid into the skin. A leak may cause an invisible mist, which is toxic when ingested

Front 10

102.1 State the purpose of the squadron Planning Board For
Training (PBFT):

Back 10

102.1 Answers:

The purpose is to coordinate planning among all departments.
The plan must be based on aircraft availability and known operational and training commitments, and accomplish medium, short, and long range training readiness objectives

Front 11

102.2 Define and explain the following terms:

a. RJQR: Reserve Job Qualification Requirements
b. RSTARS: Reserve Standard Training Administration and Readiness Support

Back 11

102.2 Answers:

a. RJQR: Reserve Job Qualification Requirements: Designed to define and standardize training for on the job training, (OJT) awardable Navy Enlisted Classifications, (NEC's).
Examples would be the RJQR for Plane Captain, C-130 Loadmaster, and APU Operator.

b. RSTARS: Reserve Standard Training Administration and Readiness Support : RSTARS is the automated data entry system for drill reporting, personnel data, billet assignments, and mobilization tracking. It provides management information system support to the training functions performed by the Naval Reserve.

Front 12

102.3 Discuss the elements required to obtain and maintain mobilization readiness:

a. Reserve Billet Training Requirements (RBTR):
b. Aviation Training Improvement Program (ATIP):
c. Job Qualification Requirements (JQR):
d. Formal Professional Mobilization Training:

Back 12

102.3 Answers

- Reserve Billet Training Requirements (RBTR)- The training required to be 100% qualified in billet.

- Aviation Training Improvement Program (ATIP)- Now no longer mandatory, type commanders will coordinate with type wings and Aviation Intermediate Maintenance Departments to tailor specific program requirements to unit needs. This enables specific aircraft types to reduce workload and streamline the delivery of training.

- Job Qualification Requirements (JQR)- Designed to guide personnel through the training process, with the ultimate goal of obtaining a qualification. Loadmaster, Plane Captain, APU Operator are examples of a JQR. No different from an RJQR.

- Formal Professional Mobilization Training- PMT is formal training which is designed to help the member achieve and maintain his assigned mobilization billet qualification using Aviation Training Series courseware

Front 13

102.4 State the purpose of the following:

a. Cockpit Resource Management(CRM):
b. Operational Risk Management (ORM):

Back 13

102.4 Answers:

a. Cockpit Resource Management(CRM): Specifically defined behavioral skills, used by aircrew, through out the Navy and Marine Corps aviation training syllabus. Formerly as ACT, or Aircrew Coordination Training.
These behaviors include:
- Decision Making
- Aggressiveness
- Mission Analysis
- Communications
- Leadership
- Adaptability/Flexibility
- Situational Awareness

b. Operational Risk Management (ORM): A decision making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources before they actually happen.
- ORM does not aim to eliminate risk but to manage risk so that the mission can be accomplished with the minimum amount of loss. Military personnel, have a responsibility at every level to identify hazards, take measures to reduce the associated risk, and accept risk only when the benefits of the operation exceed the accepted risk.
102.5 Answers:
a. Crew rest: Crewmembers shall be provided a crew rest period beginning 12 hours prior to reporting for a mission.
b. Crew duty: Crew duty begins at preflight show time (normally 2 hours prior to departure) and ends upon landing on the final flight leg of the day.
c. Crew currency: Enlisted aircrew must fly 3 flight evolutions (preflight to post flight) per fiscal year quarter.

Officers must fly a combination of landings and flight hours per month. This includes one of the following:

1. Five hours flying, 2 landings, and 2 approaches to the field.
2. A NATOPS evaluation (check ride) flight
3. Flying in a simulator
4. Flying on a training flight with an instructor that includes 2 approaches, 2 landings, and a simulated loss of engine on takeoff or touch and go landing.

Front 14

102.5 Discuss the following as they apply to mission readiness:

a. Crew rest:
b. Crew duty:
c. Crew currency:

Back 14

102.5 Answers:
a. Crew rest: Crewmembers shall be provided a crew rest period beginning 12 hours prior to reporting for a mission.
b. Crew duty: Crew duty begins at preflight show time (normally 2 hours prior to departure) and ends upon landing on the final flight leg of the day.
c. Crew currency: Enlisted aircrew must fly 3 flight evolutions (preflight to post flight) per fiscal year quarter.

Officers must fly a combination of landings and flight hours per month. This includes one of the following:

1. Five hours flying, 2 landings, and 2 approaches to the field.
2. A NATOPS evaluation (check ride) flight
3. Flying in a simulator
4. Flying on a training flight with an instructor that includes 2 approaches, 2 landings, and a simulated loss of engine on takeoff or touch and go landing.

Front 15

103.1 Discuss the capabilities of the aircraft:

Back 15

103.1 Answers:

The Lockheed C-130T is a high-wing, all-metal, long-range, land-based monoplane.
The mission of this aircraft is to provide rapid transportation of personnel or cargo for delivery by parachute or landing. The aircraft can be used for tactical transports and can be converted readily for ambulance or aerial delivery missions.

