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579 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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(T/F) The outer membrane for G+ and the cell membrane for G- act as major surface antigens.
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FALSE: they DO act a major surface antigens BUT the outer mb for G- and the cell membrane for G+
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Are endotoxins heat stable?
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yes, stable at 100C for 1 hr.
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Are endotoxins secreted from cells?
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NO
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Are endotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?
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no, they don\\'t produce protective immune response
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Are exotoxins heat stable?
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no, destroyed rapidly at 60C (exception: Staphylococcal enterotoxin)
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Are exotoxins secreted from cells?
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YES
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Are exotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?
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Yes, TOXOIDS are used as vaccines
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Describe the chemical composition of peptidoglycan.
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Sugar backbone with cross-linked peptide side chains.
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Describe the major components of a G- cell wall.
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inner and outer lipid bilayer membranes - thin layer of peptidoglycan - periplasmic space - contains lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein and phospholipid
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Describe the major components of a G+ cell wall.
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one lipid bilayer membrane - thick layer of peptidoglycan - contains teichoic acid
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Describe the process of conjugation.
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DNA transfer from one bacterium to another.
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Describe the process of transduction.
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DNA transfer by a virus from one cell to another
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Describe the process of transformation.
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purified DNA is taken up by a cell
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Does endotoxin induce and antigenic response?
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no, not well
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Does exotoxin induce and antigenic response?
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Yes, induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins
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Give two general functions of peptidoglycan
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Gives rigid support - protects against osmotic pressure
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How are Group A and Group B Strep primarily differentiated?
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Group A are Bacitracin sensitive - Group B are Bacitracin resistant
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How are the pathogenic Neisseria species differentiated?
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on the basis of sugar fermentation
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How are the species of Streptococcus primarily differentiated?
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on the basis of their HEMOLYTIC capabilities
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List the four phases of the bacterial growth curve.
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Lag phase - log (exponential) phase - stationary phase - death phase
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Name 2 G- rods that are considered slow lactose fermenters.
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Citrobacter and Serratia
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Name 3 G- rods that are considered fast lactose fermenters.
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1) Klebsiella 2) E. coli 3) Enterobacter
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Name 3 G- rods which are lactose nonfermenters and Oxidase(-)?
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Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus
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Name 4 bacteria that use IgA protease to colonize mucosal surfaces.
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1) Strep. pneumoniae 2) Neisseria meningitidis 3) Neisseria gonorrhea 4) H. flu
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Name 4 genus of bacteria that are G- \\'coccoid\\' rods.
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1) H. flu 2) Pasteruella 3) Brucella 4) Bordetella pertussis
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Name 6 bacteria that don\\'t Gram\\'s stain well?
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Treponema - Rickettsia - Mycobacteria - Mycoplasma - Legionella pneumophila - Chlamydia
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Name four genus of bacteria that are G+ rods.
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1) Clostridium (an anaerobe) 2) Coynebacterium 3) Listeria 4) Bacillus
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Name seven G+ bacteria species that make exotoxins.
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1) Corynebacterium diphtheriae 2) Clostridium tetani 3) Clostridium botulinum 4) Clostridium perfringens 5) Bacillus anthracis 6) Staph. aureus 7) Strep. pyogenes
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Name three diseases caused by exotoxins.
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Tetanus - botulism - diptheria
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Name three G- bacteria species that make exotoxins.
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1) E. coli 2) Vibrio cholerae 3) Bordetella pertussis
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Name three Lactose-fermenting enterics.
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Eschericia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter
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Name two diseases caused by endotoxins.
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Meningococcemia - sepsis by G(-) rods
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Name two type of Strep that exhibit alpha hemolysis?
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S. pneumoniae - Viridans strep. (e.g. S. mutans)
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Name two types of Strep. that are non-hemolytic (gamma hemolysis).
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Enterococcus (E. faecalis) and Peptostreptococcus (anaerobe)
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Name two types of Strep. that exhibit beta hemolysis.
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Group A Strep. (GAS) and Group B Strep. (GBS)
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Teichoic acid induces what two cytokines?
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TNF and IL-1
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What are the effects of erythrogenic toxin?
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it is a superantigen - it causes rash of Scarlet fever
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What are the effects of streptolysin O?
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it is a hemolysin - it is the antigen for ASO-antibody found in rheumatic fever
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What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bacillus anthracis? (1)
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one toxin in the toxin complex is an adenylate cyclase
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What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bordetella pertussis? (3)
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Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation - causes whooping cough - inhibits chemokine receptor, causing lymphocytosis
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What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium botulinum?
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blocks release of acetylcholine: causes anticholenergic symptoms, CNS paralysis; can cause \\'floppy baby\\'
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What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium perfringens?
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alpha toxin is a lecithinase - causes gas gangrene - get a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar
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What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium tetani?
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blocks release of the inhibitory NT glycine; causes \\'lockjaw\\'
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What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Corynebacterium diphtheria? (3)
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1) inactivates EF-2 by ADP ribosylation 2) pharyngitis 3) \\'pseudomembrane\\' in throat
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What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by E. coli? (2)
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this heat labile toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein - causes watery diarrhea
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What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Staph. aureus?
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superantigen; induces IL-1 and IL-2 synthesis in Toxic Shock Syndrome; also causes food poisoning
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What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Vibro cholerae? (3)
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Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein - increases pumping of Cl- and H2O into gut - causes voluminous rice-water diarrhea
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What are the general clinical effects of endotoxin?(2)
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fever, shock
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What are three primary/general effects of endotoxin (especially lipid A)?
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1) Acivates macrophages 2) Activates completment (alt. pathway) 3) Activates Hageman factor
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What are two exotoxins secreted by Strep. pyogenes?
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Erythrogenic toxin and streptolysin O
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What are two functions of the pilus/fimbrae?
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Mediate adherence of bacteria to the cell surface - sex pilus forms attachment b/t 2 bacteria during conjugation
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What are two species of Gram (-) cocci and how are they differentiated?
