C-130 Core Eaws Board Vr-55

Front 1

102.1 State the 3 objectives of first aid:

Back 1

102.1 Answers:

1. Save a Life
2. Prevent further injury
3. Prevent Infection

Front 2

102.2 State the methods of controlling bleeding:

Back 2

102.2 Answers:

1. Direct Pressure
2. Elevation
3. Pressure Points
4. Tourniquet (as a last resort)

Front 3

102.3 Identify an example of a pressure point:

Back 3

102.3 Answers:
Pressure Point: Is where a main artery lies near the skins surface and passes over a bone, pressure is applied with fingers or heel of hand.

11 Principal points on each side of the body:
1. Superficial Temporal Artery- Temple
2. Facial Artery- Jaw
3. Common Carotid Artery- Neck
4. Subclavian Artery
5. Brachial Artery- Inner upper arm
6. Brachial Artery- Inner elbow
7. Radial/Ulnar Artery- Wrist
8. Femoral Artery- Upper Thigh
9. Iliac Artery- Groin
10. Popliteal Artery- Knee
11. Anterior/Posterior Tibial Artery- Ankle

Front 4

102.4 Describe the symptoms and treatment for shock:

Back 4

102.4 Answers:
Shock is a disruption of the circulatory system.
Symptoms-
Vacant or lackluster eyes, shallow or irregular breathing, cold, pale skin, nausea, with weak or absent pulse. Individuals usually faint
do to the poor supply of oxygen to the brain.

Treatment-
Lay the victim down with the feet elevated 6-12 inches.
Cover victim maintain body heat. Reassure & calm victim, if conscious.

Front 5

102.5 Describe the 3 classifications of burns:

Back 5

102.5 Answers:

First degree- Mildest, producing redness, increased warmth,
tenderness and mild pain.

Second degree- Red and blistered skin; severe pain.

Third degree- Destroyed tissue, skin and bone in severe cases.
Severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed

Front 6

102.6 State the symptoms & treatment for the following
heat related injuries:

Back 6

102.6 Answers:
Heat Exhaustion: Serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart and lungs.
Symptoms: Skin is cool, moist, and clammy with dilated pupils, with normal/subnormal body temp. Marked by profuse sweating
Treatment: Move victim to cool/air conditioned area; loosen clothing; apply cool wet cloths to the head, groin, and ankles; fan victim; do not allow victim to become chilled; if the victim is conscious, give a solution of one teaspoon salt dissolved in a liter of cool water and transport to a medical facility

Heat Stroke: Very serious condition caused by breakdown of bodies sweating mechanism. Victim is unable to eliminate excessive body heat build up.
Symptoms: Hot and/or dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, a weak, rapid pulse.
Treatment: Reduce heat immediately by dousing body with cold water. Move
victim to coolest possible place. Keep airway open. Place victim on their back with shoulders raised slightly. Place wet towel on body & cold packs or towels around the victim's shoulders/neck. Place additional cold packs on ankle and groin areas. Use a fan if available. A cold water bath is very helpful.

Front 7

102.7 State the difference between an “open” & “closed”
fracture:

Back 7

102.7 Answers:

Closed or "simple" fracture is one which is entirely internal, the bone is broken, but with no break in the skin.

Open or "compound" fracture is one in which there is an open wound
in the tissue or skin. The bone may be protruding thru the skin

Front 8

102.8 State the following as applied to electric shock:

Back 8

102.8 Answers
Personnel Rescue:
Extreme caution must be used, or the rescuer may also be electrocuted.
YOU MUST NOT TOUCH THE VICTIM'S BODY, WIRE, OR ANY
OTHER OBJECT THAT MAY BE CONDUCTING ELECTRICITY.

Look for a switch, first, and turn off current immediately. If you cannot find
switch, try to remove live wire from victim use a dry broom handle, branch,
pole, oar, board dry rope or dry clothing or other non-conducting object to
pull live wire away from victim.

Treatment: If electrical shock has stopped victims breathing administer artificial respiration immediately after freeing victim from electrical source.
Check for pulse since electric shock may cause heart to stop. If you feel no pulse
start CPR immediately. Get victim to a medical facility immediately

Front 9

102.9 Describe the methods of clearing an
obstructed airway:

Back 9

102.9 Answers:

Indications: Victim unable to speak, grasping or pointing at throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, or turning blue.

Treatment: First clear the mouth of all food/foreign objects/loose dentures.
If ineffective give the Hiemlich Maneuver,
Stand behind victim, wrap your arms around victim's waist. Grasp your wrist and place the thumb side of your fist against the victim's abdomen, above navel and just below rib cage. Give 4 to 5 quick upward thrusts to victim. (4 thrusts by American Heart Association and 5 by American Red Cross). The obstruction should pop out like a cork. Repeat as necessary until the obstruction is dislodged.

Reclining Abdominal thrusts are used if the victim is lying down. Position
yourself for the thrust by either straddling the victim at the hips, straddling one leg,
or kneeling at the hips. Place your hands one on top of the other in the area between
the lower end of the sternum (breast bone) and the navel and give 4 to 5 thrusts.

Front 10

102.10 Describe the effects of the following cold
weather injuries:

Back 10

102.10 Answers:
Hypothermia: A general cooling of whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temp, cold moisture, snow/ice.
Symptoms: Victim may appear pale and unconscious, may even be taken for dead. Slow and shallow breathing, pulse faint or even undetectable. Tissues feel semi-rigid, arms and legs may feel stiff.
Treatment: Consists of bringing body temperature back to normal. Victim should be wrapped in warm blankets in warm room. Do not give hot drinks or other stimulants until victim has regained consciousness. Get medical attention immediately.
Superficial Frostbite: Ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Deep Frostbite: Ice crystals forming in deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Treatment: Get victim indoors, rewarm area by placing them in warm water or with hot water bottles. Also try placing affected areas under armpits, or against abdomen, or between legs of a buddy. Never rub frostbite area. Seek medical attention ASAP.

Front 11

103.1 Define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety
Program:

Back 11

103.1 Answers:

Primary Objective is to preserve human life & material resources; it enhances operational readiness by preserving the resources used in accomplishing the naval aviation mission.

-Human resources include professional pride, high morale, physical well being, and life itself, all of which are susceptible to damage and destruction caused by mishaps.
-Material resources include property which may be damaged by an aircraft mishap including naval aircraft, ships, facilities, and weapons.

Front 12

103.2 Explain the safety responsibilities of the following
personnel:

Back 12

103.2 Answers:

a. CO: will require that persons are instructed and drilled in all safety precautions and procedures, that they are complied with, and that applicable safety precautions are posted.
In instances where safety precautions have not been issued, the CO will issue or augment
such safety precautions as deemed necessary

b. Aviation Safety Officer: Principle advisor to CO on all aviation safety matters will advise & assist CO in establishment/management of a command aviation safety program, maintain aviation safety records & mishap statistics coordinate safety matters to org staff.

c. Ground Safety Officer: Principle advisor to CO on all ground safety matters, will advise/assist CO in establishment/management of command ground safety program, maintain ground safety & mishap statistics, coordinate safety to org staff

d. Department Head: Coordinates department's safety program with unit's Safety Officer, supervises Department's Division Safety Officer, ensures all safety precautions are strictly observed by all persons within department and all others concerned. Ensures safety precautions are kept posted and personnel are frequently /thoroughly instructed and drilled.

Front 13

103.2 Explain the safety responsibilities of the following
personnel:(cont’)

Back 13

103.2 Answers:

e. Division Officer: Ensures that personnel comply with all safety instructions. He/she will prepare and submit for publication additional safety instructions deemed
necessary for Command safety.

f. Safety Petty Officer: Ensure that personnel are instructed in all safety matters and are familiar in safety instructions. He/she will be a central point for all safety related matters or concerns within a work center.

g. All hands: All personnel will familiarize themselves with safety regulations and instructions applicable to themselves and their assigned duties. They will comply with established safety standards, and report hazards and mishaps in accordance with their Command Safety Program and OPNAVINST 3750.6.

Front 14

103.3 Explain the functions of the Safety Council/Enlisted
Safety Committee:

Back 14

103.3 Answers:

Safety Council: is formed to set goals, manage assets, and review safety related recommendations. Formed in larger activities such as an squadrons, air stations that have recorded meetings. They review command plans, policies, procedures, conditions, &instructions for accuracy, content, currency, and responsiveness to corrective recommendations. The ground, aviation, flight surgeon & safety officers must be standing members of the council.

Enlisted Safety Committee: Is formed of representatives from each work center
and other activities, such as AIMD, Medical, etc. They will meet once a month and discuss safety issues and provide recommendations for improved safety procedures.

Front 15

103.4 Discuss how the following contribute to aviation
mishaps:

Back 15

103.4 Answers:
Human Error: Human error is part of nearly every mishap. It includes personnel who have maintained or repaired equipment even the worker at factory where part was manufactured. Involves both physical & mental factors such as ergonomics, physical strength, stress, & mental factors like a person's attitude.
Maintenance & Support factors: Caused by improper maintenance, improper priority assignments on work requests, or lack of proper quality assurance. Mishaps may occurr from way manufacturer made, assembled, or installed equipment. Material damage and personnel injury mishaps can result from improperly maintained equipment.
Administrative and supervisory factors: Reviewing whether regulations/enforcement of by all levels in C.O.C. and their contributions to the mishap is essential during mishap investigation. Mishaps result from improper level of supervision or failure to train & complete PQS correctly.
Material failures or malfunctions: Consider all material failures and malfunctions thoroughly, whether failures or malfunctions occurred because of faulty design, defective manufacture, or repair.
Environmental factors: Very few caused by “Acts of God”, most of the time can be avoided by removing the environmental piece, i.e. staying indoors during electrical storms, extreme heat, cold, etc.

Front 16

103.5 Define the following mishap classes:

Back 16

103.5 Answers:

Class A: Total cost of reportable material property damage is $1,000,000 or more; or an injury/occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.

Class B: Total cost of reportable material or property damage is $200,000 or more, but less than $1,000,000; or an injury/occupational illness results in permanent partial disability; or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized

Class C: Total cost of reportable material or property damage is $20,000 or more, but less than $200,000; a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred; or a non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time from work or disability at any time (lost time case).

Front 17

103.6 State the objective of the AV Gas-Free Engineering
Program:

Back 17

103.6 Answers:
AVGFE Program: objective is to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical fuel systems. AVGFE requirements are outlined in NA 01-1A-35.
The technician shall be a QAR or CDQAR and must be a graduate of an AVGFE course. OMAs not having a sufficient demand for AVFGE, may use IMA AVGFE technicians.
An IMA shall provide support to tenant squadrons not having sufficient demand to maintain their own technician. Insufficient demand is defined as less than 3 GFE requirements in 6 months.

Front 18

103.7 Explain the hazards associated w/Radio Frequency
(RF) energy:

Back 18

103.7 Answers:

Radio frequency energy: can generate electrical currents and/or voltage large enough to cause life-threatening electric shock, burns, biological changes, and cataracts.
Premature or unwanted activation of electro-explosive devices (EED) in ordnance, or ignition of flammable materials.

Front 19

103.8 State the purpose of the Laser Safety Hazard
Control Program:

Back 19

103.8 Answer:
LSHCP: Establishes a series of safety factors when using lasers. These include appointing a Laser System Safety Officer, establishing safety regulations and SOP’s, eyewear, posting warning signs, training, safety surveys, medical surveillance, etc

Front 20

103.9 State the purpose of a safety stand down:

Back 20

103.9 Answers:
Safety stand downs are used to devote time to safety training, awareness, and enhancement of the command safety climate.

Front 21

103.10 Discuss the concept of Operational Risk Management
(ORM):

Back 21

103.10 Answers:
Operational Risk Management: Is a systematic, decision-making process
used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.

ORM is a tool used to make informed decisions by providing the best baseline of knowledge and experience available. Its purpose is to increase operational readiness by anticipating hazards and increase the potential for success to gain the competitive advantage in combat. ORM is not just related to naval aviation; it applies across the war fighting spectrum.

Front 22

103.11 Explain the following terms as they apply to ORM:

Back 22

103.11 Answers:
Identify Hazards: Outline or chart major steps in operation. Conduct preliminary hazard analysis & list all hazards associated or possible causes.

Assess Hazards: For each hazard identified, determine the associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity. A matrix may be helpful in assessing hazards.

Make Risk Decision: Develop control options, with the most serious risk first & select controls that will reduce risk to a minimum, consistent with mission accomplishment. With selected controls in place, decide if the benefit of the operation outweighs the risk. If risk outweighs benefit or if assistance is required to implement controls, communicate with higher authority in the chain of command

Implement Controls: To eliminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk. These include-Engineering controls, administrative controls, and personnel protective equipment.

Supervise: Conduct follow-up evaluations of controls to ensure they remain in place and have desired effect. Monitor for changes which may require further ORM. Take corrective action when necessary.

Front 23

104.1 Discuss the dual chain of command of operating forces:
a. Operational:
b. Administrative:

Back 23

104.1 Answers:
Operational: chain from the President, through the Secretary of Defense to a commander of a unified or specified command to the assigned operational forces.

Administrative: chain through the Secretary of the Navy and the Chief of Naval Operations to the operating forces.

In some cases, as with the Military Sealift Command, a portion of the operating forces may operate or be temporarily assigned directly under the CNO and outside the chain of command of the unified command structure.

Operating forces are organized in a permanent fashion in the administrative chain of command. The operational chain of command is task-oriented, and can be structured as necessary to meet operational requirements.

Front 24

104.2 Discuss the following as they apply to the operational
chain of command:
a. Unified:
b. Specified:

Back 24

104.2 Answers::
a. Unified: Is composed of elements from two or more services. It has a broad continuing mission, and has a single commander.
Ex: Joint Forces Command, Transportation Command, Strategic Command
Locations: Atlantic, Pacific, European, Southern, Central, Readiness Commands

b. Specified: Has a broad continuing mission, is composed from one service.
Ex: North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD),
Air Mobility Command (AMC).

Front 25

104.2 Discuss the following as they apply to the operational
chain of command: (cont’)
a. Fleet Commanders:
b. Task Force Commanders:
c. Task Unit Commanders:

Back 25

104.2 Answers: (cont’)
1. Fleet Commanders: Pacific and Atlantic Fleets include ships and craft classified and organized into commands by types, the titles of which are: training commands, surface forces, fleet marine forces, naval air forces, and submarine forces.
List of FleetCmdrs:
CINCPACFLT-Cmdr-in-Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet; all Naval forces in the Pacific theater
CINCLANTFLT-Cmdr-in-Chief, Atlantic Fleet; all Naval forces in the Atlantic theater
CINCUSNAVEUR-Cmdr-in-Chief, Naval Forces Europe all Naval forces in European theater

2. Task Force Commanders: developed in WW II, further divides fleets into forces, groups, units, and elements. Each subdivision is numbered/designation with appropriate communication call sign. A fleet numbering system is used. Cmdr Sixth Fleet, would assign certain numbered task forces, may include: A striking force, TF 60; an amphibious force, TF 61; a service force, TF 62, etc. Within each task force there may be further subdivisions, called task groups (TG).