The aircraft can land and take off on short runways and can be used on landing strips such as those found in advance base operation.
Advance base operations are air strips found "in advance", or forward, of a base. These can include grass, dirt, or unpaved landing strips or runways.

Front 16

103.2 Discuss the responsibilities of the following aircrew positions:

a. Pilot:
b. Co-pilot:
c. Flight Engineer:
d. Loadmaster:
e. Second Loadmaster/Observer:

Back 16

103.2 Answers:

a. Pilot: Shall be in command of the aircraft and is responsible for the safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

b. Co-pilot: Is the second in command and is responsible for assisting the pilot in the performance of their duties.

c. Flight Engineer: Is responsible for computing the take off, climb, cruise, and landing data, and monitor all safety precautions.

d. Loadmaster: Is responsible for maintaining a safe center of gravity for the aircraft with the loading and unloading of the aircraft with cargo or passengers.

e. Second Loadmaster/Observer: Assists the Loadmaster with passengers and cargo, and acts as visual reference during in flight refueling.

Front 17

104.1 State the type and model of engine used on the aircraft:

Back 17

104.1 Answers:

Allison T56-A-16, turboprop, constant-speed engines.

Front 18

104.2 State the type of propellers used on the aircraft:

Back 18

104.2 Answers:

Hamilton Standard Hydromatic, four blade, constant-speed propeller with full feathering, and reversible pitch.

Front 19

104.3 Discuss the 2 types of refueling methods:

a. Single Point Ground Refueling Method (pressure):
b. Over Wing Method(gravity):

Back 19

104.3 Answers:

- Single-point ground refueling method (pressure)- All wing tanks and the fuselage tank, if installed, may be refueled or defueled from this receptacle located in the right main landing gear fairing.

- Over the wing method (gravity)- Tanks may be refueled through filler openings located over each wing. The fuselage tank does not have this filler, but can be refueled by transferring fuel from the wing tanks, or from the single-point control panel.

Front 20

104.4 Discuss the types of landing gear used on the aircraft:

Back 20

104.4 Answers:

- The landing gear system includes a steerable, dual wheel nose gear, and two tandem, (one behind the other), mounted main landing gears.

- Main landing gear system consists of 4 wheels, two mounted in tandem on each side of the fuselage.

- The nose landing gear is a swing type gear, extending down and aft, actuated by a hydraulic cylinder and secured in the up and down positions by locks.

Front 21

104.5 Discuss the different methods for servicing hydraulics:

a. Handcrank:
b. Hydraulic Servicing Unit (preferred):

Back 21

104.5 Answers:

- "hand crank" method. You can add hydraulic fluid to the receptacle, then select the hydraulic reservoir that is to be serviced, and then turn the hand crank to pump the fluid into the respective reservoir.

- "filler necks" on the hydraulic reservoirs, that can also be used to add hydraulic fluid.

- Hydraulic Servicing Unit (HSU)- is a hand-carried servicing unit, used to service the hydraulic systems, and is the preferred method for servicing.

Front 22

104.6 State the location and purpose of low point fuel drains:
a. Tanks 1 & 4 (outboard):
b. Tanks 2 & 3 (inboard):
c. Aux Tanks:
d. External Tanks:

Back 22

104.6 Answers:

Tanks 1 & 4 (outboard): 3 low point drains each

Tanks 2 & 3 (inboard): 2 low point drains each

Aux Tanks: 1 low point drain each

External Tanks: 4 low point drains each

Front 23

104.7 State the purpose of the yellow/black border areas on the aircraft:

Back 23

104.7 Answers:

They are used to identify emergency exits and specific areas, which may be cut through in an emergency.

Front 24

104.8 State the purpose of a hydraulic contamination test:

Back 24

104.8 Answers:

Allows the inspection of a hydraulic system for any signs of contamination, and maintains trend analysis.

Front 25

104.9 Identify and discuss the purpose of the Aerial Delivery System,
(Dual Rail):

Back 25

104.9 Answer:

Restrains pallets in the forward, aft, and side restraint. It consists of eight outboard rail assemblies and 20 conveyor frames. Both right and left rail assemblies contain a master control, detent latches and retractable flanges.