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1) Neisseria memingitidis: maltose fermenter 2) Neisseria gonorrhoeae: maltose NONfementer
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What bacteria produces a blue-green pigment?
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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What bacteria produces a red pigment?
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Serratia marcescens (\\'maraschino cherries are red\\')
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What bacteria produces a yellow pigment?
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Staph. aureus (Aureus-> gold in Latin)
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What culture requirements do Fungi have?
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Sabouraud\\'s agar
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What culture requirements do Lactose-fermenting enterics have?
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MacConkey\\'s agar (make pink colonies)
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What culture requirements does B. pertussis have?
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Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
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What culture requirements does C. diphtheriae have?
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Tellurite agar
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What culture requirements does H. flu have?
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chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)
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What culture requirements does Legionella pneumophia have?
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Charcol yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine
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What culture requirements does N. gonorrhea have?
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Thayer-Martin (VCN) media
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What G- rod is a lactose nonfermenter and is Oxidase+ ?
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Pseudomonas
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What is a function of the plasma membrane in bacterial cells.
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site of oxidative and transport enzymes
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What is a toxoid?
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exotoxin treated with formaldehyde (or acid or heat); retains antigeniciy but looses toxicity
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What is an acronym for remembering 6 bacteria that don\\'t Gram\\'s stain well?
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TRMMLC: These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color
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What is meant by alpha, beta, and gamma hemolysis?
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On a Blood agar plate: alpha-> complete; clear - beta-> partial; green - gamma-> no hemolysis; red
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What is the chemical composition of a glycocalix?
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polysaccharide
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What is the chemical composition of bacterial ribosomes?
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RNA and protein in 30S and 50S subunits
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What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?
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Lipopolysaccharide
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What is the chemical composition of exotoxin?
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polypeptide
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What is the chemical composition of spores?
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keratin-like coat - dipicolinic acid
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What is the funciton and chemical composition of the flagellum?
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for motility - made of protein
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What is the function of a glycocalix?
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mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (i.e. catheters)
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What is the function of spores?
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provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals
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What is the major chemical composition of the capsule?
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Polysaccharide (*except Bacillus anthracis, which contains D-Glutamate)
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What is the major function of the capsule?
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antiphagocytic
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What is the mode of action of endotoxin?
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includes TNF and IL-1
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What is the nature of the DNA transferred in conjugation?
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Chromosomal or plasmid
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What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transduction?
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Any gene in generalized transduction; only certain genes in specialized transduction
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What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transformation?
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Any DNA
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What is the periplasm? Where is it found?
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the space between the inner and outer cell membranes found in G(-) bacteria.
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What is the primary test to subcatergorize G- rods?
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are they Lactose Fermenters?
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What is the source of endotoxins?
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cell wall of most G- bacteria (think N-dotoxin-> gram Negative)
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What is the source of exotoxins?
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certain species of some G+ and G- bacteria
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What is the unique chemical component of Gram (-) cell membranes?
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Lipopolysaccharide
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What is the unique chemical component of Gram + cell membranes?
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Teichoic acid
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What is used to stain Legionella?
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Use silver stain.
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What species is Group A Strep?
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S. pyogenes
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What species is Group B Strep?
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S. agalactiae
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What stain is amyloid and gives an apple-green birefringence in polarized light?
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Congo red
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What stain is used for acid fast bacteria?
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Ziehl-Neelsen
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What stain is used for Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, and Chlamydia?
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Giemsa\\'s
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What stain is used for Cryptococcus neoformans?
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India ink
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What stains gylcogen, mucopolysaccharides and is used to diagnose Whipple\\'s disease?
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PAS (periodic acid Schiff)
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What test distinguishes Staph. and Strep?
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Staph. are Catalase (+) and are in clusters - Strep. are Catalase (-) and are in chains
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What test distinguishes Staph. aureus from Staph. epidermidis and Staph. saprophyticus?
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S. aureus is Coagulase (+) - S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus are Coagulase (-)
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What two things distinguish S. pneumoniae from Viridans Strep.?
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S. pneumoniae: have Capsule; Optochin Sensitive - Viridans strep: No capsule; Optochin Resistant
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What type of enzymes allows certain bacteria to colonize mucosal surfaces?
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IgA proteases
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When endotoxin activates complement, what are the secondary effects?
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C3a: hypotension, edema - C5a: neutrophil chemotaxis
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When endotoxin activates Hageman, what are the secondary effects?
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coagulation cascade: DIC
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When endotoxin activates macrophages, what 3 cytokines are released and what are the secondary effects?
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IL-1--fever - TNF--fever, hemmoragic tissue necrosis - Nitic oxide--hypotension, shock
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Where are the genes for endotoxin located?
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on the bacterial chromosome
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Where are the genes for exotoxin located?
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on a plasmid or in a bacteriophage
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Where are the spores of Clostridium botulinum found?
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canned food - honey
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Where is LPS found?
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in the outer membrane of G (-) cell walls
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Which has a higher toxicity: exotoxin or endotoxin?
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EXOTOXIN: fatal dose is ~1ug! (for endotoxin, fatal dose is hundreds of micrograms)
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Which type of Neisseria ferment Glucose only?
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Gonococci (Glucose-> Gonococci)
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Which type of Neisseria ferment maltose and glucose?
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Meningococci (MaltoseGlucose-> MeninGococci)
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Which types of transfer can eukaryotic cells do?
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only transformation
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Which types of transfer can prokaryotic cells do?
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all 3: conjugation, transduction, and transformation
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Why don\\'t Mycobacteria Gram\\'s stain well?
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high lipid content cell wall requires acid-fast stain
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Why don\\'t Mycoplasma Gram\\'s stain well?
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no cell wall
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Why don\\'t Rickettsia, Chlamydia, and Legionella Gram\\'s stain well?
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they are intracellular (Legionella is Mainly intracellular)
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Why don\\'t Treponema Gram\\'s stain well?