3. Task Unit Commanders: Task groups may be further subdivided into task units (TU). For example, TG 60.1 (the carrier group), may have a carrier unit designated TU 60.1.1

Front 26

104.3 Discuss the following as they apply to administrative
chain of command:
a. Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV):
b. Chief of Naval Operations (CNO):
c. Fleet Commander in Chief (CINC):
d. Naval Air Force Commander (Type Cdr/Aircraft Controlling Custodian):
e. Functional Wing Commander:
f. Type Squadron Commander:

Back 26

104.3 Answers:
1. Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV): civ in charge of Dept of the Navy. Responsible for policies/control of DON’s organization, administration, operation, and efficiency.
2. Chief of Naval Operations (CNO): Is senior military officer of DON, outranks all naval officers (unless serving as chairman on Joint Chiefs of Staff). principal advisor to President & SECNAV on the conduct of war, & is principal advisor/executive to SECNAV on conduct of DON activities. Is the Navy rep to JCOS. Keeps SECNAV informed on JCOS activities, responsible to President/SECDEF for duties external of DON as prescribed by law. CNO commands Chiefs of the Naval Material Cmd and Bureaus, the operating forces of the Navy,
3. Fleet Commander in Chief (CINC): CINCPACFLT-cmds-3rd & 7th fleets, CINCLANTFLT-cmds 2nd fleet, CINCUSNAVEUR-cmds 6th fleet.
4. Naval Air Force Commander (Type Cdr/Aircraft Controlling Custodian): U.S. PacFlt (CDRAIRPAC) & U.S. Lant Flt (CDRSIRLANT), are directly below Cmdr-in-Chief, Pac or Lant Fleet, in the administrative chain of command, usually a VADM rank.
5. Functional Wing Commander: Wing Cmdrs are responsible for the aircraft material readiness, administration, training, and inspection of squadrons in their wing cmd
6. Type Squadron Commander: Responsible for maintenance, material readiness of aircraft
in their cmd, & to support naval mission. They also coordinate all NAMP in their forces.

Front 27

104.4 Discuss the role of the following,
a. Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy:
b. Fleet Master Chief:
c. Force Master Chief:
d. Command Master Chief (CMC):

Back 27

104.4 Discuss the role of the following,
a. Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy:
b. Fleet Master Chief:
c. Force Master Chief:
d. Command Master Chief (CMC):

Front 28

105.1 State the six areas of naval doctrine:

Back 28

105.1 Answers:

1. Naval Warfare: describes the inherent nature and enduring principles of naval forces.

2. Naval Intelligence: points the way for intelligence support in meeting the requirements
of both regional conflicts and operations other than war.

3. Naval Operations: develops doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of U.S. Navy and
Marine Corps expeditionary maritime traditions.

4. Naval Logistics: addresses the full range of logistical capabilities that are essential in
the support of naval forces.

5. Naval Planning: examines force planning and the relationship between our capabilities
and operational planning in the joint and multinational environment.

6. Naval Command and Control: provides the basic concepts to fulfill the information
needs of commanders, forces, and weapon systems.

Front 29

105.2 Discuss how naval aviation supports the following
Warfare areas:
a.Reconnaissance/Surveillance:
b. Antisubmarine:
c. Amphibious Assault:
d. Logistics Support:
e. Search and Rescue:
f. Mine Warfare:

Back 29

105.2 Answers:
1.Reconnaissance/Surveillance: includes search for/interception, recording, analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy, used in support of military operations and tasks

2. Antisubmarine: Used to locate and destroy submarines

3. Amphibious Assault: Involves taking an area of land where ocean and land meet by force.

4. Logistics Support: Involves transport of troops, personnel, cargo or equipment where needed by the military.

5. Search and Rescue: Deploys aircraft, or helo’s, and rescue swimmers to find downed, stranded, or disabled military personnel either by land or sea. They provide search data & surveillance of an area where the rescue is to take place.

6. Mine Warfare: The use of ships, aircraft, submarines, and helicopters to locate and destroy enemy mines.

Front 30

105.3 Discuss the conditions that led to the formation
of the U.S. Navy:

Back 30

105.3 Answers:

•The original 13 colonies belonged to England in the mid 1700’s, however the English Parliament passed several tax laws, which led to “taxation without representation”
• Colonists formed committee of correspondence to communicate their grievances to England.
• Continental congress was formed and convened 5 Sept 1774.
• Oct 17741 a statement of rights drafted by the colonies was presented to the king of England.
• 10 May 1775, the second Continental Congress convened.
• 15 Jun 1775, George Washington was Commander in Chief of the Continental American Army. During which time the colonists felt compelled to act as a provisional government. They issued money, formed a postal service, and the Continental Navy.
• The US Navy was born on 13 Oct 1775, on this date the second continental congress authorized the purchase of 2 ships.
• Esek Hopkins was the first Commander in Chief and put the first squadron of the Continental Navy to sea in Feb 1776.

Front 31

105.4 State the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine Corps teams as instruments to support national policies:

Back 31

105.4 Answers:

• Naval forces have been organized for fighting at sea - or from the sea - for more than two thousand years.
• These qualities are readiness, flexibility, self-sustainability, and mobility.
• They permit naval forces to be expeditionary - that is, being able to establish and maintain a forward-based, stabilizing presence around the world.
• Naval expeditionary operations are offensive in nature, mounted by highly trained and well-equipped integrated task forces of the Navy and Marine Corps, organized to accomplish specific objectives.
• With these qualities, naval forces reassure allies and friends, deter aggressors, and influence uncommitted and unstable regimes

Front 32

105.5 State the three levels of war:

Back 32

105.5 Answers:

The 3 levels of war are tactical, operational, and strategic each increasingly broader in scope.

Tactical level: Involves the details of individual engagements.
Operational level: Concerns forces collectively in a theater
Strategic level: Focuses on supporting national goals.

Ex: World War II, for example, a strategic-level and global war, included operational-level combat in the Pacific theater consisting primarily of U.S. led maritime, air, and supporting allied land campaigns. Within each specific campaign were a series of important and often decisive battles. At the tactical level, each contributed to the achievement of that campaign's objectives. The culmination of these campaign objectives resulted in overall victory in the Pacific theater.

Front 33

105.6 Explain how Naval Intel Ops, support peace time operational
decision making: (more than any other service

Back 33

105.6 Answers:

Intelligence is central to the decision making process. Proliferation of technology increases the complexity of joint battle space information management, and compresses the time cycle for decision making.
Space systems rapidly collect and distribute large volumes of information. They also provide services that link widely separated forces and provide an important advantage to naval forces in all areas of the world.
Intelligence estimates, disseminated in a timely fashion, center on the focus of effort, identify critical vulnerabilities, and enhance combat effectiveness.

Front 34

105.7 State the mission of Naval Logistics:

Back 34

105.7 Answers:

Sustained naval and joint operations are made possible by a logistic support system which has two major components
•Fleet-based sustainment: Assets include replenishment ships of the combat logistics force providing direct fleet support, combat service support units, mobile repair facilities, and
•advanced logistic support hubs.

•Strategic sustainment: Is provided by air and sea assets that are shared by all Services. Successful global response to contingencies depends upon our ability to project and sustain
U.S. forces in all theaters of operations.

Integrated support resources in the form of fleet-based sustainment assets and strategic assets provide naval expeditionary forces & joint or multinational forces the ability to operate in peacetime and in war wherever and whenever our national interests demand.
Our ability to move and sustain forces at great distances from our shores is critical to the forward presence component of our military strategy.

Front 35

105.8 State the importance of planning to Naval Operations:

Back 35

105.8 Answers

When situations threatening U.S. interests arise a military plan is prepared using either the
joint deliberate-planning process or crisis-action procedures. The U.S. military’s strength is
best enhanced by deliberate peacetime analysis, planning, and exercises.

An operation plan is a commander's complete description of a concept of operation, based on
the commander's preparation of the battle space, a formal evaluation, supported by intelligence,
that integrates enemy doctrine with such factors as physical and environmental conditions.

Using these evaluations the commander identifies the forces and support needed to execute the plan within a theater of operations

Front 36

105.9 Discuss the importance of the following conflicts as they relate to naval aviation:
a. Coral Sea:
b. Midway:
c. Guadalcanal:

Back 36

105.9 Answers:
a. Coral Sea: 7-8 May 1942, after breaking Japanese code, the Navy was alerted to a
large enemy fleet moving into Coral Sea with intent to seize Port Moresby on SW coast of
New Guinea was first step to invasion of Australia.
• May 7th Japan had 3 aircraft carriers, dozens of minor ships, US attacked with 2 carriers. Japanese sank 2 minor ships, but US sank 1 enemy carrier.
• May 8th both sides launched all aircraft in worlds 1st CV vs. CV battle. The US carrier USS Lexington was sunk and Yorktown damaged. Both sides withdrew, was a strategic loss in Japan’s bid for Australian invasion plan.

b. Midway: 3-6 Jun 1942, Turning point of Pacific war, Japanese force of 160 ships plus 4 CV’s under Adm. Yamamoto, ½ split heading to Aleutian Islands for diversionary attack. Japanese attacked Midway with superior numbers. US Adm. Nimitz positioned his 3 CV’s (Yorktown, Hornet & Enterprise) out of recon range. After Japan launched its aerial attack on Midway, Adm. Nimitz attacked the enemy CV’s all 4 were sunk by 2nd day. USS Yorktown was sunk.

c. Guadalcanal: 13-15 Nov 1942, 3 days of battle forced Japanese naval forces to retreat, the Marines secured the island. Despite policy of family service member separation during war the 5 Sullivan brother’s insisted staying together aboard USS Juneau. She was damaged during close-range night fighting, as she left for repairs she was torpedoed, all 700 & Sullivan’s aboard were lost.

Front 37

105.10 Discuss the significance of 8 MAY 1911 to Naval Aviation:

Back 37

105.10 Answers:

8 MAY 1911: Officially proclaimed the birth date of Naval Aviation.
•Captain W.I. Chambers prepared requisitions for 2 Glenn Curtis biplanes.
•Triad- was to be equipped for arising or alighting on land or water, & with a metal tipped prop to go at lease 45 MPH, & duel flt controls and seating for pilot & passenger.

•Navy’s 1st airplane was designated the A-1, each plane cost $5500.

Front 38

105.11 State the name of the first aircraft carrier:

Back 38

105.11 Answers:

USS Langley: 20 March 1922- The Jupiter, a former collier or coal-carrier,
was recommissioned after conversion to the Navy's first carrier, the Langley (CV-1):

Front 39

105.12 What was the navy’s first jet aircraft:

Back 39

105.12 Answer:

10 March 1948, The FJ-1 Fury made the Navy's first operational landings and takeoffs at sea onboard the USS Boxer (CV 21).

Front 40

105.13 Who was the first Naval Aviator in space:

Back 40

105.13 Answers:

5MAY 1961- Alan Shepard, Flew a 15-minute suborbital flight onboard the Mercury capsule, Freedom 7.

Front 41

106.1 Identify and Explain the following Rates:
AB: AC: AD:
AE: AG: SK:
AM: AO: AS:
AT: AW: AZ:
PR: PH:

Back 41

106.1 Answers:

AB- Aviation Boatswain’s Mate
AC- Air Traffic Controller
AD- Aviation Machinists Mate
AE: Aviation Electricians Mate
AG- Aerographers Mate
AK(converted to SK) Store Keeper
AM- Aviation Structural Mechanic
AO- Aviation Ordnanceman
AS-Aviation Support Equipment Technician
AT- Aviation Electronics Technician
AW- Aviation Warfare Systems Operator
AZ- Aviation Maintenance Administration man
PR- Aircrew Survival Equipmentman
PH- Photographers Mate (now MC- Mass Communications Specialist)

Front 42

107.1 Describe the following terms as they pertain to motion:
a. Inertia:
b. Acceleration:
c. Speed:
d. Velocity:

Back 42

107.1 Answers:

a. Inertia- The willingness of an object to remain at rest or to continue in motion unless acted upon by an outside force.

b. Acceleration- The rate of change of speed and/or velocity of matter with time.

c. Speed- The rate of movement or motion in a given amount of time. Speed as a tem is only used when the rate of movement is meant.

d. Velocity- The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.

Front 43

107.2 Define the following Laws of Motion:
a. Newton’s First Law:
b. Newton’s Second Law:
c. Newton’s Third Law

Back 43

107.2 Answers:
a. Newton’s First Law: (inertia) an object at rest stays at rest, an object in motion stays in motion, with constant speed & direction until acted upon from an outside force.

b. Newton’s Second Law: (force) if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved

c. Newton’s Third Law: (action and reaction) states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Front 44

107.3 Define Bernoulli’s Principle:

Back 44

107.3 Answers:

The principle states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or
narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and its pressure decreased.

The general lift of an airfoil is dependent upon the airfoil's being able to create circulation in the airstream and develop the lifting pressure over the airfoil surface.

As the relative wind strikes the leading edge of the airfoil, the flow of air is split. Part is deflected upward and aft, and the rest is deflected down and aft. Since the upper surface
of the wing has camber or a curve on it, the flow over its surface is disrupted, and this causes a wavelike effect to the wing. The lower surface is relatively flat. Lift is accomplished by the difference in the airflow across the airfoil.

Front 45

107.4 Discuss the following weather warning and how
they affect naval aviation:
a. Wind warning:
• Small Craft, Gale, Storm
b. Tropical cyclone warnings:
• Tropical Depression, Tropical Storm, Hurricane/Typhoon
c. Thunderstorm/Tornado warnings:
• Thunderstorm, Severe Thunderstorm, Tornado warnings

Back 45

107.4 Answers: Note: One Knot = 1.1 MPH

a. Wind warning: Wind can be very destructive & poses a threat to aircraft and personnel.
• Small Craft-Harbor/Inland water warning for wind 33 knots or less, concern to small craft.
• Gale-Harbor/Inland water & Ocean areas for winds 34 to 47 knots.
• Storm-Harbor/Inland water & Ocean areas for winds 48 knots or greater.

b. Tropical cyclone warnings: Are characterized by rapid decrease in pressure with increase in winds toward storm center. Size can be 60 to 1000 nautical miles wide, with 3 intensity levels.
• Tropical Depression-Land/Harbor/Inland water/ocean areas for winds 33 knots or less.
• Tropical Storm-Land/Harbor/Inland water/Ocean areas for winds 34 to 63 knots.
• Hurricane/Typhoon- Land/Harbor/Inland/Ocean areas for winds 64 knots or greater.

c. Thunderstorm/Tornado warnings: Thunderstorms- are small scale storms produced by cumulonimbus clouds always accompanied by thunder and lightening. Tornados- is a violent rotating column of air usually in funnel form, extending from a thunderstorm to the ground, winds can be 100 to 250 knots.
• Thunderstorm-if within 3 miles of airfield or in immediate area
• Severe Thunderstorm-with wind gusts 50 knots or greater & or hail ¾” in diameter or greater is forecasted to impact warning area.
• Tornado warnings-if sited or detected by radar in/near warning area, or are probable

Front 46

107.5 Describe the following aerodynamic terms:
a. Lift:
b. Weight:
c. Drag:
d. Thrust
e. Longitudinal Axis
f. Lateral Axis:
g. Vertical Axis:

Back 46

107.5 Answers:

a. Lift: force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. It counteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained.

b. Weight: force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft & everything on the aircraft

c. Drag: force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of the air about the wings, fuselage or body, & all protruding objects on the aircraft.

d. Thrust: force developed by the aircraft's engine, and it acts in the forward direction. Thrust must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained.