Front 26

105.1 Define the following:

a. RADAR - Radio Detecting and Ranging:
b. IFF - Identification Friend or Foe:
c. ADF - Automatic Direction Finder:
d. ILS - Instrument Landing System:
e. CARA - Combined Altitude Radar Altimeter:

Back 26

105.1 Answers:
RADAR - Radio Detecting and Ranging: A radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater than is visually possible. Detectable objects include aircraft, ships, land, clouds, and storms. Radar also shows their range and relative position. One radar range mile is 12.36 microseconds
IFF - Identification Friend or Foe: IFF is an electronic system that allows a friendly craft to identify itself automatically before approaching near enough to threaten the security of other naval units.
ADF - Automatic Direction Finder: ADF, Automatic Direction Finder, is the radio signals in the low to medium frequency band. ADF signals follow the curvature of the earth. The maximum distance is dependent on the power of the beacon. The ADF can receive on both AM radio stations and NDB (Non-Directional Beacon).
ILS - Instrument Landing System: Has been around a very long time. was developed in 1946, finally deemed completely developed in 1973. A ILS ground-based radio system is designed to provide an airplane pilot with precise guidance for the final approach on landing. The pilot flies his aircraft along a course delineated by the intersection of two radio beams, 1. localizer beam for guidance in the horizontal plane and the glide 2. slope beam for guidance in the vertical plane. These beams activate an indicator in the A/C that contains a horizontal needle sensitive to deviations from the glide slope and a vertical needle sensitive to deviations from the localizer path. By keeping both needles centered, the pilot can guide his aircraft down to the end of the landing runway aligned with the runway center line
CARA - Combined Altitude Radar Altimeter: The Combined Altitude Radar Altimeter measures the actual altitude of the aircraft by bouncing radar waves off the ground. It provides precise height above ground information to the pilot for navigational purposes. It is accurate from 0 to 50,000 feet above the ground level.

Front 27

105.1 Define the following: (cont)

a. GPWS - Ground Proximity Warning System:
b. INS - Inertial Navigation System:
c. ICS - Intercommunication System:
d. TACAN - Tactical Air Navigation:
e. VOR - VHF Omni-directional Range:

Back 27

105.1 Answers: (cont)
GPWS - Ground Proximity Warning System: also called the Ground Collision Avoidance System (GCAS), provides aural and visual warnings of an impending ground collision based on an aircraft's actual dynamics and recovery capability
INS - Inertial Navigation System: The INS continuously computes horizontal navigation data and senses the attitude displacement in pitch, roll and yaw. Output signals from the INS can be used to automatically steer the aircraft on a great circle course between preselected waypoints, maintain the aircraft at a level attitude, stabilize magnetic compass signals, and display navigation and attitude data on associated navigation and flight instruments. Each INS can also display its own navigation data and operating status to the pilots
ICS - Intercommunication System: The ICS allows talking between crewmembers, maintenance technicians and host vehicle communication, data and recording systems, thru a headset, and internal communication equipment.
TACAN - Tactical Air Navigation: Provides the pilot with distance information from distance measuring and azimuth equipment. It gives the pilot the number of miles that he is from the surface beacon. It also indicates the direction of flight. By using TACAN equipment installed in the aircraft, and TACAN equipment installed on the ground, the pilot can obtain bearing and distance to a location.
VOR - VHF Omni-directional Range: The VOR facility at ground base transmits two signals at the same time. One signal is constant in all directions as a reference phase. Another signal, it is variable-phase signal and it rotates through 360 degrees, like the beam from the lighthouse. Both signals are in phase when the variable signal passes 360 degrees (reference to magnetic north) and they are 180 degrees out of phase when the rotating signal passes 180 degrees The aircraft equipment receives both signals. The receiver will calculate the difference between the two signals, and interprets the result as a radial from the station to pilots on the aircraft. RADIALS: The two signals from VOR transmitter generate 360 lines like spokes in a wheel . Each line is called a Radial . VOR navigation equipment on the airplane will determine which of those 360 radials the airplane is on.

Front 28

105.2 State the difference between a radar altimeter and barometric altimeter:

Back 28

105.2 Answers:

Radar altimeter is the altitude above the ground. From a radar signal bounced off the ground back up to the aircraft. Highly accurate to 1000 feet.

The barometric altimeter is the altitude above sea level, and gets it's readings from changes in barometric pressure. Ports for the barometric altimeter are usually on the sides of the aircraft and flush with the fuselage. They sense changes in air pressure, or barometric pressure.

Front 29

105.3 Discuss the following fire detection/overheat warning system:

a. Turbine Overheat:
b. Nacelle Overheat:
c. Fire Detection:
d. Leading Edge Over Temperature Warning:
e. Cargo Compartment Refrigerator Overheat Warning:

Back 29

105.3 Answers:
Turbine Overheat: The turbine over heat warning system is a thermal switch detector type. When a overheat condition occurs, the system causes lights to flash in the emergency fire handle.
Nacelle Overheat: The nacelle overheat caution system actuates warning lights on the co-pilots instrument panel when a overheat condition exists in the nacelle area forward of the firewall. Overheat conditions in this area may be caused by nacelle preheat valves or by failure of the engine bleed air ducting in the nacelle area.
Fire Detection: The fire detection system indicates the presence of fire in the engine nacelles or the GTC/APU compartment. The system consists of 5 separate detection systems and one common test system.
Leading Edge Over Temperature Warning: There are six over temperature warning lights, one for each section of the leading edge anti-icing system, and are located below the temperature indicators on the anti-icing and de-icing control panels.
Cargo Compartment Refrigerator Overheat Warning: A red press to test cargo compartment refrigerator overheat light located on the anti-icing and deicing control panel is provided to warn the pilot of a overheat condition in the cargo compartment refrigerator area. 2 overheat detectors are located in the refrigerator area of the wheel well.