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too thin to be visualized (use darkfield microscopy and antibody staining)
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Name 5 species of bacteria that are transmitted to humans from animals.(Acronym: BBugs From Your Pet.)
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Borrelia burgdorferi - Brucella spp. - Francisella tularensis - Yersinia pestis - Pasteurella multocida
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All Rickettsiae (except one genus) are transmitted by what type of vector?
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arthropod (Coxiella is atypical: transmitted by aeresol)
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Are G(-) bugs resistant to Pen G? to ampicillin? to vancomycin?
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G- bugs are resistant to PenG but may be susceptible to pen. derivative like ampicillin. The G- outer mb inhibits entry of PenG and vancomycin.
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Are Strep. pneumoniae sensitve to optochin? Are Viridans strep.?
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Strep. pneumoniae is optochin-Sensitive - Viridans streptococci is optochin-Resistant
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Are Strep. pyogenes Bacitracin-sensitive?
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YES.
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Are Viridans strep. alpha, beta, or non-hemolytic?
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alpha
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Because of drug resistance, what in an alternate treatment combination for leprosy?
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rifampin with dapsone and clofazimine
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Besides the rash, what other body systems are affected by Lyme disease? (3)
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joints -CNS -heart
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Describe lab-findings for Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
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Aerobic, G(-) rod. - Non-lactose fermenting - Oxidase positive - Produces pyocyanin (blue-green pigment)
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Describe the disease associated with M. avium-intracellulare.
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often resistant to multiple drugs; causes disseminated disease in AIDS.
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Describe the H. flu vaccine. When is it given?
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contains type b capsulare polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein. -Given b/t 2m and 18m.
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Describe the typical findings with diarrhea caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli. (3)
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1) Ferments lactose 2) watery diarrhea 3) no fever/leukocytosis
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Describe the typical findings with Vibro cholerae. (3)
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1) Comma-shaped organisms 2) rice-water stools 3) no fever/leukocytosis
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Do Streptococcus pneumonia have catalase? Do Viridans Strep. have catalase?
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NO. both are catalase -
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Enterococci are hardier than nonenterococcal group D bacteria. What lab conditions can they grow in?
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6.5% NaCl (used as lab test)
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Following primary infection with TB, if preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination occurs, what follows?
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=-dormant tubercle bacilli form in several organs - REACTIVATION can occur in adult life
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Following primary infection with TB, if severe bacteremia occurs, what follows?
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Miliary tuberculosis and possibly death
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Following primary infection with TB, if the lesion heals by fibrosis, what is the result?
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Immunity and hypersensitivity---> tuberculin positive
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Following primary infection with TB, under what conditions would the lesion likely progress to lung disease?
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HIV, malnutrition. This progressive lung disease can rarely lead to death.
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Following primary infection with TB, what are 4 possible courses the disease could take?
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1) Heals by fibrosis 2) Progressive lung disease 3) Severe bacteremia 4) Preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination
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Give 3 examples of obligate anaerobes.
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Clostridium - Bacteroides - Actinomyces
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Give 3 types of infection Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly responsible for.
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1) burn wound infection 2) nosocomial pneumonia 3) pneumonia with cystic fibrosis
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Give 4 examples of encapsulated bacteria.
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1) Strep. pneumoniae 2) Haemophilus influenza (especially b) 3) Neisseria memingitidis 4) Klebsiella pneumoniae
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H. flu causes what? (4)
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Epiglottitis -Meningitis -Otitis media -Pneumonia (haEMOPhilus)
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How are Borrelia visualized?
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using aniline dyes (Wright\\'s or Giemsa stain) in light microscopy
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How are Mycobacteria visualized in the lab?
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acid-fast stain -> Ziehl-Neelson
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How are Treponema visualized?
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by dark-field microscopy
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How can secondary tuberculosis in the lung occur?(2)
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1) Reinfection of partially immune hypersensitized hosts (usu. adults) -> exogenous source 2) Reactivation of dormant tubercle bacilli in immunocompromised or debilitated hosts -> endogenous source
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How can you remember that Viridans strep are resistant to optochin?
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they live in the mouth and are not afraid of the (opto-)CHIN
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How does primary syphilis present?
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with a painless chancre (localized disease; 2-10 wks).
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How does secondary syphilis present?
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disseminated disease (1-3m later) with constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash, condylomata lata (genital lesions)
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How does tertiary syphilis present?
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gummas (granulomas), aortitis, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis), Argyll-Robertson pupil
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How does the bacterium cause the disease?
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via exotoxin encoded by beta-prophage; exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
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How does the rash with typhus differ from the rash with RMSF?
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typhus: maculopapillary rash BEGINS ON TRUNCK, moves peripherally -RMSF: macules progressing to petichiae BEGIN ON HANDS &FFET and move inward.
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How is Brucellosis/Undulant fever transmitted?
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dairy products, contact with animals
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How is Cellulitis transmitted?
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Animal bite; cats, dogs
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How is H. flu transmitted?
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aeresol
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How is Legionnaires\\' disease diagnosed in lab?
|
use silver stain (doesn\\'t Gram stain well) -culture with charcoal yeast extract with iron and cysteine.
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How is Legionnaires\\' disease transmitted?
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aeresol transmission from envirnomental water source habitat (NO human-to-human transmission).
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How is Lyme disease transmitted?
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Tick bite; Ixodes ticks that live of deer and mice
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How is Shigella spread?
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food, fingers, feces, and flies\\'
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How is the Plague transmitted?
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Flea bite; rodents, especially prairie dogs
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How is Tuleremia transmitted?
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Tick bite; rabbits, deer
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Is Bacillus anthracis G+ or G-? What is its morphology?
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It is a G+, spore-forming rod
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Is there an animal reservoir for leprosy?
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Yes, armadillos in the US
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List 5 findings associated with rheumatic fever. (Hint: PECCS)
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Polyarthritis - Erythema marginatum -Chorea - Carditis - Subcutaneous nodules
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List the \\'ABCDEFG\\' of diphtheria.