e. Longitudinal Axis: reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail. The axis about which roll occurs

f. Lateral Axis: reference line running parallel to the wings and about which pitch occurs

g. Vertical Axis: reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft. The movement associated with this axis is yaw

Front 47

107.6 State the 3 primary movements of A/C about its axis:
a. Pitch:
b. Yaw:
c. Roll:

Back 47

107.6 Answers:

a. Pitch: The movement of the aircraft about its lateral axis. The up and down motion of the nose of the aircraft

b. Yaw: The movement of the aircraft about its vertical axis. The drift, or right or left movement of the nose of the aircraft

c. Roll: The movement of the aircraft about its longitudinal axis. The movement of the wing tips; one up and the other down

Front 48

107.7 Identify and state the purpose of the primary
flight controls for:
a. Fixed wing aircraft:
b. Rotary wind aircraft:

Back 48

107.7 Answers:

a. Fixed wing aircraft: The ailerons provide control about the longitudinal axis, the elevators provide control about the lateral axis, and the rudder provides control about the vertical axis.

b. Rotary wind aircraft: The collective stick controls the pitch of the rotor blades which translates to "up and down".
The cyclic stick tilts the plane of the rotor blades forward, aft or sideways, giving the helicopter its directional motion. Lateral control is provided using the foot pedals to control the blades on the tail rotor

Front 49

107.8 State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces:
a. Flap:
b. Spoiler:
c. Speed Brakes:
d. Slats:
e. Horizontal Stabilizer:
f. Vertical Stabilizer:
g. Tail Rotor:

Back 49

107.8 Answers:

a. Flap: Gives aircraft extra lift, reduces landing speed, shortens length of landing rollout and takeoff, gives short landing permitting increased glide angle without greatly increasing approach,

b. Spoiler: Used to decrease wing lift

c. Speed Brakes: Hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of aircraft, keep speed from building too high in dives, also slows speed of aircraft prior to landing.
d. Slats: Slats are movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing, when closed leading edge is formed, when open a slot between slat and leading edge. High energy air is introduced into the boundary layer which at airspeeds lower than normal landing speed this improves lateral control handling.
e. Horizontal Stabilizer: Provides stability of aircraft on its lateral axis. This is longitudinal stability, base to which the elevators are attached
f. Vertical Stabilizer: Maintains stability of aircraft on its vertical axis. This is directional stability. The vertical stabilizer usually serves as base to which rudder is attached.
g. Tail Rotor: Mounted vertically on end of helo's tail section. Tail rotor counteracts torque action of main rotor by producing thrust in the opposite direction. Tail rotor also controls yawing action of helo.

Front 50

107.9 Explain the term “Angle of Attack”:

Back 50

107.9 Answers:

The angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or fuselage, meets a flow of air. Defined as the
angle between the chord line of the wing (an imaginary straight line from the leading edge to
trailing edge of the wing) and the relative wind. The relative wind is the direction of the
airstream in relationship to the wing.

For example, an aircraft in straight and level flight has the relative wind directly in front of it and has zero angle of attack since the relative wind is directly striking the leading edge of the wing.

An aircraft flying parallel to the ground which has the nose trimmed significantly up, now has the leading edge of the wing (chord line) pointed at an upward angle; however, the relative wind is striking the bottom of the wing. An analogy is to hold your hand out of the car window with your palm facing the ground (zero angle of attack), and then to rotate your hand slightly in either direction. Angle of attack is measured in "units" as opposed to degrees.

Front 51

107.10: Explain the term “Autorotation”:

Back 51

107.10 Answers:

Autorotation: A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using
engine power by making use of the reversed airflow up through the rotor system to reduce
the rate of descent.

Accomplished by lowering collective pitch lever to maintain rotor rpm while helicopter is decreasing in altitude, then increasing collective pitch at a predetermined altitude to convert inertial energy into lift to reduce the rate of descent and cushion the landing.

Front 52

107.11 State the components of a basic hydraulic system:

Back 52

107.11 Answers:

a. Reservoir to hold a supply of hydraulic fluid.

b. Pump to provide a flow of fluid.

c. Tubing to transmit the fluid.

d. Selector valve to direct the flow of fluid.

e. Actuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful work.

Front 53

107.12 Describe and explain the purpose of the main
components of landing gear:

Back 53

107.12 Answers:

Shock Strut Assembly - Absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe.

Tires - Allows the aircraft to roll easily and provides traction during takeoff and landing.

Wheel brake assembly - Used to slow and stop the aircraft. Also used to prevent the aircraft
from rolling while parked.

Retracting & extending mechanism - All the necessary hardware to electrically or
hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear.

Side struts & supports - Provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear.

Front 54

107.13 State the safety precautions used when servicing aircraft tires:

Back 54

107.13 Answers:

Modern aircraft wheels and tires are among the most highly stressed parts of the aircraft.

High tire pressure, cyclic loads, corrosion and physical damage contribute to failure of aircraft wheels. The wheel fragments can be propelled several hundred feet (300 feet).
Always approach the tires from fore and aft.

When inflating, stand off to the side. Deflate when removing from the aircraft.

Front 55

107.14 State the 5 basic sections of a jet engine:

Back 55

107.14 Answers:

a. Intake- which is an opening in the front of the aircraft engine that allows outside or ambient air
to enter the engine.
b. Compressor- which is made of a series of rotating blades and a row of stationary stator vanes.
The compressor provides high-pressure air to the combustion chamber (or chambers).
c. Combustion chamber- where fuel enters and combines with the compressed air.
d. Turbine section- which drives the compressor and accessories by extracting some of the energy and pressure from the combustion gases.
e. Exhaust cone- which is attached to the rear of the engine assembly and eliminates turbulence
in the emerging jet, thereby giving maximum velocity.

Front 56

107.15 Describe the following engine systems:
a. Turbojet:
b. Turboshaft:
c. Turboprop:
d. Turbofan:

Back 56

107.15 Describe the following engine systems:

a. Turbojet: Projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity. The resulting effect is to propel the aircraft in the opposite or forward direction

b. Turboshaft: Delivers power through a shaft to drive something other than a prop. The power take off may be coupled directly to the engine, but in most cases it is driven by it's own free turbine located in the exhaust stream that operates independently on the engine, have a high power-to-weight ratio, are currently used in helicopters:

c. Turboprop: Propulsion is accomplished by the conversion of the majority of the gas-energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller. This is done by the addition of more turbine stages. Only a small amount of jet thrust is obtained on a turbo prop engine

d. Turbofan: Basically the same as a turbo prop except that the propeller is replaced by a duct-enclosed axial-flow fan. The fan can be part of the first stage compressor or mounted as a separate set of fan blades driven by an independent turbine depending on the fan design, it will produce somewhere around 50 % of the engine's total thrust.

Front 57

107.16 State the purpose of the afterburner:

Back 57

107.16 Answers:

Afterburner- is used during takeoff and combat maneuvering to boost the normal thrust rating of a gas turbine engine through additional burning of the remaining unused air in the exhaust section

Front 58

107.17 State the NATO codes for these fuels and explain the characteristics and reasons for the use of each:
a. JP4:
b. JP5:
c. JP8:

Back 58

107.17 Answer:

a. JP4: NATO Code F-40, Has a flame spread rate of 700-800 feet per minute and a low flashpoint of -10 degrees F or -23 degrees C. Never used on ships. Use of JP4 will normally cause an engine to operate with a lower exhaust gas temperature (EGT), slower acceleration, and lower engine RPM.

b. JP5: NATO Code F-44, Has a flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 140 degrees F or 60 degrees C. JP-5 is the only approved fuel for use aboard naval vessels. The lowest flashpoint considered safe for use aboard naval vessels is 140 degrees F. This is the Navy's primary jet fuel.

c. JP8:NATO Code F-34, Has a flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 100 degrees F or 40 degrees C.

Front 59

107.18 Describe the 3 hazards associated with jet fuel:

Back 59

107.18 Answer:

1.Explosion from fuel fumes,

2. Vapor inhalation

3. Toxic contact with skin, eyes, or swallowing can cause illness or death

Front 60

107.19 Describe the symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation:

Back 60

107.19 Answers:

Symptoms: include nausea, dizziness, and headaches. Fuel vapor inhalation
can cause death

Front 61

107.19 Describe the symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation:
107.20 Explain the purpose of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU):

Back 61

107.20 Answers:

APU-furnish electrical power when engine-driven generators are not operating or when external power is not available. Most units use a gas turbine to drive the generator.
The gas turbine provides compressed air for air conditioning and pneumatic engine starting. This makes the aircraft independent of the need for ground power units to carry out its mission.

Front 62

107.21 Identify the reasons for and methods of Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI):

Back 62

107.21 Answers:

NDI- Is essential in finding defects be found and corrected before they reach catastrophic proportion. NDI can provide 100 percent sampling with no affect to the use of the part or system being inspected. Methods used may include visual, optical, liquid penetrant, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, radiographic, etc.

NDI is the practice of evaluating a part or sample of material without impairing its future usefulness.

Front 63

107.22 Discuss icing and its effects of the aircraft performance:

Back 63

107.22 Answers:

Ice on the airframe decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and stalling speed.
The accumulation of ice in exterior movable surfaces affects the control of the aircraft.

If ice begins to form on the blades of a propeller, the propeller's efficiency is decreased or further power is demanded of the engine to maintain flight. Most aircraft have sufficient reserve power
to fly with a heavy load of ice, but airframe icing is a serious problem because it results in increased fuel consumption and decreased range.

The possibility always exists that engine system icing may result in loss of power. Icing can cause: loss of engine power, aerodynamic efficiency, loss of proper operation of control surfaces, brakes and landing gear, loss of outside vision, false instrument indications, and loss of radio.

Front 64

107.23 State the purpose of the following:
a. Pitot-static
b. Airspeed indicator
c. Altimeters
d. Rate-of-climb
e. Attitude indicator

Back 64

107.23 Answers:

a. Pitot-static- Measures barometric pressure via tubing from Pitot Tube to the Altimeter, Airspeed indicator, & Rate of Climb indicator. Introduces static air in flight to give readings.

b. Airspeed indicator- Displays speed of A/C in relation to the air, shown in Mach numbers.

c. Altimeters- Displays height of aircraft above sea level

d. Rate-of-climb- Shows the rate of climb or descent on aircraft in feet.

e. Attitude indicator- Shows the attitude of the A/C in relation to the earth’s horizon, at night or no visibility situation the pilot refers to it. Also called the Vertical Gyro Indicator (VGI).

Front 65

107.23 State the purpose of the following: (cont’)
f. Turn and bank indicator:
g. Navigation systems:
h. Identification Friend or Foe (IFF):
i. Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR):
j. Magnetic (standby) compass:
k. Communications system:

Back 65

107.23 Answers: (cont’)

f. Turn and bank indicator:- Shows the correct execution of a bank or turn, also shows lateral attitude of the A/C in straight flight.

g. Navigation systems:- Instruments direct, plot and control the course/position of the A/C. These may include radios, transmitters, TACAN, LORAN, etc.

h. Identification Friend or Foe (IFF):- An Electronic system that allows friendly A/C to identify itself before approaching near enough to be a threat. A friendly A/C transponder sends out a radio wave challenge. The receiving A/C’s transponder transmits a response to a proper challenge. All operations ships/aircraft carry transponders to indicate identity when challenged.

i. Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR):- Radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater than is visually possible. Radar shows ships, A/C, clouds, storms. It also shows range and relative position, Works on echo principle 1 Radar Range mile=12.36 microseconds.

j. Magnetic (standby) compass:- Direct reading compass, mounted on instrument panel.

k. Communications system:- A/C use simple radio direction finders to complex navigational systems.

Front 66

107.23 State the purpose of the following: (cont’)
f. Turn and bank indicator:
g. Navigation systems:
h. Identification Friend or Foe (IFF):
i. Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR):
j. Magnetic (standby) compass:
k. Communications system:

Back 66

107.23 Answers: (cont’)

f. Turn and bank indicator:- Shows the correct execution of a bank or turn, also shows lateral attitude of the A/C in straight flight.

g. Navigation systems:- Instruments direct, plot and control the course/position of the A/C. These may include radios, transmitters, TACAN, LORAN, etc.

h. Identification Friend or Foe (IFF):- An Electronic system that allows friendly A/C to identify itself before approaching near enough to be a threat. A friendly A/C transponder sends out a radio wave challenge. The receiving A/C’s transponder transmits a response to a proper challenge. All operations ships/aircraft carry transponders to indicate identity when challenged.

i. Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR):- Radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater than is visually possible. Radar shows ships, A/C, clouds, storms. It also shows range and relative position, Works on echo principle 1 Radar Range mile=12.36 microseconds.

j. Magnetic (standby) compass:- Direct reading compass, mounted on instrument panel.

k. Communications system:- A/C use simple radio direction finders to complex navigational systems.

Front 67

107.24 State the purpose of the following armaments:
a. Bombs:
b. Rockets:
c. Missiles:
d. Mines:
e. Torpedoes:

Back 67

107.24 Answers:

a. Bombs:- are free falling explosive weapons, can be unguided or “smart”/guided bombs.
b. Rockets:- Contain an explosive section and propulsion section, unable to change direction once fired.
c. Missiles:- Contain an explosive, propulsion & guidance sections, is able to change direction/movement after being fired. Classified by range, speed, launch environment, mission, & vehicle type.
d. Mines:- An underwater explosive put into position by surface ships, subs, or A/C. Explodes when target comes near or makes contact Used to control straits, ports convoy anchorages, seaward coastal barriers.
e. Torpedoes:- Self propelled underwater missiles used against surface and subsurface targets. Primary weapon in antisub warfare, designed to search, detect, attack, and destroy ships & subs.

Front 68

107.25 Explain the purpose of the following:
a. Circuit Breaker:
b. Fuse:

Back 68

107.25 Answers:

a. Circuit Breaker: protective device that opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value. Circuit breakers can be reset

b. Fuse: protective device inserted in-line with a circuit. It contains a metal that will melt or break when current is increased beyond a specified value, thus disconnecting the circuit from its power source to prevent damage

Front 69

107.26 Explain the following avionics terms:
a. Voltage:
b. Current:
c. Resistance:

Back 69

107.26 Answer:

a. Voltage: The "driving force" behind current. Voltage, as applied to Ohm's Law, can be stated to be the base value in determining unknown circuit values. Designated by letter (E).

b. Current: Flow of electrons. Ohm's Law states that current is directly proportional to the applied voltage and inversely proportional to the circuit resistance. Designated by letter (I)

c. Resistance: The opposing force to the flow of electrons. As stated in Ohm's Law, current is inversely proportional to resistance. This means, as the resistance in a circuit increases, the current decreases proportionally. Designated by the letter (R).

Front 70

108.1 Define the term aircraft handling:

Back 70

108.1 Answers:

Aircraft handling- is a general term used to describe any movement of aircraft or associated equipment.

Front 71

108.2 State the purpose of standard aircraft taxi signals:

Back 71

108.2 Answers:

Used by all branches of service so there can be no misunderstanding when a taxi signalman from one service is signaling to a pilot of another.

Front 72

108.3 State the vehicle speed limits on the flight line
and around A/C:

Back 72

108.3 Answers:

Speed within 50 ft of aircraft is 5 MPH, along runways, taxiways, etc. is 10 MPH.