Front 30

106.1 Discuss the purpose of the following aircraft emergency equipment:

a. Hand-operated fire extinguishers:
b. First aid kit:
c. Hand axes:
d. Life rafts:
e. Emergency transmitters:

Back 30

106.1 Answers:

Hand-operated fire extinguishers: Four portable hand-operated fire extinguishers located on the aircraft to extinguish fires onboard

First aid kit: There are provisions for 23, and 22 are onboard. Used to treat injuries sustained on aircraft

Hand axes: There are three located on the aircraft. Used to cut out of the aircraft if normal exits are blocked.

Life rafts: 4 twenty (20) man life rafts located in port/starboard over wings.
Emergency Lights: There are 8 located on the aircraft. Used to help identify exits in the event of crash, emergency, or loss of power.

Emergency transmitters: Used to help locate downed aircraft

Front 31

107.1 Define the following terms:

a. IFR - Instrument Flight Rules:
b. VFR - Visual Flight Rules:
c. IMC - Instrument Meteorological Conditions:
d. VMC - Visual Meteorological Conditions:

Back 31

107.1 Define the following terms:

IFR - Instrument Flight Rules: Pilots comply with IFR procedures when operating their aircraft in weather conditions that are less than Visual Flight Rules minimums. IFR simply means the pilots fly using instruments.
VFR - Visual Flight Rules: A pilot operating in VFR conditions is flying in accordance with the see-and-avoid concept. This means the pilot is responsible for his or her own separation from other planes under most circumstances.
IMC - Instrument Meteorological Conditions: Weather or meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling less than the minimum specified for visual meteorological conditions
VMC - Visual Meteorological Conditions: Weather or meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling equal to or better than specified minimums.

Front 32

107.2 Define term "NALO" and state its purpose:

Back 32

107.2 Answers:

Navy Air Logistics Office–

They act as the principal scheduling authority/activity for all Naval Reserve C-130
airlift and all overseas flights originating or terminating in CONUS,
(Continental United States).

Front 33

107.3 Discuss the adverse effects of cold/hot operational
environmental conditions on the aircraft:

a. Cold:
b. Hot:

Back 33

107.3 Answers:

Cold: The effect on aircraft materials such as rubber, plastic, and fabric materials is to stiffen and possibly crack, craze or shatter when loads are applied. Oils and lubricants coagulate. Metals contract differently and icing conditions affect control surfaces and aircraft systems.

Hot: High humidity results in condensation throughout aircraft. Malfunction of electrical equipment, fogging of instruments, corrosion of metal and the growth of fungus are possible results. Further results may be pollution of lubricants and hydraulic fluids and deterioration of non-metallic materials.

Front 34

108.1 Discuss the Support Equipment (SE) Training and Licensing Program:

Back 34

108.1 Answers:

Proper operation of support equipment is the key to safe, efficient aircraft and equipment maintenance. Improper use of SE has resulted in excessive ground handling mishaps, repair and replacement resulting in millions of dollars annually and reduced operational readiness.

The program establishes policy, responsibilities and requirement for SE training and licensing.

Front 35

108.2 State the purpose of, the routing sequence of and which person initiates the SE misuse/abuse report:

Back 35

108.2 Answers:

The purpose of a SE Misuse/Abuse report is to inform the IMRL with the reporting responsibilities about the misuse/abuse, then to inform the CO of the command which held responsibility of the item that had the misuse/abuse. Ultimately the purpose is to ensure command accountability for the offense.

The routing sequence is as follows:
- The witness prepares and forwards a SE Misuse/Abuse report to the controlling IMRL, (Individual Material Readiness List)
- The QA of the controlling IMRL shall assign a control number and prepare an official typewritten report for the MO’s signature.
- This report is forwarded to the QA of the receiving command, which will conduct a thorough investigation, reporting recommendations to the CO.
- The CO shall return the report to the originator within 10 working days, with recommendations and actions taken described on the back of the form.

Front 36

108.3 Identify and discuss the purpose of the following SE:

a. NC-10A/B/C:
b. NC-8:
c. NANCART:
d. MMG-1A:

Back 36

108.3 Answers:

a. NC-10A/B/C: Power cart
b. NC-8: Power Cart
c. NANCART: Nitrogen Cart
d. MMG-1A: Internal Power cart/ Power converter for hangar use.