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ADP ribosylation -Beta-prophage -Corynebacterium - Diphtheria - Elongation Factor 2 - Granules
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Name 2 alpha-hemolytic bacteria.
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Strep. pneumoniae - Viridans streptococci
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Name 2 bugs that cause diarrhea but NOT fever and leukocytosis?
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E. coli and Vibro cholerae
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Name 2 disease processes that can be caused by enterococci.
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1) UTI 2) subacute endocarditis
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Name 2 species of enterococci.
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Enterococcus faecalis -Enterococcus faecium
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Name 2 symptoms of diphtheria.
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pseudomembraneous pharyngitis (grayish white membrane) - lymphadenopathy
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Name 3 spore forming bacteria.
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Bacillus anthracis - Clostridium perfringens - C. tetani
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Name 4 beta-hemolytic bacteria.
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1) Staph. aureus 2) Strep. pyogenes (GAS) 3) Strep. agalactiae (GBS) 4) Listeria monocytogenes
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Name 4 lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria.
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Klebsiella -E. coli -Enterobacter Citrobacter (think Lactose is KEE for first three listed)
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Name 4 obligate aerobic bacteria.
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Norcardia - Pserudomonas aeruginosa - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Bacillus
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Name 5 bugs that cause watery diarrhea.
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1) Vibrio cholerae 2) enterotoxigenic E. coli 3) viruses (rotavirus) 4) protozoa (Cryptosporidium and (5) Giardia)
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Name 6 bugs that cause bloody diarrhea.
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1) Salmonella 2) Shigella 3) Campylobacter jejuni 4) enterohemorrhagic/enteroinvasive E.coli 5) Yersinia enterocilitica 6) Entamoeba histolytica (a protozoan)
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Name 7 faculatative intracellular bacteria.
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1) Mycobacterium 2) Brucella 3) Francisella 4) Listeria 5) Yersinia 6) Legionella 7) Salmonella
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Name three genera of spirochetes.
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Borrelia (big size) - Leptospira -Treponema (think: BLT; B is big)
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Name two lab tests used to detect syphilis?
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VDRL and FTA-ABS
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Name two non-lactose fermenting bacteria that invade intestinal mucosa and can cause bloody diarrhea.
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Salmonella and Shigella
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Name two obligate intracellular bacteria.
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Rickettsia and Chlamydia (Hint: \\'stay inside when its Really Cold.\\')
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RMSF is endemic to what part of the US?
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the East Coast (in spite of the name)
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Spore are formed by certain species of what type of bacteria?
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Gram+ rods, usually in soil; form spores only when nutrients are limited
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T/F Chlamydia are obligate intracellular parasites that cause mucosal infections.
|
TRUE
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T/F Chlamys means cloak.
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TRUE (intracellular)
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T/F Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase negative and are glucose fermenters.
|
TRUE
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T/F H. pylori infection is a risk factor for peptic ulcer and gastric carcinoma.
|
TRUE
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T/F Penicillin is not an effective treatment against Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
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TRUE Mycoplama are naturally resistant b/c they have no cell wall.
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T/F Pseudomonas produces both endotoxin and exotoxin.
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TRUE: endotoxin---> fever, shock -exotoxin---> inactivates EF-2
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|
T/F Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular parasites and need CoA and NAD.
|
TRUE
|
|
|
T/F Some enterococci are resistant to PenG.
|
FALSE: ALL enterococci are naturally resistant to Pen/cephlosporins.
|
|
|
T/F Spores have no metabolic activity.
|
TRUE
|
|
|
T/F: S. aureus food poisoning is due to the ingestion of bacteria that rapidly secrete toxin once they enter the GI tract.
|
FALSE: rapid onset of S. aureus food poisoning is due to injestion of PREFORMED toxin
|
|
|
The Weil-Felix reaction usually tests positive for what two diseases? Negative for what? Cross reacts with what?
|
Positive: typhus and RMSF -Negative: Q fever -Cross-reacts: with Proteus antigen
|
|
|
Think COFFEe for Enterobacteriaceae. What does that stand for?
|
Capsular -O-antigen -Flagellar antigen -Ferment glucose -Enterobacteriaceae
|
|
|
What\\'s a pneumonic for remembering 4 obligate aerobes?
|
Nagging Pests Must Breath (-> Norcardia - Pserudomonas aeruginosa - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Bacillus
|
|
|
What (6) infections can Pseudomonas aeruginosa cause?
|
burn-wound infections -Pneumonia (esp. in cystic fibrosis) -Sepsis (black skin lesions) -External Otitis (swimmer\\'s ear) - UTI -hot tub folliculitis
|
|
|
What 2 bugs can cause bloody diarrhea, fever, and leukocytosis, but do not ferment lactose?
|
Salmonella and Shigella
|
|
|
What animals carry Lyme disease?
|
The Ixodes tick transmits it. - Deer are required for tick life cycle. - Mice are important resservoirs.
|
|
|
What anitbody class is necessary for an immune response to encapsulated bacteria?
|
IgG2.
|
|
|
What are 2 disease processes caused by Viridans strep and what species are responsible?
|
1) dental caries: Strep. mutans 2) bacterial endocarditis: Strep. sanguis
|
|
|
What are 2 options for triple thearpy treatment of H. pylori?
|
(1) bismuth (Pepto-Bismal), metronidazole, and tetracyclin or amoxicillin. OR (2) metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin (#2 is more expensive)
|
|
|
What are 3 advantages/differences between VDRL and FTA-ABS?
|
FTA-ABS is 1) more specific 2) positive earlier in disease 3) remains positive longer than VDRL
|
|
|
What are 3 disease processes caused by Strep. pyogenes?
|
1) Pyogenic--pharyngitis, cellulitis, skin infection 2) Toxigenic--scarlet fever, TSS 3) Immunologic--rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis
|
|
|
What are 4 biological false positives for VDRL?