Front 73

108.4 State the maximum towing speed of an A/C:

Back 73

108.4 Answers:

Max towing speed is as fast as the slowest chock/wing/tail walker.

Front 74

108.5 Name the 4 categories of tie down requirements:

Back 74

108.5 Answers:

a. Initial

b. Intermediate

c. Permanent

d. Heavy Weather

Front 75

108.6 State the purpose of the emergency shore base
recovery equipment:

Back 75

108.6 Answers:

In an emergency situation, such as a blown tire, an indication that the landing gear has not locked, you must arrest the aircraft and stop it in the shortest distance possible.

This is to minimize the chance of an accident that could cause injury to the pilot and crew or damage to the aircraft.

Front 76

108.7 State the purpose of the MA-1A overrun barrier:

Back 76

108.7 Answers:

MA-1A is an emergency arresting system comprised of a net barrier and cable system.
It is designed to stop aircraft not equipped with tail hooks but the aircraft must have a nosewheel for the barrier to be effective.

The MA-1A is no longer available in the navy; Navy uses an E-5 or E-28.

Front 77

108.8 State the minimum PPE required on the flight line/ramp areas
during the following operations:

a. Routine maintenance:
b. Flight operations:

Back 77

108.8 Answers:

a. Routine maintenance: work area shall be assessed as to hazards which may be present.
Each worker shall be given and briefed on the use of the proper PPE for that area.

b. Flight operations:
1. Cranial
2. Jersey-with correct color to indicate job on flt line PC’s wear brown jerseys, etc.
3. Goggles
4. Sound attenuators
5. Flight deck shoes
6. Flotation gear
7. Survival light
8. Whistle

Front 78

108.9 Identify the safety hazard areas associated with:
a. Intakes:
b. Exhaust:
c. Props:
d. Rotors:
e. Hot brakes:

Back 78

108.9 Answers:

a. Intakes:-May develop enough suction to pull an individual or hats, glasses, etc., into the intake. The hazard is greatest during maximum power settings

b. Exhaust:-2nd most serious hazards of jet engine exhaust are the high temperature and high velocity of the exhaust gases from the tailpipe. Additionally excess fuel in tailpipe can ignite and cause a large flame to shoot out, keep clear at all times.

c. Props:-Personnel should NOT approach or depart an aircraft with the propellers turning, avoid prop arc and walk well around the prop area at all times.

d. Rotors:-Personnel should NOT approach or depart a helicopter while the rotors are being engaged or disengaged

e. Hot brakes:-Never face the side of the wheel, as an explosion of the wheel will follow the line of the axle, which may be outboard depending on the landing gear configuration. Always approach the wheel from fore or aft, never from the side

Front 79

108.10 Explain the significance of:
a. Runway numbering system:
b. Threshold markings:
c. Airfield lighting system:
d. Runway/Taxiway marking system:
e. Arm/De-arm areas:
f. Overrun Area:
g. Parking Apron:

Back 79

108.10 Answers:
a. Runway numbering system: Normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees. Runway heading of 250 degree is 25. If 2 runways
whose centerline is parallel, the runways will be identified as left and right or 36L or 36R
b. Threshold markings: Runways 200 feet wide have 10 stripes to mark landing threshold 12 feet wide by 150 feet long. On runways are less than 200 feet wide, markings cover width of the runway less 20 feet on both sides. These markings designate the landing area.
c. Airfield lighting system: Sop’s found on lighting found in FAA handbook 7110.65. Lighting is responsibility of tower, all lighting is shut off when airfield is closed except:
#1. Navigable airspace obstruction lights, #2. Rotating beacon used for visual orientation in metro areas. Airport lighting system is standard and uniform in FAA, Navy & Air Force.
d. Runway/Taxiway marking system: Installed to give guidance at night/low visibility conditions during takeoff and landing. Taxiway lights are blue w/variable spacing. Turned on for taxing and off after the aircraft is on the runway or once parked on ramp.
e. Arm/De-arm areas: Ordnance is changed from armed to safe condition and vice versa
f. Overrun Area: Provides a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft, may be used for all weather crash/fire/rescue area, nontouchdown area.
g. Parking Apron: Required for parking, servicing, loading A/C. Connected to runways by taxiways or tow ways, size based on A/C type and number as required by squadron.

Front 80

108.11 Explain the purpose of the following:
a. Wind indicator:
b. Airfield rotating beacon:
c. Tower visual communications:
d. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN):
e. Crash/Rescue
f. Compass Calibration Pad (compass rose):
g. Liquid Oxygen:

Back 80

108.11 Answers:
a. Wind indicator: Provides a method for prompt issuance of wind directions and velocities to pilots
b. Airfield rotating beacon: When airport is below VFR weather conditions, a rotating beacon is used to identify airport's location during darkness & daylight hours. Rotated clockwise at a constant speed, produces flashes at regular intervals at 12 to 15 flashes per minute.
c. Tower visual communications: coordination device between radar controller and control tower. Visual communication provides a sequence of lights and switches that supplement other circuits on the interphone system and serve to reduce number of voice contacts between the two.
d. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN): Uses a bearing determining system to determine aircraft position/distance from a TACAN station. Primary navigation aid used on A/C carriers.
e. Crash/Rescue: In ship damage control organization is Crash/Salvage/Rescue Team. Is the flt deck repair team. Stationed in island structure it serves to rescue personnel from damaged aircraft on flt deck, clear away wrecks, fight fires on and make minor emergency repairs to flt deck and associated equipment.
f. Compass Calibration Pad (compass rose): A paved magnetically quiet area for aircraft compass calibration. A minimum of one area at each airport.
g. Liquid Oxygen Exchange area: used for the servicing of aircraft which require Liquid Oxygen (LOX).

Front 81

109.1 State the primary mission of these aviation communities:
HC: HCS: HM:
HS: HSL: HT: VAQ: VAW: VC:
VF: VFA: VMFA:
VP: VQ: VR: VRC: VS: VT:
VX: VXE:

Back 81

109.1 Answers:
HC: Helo Combat Support- Perform plane guard, sea-air rescue, mail delivery, personnel transfers. Fly:H-1, H-3, C-HH-46D, CH-53E.
HCS: Helo Combat Support Special Sqdrn- Dedicated deplotable combat rescue det in support of carriers & amphib ops for quick reaction contingencies. Fly: HH-60H
HM: Helo Mine Countermeasures- Aerial mine hunting/sweeping deploy and drag sleds used to detect and clear minefields. Fly: CH/RH-53, MH-53.
HS: Helo AntiSub- Carrier based sub hunters, plane guards, search and rescue & logistics. Regnav fly: SH-60F Oceanhawk, Reserves fly: SH-3H Sea King.
HSL: Helo AntiSub Light- smaller helo from DDG’s or FFG’s. Search and rescue & logistics. Regnav fly: SK-60B Seahawk, Reserves fly: SH-2G Sea Sprite.
HT: Helo Training- Basic to advanced helo training for Navy’s student aviators. Fly: TH-57.
VAQ: Tactical Electronic Warfare- Electronically exploits, jams defensive/offensive systems & communications in support air strike/flt ops, carrier based EA-6B/F/A-18G land based EP-3A.
VAW: Carrier Airborne Early Warning- Detection of weather, missiles, ships & A/C, fly E-2C.
VC: Fleet Composite(RAG) performs utility & air services for fleet like simulations, target towing. Fly: TA-4J, S/UH-3A, CH-53E, VP-3A
VF: Fighter- Used against A/C, ground units/installations. Escort attack A/C gives close ground support to landing forces. Max firepower/speed. Fly: F-14/F-16N, T-38.
VFA: Strike Fighter- Employed for both fighter & attack missions. Fly: F/A-18
VMFA: Marine Strike Fighter Attack- Marines version of VFA. Fly: F/A-18, AV-8B.
VP: Patrol- Land based squadrons perform antisub, antimine, antisurface, recon, mining. Fly: P-3.
VQ: Fleet Air Recon- Electronic recon warfare by analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy, comm. relay Fly: ES-3 EP-3, E-6, EC-130.
VR: Aircraft Logistics Support- Transport personnel/supplies. Fly: C-9, C-12, C-20, CT-39, C-130/131.
VRC: Carrier Logistics Support- Transports personnel/supplies to carrier. Fly: US-3, C-2.
VS: Carrier Antisub Warfare- no longer ASW, multimission/ refueler. Fly S-3
VT: Training- Basic/Advanced fixed wing trainers. Fly: T-2, TA-4, T-34, T-44, T-47, T-45.
VX: Air Test & Evaluation- Test/Evaluates new aircraft and equipment in operational environment, develop tactics/doctrine for use. Fly:A4M/T, TA-4J, A-6, AV-8, F/A-18A/B, S-3A/B, P-3A/C, UH-1N, AH-1J/T/W, SH-2F, SH-3H, SH-60B/F, OV-10A/D.

Front 82

109.2 Identify the mission of the following naval A/C:
AV-8 Harrier
C-130 Hercules
C-2 Greyhound
C-20 Gulfstream
C-9 Sky Train
EA-6B Prowler
E-2 Hawkeye
E-6 Mercury
F/A-18 Hornet
F-14 Tomcat
H-2 Seasprite
H-3 Sea King
H-46 Sea Knight
H-53 Sea Stallion
HH-60H Seahawk
SH-60F Oceanhawk
SH-60B Seahawk
P-3 Orion
S-3 Viking
TA-4 Skyhawk
T-2 Buckeye
T-45 Goshawk
UH-1N Iroquois
T-34 Mentor
T-44 Pegasus
F-5 Tiger II
AH-1 Cobra
C-12 Huron

Back 82

109.2 Answers:
C-130 Hercules, C-20 Gulfstream, C-9 Sky Train, C-12 Huron - Logistics Support
C-2 Greyhound-Carrier Logistics Support
EA-6B Prowler, F/A-18G, EA-18G Growler- Tactical Electronic Warfare
E-2 Hawkeye- Carrier Airborne Early Warning
E-6 Mercury- Airborne Early Warning
F/A-18 Hornet, AV-8 Harrier-Fighter Attack
H-2 Seasprite- Helo AntiSub Light
H-3 Sea King- Helo AntiSub
H-46 Sea Knight- Helo Combat Support
H-53 Sea Stallion- Helo Mine Countermeasures
HH-60H Seahawk- Helo AntiSub
SH-60F Oceanhawk- Helo AntiSub
SH-60B Seahawk- Helo AntiSub Light
P-3 Orion- Patrol
S-3 Viking- Carrier ASW, Tanker
TA-4 Skyhawk, T-2 Buckeye, T-45 Goshawk, T-34 Mentor, T-44 Pegasus- Training
UH-1N Iroquois- Helo Combat Support
F-5 Tiger II- Figher
AH-1 Cobra- Helo Combat Support

Front 83

110.1 State the mission of each of these classes of
aviation capable ships:
AE- Ammunition Ship
AD- Destroyer Tender
AFS- Combat Stores Ship
AS- Submarine Tender
AO/AOE- Oiler & Oiler/Ammo Ship
CG- Guided Missile Cruiser
CV/CVN- Carrier / Nuclear Powered Carrier
DD/DDG- Destroyer / Guided Missile Destroyer

Back 83

110.1 Answers:

AE-Ammunition Ship: Has 2 H-46 helos for vert-rep delivers ammo/missles to ships at sea
AD-Destroyer Tender: Provide destroyers and destroyer escorts with mobile base/repair facilities, supplying fuel, ammo and other stores.
AFS-Combat Stores Ship: Performs un-reps for battle groups, delivers, fuel/food/parts/ammo.
AO/AOE-Oiler & Oiler/Ammo Ship-Has 2 H-46 helos, carries ship fuel, jet fuel, delivery by un-rep/vert-ret largest Aux ship in navy. Carries missiles/ammo general cargo, with refrigeration
CG-Guided Missile Cruiser- Provide protection against surface & air attacks, & gunfire support for land operations. Large cruising range & speeds over 30 knots. Some are capable of conducting antiair, antisubmarine, antisurface warfare at same time. Can carry a LAMPS Mk III SH-60B helicopter
CV/CVN-Carrier / Nuc Carrier- Carrier powered by nuclear and conventional powerplants, Can approach enemy at high speed, launch, recover combat aircraft quickly and efficiently, and retire before giving up its position. Excellent long range offensive weapons center of task force or group. The Kittyhawk, Constellation, & Kennedy are last conventional boiler carriers in Navy.
DD/DDG-Destroyer / Guided Missile Destroyer- Multipurpose ships used in any kind of naval operation. Fast with a large variety of armament, little to no armor, depend on speed/mobility for protection. Offensive/defensive against subs & surface ships. Can defend air assaults; provide gunfire support for amphibious assaults. Performs patrol, search & rescue. Can carry two SH-60B or 2 SH2G helos.

Front 84

110.1 State the mission of each of these classes of
aviation capable ships: (cont’)
FFG- Guided Missile Frigate
LCC- Amphib Command Ship
LHA- Amphib Assault Ship
LHD- Amphib Warfare Ship
LPD- Amphib Transport Dock
LPH- Amphib Assault Ship
LSD-Dock Landing Ship
MCS-Mine Countermeasure Support Ship

Back 84

110.1 Answers: (cont’)

FFG- Guided Missile Frigate- Used in open-ocean escort/patrol. Visually resembles a destroyer, but slower & only a single screw, with less armament. Can carry two SH-60B helos.
LCC- Amphib Command-Provides berthing, command, communication facilities for various commanders and their staffs. Can serve as command ship for amphib task force, landing force, air support cmdrs during amphib ops. Most modern and capable command facilities afloat
LHA- Amphib Assault Ship-Are able to embark/deploy/land a Marine battalion landing team by helos, landing craft, amphib vehicles. Versatile & combine same features of the (LPH), (LPD),(LKA-amphib cargo ship), (LSD) in a single ship.
LHD- Amphib Warfare Ship-Intended to be convertible from Assault Ship to Anti-sub ship with Harrier fighters for ground assault.
LPD- Amphib Transport Dock- Combines features of LSD & LPH Can transport troops and gear in same ship. Have facilities for 8 helos.
LPH- Amphib Assault Ship- Designed to embark/transport/land 1,800 troops and equipment via transport helos in conjunction with a beach assault. Also assist in antisub warfare.
LSD-Dock Landing Ship- Carries 1 CH-53, and landing craft & LCACs in support of hostile shore assault. Floods the well to allow landing craft to float out under own power.
MCS-Mine Countermeasure Support Ship- Provide command, control and support ship for mine countermeasures operations, only one of these in the naval inventory - the USS Inchon.