Front 37

108.4 Demonstrate the following standard aircraft handling signals:

a. Fire:
b. Hot Brakes:
c. Emergency Stop:
d. Brakes ON/OFF:
e. Remove Chocks:

Back 37

108.4 Answers:

a. Fire: Lazy 8 point at engine
b. Hot Brakes: wave hand in front of mouth like hot food, point at brake
c. Emergency Stop: BIG crossed arm X over your head
d. Brakes ON/OFF: both hands open palms facing plane, open and close fists indicate on/off brakes
e. Remove Chocks: Arms down, fists closed, thumbs extended outwards, swing arms out

Front 38

108.5 State the safety precautions that must be observed during the following operations:

a. Engines:
b. Auxiliary Power Unit:

Back 38

108.5 Answers:

a. Engines: While engines are turning there shall be a safety observer/fire bottle watch to ensure nobody comes close to the engines, and to inform the person turning the engines if any smoke or fire comes out of the motor nacelles or exhaust.

b. Auxiliary Power Unit: While the APU is operating a safety observer will man the fire bottle to ensure no fires start and to ensure nobody goes near the APU exhaust.

Front 39

201.1.1 Fuselage Sections:

a. Forward:
b. Mid:
c. Aft:
d. Horizontal Stabilizer:
e. Vertical Stabilizer:

Back 39

201.1.1 Answers:

a. Forward: Fuselage station 0-245 bulkhead
b. Mid: fuselage 245-737
c. Aft: Fuselage 737 to AFT
d. Horizontal Stabilizer: Are the horizontal fin on the empennage, provide longitudinal stability.
e. Vertical Stabilizer: It the vertical fin on the empennage, provides directional stability.

Front 40

201.1.2 Wings:

a. Center Wing:
b. Outer Wing:

Back 40

201.1.2 Answers:

a. Center Wing: Center wing provides lift, and is located at the center of the fuselage to the outer wing (usually described as the rainbow panels). The center wing also consists of the “box beam” and is the strongest section of the wing; the outer wings attach to it.
This section runs from center wing station 0 to center wing station 214.

b. Outer Wing: Outer wing provides lift, outer wings attach to the center wing. The outer wing runs from outer wing station 0 to outer wing station 576

Front 41

201.1.3 Flight Controls/Surfaces:

a. Flaps:
b. Ailerons:
c. Rudder:
d. Elevator:
e. TrimTabs:

Back 41

201.1.3 Answers:

a. Flaps: Flaps increase lift at slower speeds, located in the trailing edge of the wing

b. Ailerons: Ailerons provide roll, attached to the trailing edge of the outboard wing

c. Rudder: Rudder provides yaw, attached to the aft edge of the vertical stabilizer.

d. Elevator: Elevators provide pitch, attached to the trailing edge of the horizontal stabilizer.

e. Trim Tabs: Trim tabs provide minor corrections to maintain flight stability, attached to the trailing edge of the primary flight controls

Front 42

201.1.4 Landing Gear:

a. Strut:
b. Brakes:
c. Wheels:

Back 42

201.1.4 Answers:

a. Strut: Struts absorb shocks from landing, 2 struts on each main and one on the nose.

b. Brakes: Brakes slow, and stop the aircraft. Mounted on each main landing gear strut. Modes of operation: normal and emergency

c. Wheels: Two wheels on the nose strut, one on each main. Total of 6 wheels.

Front 43

201.1.5 State the name and purpose of the following Hydraulics Systems:

a. Utility Hydraulics:
b. Booster Hydraulics:
c. Auxiliary Hydraulics:

Back 43

201.1.5 Answers:

a. Utility Hydraulics: Runs half of all the flight controls, nose gear steering, normal brake operation and is located on the forward section, port side of the main landing gear. Operated by engines 1, and 2.
b. Booster hydraulic system: Runs half of all the flight controls. Located on the forward section, starboard side of the main landing gear. Operated by engines 3, and 4.
c. Auxiliary hydraulic system: Runs the cargo door, ramp, and emergency brakes. Portside aft of paratroop door. Operates in manual or electric mode. Can also be used for troubleshooting/operational checkout of flight controls on deck, in conjunction with the Ground Test Checkout Valve.
d. Ground test checkout valve: Will allow the connection of the auxiliary hydraulic system to the utility hydraulic system, so that you may operate the flight controls on deck without the use of other support equipment. Located aft of the portside main landing gear, just forward of the port paratroop door.
When this handle is lowered, auxiliary system pressure is directed through the utility system. When this handle is in the up and pinned position, system pressure flows normally.

Front 44

201.1.6 Airframe components:

a. Radome:
b. Paratroop Doors:
c. Cargo Door & Ramp System:
d. Crew Entrance Door:
e. Emergency Exits:
f. Air Deflector Doors:

Back 44

201.1.6 Answers:

a. Radome: Houses the radar, it forms the nose of the aircraft. Do not work in this area unless the radome is up and in a safe lock position.
b. Paratroop Doors: Aft of main landing gear wheel wells, very heavy and work on a counterbalance system. Use caution when opening and closing doors. Never slam paratroop doors shut, serious damage may occur, when doors are open (up) they must be pinned.
c. Cargo Door & Ramp System: Allows for quick loading/off-loading of cargo, equipment, and personnel. Located in empennage. Cargo door should never be operated when personnel are working above it, and the ramp should not be lowered without first checking the area around it for clearance. Cargo door/ramp have two modes of operation, manual, and electric hydraulic pump.
d. Crew Entrance Door: Location: On port side of the forward fuselage, modes of operation: Opened, closed, and emergency jettison safety precaution: Always stand to the side when opening the door, and don’t allow the door to free-fall.
e. Emergency Exits: Allows emergency egress from aircraft. Location: Three overhead hatches, 1 in each section of the aircraft. 2 emergency exits both port and starboard, forward of the inboard engines.
f. Air Deflector Doors: Functions: Deflect air for paratroops. Location: From the aft part of the main landing gear fairing. Modes of operation: Opened, closed, or in hold.