|
1) Viruses (mono, hepatitis) 2) Drugs 3) Rheumatic fever and rheumatic arthritis 4) Lupus and leprosy (-> VDRL)
|
|
|
What are 4 clinical symptoms of \\'walking\\' pneumonia?
|
1) insidious onset 2) headache 3) nonproductive cough 4) diffuse interstitial infiltrate
|
|
|
What are 4 clinical symptoms of TB?
|
1) fever 2) night sweats 3) weight loss 4) hemoptysis
|
|
|
What are 5 areas that can be affected by extrapulmonary TB?
|
1) CNS (parenchmal tuberculoma or meningitis) 2) Vertebral body (Pott\\'s disease) 3) Lymphadenitis 4) Renal 5) GI
|
|
|
What are the culture requirement for H. flu?
|
culture on chocolate agar with factor V (NAD) and X (hematin). [Think: \\'Child has \\'flu\\'; mom goes to five (V) and dime (X) store to buy chocolate.\\']
|
|
|
What are the lab findings with Chlamydia?
|
cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa fluorescent antibody-stains smear
|
|
|
What are the symptoms of RMSF? (3)
|
1) rash on palms and soles (migrating to wrists, ankles, then trunck) 2) headache 3) fever
|
|
|
What are the three stages of Lyme disease?
|
1) erythema chronicum migrans, flu-like symptoms 2) neurologic and cardiac manefestations 3) autoimmune migratory polyarthritis
|
|
|
What are the two forms of chlamydia?
|
1) Elementary body (small, dense): Enters cell via endocytosis 2) Initial or Reticulate body: Replicates in the cell by fission
|
|
|
What are the two forms of leprosy (or Hansen\\'s disease)?
|
1) lepromatous- failed cell-mediated immunity, worse 2) tuberculoid- self-limited.
|
|
|
What are two drugs that could be used to treat \\'walking\\' pneumonia?
|
tetracycline or erythromycin
|
|
|
What are two drugs that could treat Chlmydia?
|
erythromycin or tetracycline
|
|
|
What are two lab findings associated with \\'walking\\' pneumonia?
|
1) X-ray looks worse than patient 2)High titer of cold agglutinins (IgM)
|
|
|
What are usually associated with pseudomembraneous colitis?
|
Clostridium difficile; it kills enterocytes, usu. is overgrowth secondary to antibiotic use (esp. clindamycin or ampicillin)
|
|
|
What bacteria are G+, spore-forming, anaerobic bacilli?
|
Clostridia
|
|
|
What bacteria causes a malignant pustule (painless ulcer); black skin lesions that are vesicular papules covered by a blak eschar?
|
Bacillus anthracis
|
|
|
What bacteria exhibits a \\'tumbling\\' motility, is found in unpasteurized milk, and causes meningitis in newborns?
|
Listeria monocytogenes
|
|
|
What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-resistant?
|
Strep. agalactiae
|
|
|
What bacteria is catalase(-) and bacitracin-sensitive?
|
Strep. pyogenes
|
|
|
What bacteria is catalase+ and coagulase+?
|
Staph. aureus
|
|
|
What bacteria produces alpha-toxin, a hemolytic lecithinase that causes myonecrosis or gas gangrene?
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
|
What bacterium causes Cellulitis?
|
Pasteurella multocida
|
|
|
What bacterium causes leprosy?
|
Mycobacterium leprae
|
|
|
What bacterium causes Lyme disease?
|
Borrelia burgdorferi
|
|
|
What bacterium causes the Plague?
|
Yersinia pestis
|
|
|
What bacterium causes Tularemia?
|
Francisella tularensis
|
|
|
What bacterium causes Undulant fever?
|
Brucella spp. (a.k.a. Brucellosis)
|
|
|
What bug causes atypical \\'walking\\' pneumonia?
|
Mycoplama pneumoniae
|
|
|
What bug causes gastroenteritis and up to 90% of duodenal ulcers?
|
Helicobacter pylori
|
|
|
What bug causes Legionnaire\\'s disease?
|
Legionella pneumophila
|
|
|
What bug is associated with burn wound infections?
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
|
What bug is comma- or S-shaped and grows at 42C, and causes bloody diarrhea with fever and leukocytosis?
|
Campylobacter jejuni
|
|
|
What bug that causes diarrhea is usually transmitted from pet feces (e.g. puppies)?
|
Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
|
What causes tetanus? (give bacteria and disease process)
|
Clostridium tetani: exotoxin produced blocks glycine release (inhibitory NT) from Renshaw cells in spinal cord
|
|
|
What causes the flu?
|
NOT H. flu -it is caused by influenza virus
|
|
|
What chemical is found in the core of spores?
|
dipicolinic acid
|
|
|
What coccobacillus causes vaginosis: greenish vaginal discharge with a fishy smell; nonpainful?
|
Gardnerella vaginalis
|
|
|
What disease does Bordetella perussis cause? How?
|
Whooping cough: toxin permanently disables G-protein in respiratory mucosa (turns the \\'off\\' off);ciliated epithelial cells are killed; mucosal cells are overactive.
|
|
|
What disease does Vibrio cholerae cause? How?
|
Cholera: toxin permanently activates G-protein in intestinal mucosa (turns the \\'on\\' on) causing rice-water diarrhea
|
|
|
What disease is caused by Borrelia?
|
Lyme Disease
|
|
|
What disease is caused by Clostridium botulinum? What pathophys. does it cause?
|
Botulism: associated with contaminated canned food, produces a preformed, heat-labile toxin that inhibits ACh release---> flaccid paralysis.
|
|
|
What diseases (2) are caused by Treponema?
|
Syphilis (T. pallidum) -yaws (T. pertenue; not and STD)
|
|
|
What diseases can be caused by Staph. aureus?
|
Inflammatory disease: skin infections, organ abcess, pneumonia - Toxin-mediated disease: Toxic Shock Syn., scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), rapid onset food poisoning (enterotoxins)
|
|
|
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes A, B, and C cause?