Front 85

111.1 Identify the primary mission of these non-aviation capable ships:
ATF- Fleet Ocean Tugs:
ARS- Rescue & Salvage Ship:
ASR- Sub Rescue Ship:
AR- Repair Ship:
MCM- Mine Countermeasures Ship:
MHC- Coastal Mine Hunters:
PC- Patrol Craft:
SSN- Sub (NUC):
SSBN- Sub Ballistic Missile (NUC):

Back 85

111.1 Answers:
ATF- Fleet Ocean Tugs: Provides U.S. Navy with towing service, & when augmented by Navy divers, assist in the recovery of downed aircraft and ships.
ARS- Rescue & Salvage Ship: Render assistance to disabled ships, provide towing/salvage/diving/firefighting & heavy lift capabilities.
ASR- Sub Rescue Ship: Serve as surface support ships for deep submergence rescue vehicles (DSRV's) during submarine rescue operations.
AR- Repair Ship: Converted ship modified to provide structural repairs to a damaged vessel
AS-Sub Tender: Provide base facilities for subs. berthing for flag staff, crews, light repair, training and resupply facilities
MCM- Mine Countermeasures Ship: Avenger class designed as mine hunter-killers capable of finding/classifying/destroying moored & bottom mines.14 deployable in fleet.
MHC- Coastal Mine Hunters: Use sonar & video systems, cable cutters and mine detonating device when released can detonate by remote control. Also capable of conventional sweeping.
PC- Patrol Craft: Provide coastal patrol/interdiction surveillance. Also provide full mission support for Navy SEALs and other specops forces.
SSN- Sub (NUC): Attack subs are smaller than SSBNs and do not, as a rule, stay at sea as long. They’re fast and silent & can attack enemy ships & subs in support of land-based campaigns
SSBN- Sub Ballistic Missile (NUC): Strategic deterrence is sole mission of fleet ballistic missile subs since inception in 1960. Provides the nations most survivable and enduring nuclear strike capability.

Front 86

112.1 Explain the following:
a. Chemical Warfare:
b. Biological Warfare:
c. Radiological Warfare:

Back 86

112.1 Answers:
a. Chemical Warfare: Intentional use of lethal/nonlethal chemical agents to produce casualties; harass/temporarily incapacitate/demoralize personnel; or contaminate/destroy areas/equipment & supplies.

b. Biological Warfare: Intentional use of living organisms to disable/destroy people & domestic animals, damage crops, and/or deteriorate supplies. As of today no country has openly attempted a large-scale bio-warfare attack and so remains an untried weapon. Examples of this are Ebola, Anthrax, Smallpox, Plague viruses.

c. Radiological Warfare: Radiological warfare is the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce injury and death in man.

Front 87

112.2 Describe the purpose of the following:
a. MCU-2/P protective mask:
b. Chemical protective overgarment:
c. Wet-Weather Clothing:
d. Atropine/2 Pan chloride (Oxime) auto injector:
e. IM-143 pocket dosimeter
f. DT-60 personnel

Back 87

112.2 Describe the purpose of the following:
a. MCU-2/P protective mask: or gas mask, is the most important piece of protective equipment against CBR agents, protects your face, eyes, nose, throat and lungs from inhaled CBR agents which is vastly worse than having on the outside of the body.
b. Chemical protective overgarment: is treated with chemicals that neutralize blister agent vapors and sprays, but do not stop penetration by liquid agents, also gives limited protection against other types of CBR agents. Consists of trousers/hip-length jumper/attached hood/gloves/foot coverings. Do not wear wet weather gear over!
c. Wet-Weather Clothing: Worn over other types of clothing, protects impregnated & ordinary clothing & skin from penetration by liquid agents/radioactive particles. Also reduces the amount of vapor that penetrates to skin. Includes parka/trousers/rubber boots/gloves, is easily decontaminated.
d. Atropine/2 Pan chloride (Oxime) auto injector: Used for specific therapy for nerve agent casualties. Issued in automatic injectors for intramuscular injection self-aid or first aid.
e. IM-143 pocket dosimeter: instrument about size/shape of fountain pen comes in several ranges: 0 to 5, 0 to 200, and 0 to 600 roentgens; and 0 to 200 millroentgens. Measure exposure to radiation over a period of time, not dose rates at any given time. Hold dosimeter up to light source & looking through eyepiece, total radiation dose received can be read directly on the scale
f. DT-60 personnel dosimeter: Nonself-reading category; DT-60 is high-range casualty dosimeter, must be placed in special radiac computer-indicator to determine total amt of gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed. Its range is 0 to 600 roentgens.

Front 88

112.3 List of 4 types of chemical casualty agents and their
physical symptoms:
a. Chocking agents:
b. Nerve agents:
c. Blood agents:
d. Blister agents:

Back 88

112.3 Answers:
a. Chocking agents: First used in World War I, produce an action on the respiratory system resulting in accumulation of fluid in the lungs. May lead to death. Exposure can produce immediate dryness of the throat, coughing, choking, tightness in the chest, headache, nausea, and watering of the eyes. A mild exposure accompanied by immediate symptoms can cause fluid to accumulate in the lungs within 2 to 24 hours after exposure. Ex: of chocking agent-Chlorine CL, which is a yellow gas
b. Nerve agents: probably most effective as only small doses are needed to kill. Even in low concentrations physical symptoms may be noticed, 1-5 min exposure may cause difficulty in a person's vision. Liquid nerve agents on the skin are a real hazard, small amounts left in contact with skin, can cause death in minutes. Lethal dose would include getting liquid into eyes, or inhaling concentrated vapors. Ex: Sarin Gas.
c. Blood agents: Interfere with distribution of oxygen by the blood. Symptoms depend on concentration & duration of exposure. 20-30 secs violent contractions/ heart stopped in a few mins. Either rapid death occurs or recovery in a few minutes after removal from poisoned area. Ex: Hydrogen Cyanide
d. Blister agents: Immediate exposure to blister agents gives no noticeable symptoms, however over ½ hour gives variable symptoms, from bloodshot eyes/blisters to vomiting.

Front 89

112.4 Describe the following types of nuclear explosions:
a. High Altitude air burst:
b. Air burst:
c. Surface burst:
d. Shallow underwater burst:
e. Deep underwater burst:

Back 89

112.4 Describe the following types of nuclear explosions:
a. High Altitude air burst: detonation is at an altitude in excess of 100,000 feet, due to low air density at this altitude, explosion is very different than lower altitudes. Can be seen at great distance, causes ionosphere disturbance and large EMP pulse.
b. Air burst: Immediately after Nuc explosion a huge fireball super hot fireball forms and rises in to the forming a highly radioactive condensed vapor cloud. At near ground altitudes circulating winds sucks up dirt and debris into mushroom vapor cloud. A blast wave goes out in all directions initially at greater than speed of sound. After initial detonation a 2nd & 3rd reflection blast waves form a reinforced blast wave, producing, an overpressure wave front causing most of the physical damage. Initial radiation in 1st min, residual after causes fallout radiation. Low altitude airburst is hazardous due to heavily radiated debris and particles settling rapidly
c. Surface burst: Produces worst fallout, fireball touches ground vaporizing vast surface area and taking it into the cloud, as fireball rises the debris is sucked up by strong afterwinds resulting in a very larger area of heavy fallout much worse than heat and shock from initial blast.
d. Shallow underwater burst: Smaller than airburst fireball is formed normally not visible. Creates large bubble or cavity rises to surface expelling steam/gas/debris very high into air at great force. A column of water may reach several thousand feet, from which highly destructive shock wave forms far greater than initial blast with waves 90 ft high within a few hundred feet from blast.
e. Deep underwater burst: Same effects as shallow burst, but with more impact absorbed by deep ocean currents, less of a visual registry, but greater amount of contaminated water.

Front 90

112.5 Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions:
a. Blast:
b. Flash burn/blindness:
c. Radiation:
d. Electromagnetic Pulse:
e. Blackout:

Back 90

112.5 Answers:
a. Blast: Causes primary and secondary blast injuries, primary’s result from direct action of air shockwave on body. Secondary cause collapsing buildings debris etc.
b. Flash burn/blindness: burns are primary and secondary, primary result from thermal radiation, secondary result from fires cause by explosion. Flash burns occur more from air/surface burst, thermal radiation travels in straight lines & so burns on side facing blast, second degree burns could be seen 25 miles or more away. Flash blindness can occur several miles away, wear off in 15-45 mins. Thermal radiation burns to eye can occur 40 miles or more away and permanent.
c. Radiation: Alpha & Beta particles, gamma & neutron radiation, are danger. Alpha particles don’t penetrate skin well, must be ingested. Beta particles are danger if the emitter such as dust dirt come in contact with skin or inside body, will cause skin burns. Gamma rays(pure energy) do not stop, pass right through body without ever touching it. Gamma’s that do strike atoms ionize them causing chemical reactions resulting in possible damage to cells. Neutrons with have greatest penetrating power get trapped inside atoms cause a complete radioactive release of high energy gamma rays and beta particles causing the entire radiation chain to repeat.
d. Electromagnetic Pulse: (EMP) has electric and magnetic elements, can cause all electrical and electronic equipment to be damaged, totally destroy communications.
e. Blackout: The loss of lights or electrical power failure during a nuclear attack.

Front 91

112.6 Define/discuss Mission Oriented Protective Posture
(MOPP):
a. MOPP1:
b. MOPP2:
c. MOPP3:
d. MOPP4:

Back 91

112.6 Answers:
a. MOPP1: Gas masks issued kept at battle stations fitted for use. Inventory.conducted.
b. MOPP2: Gas masks carried by all aboard. Per-position decontam supplies at decontam stations, set material condition Zebra (modified)
c. MOPP3: New filter in masks Don Chemical Protective over-garment smock with hood down, trousers/over-boots. Stow personal decontam kit in mask carrier, stow chem gloves/med supplies in jumper cargo pocket. Go to Gen Quarters, Set ZEBRA fill canteens with potable H2O. Activate decontam & contam control stations, post detection/monitoring teams. Post monitor/detection equip in accordance with ships Chem/Bio/Radiological bill. Activate Counter Measure Washdown System
d. MOPP4: Don mask, secure hood over head around mask, don gloves, initiate continuous monitoring or detection equip. Set Circle William (secure air vents). Run CMWD system continuously.

Front 92

113.1 Discuss the purpose of the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) Program:

Back 92

113.1 Answers:

• NATOPS program is a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps.
• It is issued by the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO).
• NATOPS instructions prescribe general flight and operating instructions and procedures applicable to the operation of all naval aircraft and related activities

Front 93

113.2 Explain general aircraft prestart precautions:

Back 93

113.2 Answers:
a. Wheels Chocked
b. Brake Set (unless authorized by the NATOPS manual)
c. Intake Screens removed (where applicable)
d. FOD CHECK surrounding area
e. Tie down aircraft (when non pilot personnel) start the engines for warm ups (not applicable with transport and patrol type A/C with brakes)
f. f. Fire extinguishing equipment posted

Front 94

113.3 State the meaning of the following terms as they apply to NATOPS:
a. Warning:
b. Caution:
c. Note:
d. Shall:


e. Should: f. May: g. Will:

Back 94

113.3 Answers:

Operating procedure, practice, or condition, that….
a. Warning: may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed

b. Caution: may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed

c. Note: must be emphasized

d. Shall: means a procedure that is mandatory

e. Should: means a procedure that is recommended

f. May: May" and "need not" mean procedure is optional.

g. Will: Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure

Front 95

113.4 State the purpose of a NATOPS evaluation:

Back 95

113.4 Answers:

A NATOPS evaluation is intended to evaluate individual and unit compliance by observing and grading adherence to NATOPS procedures.

Front 96

113.5 State the purpose of the Naval Flight Records Subsystem (NAVFLIRS):

Back 96

113.5 Answers:

NAVFLIRS, OPNAV 3710/4, also known as the "yellow sheet", provides a standardized Department of the Navy flight activity data collection system

Data collected includes:

1. A statistical description of the flight pertaining to the aircraft and crewmembers.
2. A record of all logistic actions performed during the flight.
3. A record of weapons proficiency.
4. A record of training areas utilized and other miscellaneous data.

Front 97

113.6 State the purpose of the master flight files:

Back 97

113.6 Answers:

Master flight files shall be the only official flight record of naval aircraft and shall be maintained in accordance with OPNAVINST 3710.7 by every reporting custodian of naval aircraft as defined in OPNAVINST 5442.2.

Front 98

113.7 Explain the aircraft visual identification system for the following Type Commanders (TYCOMs):
a. COMNAVAIRLANT:
b. COMNAVAIRPAC:
c. CNATRA:

Back 98

113.7 Answers:

Visual identification system for naval aircraft provides for the assignment of aircraft markings and side numbers that identify aircraft of one unit from those of another using unit identification assigned by the CNO, A/C use last 3 or 4 digits of their BUNO or aircraft number, as their side number or tail number.

a. COMNAVAIRLANT: first character shall be "A through M"; second "A through Z
b. COMNAVAIRPAC: first character shall be "N through Z"; second "A through Z
c. CNATRA: first character shall be "A through G"; there is no second character

Front 99

114.1 Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following
personnel:
a. CO:
b. XO:
c. Command Master Chief/Senior/Chief:
d. Dept Head:
e. Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer (CMEO)/(EOPS):
f. Div O:
g. LCPO/LPO:

Back 99

114.1 Answers:

a. CO: duties/responsibilities established by USN Regs, general orders, customs, tradition. Ultimately responsible for those personnel under his command & their actions.
b. XO: Direct rep of CO primarily over organization, performance, good order/discipline of entire command, all orders issued by him shall have same force as CO.
c. Command Master Chief/Senior/Chief: Enlisted Advisor, to CO responsible for polices on morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization of enlisted sailors.
d. Dept Head: CO’s rep in dept
e. Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer (CMEO)/ (EOPS): Give EEO training to command.
f. Div O: Responsible to Dept Head, to put out order and ensure compliance of all higher ranked officers up to CO.
g. LCPO/LPO: Designated by Div O, normally senior CPO/LPO in div. LCPO assists DIV O in administering, supervising, & training div personnel. LPO assists LCPO/DIV O.

Front 100

114.1 Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following
personnel (cont’):
h. Work Center Sup:
i. Command Career Counselor:
j. Ombudsman:
k. Financial Specialist:
l. Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA):
m. Security Manager:
n. Career Information Program Management (CIPM) Prgm Mngr:

Back 100

114.1 Answers (cont’):
h. Work Center Sup: Responsible for hour by hour work center functions, communication to COC, and personnel under their supervision
i. Command Career Counselor: Runs command career counseling program.
j. Ombudsman: CO designates, is communication link between families and command. Responsible for keeping CO informed on family morale and assist family needing help.
k. Financial Specialist: Provides financial counseling to personnel in command.
l. Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA): Advises CO/XO on drug/alcohol abuse aboard the command, ways to effectively cope with issues. Follows Navy’s DAPA SOPS.
m. Security Manager: Keeps CO/XO advised on all matters of security.
n. Career Information Program Management (CIPM): Divisional career counselor.

Front 101

114.2 Discuss the purpose & general rules for the following types of counseling:
a. Personnel:
b. Performance:

Back 101

114.2 Answers:
a. Personnel: Special problems require special help such as chaplain/legal officer /medical officer. Your first duty is to recognize whether the problem is beyond your ability to help or not, then refer appropriately.

b. Performance: Counsel on a regular basis to let personnel know how they are doing and where/how they need to improve.

Front 102

114.3 Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following:
a. Types of discharges:
b. Advancement:
c. Good conducts awards:
d. Eligibility for reenlistment:
e. Assignment:

Back 102

114.3 Answers:
a. Types of discharges: Basis for determining type of discharge received by member is called the type discharge. Honorable requires at least average of 2.7, conduct 3.0 average; otherwise a "general" discharge is awarded.
b. Advancement: .4.0=Early Promote, 3.8=Must Promote, 3.6= Promotable, 3.4=Progressing, 2.0= Significant Problems
c. Good conducts awards: Can be no performance mark below 2.0 in any trait subsequent to, (after), 1 January 1996, no convictions by court martial, no prior Non-Judicial Punishment (NJP), no civil convictions/offenses involving moral turpitude Given every 3 years. Before 1996, award was given every 4 years of service.
d. Eligibility for reenlistment: Member with marks under 3.0 will not normally be able to reenlist. Decision weights on the discretion of the CO.
e. Assignment: Certain assignments require good evaluations, I.E. Instructor duty, Boot CC, Formal Schools, etc. However, overall 3.0 average is required and approval is at the discretion of Naval Military Personnel Command (NMPC).