Front 45

201.1.7 Air Conditioning system:

a. Flight Station:
b. Cargo Compartment:
c. Cargo Compartment Under Floor Heating:

Back 45

201.1.7 Answers:

a. Flight Station: Function: Cools and heats the flight station, also provides 1/3 of the aircraft pressurization. Location: Starboard, forward of the 245 bulkhead. Modes of operation: OFF, AUX VENT, NO PRESS, AUTO PRESS, and MAN. PRESS.

b. Cargo Compartment: Function: Cools, and, heats the cargo compartment, also provides 1/3 of the aircraft pressurization. Location: Starboard, forward of the main landing gear. Modes of operation: Auxiliary vent, aircraft auto press.

c. Cargo Compartment Under Floor Heating: Function: To heat the cargo floor, and provides 1/3 of the aircraft pressurization at 35,000 feet. Location: A ducting system under the cargo compartment floor.

Front 46

201.1.8 Cabin Pressurization System:

a. Cabin Pressure Controller:
b. Outflow Valve:
c. Safety Valve Function:
d. Emergency Depressurization Hatch Function:

Back 46

201.1.8 Answers:

a. Cabin Pressure Controller: Regulate pressure in flight in auto or manual. Location: On the pressurization control panel. Modes of operation: AUTO/MANUAL/NO PRESS/AUX VENT. Safety precautions: Do not force CABIN ALT knob below -1000 or above 10,000.

b. Outflow Valve: Regulates pressure between aircraft interior and atmospheric pressure. Location: Starboard side the aircraft near the navigation position.

c. Safety Valve Function: Electrically controlled/pneumatically opened in a non-pressure condition or for emergency depressurization. Location: Cargo door. Mode of operation: Open and closed. Safety precautions: Don’t obstruct safety valve.

Emergency Depressurization Hatch Function: For emergency depressurization. Location: Center emergency escape hatch. Modes of operation: Pull down handle above the pilots’ seat. Safety precautions: Don’t open during normal pressurization

Front 47

201.1.9 Oxygen Sources:

a. Walk Around Bottles:
b. Liquid Oxygen, (LOX):

Back 47

201.1.9 Answers:

a. Walk Around Bottles: Qty: 4 Provides portable oxygen. Location: 1 next to pilot, 1 next to copilot, 1 on the backside of 245 bulkhead, and 1 aft of starboard main landing gear. Next to each bottle is a hose used for recharging the bottles to approximately 300 psi pressure.

b. Liquid Oxygen, (LOX): Provides oxygen source to aircrew. Location: Starboard side nose landing gear wheel well. Safety precautions: Ensure no oil, grease, or fuels are in the area, make sure clothing, hands, and all equipment are clean prior to servicing.

Front 48

201.1.10 Anti-icing and de-icing systems:

a. Anti- Icing:
b. De-Icing:
c. Ice Detector:
d. Engine Inlet Anti-Icing:
e. Propeller Anti-Ice/De-Ice:
f. Wing and Empennage Anti-Icing:
g. Wind Shield Anti-Icing:
h. Pitot Tube:

Back 48

201.1.10 Answers:

a. Anti- Icing: Prevent icing on critical areas.
b. De-Icing: Remove ice after it has formed.
c. Ice Detector: Automatic control of anti-icing and de-icing control system. Location: Inside the intake of #2 and #3 engine. Safety precaution: 30 seconds is the maximum time you can operate the ice detector on the deck.
d. Engine Inlet Anti-Icing: To prevent icing of engine inlet, and air duct anti-icing Location: In engine, all 4 interconnected to ice detection in #2 & #3 engines. Safety precaution: Excessive bleed air can damage structures and leading edges
e. Propeller Anti-Ice/De-Ice: of the propeller, Location: Forward section of spinner and propeller after body. Safety precautions: Do not operate propeller anti-icing or de-icing for an engine that is not running when aircraft is on ground
f. Wing and Empennage Anti-Icing: To keep wing/empennage from icing. Location: Leading edge of wing, and empennage. Safety precautions: must not be used to remove ice from surfaces when A/C is on deck. If operated for testing, constant monitoring of temp indicators must be maintained and system must not remain on more than 30 seconds
g. Wind Shield Anti-Icing: Windshield anti-icing. Location: 3 center windshields, 2 windows each on both sides of the center windshields, and 2 lower windows in front of the pilot. Safety precautions: Operation of NESA anti-icing when outside air temperature is above 27 degrees C will increase the possibility of delimitation within the NESA panels.
h. Pitot Tube: Prevent icing on the pitot tube. Tube is heated to prevent ice from forming on it. Location: Nose of the aircraft, .below windows. Safety precautions: Do not touch with bare hands, as the tube is heated.