|
chronic infection, cause blindness in Africa (ABC-> Africa / Blindness / Chronic
|
|
|
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K cause? (3)
|
urethritis/ PID - neonatal pneumonia -neonatal conjuctivitis
|
|
|
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1,L2, and L3 cause?
|
lymphogranuloma venereum (acute lymphadentis: positive Frei test)
|
|
|
What do RMSF, syphilis, and coxsackievirus A infection have in common?
|
rash on palm and sole is seen in each (coxasackievirus A -> hand, foot, and mouth disease)
|
|
|
What does catalase do? Which bacteria have it?
|
it degrades H2O2, an antimicrobial product of PMNs. - Staphlococci make catalase; Strep. do NOT.
|
|
|
What does the H-antigen represent?
|
H: flagellar antigen, found on motile species
|
|
|
What does the K-antigen represent?
|
K: capsular, relates to virulence
|
|
|
What does the O-antigen represent?
|
O-antigen is the polysaccharide of endotoxin (found on all species)
|
|
|
What does VDRL detect? (It detects non-specific antibody that reacts with what?)
|
detects antibody that reacts with beef cardiolipin
|
|
|
What drug of choice is used to treat Norcardia? Actinomyces? (Acronym: SNAP)
|
Sulfa for Norcarida, Actinomyces gets Penicillin
|
|
|
What enteric bacterial infection may be prolonged with antibiotic treatment?
|
Salmonellosis
|
|
|
What enzyme allows H. pylori to creat an alkaline environment?
|
urease (cleaves urea to ammonia); used in urease breath test
|
|
|
What family includes E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, and Proteus?
|
Enterobacteriaceae
|
|
|
What family of bacteria uses the O-, K-, and H-antigen nomenclature?
|
Enterobacteriaceae
|
|
|
What function does the capsule serve? (2: one for the bacterium, one other)
|
1) antiphagocytic 2) antigen in vaccines (Pneumovax, H. flu b, meningococcal vaccines)
|
|
|
What G+ anaerobe causes oral/facial abscesses with \\'sulfur granules\\' that may drain through sinus tracts in skin?
|
Acinomyces israelii
|
|
|
What G+ and also weakly acid fast aorobe found in soil causes pulmonary infections in immunocompromised patients?
|
Norcardia asteroides
|
|
|
What general type of bacteria are normal flora in GI tract but pathogenic elsewhere?
|
Anaerobes
|
|
|
What general type of bacteria grow pink colonies on MacConkey\\'s agar?
|
Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria
|
|
|
What is a Ghon complex and in whom does it occur?
|
Occurs in Primary TB (usually a child) -Ghon complex-> draining Hilar nodes and Ghon focus, exudative parenchymal lesion (usu. in LOWER lobes of lung)
|
|
|
What is a lab diagnosis of diphtheria based on?
|
G+ rods with metachromatic granules; grows on tellurite agar. (Coryne-> club shaped)
|
|
|
What is a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella observable in the lab?
|
Salmonella are motile; Shigella are nonmotile
|
|
|
What is a positive Quellung reaction?
|
if encapsulated bug is present, capsule SWELLS when specific anticapsular antisera are added.
|
|
|
What is notable about Chrmydia psittaci?
|
has an avian reservoir
|
|
|
What is one reason M. leparae infects skin and superficial nerves?
|
It likes cool temperatures
|
|
|
What is the classic symptom of Lyme Disease?
|
erythema chronicum migrans, an expanding \\'bull\\'s eys\\' red rash with central clearing.
|
|
|
What is the classic triad of symptoms associated with Rickettsiae?
|
1) headache 2) fever 3) rash (vasiculitis)
|
|
|
What is the common manifestation of secondary TB?
|
Fibrocaseous cavitary lesion usu. in APICIES of lung
|
|
|
What is the common site of infection for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
|
the apicies of the lung (which have the highest PO2)
|
|
|
What is the D.O.C. to treat Gardnerella vaginalis?
|
Metroidazole
|
|
|
What is the DOC for treating rickettsial infections?
|
tetracycline
|
|
|
What is the DOC for treatment of most rickettsial infections?
|
tetracycline
|
|
|
What is the DOC to treat Lyme Disease?
|
tetracycline
|
|
|
What is the DOC to treat syphilis?
|
Penicillin G
|
|
|
What is the drug of choice for H. flu meningitis? What DOC for prophylaxis in close-contacts?
|
Treat meningitis with CEFTRIAXONE; Rifampin for prophylaxis.
|
|
|
What is the drug of choice for Legionaires\\' disease?
|
Erythromycin
|
|
|
What is the morphology of H. flu?
|
Small G(-) (coccobacillary) rod
|
|
|
What is the morphology of H. pylori?
|
Gram (-) rod
|
|
|
What is the primary drug used to treat leprosy?
|
dapsone (toxicity is hemolysis and methemoglobinemia)
|
|
|
What is the recommended treatment for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
|
aminoglycoside plus extended-spectrum penicillin (e.g. piperacillin or ticarcillin)
|
|
|
What is the source of infection and the bacterium that causes endemic typhus?
|
R. typhi; from fleas
|
|
|
What is the source of infection and the bacterium that causes epidemic typhus?
|
R. prowazekii; from human body louse
|
|
|
What is the source of infection and the bacterium that causes Q fever?
|
Coxiella burnetii; from inhaled aersols
|
|
|
What is the source of infection and the bacterium that causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
|
Rickettsia rickettsii; from tick bite
|
|
|
What is the toxin responsible for TSS is Staph. aureus?
|
TSST-1; it is a superantigen that binds to class II MHC and T-cell receptors---> polyclonal T-cell activation
|
|
|
What is the unique component found in Mycoplamsa bacterial membranes?
|
cholesterol
|
|
|
What is the unique feature of Chlamydiae cell walls?
|
its peptidoglycan wall lacks muramic acid
|
|
|
What is woolsorter\\'s disease?
|
inhalation anthrax; can cause life-threatening pneumonia
|
|
|
What lab test assays for antirickettsial antibodies?