Front 103

114.4 Explain the use of the following:
a. Naval message:
b. E-mail:

Back 103

114.4 Answers:

a. Naval message: principal means by which commanders communicate is Naval message. Messages are written thoughts, ideas, or information expressed briefly and to the point. It is transmitted electronically to avoid delays to that of the normal mailing system

b. E-mail: method of corresponding electronically by computers. Used inside & outside command.

Front 104

114.5 Explain the purpose of the following types of message components:
a. Date time group:
b. From line:
c. To line:
d. Info line:
e. Classification/
declassification line:
f. Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC):

Back 104

114.5 Answers:
a. Date/Time group: expressed in Greenwich Mean Time(GMT) six digits long first 2=being day, next 4 digits being time, then a zone suffix, usually Zulu/GMT. Last part is date & year. A message sent out 31 October 1998 at 0800 Zulu time, appears as 310800ZOCT98

b. From line: first line of address component and contains originators plain language address. Note: a message MUST have only ONE originator.

c. To line: Contains the address of the person/command that the message is being sent.

d. Info line: Contains addresses of those who you would like to look at or send the message to for information purposes

e. Classification/declassification line: First line of text which must give message's classification. It is listed as Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential.

f. Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC): 4 or 5 digit number that stands for the subject of a document. SSIC's are required on all Navy and Marine Corps messages. There are 14 SSIC’s used:
• 1000-1999: Military Personnel
• 2000-2999: Telecommunications
• 3000-3999 Operations and Readiness
• 4000-4999 Logistics
• 5000-5999 General Admin and

Front 105

114.5 Explain the purpose of the following types of message components: (cont’)
g. Subject line:
h. Passing instructions:
i. Reference line
j. Amplifying information line:
k. Narrative information line:
l. Text:

Back 105

114.5 Answers: (cont’)

g. Subject line: Main topic of message listed here always in capital letters.

h. Passing instructions: automated message processing system, relay certain elements at the beginning of the text such as flagwords, codewords, subject lines, & outgoing or incoming message references. These guides assist in automatic internal routing of messages

i. Reference line: alternative to repeating lengthy reference material within the text of a message, always used lettered and used in the order they are referred to.

j. Amplifying information line: Used to amplify or supplement the data text.

k. Narrative information line: used to provide amplifying info pertaining to data text.

l. Text: the body of the message, contains thought or ideas wished to convey.

Front 106

114.6 Explain what each of the following enlisted service records
pages are and what entries are made on each:
a. Page 2:
b. Page 4:
c. Page 13:

Back 106

114.6 Answers:
a. Page 2: Record of Emergency Data; Used as a reference for beneficiary data should the member die on active or reserve duty

b. Page 4: Enlisted Qualifications History; for enlisted members chronological history of training, quals, awards, & commendations.

c. Page 13: Administrative remarks; chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not documented elsewhere. For detailed info.

Front 107

114.7 State the purpose and discuss the contents of the
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR):

Back 107

114.7 Answers:

EDVR- monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel.
Lists all individuals assigned and provides a summary of the present and future manning status. Used heavily by the Command Master Chief and detailers for billet assignment. Gives the individual's name along with his rate, date assigned, Naval Enlisted Classifications (NECs), billet assigned to, date reported, projected rotation date, etc

Front 108

114.8 Explain the use of a Report and Disposition of Offense(s)
(NAVPERS Form 1626/7):

Back 108

114.8 Answers:

Court Memorandum; Page 7 of the enlisted service record. Used to record court-martial and non-judicial punishment which affect pay

Front 109

114.9 Discuss the purpose of the following:
a. Operational Report (OPREP):
b. Movement Report (MOVREP):
c. Logistical Requirements (LOGREQ):
d. Status of Requirement and Training Support (SORTS):
e. Situation Report (SITREP):

Back 109

114.9 Answers:

a. Operational Report (OPREP): Used to notify National Cmd Authorities/naval cmdrs of any accidental/unauthorized incident involving possible detonation of a nuclear weapon which may cause outbreak of nuclear war; this message has highest precedence.

b. Movement Report (MOVREP): MOVREP is primary source of location info on our ships, movrep centers and moverep offices account for all ship & command movements.

c. Logistical Requirements (LOGREQ): Is submitted by a ship prior to entering a port to notify proper commands of logistics requirements while in port, transmit NLT 48 hour ahead.

d. Status of Requirement and Training Support (SORTS): Reports ship's status of conditions/readiness in all warfare areas & ability to conduct operations.

e. Situation Report (SITREP): Used by any unit CO, OIC, or other commander to provide appropriate operational commanders/higher authority with timely notification for any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special incident reporting criteria. Submitted when directed & considered appropriate, when bomb threats have been evaluated as a hoax, when reporting violent crime, including assault, robbery, abuse, etc by active or dependent personnel, discrimination or sexual harassment, and incidents of suicide or attempted suicide.

Front 110

115.1 State the objective of the Naval Aviation Maintenance
Program (NAMP):

Back 110

115.1Answers:

NAMP helps to standardize operations of any naval aviation command; CNO is in charge of the NAMP.

Front 111

115.2 List the titles and briefly describe the five volumes
of the NAMP:
a. Vol. I:
b. Vol. II:
c. Vol. III:
d. Vol. IV:
e. Vol. V:

Back 111

115.2 Answers:
a. Vol. I: Concepts, policies, organizations, maintenance support procedures, and Organizational and Intermediate Level Maintenance

b. Vol. II: Depot Level Maintenance

c. Vol. III: Maintenance Date Systems (MDS)

d. Vol. IV: Aviation 3M data processing requirements

e. Vol. V: Standard Operating Procedures, (NAMP-SOPs)

Front 112

115.3 Describe the 3 levels of aviation maintenance:
a. Organizational:
b. Intermediate:
c. Depot:

Back 112

115.3 Answers:
a. Organizational: Maintenance performed by operating unit on a day-by-day basis in support of its own operations. The O-level mission is to maintain assigned aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a full mission capable status while continually improving the local maintenance process.

b. Intermediate: Maintenance which is the responsibility of, and performed by, designated maintenance activities in support of O level organizations. I level mission is to enhance and sustain the combat readiness/mission capability of supported activities by providing quality/timely material support at lowest material cost.

c. Depot: Maintenance performed at naval aviation industrial establishments to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems during subsequent operational service periods or Special Depot Level Maintenance (SDLM) inductions. Perform what is commonly referred to as "overhaul" maintenance, also perform maintenance on material requiring major overhaul, rebuilding of parts, assemblies, subassemblies, and end items. They provide rework and repair of engines, components, weight and balance, etc.

Front 113

115.4 Discuss the general responsibilities of the following personnel:
a. Maintenance Officer (MO):
b. Aircraft Maintenance Officer (AMO):
c. Maintenance/Material Control Officer (MMCO):
d. Material Control Officer:

Back 113

115.4 Answers:
a. Maintenance Officer (MO): Maintenance Officer is responsible for the accomplishment of the department mission, shall define and assign responsibilities, functions, and operations.

b. Aircraft Maintenance Officer (AMO): Assistant MO; shall assist the MO in the performance of duties and keep the MO fully informed of matters concerning the department.

c. Maintenance/Material Control Officer (MMCO): Responsible for overall production /material support of dept. General responsibilities include coordinating/monitoring the department workload/maintaining liaison between supported activities and supply, reviewing Maintenance Data Reports, etc.

d. Material Control Officer: Responsible to the Maintenance Material Control Officer for managing the Tool Control Program. Supports and disseminates information to command personnel on the BOSS III Program and Price Challenge Hotline. Supply corps officers assigned to a deployable squadron will be assigned as the MCO.

Front 114

115.5 State the basic responsibilities of
maintenance/production control:

Back 114

115.5 Answers:

Maintenance control will strive to maintain full mission capable aircraft. Production Control will strive to process items received to keep all non-mission capable and partial-mission-capable parts processed and back to the respective command in a timely fashion

Front 115

115.6 Discuss the basic responsibilities of the maintenance
administration division:

Back 115

115.6 Answers:

Maintenance Administration will provide all administrative functions of the Maintenance Department including the preparation of messages, processing of incoming messages and reports, maintaining Instructions, etc.

Front 116

115.7 Describe the difference between scheduled and unscheduled maintenance:

Back 116

115.7 Answers:

Scheduled maintenance: is the formal program to ensuring timely discovery and correction of defects. These are periodic prescribed inspections and servicing of equipment, done on hours, cycles or landings, calendar or mileage basis

Unscheduled maintenance: is maintenance on discrepancies and deficiencies found during operations. It consists of fault isolation or troubleshooting, repair, replacement, test, and calibration.

Front 117

115.8 Discuss the purpose the following inspections:
a. Daily:
b. Turnaround:
c. Special:
d. Conditional:
e. Phase:
f. Acceptance:
g. Transfer:
h. Aircraft Service Period Adjustment(ASPA):

Back 117

115.8 Discuss the purpose the following inspections:
a. Daily: Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than the turnaround or postflight inspections, valid for 72 hours, no flight during period and no maintenance other than servicing is performed. 24 hour period begins with first launch following signed off daily inspection. 24 hours cannot exceed 72 hour expiration of the daily unless expiration occurs during a mission. Turnaround requirements are not included in the daily inspection and must be accomplished separately.
b. Turnaround: Conducted between flights to ensure integrity of A/C for flight, verify proper servicing, and detect degradation that may have occurred during the previous flight. Good for 24 hours with no flights
c. Special: prescribed interval other than daily, calendar or phase. Special inspections always have a number in them; i.e., 14 day, 2000 landing, 2000 hour inspection, etc. These intervals are specified in the Periodic Maintenance Information Card deck
d. Conditional: Unscheduled conditions requiring inspection such as a bird strike insp, lightening strike insp, hard-landing insp, Foreign Object Damage (FOD) insp, etc
e. Phase: divides total scheduled maintenance requirement into smaller packages, or phases. Done sequentially and at specified intervals. The cycle is repetitive for service life of A/C and is not interrupted during SDLM induction.
f. Acceptance: Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft, from any source, and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance
g. Transfer: performed when reporting custodian transfers A/C or SE. Covers all items on the AIR.
h. Aircraft Service Period Adjustment(ASPA): Depot level evaluation of A/C’s general material condition, performed by certified ASPA evaluators, also checks logs and records with physical insp of A/C.

Front 118

115.9 State the purpose of a Functional Check Flight (FCF):

Back 118

115.9 Answers:

Used to determine whether the airframe, powerplant, accessories and equipment are functioning in accordance with predetermined standards when subjected to the intended operating environment.
Conducted at the completion of SDLM, acceptance, after engine system installation, reinstallation, flight control surface component replacement, attitude system component replacement/adjustment, certain Phase inspections, or for any time the aircraft has not flown for 30 days or more regardless of the reason. Other conditions are determined necessary by the Commanding Officer.

Front 119

115.10 State the purpose of the Weight and Balance Program:

Back 119

115.10 Answers:

Provides activities with a standard system of field weight and balance control.
It also gives the maximum operating weights, center of gravity restrictions and method of loading that is satisfactory for safe flight. Modifications are utilized in updating aircraft records. Provides flight crews with accurate base line weight and center of gravity data.

Front 120

115.11 State the purpose of the aircraft logbook:

Back 120

115.11 Answers:

The logbook is a hard cover, loose-leaf binder containing the history of the aircraft, and includes the following sections: Non-aging record, flight time, inspection records, repair and rework sections, Technical Directive section, Miscellaneous history, preservation and depreservation record, installed explosive devices section, inventory record, assembly service record, equipment history record, scheduled removal components cards (SRCs), aviation life support equipment records, seat survival kit records, and Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs).

AESR records are kept on items that have their own inspections, etc, such as engines, auxiliary power units, propeller assemblies, etc.

Front 121

115.12 State who is authorized to sign aircraft logbook entries:

Back 121

115.12 Answers:

Anyone designated in writing by the Commanding Officer, or those listed below:
1. Commanding Officer
2. O-Level
3. I-Level
4. D-Level Director of Operations
5. OMD Officer
Additional personnel may be authorized to sign aircraft logbooks and records if they have been designated in writing to do so by one of the personnel listed above.

Front 122

115.13 State who is authorized to release aircraft safe for flight:

Back 122

115.13 Answers:

MO, MMCO, or maintenance control officer certifying safe for flight condition of the aircraft. Other persons may sign the record if authorized and designated in writing by the CO.

Front 123

115.14 Discuss the following Planned Maintenance Systems
(PMS) pubs:
a. Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs):
b. Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (PMICs):

Back 123

115.14 Answers:

a. Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs): Provides instructions required for the efficient performance of scheduled maintenance tasks.
Each card contains tasks related to a particular system/subsystem/area/component uses a logical sequence for accomplishment. Identifies recommended rating of person to perform the maintenance, performance time, work area/zone involved. Lists support equipment needed, consumables/replacement parts, and assistance requirements for task performance. MRCs do not include instructions for repair, adjustment, calibration, or procedures for correcting defects

b. Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (PMICs): Identify scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals, contains component/assembly removal/replacement, airframe structural life limits, maintenance requirements system indexes such as MRCs, conditional inspections, phase change implementation cards, etc.

Front 124

115.15 Define the following as applied to aviation maintenance:
a. Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB):
b. Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIMs):

Back 124

115.15 Answers:

a. Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB): Contains illustrations and part numbers for all parts of the aircraft or equipment on which it is issued, used for ordering parts and viewing part arrangements and assemblies.

b. Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIMs): Contains instructions for "O" and "I" level maintenance/servicing of a specific model aircraft. Identifies each maintenance task and responsible maintenance level.

Front 125

115.16 Discuss the Work center Sup’s responsibilities:

Back 125

115.16 Answers:

Primary job of the W/C supervisor is the hour-by-hour maintenance situation.
This requires constant communication between the work center and Maintenance Control. Keep Maintenance Control constantly notified.