Front 49

202.1.1 Engine:

a. Reduction gear assembly:
b. Torque meter assembly:
c. Compressor assembly:
d. Diffuser:
e. Combustion section:
f. Turbine Unit:
g. Accessory Drive housing:

Back 49

202.1.1 Answers:

a. Reduction gear assembly: Reduce the RPM of the prop to the engine (13.43:1). Location: Between the torque meter and prop. Safety precaution: Safety coupling (-6,000 in lbs.)

b. Torque meter assembly: Transmit torque from the engine to reduction gearbox. Location: Between the engine and reduction gearbox.

c. Compressor assembly: Compresses air for engine to run. Location: Forward section of engine.

d. Diffuser: Channels the air for the combustion section, and the 14th stage. Used for bleed air, engine start, and pressurization. Location: Between the compressor and combustion section.

e. Combustion section: To burn air/fuel mixture. Location: Between the diffuser and turbine.

f. Turbine Unit: Converts heat energy into mechanical energy. Location: Aft of the combustion section.

g. Accessory Drive housing: Provides mounting pads for numerous engine driven accessories. Location: On the lower section of the compressor.

Front 50

202.1.2 Propeller:

a. Propeller Control Assembly:
b. Blade Assembly:

Back 50

202.1.2 Answers:

Propeller Control Assembly: Control prop blade pitch at all power settings. Location: Between the prop and reduction gearbox

Blade Assembly: Provide power. Location: On the prop assembly

Front 51

202.1.3 Auxiliary Power Unit (APU):

Back 51

202.1.3 Answers:

Supplies air for ground operation of the air-conditioning systems, for engine starting, and provides shaft power to drive a 40-Kva ac generator. Location: Forward of the port wheel well.

Front 52

202.1.4 Fire Extinguishing system:

Back 52

202.1.4 Answers:

Extinguish engine/APU fires.
Location: 2 bottles above port wheel well

Front 53

202.1.5 Fuel system:

a. Fuel Cells/ Tanks Function:
b. Vents Function:
c. Control Panels Function:

Back 53

202.1.5 Answers:

Fuel Cells/ Tanks Function: Hold aircraft fuel. Location: Inside the wings, and the external tank on each wing

Vents Function: Provide a means to equalize tank pressure, and prevent purge tanks from overfilling. Location: On the wing tips, and the lower surface of the wing. Safety precautions: No open flames

Control Panels Function: Two locations. Location above FE seat is used for fuel management in–flight. The SPR panel controls fuel as it comes on the aircraft, and transfer fuel as needed

Front 54

202.1.6 Bleed air system:

Back 54

202.1.6 Answers:

Provides compressed air for engine starting, aircraft pressurization, and engine anti-icing, and air conditioning. Location: In the engine nacelles, leading edges, and APU.

Front 55

203.1.1 Communication system:

a. Intercommunication System (ICS):
b. Ultra High Frequency (UHF):
c. Very High Frequency (VHF):
d. High Frequency (HF):

Back 55

203.1.1 Answers:

a. Intercommunication System (ICS): Permits voice communication among flight station and cargo compartment intercommunication stations
b. Ultra High Frequency (UHF): Provides radio communications in the 300 to 3000 MHz range
c. Very High Frequency (VHF): Provides radio communications in the 30 to 300 MHz range
d. High Frequency (HF): Provides radio communications in the 3 to 30 MHz range

Front 56

203.1.2 Navigation equipment:

a. Inertial Navigation System:
b. Tactical Airborne Navigation (Tacan):
c. Automatic Direction Finder (ADF):
d. Compass system:
e. VHF Omni-directional Ranging (VOR)/Instrument Landing System (ILS):

Back 56

203.1.2 Answers:

a. Inertial Navigation System: Provides accurate navigation and position determination information.

b. Tactical Airborne Navigation (Tacan): provides bearing and distance.

c. Automatic Direction Finder (ADF): For homing and bearing, also receives voice and code signals.

d. Compass system: Detects and indicates relative heading referenced to magnetic north.

e. VHF Omni-directional Ranging (VOR)/Instrument Landing System (ILS): Reception of all VHF/VOR, tone localizer and voice facilities, reception of glide slope information and location marker signals.