|
Weil-Felix reaction
|
|
|
What Lancefield Antigen Group are enterococci in?
|
Group D
|
|
|
What Lancefield Antigen Group are Viridans strep in?
|
They are non-typealbe. They do not have a C-carbohydrate on their cell wall to be classified by.
|
|
|
What level of disinfection is required to kill spores?
|
autoclaving; they are highly resistant to destruction by heat and chemicals
|
|
|
What populations are most likely to get Mycoplama pneumoniae infection?
|
patients younger than age 30 - military recruits - prisons
|
|
|
What rickettsial disease is atypical in that it has no rash, no vector, negative Weil-Felix reaction, and its causative organism can survive outside for a long time?
|
Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)
|
|
|
What species are associated with food poisoning in contaminated seafood?
|
Vibrio parahaemolytica and Virbrio vulnificus
|
|
|
What species causes diphtheria?
|
Corynebacterium diptheriae
|
|
|
What species is associated with food poisoning in improperly canned foods (bulging cans)?
|
Clostridium botulinum
|
|
|
What species is associated with food poisoning in meats, mayonnaise, and custard?
|
Staphylococcus aureus (this food poisoining usu. starts quickly and ends quickly)
|
|
|
What species is associated with food poisoning in poultry, meat, and eggs?
|
Salmonella
|
|
|
What species is associated with food poisoning in reheated meat dishes?
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
|
What species is associated with food poisoning in reheated rice?
|
Bacillus cereus (\\'Food poisoning from reheated rice? Be serious!\\')
|
|
|
What species is associated with food poisoning in undercooked meat and unpasteurized juices?
|
E. coli 0157-H7
|
|
|
What species of Mycobacteria causes pulmonary, TB-like symptoms?
|
M. kansasii
|
|
|
What strain of Haemophilus influenza causes most invasive disease?
|
capsular type b
|
|
|
What symptoms are associated with M. scrofulaceum
|
cervical lymphadenitis in kids
|
|
|
What test differentiates Viridans from S. pneumoniae?
|
Viridans are resistant to optochin; S. pneu. are sensitive to optochin
|
|
|
What two bugs secrete exotoxins that act via ADP ribosylation of G-proteins, permanently activating adenyl cyclase (resulting in increased cAMP)?
|
Vibrio cholerae - Bordetella pertussis
|
|
|
What two genera of G+ rods form long branching filaments resembling fungi?
|
Acinomyces and Nocardia
|
|
|
What type of bacteria are difficult to culture, produce gas in tissue (CO2 and H2), and are generally foul-smelling?
|
Anaerobes
|
|
|
What type of bacteria is associated with rusty sputum, sepsis in sickle cell, and splenectomy?
|
Pneumoccocus
|
|
|
What type of E. coli are associated with bloody diarrhea?
|
enterohemmoragic/ enteroinvasive E. coli
|
|
|
What type of immunologic response is elicited by a Salmonella infection?
|
monocyte response
|
|
|
What types of infection can chlamydia cause? (4)
|
arthritis - conjunctivitis - pneumonia - nongonococcal urethritis
|
|
|
What virulence factor of Staph. aureus binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis?
|
Protein A
|
|
|
What virulence factor of Strep. pyogenes also serves as an antigen to which the host makes antibodies?
|
M-protein
|
|
|
What will likely be visible under the microscope in the case of Gardnerella vaginallis infection?
|
Clue cell, or vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria
|
|
|
Where are Viridans strep. found (reservoir)?
|
normal flora of oropharynx
|
|
|
Where are when is Lyme disease common?
|
common in northeast US in summer months
|
|
|
Which disease/toxin causes lymphocytosis? (Cholera or Pertussis)
|
Pertussis toxin: by inhibiting chemokine receptors
|
|
|
Which has an animal reservoir? (Salmonella or Shigella)
|
Salmonella: poultry, meat, eggs
|
|
|
Which is more specific for syphilis: VDRL or FTA-ABS?
|
FTA-ABS is more specific
|
|
|
Which is more virulent? (Salmonella or Shigella)
|
Shigella (10^1 organisms vs. Salmonella 10^5 organisms)
|
|
|
Which is motile? (Salmonella or Shigella)
|
Salmonella (think: salmon swim)
|
|
|
Which species of chlamydia causes and atypical pneumonia? How is it transmitted?
|
C. pneumonia -transmitted via aeresol
|
|
|
Which two species of chlamydia infect only humans?
|
C. trachomatis -C. pneumoniae
|
|
|
Why are anaerobes susceptible to oxygen?
|
they lack catalase and/or oxidase and are susceptible to oxidative damage
|
|
|
Why does TB usually infect the upper lobes of the lung?
|
M.tuberculosis is an aerobe; there is more oxygen at the apicies
|
|
|
Why must rickettsia and chlamydia always be intracellular?
|
they can\\'t make their own ATP
|
|
|
Are most fungal spores asexual?
|
yes
|
|
|
Are most P. Carinii infections symptomatic?
|
no, most of are asymptomatic
|
|
|
Are the above mentioned systemic mycoses dimorphic?
|
yes, except coccioidomycosis which is a spherule in tissue
|
|
|
How do the S. Schenckii yeast appear in the pus?
|
Cigar-shaped budding yeast
|
|
|
How do you diagnose cryptosporidium?
|
cysts on acid fast stain
|
|
|
How do you diagnose giardiasis?
|
Trophozoites or cysts in stool
|
|
|
How do you get P. Carinii?
|
Inhalation
|
|
|
How do you treat systemic mycoses?
|
fluconazole or ketoconazole for local infection, amphotericin B for systemic infection
|
|
|
How do you Tx S. Schenckii?
|
Itraconazole or Potassium Iodide
|
|
|
How does Aspergillus appear microscopically?
|
Mold with septate hyphae that branch at a V-shaped (45 degree angle) , they are NOT dimorphic
|
|
|
How does Mucor species appear microscopically?