Front 126

115.17 Define the concept of Quality Assurance (QA):

Back 126

115.17 Answers:

The concept of QA is that of the prevention of the occurrence of defects.
The achievement of QA depends on prevention, knowledge, and special skills

Front 127

115.18 Explain the responsibilities of the following QA personnel:
a. Quality Assurance Rep (QAR):
b. Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI):

Back 127

115.18 Answers:

a. Quality Assurance Rep (QAR): They are considered to be direct rep of CO for ensuring inspections on safety of flight item issues. Certify work has been properly done by personally inspecting completed job and surrounding areas IAW current instructions/directives.
b. Collateral Duty QAR (CDQAR): Assigned on a temporary or permanent basis IAW 4790.2 Temp CDQARs may be assigned if severe shortages of skills will not support the assignment of a QAR in a billet or to relieve QARs during short periods of absence such as leave, temporary assigned duty periods, hospitalization, etc. Perm CDQARs may be assigned for ALSS and Armament billets when the activity has a minimal ordnance delivery mission, or Egress & Environmental Systems when the activity does not have ejection seats, to supplement multiple work shifts, or on detachments or at activities with 4 or less planes.
c. Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI): Assigned to work centers to inspect all work and comply with QA inspections required during all maintenance actions performed by their respective work centers. They will spot-check all work in progress & are monitored by QA

Front 128

115.19 Explain the purpose of the following QA audits:
a. Special:
b. Quarterly/work center:

Back 128

115.19 Answers:

a. Special: Conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs. They may be requested by the work center at any time or when a new work center supervisor is assigned. Maintained copies of audits are held for one year

b. Quarterly/work center: Conducted quarterly to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center. All areas of the work center are evaluated including personnel, monitored and managed programs, logs and records, licenses, etc

Front 129

115.20 Discuss the two functions of the Central Technical
Publications Library (CTPL):

Back 129

115.20 Answers:

QA manages the CTPL program, this function includes:

a. Determination of technical manuals required to support the maintenance organization, receipt and distribution control of manuals
b. Ensuring manuals are updated throughout the maintenance organization.

Internal control and distribution of the NAMP is a responsibility of the CTPL.

Front 130

115.21 Discuss the elements of a successful Foreign Object Damage
(FOD) Program:

Back 130

115.21 Answers:

FOD prevention program identifies, corrects, and eliminates causal factors which are a command responsibility and must be a part of the maintenance program. QA will monitor the FOD program. All work centers will institute procedures for compliance

Front 131

115.22 State the primary objective of the Tool Control Program:

Back 131

115.22 Answers:

The tool control program provides a means to rapidly account for all tools after completing a maintenance task, thus reducing the potential for FOD.
A secondary benefit is reduced tool loss

Front 132

115.23 Explain the purpose of the following programs:
a. Fuel Surveillance:
b. Navy Oil Analysis:
c. Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO):
d. Hydraulic Contamination Control:
e. Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety:

Back 132

115.23 Answers:
a. Fuel Surveillance: To ensure inspection have been performed on all aircraft fuel systems & are checked for Free water/microbiological/foreign contaminants which singularly or in combination, constitute a hazard in naval aircraft.
b. Navy Oil Analysis: Provides a diagnostic technique to monitor aeronautical equipment without removal or extensive disassembly. QA will ensure samples are taken from engines and accessories at intervals established in appropriate MRCs and MIMs. Results will be maintained and trends highlighted.
c. Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO): All persons in ABO program will be thoroughly familiar with (ABO) LOX & gaseous O2 hazards, and the need for quality standards. Operations involving handling of LOX or gaseous O2 will be preformed by 2 or more qualified persons.
d. Hydraulic Contamination Control: Prime objective of this program is to achieve and maintain a satisfactory level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems, thereby providing for safe and efficient operation of naval aircraft and support equipment. Class 5 for A/C class 3 for SE mims.
e. Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety: Persons handling tires and wheels shall be properly trained and aware of the safety hazards. They shall handle tires and wheels with the same care as that given to live ordnance. All persons trained will be familiar with all applicable manuals.

Front 133

115.24 State the purpose of the Maintenance Training
Improvement Program (MTIP):

Back 133

115.24 Answers:

A training management system which evaluates the technical knowledge levels of aviation technicians.
Comprehensive diagnostic testing in specific systems or subsystems identifies deficiencies which are targeted for refresher training. Training is concentrated on technical knowledge, deficiencies, and overall activity capabilities.

Front 134

115.25 Explain the purpose of the Monthly Maintenance Plan
(MMP):

Back 134

115.25 Answers:

Provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work.
It is prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month. It is used by supervisors to be aware of upcoming requirements. It includes the following minimum information: flight hours, dates of scheduled inspections, training, qualifications, chain-of-command, calibration schedules, Technical Directive compliance dates, etc

Front 135

115.26 Discuss the importance of the Electro-Static Discharge
(ESD) Program:

Back 135

115.25 Answers:

Provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work.
It is prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month. It is used by supervisors to be aware of upcoming requirements. It includes the following minimum information: flight hours, dates of scheduled inspections, training, qualifications, chain-of-command, calibration schedules, Technical Directive compliance dates, etc

Front 136

115.26 Discuss the importance of the Electro-Static Discharge
(ESD) Program:

Back 136

115.26 Answers:

ESD program: provides protected areas for material, equipment, and procedures required to control and minimize electrostatic discharges.
ESD protected areas are required when handling ESD parts, assemblies, and equipment outside of their ESD protective covering or packaging

Front 137

116.1 What functional requirements of the NAMP are satisfied by the “Organizational” maintenance activity’s NALCOMIS:

Back 137

116.1 Answers:

To improve mission capability, improve aircraft maintenance and supply support. To improve upline reporting to satisfy Department of Defense program requirements, and modernize management support.

Front 138

116.2 What functional requirements of the NAMP are satisfied the “Intermediate” maintenance activity’s NALCOMIS:

Back 138

116.2 Answers:

Provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review, and report information required by the organization.

Front 139

116.3 Describe the purpose of the following organizational maintenance activity’s NALCOMIS subsystems:
a. Maintenance:
b. Flight:
c. Logs/Records:
d. Personnel:
e. Assets:
f. Data Analysis:
g. Reports:
h. Ad Hoc Query:

Back 139

116.3 Answers:
a. Maintenance: Collects and processes maintenance related data and provides data to other subsystems on the data base. Used extensively by Maintenance Control.

b. Flight: Collects and processes flight related data.

c. Logs/Records: Establishes and maintains configuration profiles for engines, aircraft, and any Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) records.

d. Personnel: Reserved for future use. Can be used to monitor qualifications. Not in use at this time.

e. Assets: Processes inventory and inspection criteria for support equipment and Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS).

f. Data Analysis: Approves or disapproves Maintenance Action Forms (MAF's), Naval Flight Records (NAVFLIRS), for upline submission.

g. Reports: Selects and produces various reports.

h. Ad Hoc Query: Creates user-specific needed or requested reports.

Front 140

116.4 Describe the purpose of the following Intermediate maintenance
activity’s NALCOMIS subsystems:
a. Maintenance Activity:
b. Configuration status accounting:
c. Personnel Management:
d. Asset Management:
e. Material Requirement processing:
f. System Report:
g. Data off-load/on-load:
h. Technical Publications:

Back 140

116.4 Answers:
a. Maintenance Activity: Allows maintenance personnel to document maintenance actions, order parts, maintain individual component repair list data, and request inquiries
b. Configuration status accounting: Contains 3 sections: Aircraft Engines, Support Equipment, and Technical Directives
c. Personnel Management: Has info on assigned military and civilian personnel
d. Asset Management: Contains the functions required to maintain inventory and utilization data for Support Equipment and IMRL items
e. Material Requirement processing: Covers material requirements generated by maintenance customers at the O-level and I-level. These requirements include repairable components, consumable repair parts, and indirect material support items.
f. System Report: shows user a list of on-screen messages that are waiting action
g. Data off-load/on-load: Used to generate files, reports, and documents for data off-load/on-load. These items accompany temporarily transferred Support Equipment and personnel and permanently transferred SE, either to or from organizations.
h. Technical Publications: provides an automated technical library tracking system

Front 141

116.5 Explain the purpose of a Maintenance Action Form (MAF)
as applied to NALCOMIS documentation:

Back 141

116.5 Answers:

Used to document maintenance actions to on-equipment maintenance actions.
Used to document maintenance as preventative maintenance, such as corrosion prevention and treatment. Also used to document the removal/installation, and processing of a repairable component or item to an Aviation Intermediate Maintenance Department (AIMD) or On Site Storeroom (OSS).

Front 142

116.6 Explain the following blocks on a MAF to be utilized as data
fields in NALCOMIS:
a. Work Unit Code:
b. Job Control Number:
c. Maintenance Action Form (MAF) Control Number:
d. Discrepancy block:
e. Corrective Action Block:
f. When Discovered (W/D) code:
g. Type Equipment (TYPE EQUIP) code:
h. Type Maintenance (T/M) code:

Back 142

116.6 Answers:

a. Work Unit Code: Identifies the system or subsystem being worked upon.
b. Job Control Number: A 9, 10, or 11-character code
c. MAF Control Number (MCN): 7-character alpha/numeric code assigned by system that serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reports and maintenance control procedures. Tracks MAF's through maintenance process.
d. Discrepancy block: narrative description of a reported discrepancy
e. Corrective Action Block: narrative description of corrective action taken on a discrepancy.
f. When Discovered (W/D) code: single alpha-character, indicating when need for maintenance was discovered
g. Type Equipment (TYPE EQUIP) code: Identifies the type of equipment being worked on
h. Type Maintenance (T/M) code: one-character alpha or numeric code used to describe the type work being performed

Front 143

116.7 What is a Special Maintenance Qualification (SMQ)
on NALCOMIS used for:

Back 143

116.7 Answers:

Used to screen the levels of security. It determines which screens or parts of NALCOMIS an individual has access to.

Front 144

116.8 Discuss the security precautions the apply to an
individual’s NALCOMIS login and password:

Back 144

116.8 Answers:

a. Protect your password.
b. Do not share, loan, or write down your password.
c. Protect passwords from unauthorized viewing.
d. Do not leave your terminal or computer while logged in; always log off when complete.
e. Know who the security personnel are.

Front 145

117.1 State the function and responsibilities of material
control, (all 11):

Back 145

117.1 Answers:
Material Control shall provide material support to their cognizant organizations and coordinate indirect material requirements to ensure material ordered is material required and delivered work centers,
(1) Establish delivery/pickup points for material ordered.
(2) Maintain liaison with the supporting ASD on maintenance material matters to ensure the material needs of the organization are satisfied.
(3) Prepare documents for material required for operational support, for example, aviation fuel, lube oil, flight clothing, and material carried in service market outlets.
(4) Furnish information to the Supply activity on the identity and quantity of material.
(5) Establish procedures to ensure proper operation of tool rooms and the performance of tool inventories.
(6) Ensure surveys are prepared in the event of loss, damage, or destruction of accountable material.
(7) Perform memorandum OPTAR funding, accounting, charting, and budgeting of costs. A separate material control register is maintained for each OPTAR held.
(8) Maintain adequate accountability of material and equipment on custody.
(9) Maintain inventory control of authorized allowances of material listed in the IMRL and authorized allowance lists.
(10) Validate NMCS/PMCS requisitions daily and maintain (by aircraft BUNO) current NMCS/ PMCS status records.
(11) Perform an inventory of aircraft, with technical assistance, upon receipt or transfer to ensure inventory log entries are made, and inventory shortage listings are prepared and forwarded to Maintenance Control for inclusion in the AIR.

Front 146

117.2 Discuss the following Operational Target (OPTAR) funding and
give examples of items procured with each type:

a. Flight Operations Fund (OFC-01)
b. Aviation Fleet Maintenance (AFM) Fund:

Back 146

117.2 Answers:

a. Flight Operations Fund (OFC-01): AvFuels, flight clothing, flt operational equip for pilots and aircrews, consumable office supplies for aviation squadrons, Aerial film, chart paper, flight deck shoes, LOX, Nitrogen, A/C maint costs and repair parts when obtained from another military source, PUBS, Plaques for CO/OX offices only, special ID clothing, flight deck jerseys, helmets used by squadron for launch/recovery of aircraft.

b. Aviation Fleet Maintenance (AFM) Fund: Paints, wipe rags, towel service, cleaning agents used in corrosion control, consumable repair parts, misc material, navy stock accnt parts used in direct maint of A/C, pre-ex bin parts, avfuel used at I level, 35QH-2 items used for maint, consumable hand tools, safety shoes for maint shops, repair/maint of flight clothing, authorized decals for aircraft, IMRL items, MAFs, MAF Bags, oils lubs, fuel additives.

Front 147

117.3 State the procedures for accomplishing the following:
a. Ordering parts and material:
b. Receipt and delivery of parts and material:
c. Turn-in of defective components:

Back 147

117.3 Answers:

a. Ordering parts and material:
b. Receipt and delivery of parts and material:
c. Turn-in of defective components:

Front 148

117.4 Define the acronym MILSTRIP and state its purpose:

Back 148

117.4 Answers:

Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedure, A uniform procedure established by DOD for its own use to govern requisition and issue of material within standard priorities.

Front 149

117.5 Define and explain the following terms:
a. ICRL:
b. CRIPL:
c. NMCS:
d. PMCS
e. NSN:
f. NIIN:

Back 149

117.5 Answers:
a. ICRL: Individual Component Repair List
b. CRIPL: Consolidated Remain-In-Place List
c. NMCS: Not Mission Capable Supply
d. PMCS: Partial Mission Capable Supply
e. NSN: National Stock Number
f. NIIN: National Item Identification Number

Front 150

117.5 Define and explain the following terms: (cont’)
g. AVDLR:
h. AWP:
i. IMRL:
j. AIR:
k. EXREP:

Back 150

117.5 Answers: (cont’)
g. AVDLR: Aviation Depot Level Repair
h. AWP: Awaiting Parts
i. IMRL: Individual Material Readiness List
j. AIR: Aircraft Inventory Records
k. EXREP: Expeditious Repair

Front 151

117.6 Explain the importance of the aeronautical allowance lists
in relation to mission sustainability:

Back 151

117.6 Answer:

Lists of equipment and material determined from known or estimated requirements as necessary to place and maintain aeronautical activities in a material readiness condition. In the case of aerological and photographic material, the requirement is extended to all applicable naval activities.

Front 152

117.7 State the purpose of the following forms and reports:
a. Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss(DD Form 200):
b. Missing/Lost/Stolen Report:

Back 152

117.7 Answers:
a. Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form 200): used to document report of survey and certify survey process when government property is lost, damaged, or destroyed.

b. Missing/Lost/Stolen Report: Reports of missing, lost or stolen items are made by a completed copy of a Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form 200) or Report of Discrepancy (ROD) (SF Form 364).

If you are required to complete a DD Form 200 to adjust plant or minor property or inventory records, the completed form becomes the vehicle for the MLSR submission. The ROD becomes the reporting vehicle if the shipper denies credit for reported non receipt or shortages on supply requisitions. MLSR report number will be assigned for each reported incident and shall be numbered sequentially for each calendar year. Example: 1992/001-INITIAL. Losses and gains resulting from stock record adjustments will not be reported as MLSR unless the item(s) qualify under other criteria.

Front 153

117.8 What is the flight packet on the plane used for, and
what does it contain:

Back 153

117.8 Answers:
Contain instructions to assist pilots on long missions to obtain material support/services to continue the mission. Custody and issue is prescribed by CO, strict control & inventoried by supply dept. weekly.
(a) Procurement documents:
1) DOD Single Line Item Requisition System Document (DD 1348) (6 part) to requisition repair parts and other materials for in-plane servicing during extended flights.
2) Purchase Order/Invoice/Voucher (SF 44) to procure supplies and services from commercial concerns and government sources.
3) DD 1896 (white identaplate) or DD 1897 (purple identaplate) to procure jet fuel or aviation gasoline from commercial airports holding DLA into-plane refueling contracts and most DOD activities.
(b) Instructions for safeguarding and shipping damaged aircraft.
(c) Instructions for procuring services and supplies.
(d) Statement of Witness (SF 94).
(e) Claim of Damage or Injury (SF 95).
(f) VIDS/MAF (OPNAV 4790/60).
(g) Applicable daily and turnaround inspection MRCs.
(h) Fuel Sample Log Sheets.
(i) At least three oil sample results for aircraft on extended cross country flights.