Front 57

203.1.3 Mission equipment:

a. Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR):
b. Identification Friend or Foe (IFF):
c. Flight Control System:
d. Ground Proximity Warning System:
e. Combined Altitude Radar Altimeter:

Back 57

203.1.3 Answers:

a. Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR): Used to detect objects at distance much greater than they are visually possible.

b. Identification Friend or Foe (IFF): Provides constant aircraft identification.

c. Flight Control System: Receives navigation data from the navigation systems installed on the aircraft.

d. Ground Proximity Warning System: Provides the pilot and copilot with visual and aural warnings of a flight condition that could cause the aircraft to come in close proximity to the ground.

e. Combined Altitude Radar Altimeter: Indicates absolute altitude of aircraft above the terrain.

Front 58

203.1.4 Miscellaneous equipment:

a. Aircraft Battery:
b. Aircraft Generators:
c. Transformer Rectifier:
d. Inverters:

Back 58

203.1.4 Answers:

a. Aircraft Battery: Provides a 24 volts DC power supply.

b. Aircraft Generators: They supply 3 phase, 400-hertz electrical power at 200/115 volts.

c. Transformer Rectifier: Used for converting power from the AC power supply system
to 28 volts DC.

d. Inverters: Provide a secondary aircraft power supply.

Front 59

203.1.5 Aircraft Exterior lighting:

a. Anti collision/strobe lights:
b. Formation lights:
c. Navigation lights:
d. Landing lights:
e. Taxi lights:
f. Wing leading edge lights:

Back 59

203.1.5 Answers:

a. Anti collision/strobe lights: Shall be used immediately before engine starting and at all times when the aircraft engine is in operations.

b. Formation lights: Used to the extent necessary for safety.

c. Navigation lights: Attracts visual attention to the aircraft position at night.

d. Landing lights: Is used for illuminating the runway to detect any surface hazards.

e. Taxi lights: Are used for illuminating the taxi way while aircraft is moving from runway to parking apron.

f. Wing leading edge lights: Used to illuminate the nacelles.

Front 60

203.2.1 Discuss briefly the purpose of the electrical power supply system:

Back 60

203.2.1 Answers:

All the internal electrical power for aircraft use comes from 5 ac generators or from the battery. Power from these aircraft generators is used to provide electrical power for aircraft use.

Front 61

203.5.1 During ground operations, what safety precautions shall be observed for the following:

a. HF:
b. RADAR:
c. Strobe Lights:

Back 61

203.5.1 Answers:

a. HF: Prior to performing operational check out of the HF communication system ensure that no personnel are on top of the aircraft.

b. RADAR: Strobe lights must be turned on. The radiation hazard extends to 35 feet, in a span of 180 degrees off the nose of the aircraft.

c. Strobe Lights: Direct viewing of the strobe lights must be avoided when in the white mode.

Front 62

204.1.1 State and explain the squadrons mission statement:

Back 62

204.1.1 Answers:

Fleet Logistics Support Squadrons operate 24 hours a day; available at very short notice to provide global logistics support for U.S. Naval forces deployed and stationed throughout the world.

Primary theaters of operation include the Mediterranean and Europe, Southwest Asia and the Middle East, Indian Oceans and Austral-Asia.

Flexibility and rapid response to contingencies around the world are fundamental requirements of today’s Navy, and is accomplished by the thorough training of active duty, and selective reserve personnel to maintain maximum readiness to perform assigned tasks and logistics support for fleet units as directed by higher authority.

Front 63

204.1.2 State the command’s operational chain of command:

Back 63

204.1.2 Answers:

A. CO, (CMC and CCC)
B. XO
C. OIC (When CO and XO are SELRES)
D. Aviation Safety Officer
E. Administrative Department
F. Safety Department
G. Operations Department
H. Maintenance Department
I. Training/NATOPS Department
J. AIS Department

Front 64

204.1.3 Discuss the role of the C/KC-130 mission:

Back 64

204.1.3 Answers:

The C-130 mission is to operate from shore installations to provide intra-theater logistics support for all aspects of naval power projection

Front 65

204.1.4 Discuss the following primary warfare mission areas:

a. Command, Control & Communications:
b. Fleet Support Operations (FSO):
c. Logistics:
d. Mobility:

Back 65

204.1.4 Answers:

Command, Control & Communications:
•Provide communications for own unit.
-Provide tactical voice communications.
-Process message traffic.
Fleet Support Operations (FSO):
• Provide repair services for aircraft.
-Provide repair service for electrical and gyro systems.
-Provide inspection, test and repair services for navigation systems.
Logistics:
• Provide scheduled response to airlift of cargo, mail, and personnel.
-Provide medical evacuation services.
Mobility:
• Support, and provide safe, flyable aircraft for all weather operations.
-Prevent and control damage.
-Maintain health and well being of the crew.

Front 66

204.1.5 Discuss the aircraft secondary warfare mission area as it applies to Non-Combat Operations (NCO):

Back 66

204.1.5 Answers:

-Provide administrative and supply support for own unit.
-Provide upkeep and maintenance of squadron aircraft.
-Provide emergency/disaster relief assistance and evacuation.
-Provide support for the evacuation of noncombatant personnel in areas of civil or international crisis.