Front 154

117.9 Explain the purpose of Source Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R) codes:

Back 154

117.9 Answers:

SM&R codes are used to communicate maintenance and supply instructions to various logistic support levels and using commands for the logistic support of systems, equipment, and end items. These codes are made available to their intended users by means of technical publications, such as allowance lists, IPB manuals, MIMs, and supply documents. SM&R codes are assigned to each supported item based on the logistic support planned for the end item and its components.

The primary objective is to establish uniform policies, procedures, management tools, and means of communication to promote interservice and integrated material support within and among military services. Thus, the establishment of uniform SM&R codes is an essential step toward improving overall capabilities for more effective interservice and integrated support.

Front 155

118.1 Define the term HM:

Back 155

118.1 Answers:

Hazardous Material: Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.

Front 156

118.2 Define the term HW:

Back 156

118.2 Answers:

Hazardous Waste: Any discarded material (liquid, solid, or gas) which meets the definition of HM and/or is designated as a hazardous waste by the Environmental Protection Agency or a State authority.

Front 157

118.3 Discuss HM storage and inspection requirements:

Back 157

118.3 Answers:

Stowage locations shall be inspected weekly and quarterly inspect for tightness of closure, corrosion, leakage, improper or inadequate labeling, and expired shelf-life.

Front 158

118.4 State the purpose and information contained on the
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS):

Back 158

118.4 Answers:

MSDS: are technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical, and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use.
They are located with the HM/HW Coordinator at Medical, Supply Officer, Work Center, and the HM container.

Front 159

118.5 What are the 6 categories of HM:

Back 159

118.5 Answers:
a. Flammable or combustible materials- May be a solid/liquid/gas. A material with a low flash point.
b. Toxic materials- Poison/Toxin is a substance affects one's health by causing injury/illness/death when inhaled, ingested, or through skin contact.
c. Corrosive materials (including acids & bases) - Highly reactive substance causes visible damage to living tissue. Causes destruction or irreversible damage to living tissue by chemical action at site of physical contact.
d. Oxidizing materials- Oxidizing materials are liquids or solids that readily give off oxygen or oxidizing substances, such as chlorine. Also include materials that react chemically to oxidize combustible (burnable) materials; this means that oxygen combines chemically with the other material in a way that increases the chance of a fire or explosion. This reaction may be spontaneous at either room temperature or may occur under slight heating. Oxidizing liquids and solids can be severe fire and explosion hazards.
e. Aerosol containers- Aerosols are tiny liquid and solid particles suspended in the air. Insecticides, oils and paints are examples of aerosols in pressurized containers. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are good propellants, and present no fire danger, but they are being phased out as they are believed to be a contributory factor to the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere. Hydrocarbons are sometimes used in Aerosol containers, and can present a fire and explosion hazard.
f. Compressed gases- Three major groups of compressed gases are stored in cylinders: liquefied, non-liquefied and dissolved gases. All compressed gases are hazardous because of the high pressures inside the cylinders.
Acronym: F-A-T-C-O-C

Front 160

118.6 Explain the general procedures to be followed when a
HM/HW spill is discovered:
a. .
b. .
c. .
d. .
e. .
f. .
g. .
h. .
i. .
j. .
k. .

Back 160

118.6 Answers:

Spill Response Actions:

a. Discovery
b. Notification
c. Initiation of action.
d. Evaluation
e. Containment
f. Damage control
g. Dispersion of Gases/vapors
h. Cleanup and decontamination
i. Disposal
j. Certification for re-entry
k. Follow-up reports

Front 161

118.7 State the personal protection equipment required when
handling HM/HW:

Back 161

118.7 Answers:

Eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves

Front 162

118.8 Discuss the disposal limitations for the following:
a. Adhesives:
b. Grease:
c. Hydraulic:
d. Fuels:
e. Waste oils:
f. Paint/Paint thinners:

Back 162

118.8 Answers:

For all disposal limitations refer to the NAVOSH Program Manual,
for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19C

a. Adhesives: Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore
b. Grease: Oily solid materials such as contaminated rags, absorbents, and oil filters can be thrown overboard beyond 50 nautical miles off shore. If within 50 nautical miles containerize for shore disposal. Keep petroleum lubricants separate from synthetic lubricants.
c. Hydraulic: Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore. Keep synthetic fluids separate from other types of fluids
d. Fuels: Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore. Keep synthetic and petroleum lubricants separate
e. Waste oils: Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore
f. Paint/Paint thinners: Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore

Front 163

118.9 Describe required training for all hands with respect to
HM/HW program:

Back 163

118.9 Answers:

Training shall include:

a. Types of HM in their work area and aboard ship.

b. What HMs are and how they are disposed of.

c. How to read and interpret hazard warning labels.

d. What an MSDS is, how to read it, where a copy is available to review. General information on HM handling, stowage, use, and disposal.

e. Protective measures when handling HM.

f. Emergency procedures.

Front 164

118.10 Describe the purpose on secondary labeling of HM when
removed from the originator container:

Back 164

118.10 Answers:

Secondary Label: Use only approved containers; ensure that existing precautionary labeling is retained and that subsequent containers are marked with appropriate precautionary labeling.

Front 165

118.11 Discuss the purpose of the HM Authorized Use List (AUL):

Back 165

118.11 Answers:

Purpose of (AUL): To show what HM the unit is authorized to have and who in that unit has a need and is authorized to use it.

A current inventory of HM, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HM used for local acquisition and use.
Local workcenters or codes should maintain a current inventory of items authorized for local use and keep it current

Front 166

119.1 Define the following:
a. Oily Waste:
b. Waste Oil:

Back 166

119.1 Answers:

a. Oily Waste: Oil mixed with water or other fluids such that the mixture is no longer useful

b. Waste Oil: Oil whose characteristics have changed markedly since being originally refined and has become unsuitable for further use, and is not considered economically recyclable

Front 167

119.2 Discuss the legislation that governs the discharge of oily
waste into the ocean:

Back 167

119.2 Answers:

The Clean Water Act: authorizes the Department of Defense to issue regulations governing the design, construction, operation of marine sanitation devices on board vessels owned and operated by the government.

Front 168

119.3 Describe the actions required for oil spills within the
U.S. contiguous zone:
a. In Navy ports, the ship’s CO shall:
b. In Non-Navy ports (and elsewhere within the contiguous zone)
the ships CO shall:

Back 168

119.3 Answers:
An accidental or not permitted discharge of OHS into or upon the water. Ships shall comply with the following OHS spill response procedures when within the U.S. contiguous zone.

a.In Navy ports, the ship’s CO shall:
1. Notify the shoreside NOSC/cognizant facility commanding officer by the most expeditious means possible. For environmentally significant spills, see paragraph 19-9.2.8.
2. Notify the National Response Center (NRC) by telephone at [phone].
3. Take, insofar as practical, immediate actions to mitigate the effects of the spill.
4. Follow up by submitting a naval message. Appendices H and I provide formats for OHS spill reports.

In Non-Navy ports (and elsewhere within the contiguous zone)the ships CO shall:
1. Notify the appropriate shoreside NOSC and cognizant shore facility CO specified in the shoreside NOSC contingency plan. For environmentally significant spills, see paragraph 19-9.2.8.
2. Notify the NRC by telephone at [phone].
3. Take, insofar as practical, immediate actions to mitigate the effects of the spill. Rapid action by the ship’s crew can result in containment and collection of the spill. Shipboard personnel shall use available means to clean up minor spills before requesting assistance from shore-based personnel.
4. Follow up by submitting a naval message

Front 169

119.4 Describe the actions required for oil spills outside the
U.S. contiguous zone:

Back 169

119.4 Answers:

Required actions for OHS spill outside US contiguous zone:

a. Initiate immediate action to mitigate the effects of the spill.

b. Notify the pre-designated fleet Navy On Scene Coordinator, NOSC, by naval message.

c. The fleet NOSC shall implement the applicable fleet NOSC Oil and Hazardous Substance Spill Response Plan.

Front 170

119.4.1 OHS Spill Response in Water of Foreign Countries:

Back 170

119.4.1 Answers (cont’):

OHS Spill Response in Waters of Foreign Countries.
Ships shall take following action for an Oil /Hazardous Substance, OHS, spill:

a. The ship’s commanding officer shall initiate immediate action to mitigate the effects of the spill.
b. The ship’s commanding officer shall immediately notify the pre-designated fleet NOSC and/or shore side NOSC (as defined in governing contingency plans) by naval message.

c. The fleet and shore side NOSC shall implement the applicable NOSC Oil and Hazardous Substance Spill Response Plan.

Front 171

119.5 Explain the general operational and management requirements
for bilge water, oil, oily waste and shipboard pollution abatement:
a. Bilge Water and Oily Waste:
b. Contaminated bilge water and oily waste:

Back 171

119.5 Answers:
General shipboard pollution abatement for bilge/oil/oily waste:
a. Bilge Water and Oily Waste: Ships shall minimize oil contamination of bilge water. Mechanical seals in oil and water pumps and proper segregation of oily and non-oily wastewater will greatly reduce the generation of oily waste

b. Contaminated bilge water and oily waste: Ships shall not use bilge cleaners or chemical agents that promote chemical emulsion (i.e., detergents and surfactants) for machinery space cleaning. Prohibition of these substances will enable Oil and Water Separator Systems, OWSS, to perform more effectively.

Front 172

119.5.1 Bilge water and oily waste disposal in port:
a. Permanent shore reception facilities:
b. Oil Water Separator, (OWS), system:

Back 172

119.5.1 Answers:

Bilge water and oily waste disposal in port:
Navy policy is to maximize separation, recycling/reuse of oil. While in a Navy port, ships shall dispose of bilge water and oily wastes per supporting activity guidance using one or more of the following approaches:
a. Permanent shore reception facilities: In Navy ports that provide shore oily waste collection, shoreside collection of bilge water and oily wastes, followed by recovery of recyclable products is preferred method of dealing with these shipboard wastes.

b. Oil Water Separator (OWS) system: Ships equipped with bilge water OWS/OCM systems may use them, provided the waste matter does not exceed 15 ppm, cause a sheen, or violate any other applicable water quality standard.
Prior to discharging in a Navy port via an OWS, ships shall consult with supporting shore facility host command for discharge requirements. In non-Navy ports, use of OWS is the preferred method of dealing with these wastes

Front 173

119.6 Discuss the oily waste discharge limitations in geographic
zones and waters other than of the United States:

Back 173

119.6 Answers:

If equipped with OCM, discharge less than 15 parts per million oil. Ships with Oil Water Separator (OWS) or Bilge Water Processing Tank (BWPT) but no Oil Content Monitor, must process all machinery space bilge water through OWS or BWPT.

Front 174

119.7 Define and discuss data found on a
Material Safety Data Sheets, MSDS:

Back 174

119.7 Answers:

Composition, chemical, physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling, use and disposal.

Front 175

119.8 Discuss Work Center Supervisor responsibilities as
they pertain to HMC&M:

Back 175

119.8 Answers:

(a) Ensure that approved personal protective clothing and equipment are used & maintained.

(b) Ensure that prior to initial use or handling of any HM, workcenter personnel have
been trained on hazards associated with that material and are familiar with what
an MSDS is, what it contains, and where a copy is available for review

Front 176

119.9 Discuss all hands responsibilities as they pertain to HMC&M:

Back 176

119.9 Answers:
a. Return HM to approved stowage or HAZMINCEN upon end of use or at end of the workday.

b. Properly use and handle hazardous material, (HM).

c. Collect and segregate any residue resulting from use of HM issued from the HAZMAT Center for turn-in to the supply department/HAZMAT Center.

d. Report any spills of HM to the Officer Of the Deck, and/or Damage Control Central/Central Control Station.

e. Properly stow or return to the HAZMATCEN/supply department any HM found improperly stowed in work or berthing spaces.

Front 177

119.10 Discuss proper stowage procedures for HMC&M:

Back 177

119.10 Answers:

a. Workcenter supervisors shall ensure that, prior to using any HM, machining or abrasive cleaning of components containing HM (i.e., beryllium or other heavy metals), personnel under their supervision are trained on hazards associated with that material and have been provided necessary protective clothing and equipment (eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves impermeable to HM in use).
b. Workcenter supervisors shall ensure that spaces are well-ventilated where HM is used or machined.
c. Upon completion of HM use, return surplus material to its appropriate storage location.
d. Avoid breathing vapors or dust when using or machining HM.
e. Avoid contact with eyes or prolonged contact with skin when using or machining HM.
f. Prohibit smoking, drinking, or eating in areas where open containers of HM are being used.
g. Ensure PPE is in good working condition & readily available to personnel working with HM.
h. Use a respirator with appropriate filter when potentially exposed to particulate matter, hazardous gases, or vapors. Consult the MDR for specific guidance in this regard, and for a determination of need for more stringent respiratory protection requirements.

Front 178

119.11 Discuss proper marking of hazardous material containers:

Back 178

119.11 Answers:

Manufacturer's labels for shipboard identification of HM containers must clearly identify material name/manufacturer's/name & address, and nature of the hazard presented by the HM including the target organ potentially affected by the material. A manufacturer's label may be a tag, sign, placard, or gummed sticker.

Front 179

119.12 Discuss flammable material stowage requirements:

Back 179

119.12 Answer:

Store separately from Oxidizers. Check the Hazmat Compatibility chart, and Incompatible materials charts.
Flammable liquids must be kept in a flammables liquid store room or cabinet. Note that storage of flammable liquids is not allowed in machinery areas.
Rags, paper and wood may not be stored in these areas. However, oily rags are ok.
No open flames or spark producing materials. Mark and label the area. Ensure proper ventilation.

Front 180

119.13 Discuss the precautions observed when handling flammables:

Back 180

119.13 Answers:

The main objective in working safely with flammable liquids is to avoid accumulation of vapors and to control sources of ignition

Front 181

119.14 State the location and contents of the oil spill containment kit:

Back 181

119.14 Answers:

Contents of skill kit:
Absorbent pads, Absorbent granules, gloves etc.

Located: Tool room, Maintenance control, Safety office (all in hangar).

Front 182

119.15 Describe required sub-tasks within each of the five ORM
elements for conducting petroleum product evolutions
(internal, transfers, onloads, offloads):
a. Identifying Hazards:
b. Assessing Hazards:
c. Making Risk Decision:
d. Implementing Controls:
e. Supervising:

Back 182

119.15 Answers:
a. Identifying Hazards: outline/chart major steps in the operation (operational analysis). Conduct a Preliminary Hazard Analysis by listing all of the hazards associated with each step in the operational analysis along with possible causes for those hazards.
b. Assessing Hazards: for each hazard identified, determine associated degree of risk in terms of probability & severity
c. Making Risk Decision: develop risk control options. Start with most serious risk first and select controls that will reduce risk to minimum consistent with mission accomplishment. With selected controls in place, decide if benefit of operation outweighs risk. If risk outweighs benefit or if assistance is required to implement controls, communicate with higher authority in chain of command.
d. Implementing Controls: Administrative controls, Engineering controls, PPE
e. Supervising: Conduct follow-up evaluations of the controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect. Monitor for changes which may require further ORM. Take corrective action when necessary