|
It is a mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles>90 degrees
|
|
|
How does Paracocciodioidomycosis appear histologically?
|
Captain\\'s wheel\\' appearance (like on a sailboat)
|
|
|
How is Clonorchis sinensis transmitted and what disease results?
|
undercooked fish; causes inflammation of the biliary tract
|
|
|
How is Schistosoma transmitted and what disease results?
|
snails are host; cercariae penetrate skin of humans; causes granulomas, fibrosis, and inflammation of the spleen and liver
|
|
|
How is Ancylostoma Duodenale transmitted and what disease results?
|
Larvae penetrate skin of feet; intestinal infection can cause anemia
|
|
|
How is Ascaris Lumbricoides transmitted and what disease results?
|
Eggs are visible in feces; intestinal infection
|
|
|
How is cryptosporidium transmitted?
|
Cysts in Water
|
|
|
How is Dracunculus medinensis transmitted and what disease results?
|
In drinking water; sink inflammation and ulceration
|
|
|
How is E. granulosis transmitted and what disease results?
|
Eggs in dog feces cause cysts in liver; causes anaphylaxis if echinococcal antigens released from cysts
|
|
|
How is E. Histolytica transmitted?
|
Cysts in Water
|
|
|
How is Enterobius Vermicularis transmitted and what disease results?
|
food contaminated with eggs; intestinal infections; causes anal pruritus
|
|
|
How is giardia transmitted?
|
Cysts in Water
|
|
|
How is Loa loa transmitted and what disease results?
|
Transmitted by deer fly; causes swelling the in the skin (can see worm crawling in conjunctiva)
|
|
|
How is malaria dx?
|
Blood smear
|
|
|
How is malaria transmitted?
|
mosquito (Anopheles)
|
|
|
How is Onchocerca volvulus transmitted and what disease results?
|
transmitted by female blackflies; causes river blindness
|
|
|
How is Paragonimus Westermani transmitted and what disease results?
|
Undercooked crab meat; causes inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung
|
|
|
How is Sporothrix schenckii appear under the scope?
|
Dimorphic fugus that lives on vegetation
|
|
|
How is Strongyloides Stercoralis transmitted and what disease results?
|
larvae in soil penetrate the skin; intestinal infection
|
|
|
How is T. Canis transmitted and what disease results?
|
food contaminated with eggs; causes granulomas (if in retina-> blindness)
|
|
|
How is T. Solium transmitted and what disease results?
|
undercooked pork tapeworm; causes mass lesions in the brain, cysticercosis
|
|
|
How is T. Vaginalis transmitted?
|
sexually
|
|
|
How is Toxo transmitted?
|
cysts in meat or cat feces
|
|
|
How is Trichinella Spiralis transmitted and what disease results?
|
undercooked meat, usually pork; inflammation of muscle, periorbital edema
|
|
|
How is Wucheria transmitted and what disease results?
|
female mosquito; causes blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)
|
|
|
In what cells do you find histoplasmosis?
|
macrophages
|
|
|
Is Pneumocystis Carinii a yeast?
|
Yes, but originally classified as a Protozoa
|
|
|
Microscopically how does Candida appear?
|
budding yeast with pseudohyphae, germ tube formation at 37 degrees C)
|
|
|
Name 3 Trematodes (Flukes) .
|
Schistosoma, Clonorchis sinensis, Paragonimus Westermani
|
|
|
Name 4 opportunistic fungal infections.
|
Candida Albicans, Aspergillus fumigatus, Cryptococcus Neoformans, Mucor and Rhizopus species
|
|
|
Name 4 systemic mycoses.
|
Coccidiomycosis, Histoplasmosis, Paracoccidioidomycosis, Blastomycosis
|
|
|
Name two asexual spores transmitted by inhalation.
|
Hisoplasmosis and Coccidiodomycosis
|
|
|
Name two Cestodes (Tapeworms) .
|
Taenia Solium, and Echinococcus Ganulosus
|
|
|
What agar is used to culture for systemic mycoses?
|
Sabouraud\\'s Agar
|
|
|
What are Conidia?
|
asexual fungal spores (ex. Blastoconidia, and arthroconidia)
|
|
|
What are some common Candida infections?
|
Thrush in Immunocompromised pts (neonates, patients on steroids, diabetics and AIDS pts) , endocarditis in IV drug users, vaginitis (high pH, Diabetes, post-antibiotic) , diaper rash, disseminated candidiasis (to any organ)
|
|
|
What are some infections caused by cryptococcus?
|
Cryptococcal meningitis, cryptococcosis
|
|
|
What are the 10 Nematodes (roundworms) we are concerned with?
|
Ancylostoma duodenale (hookworm) , Ascaris Lumbricoides, Enterobius Vermicularis (pinworm) , Strongyloides stercoralis, Trichinella Spiralis, Dracunculus Medinensis, Loa loa, Onchocerca Volvulus, Toxocara Canis, Wucheria Bancrofti
|
|
|
What are the 4 B\\'s of Blastomycosis?
|
Big, Broad-Based, Budding
|
|
|
What are the diseases caused by Cryptosporidium?
|
Severe diarrhea in AIDS, Mild disease (watery diarrhea) in non-HIV
|
|
|
What are the diseases caused by Toxoplasma?
|
Brain Abscess in HIV and birth defects
|
|
|
What are the infections caused by Aspergillus?
|
Ear fungus, Lung cavity Aspergilloma (\\'fungus ball\\') , invasive aspergillosis.
|
|
|
What can systemic mycoses mimic?
|
TB (granuloma formation)
|
|
|
What disease are caused by Entamoeba Histolytica?
|
Amebiasis: bloody diarrhea, dysentery, liver abscess, RUQ pain
|
|
|
What disease does Mucor species cause?
|
Mucormycosis
|
|
|
What disease does Pneumocystis carinii cause?
|
Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia
|
|
|
What disease does Sporothrix Schenckii cause?
|
Sprotricosis
|
|
|
What disease does Trypanosoma Cruzi casue?
|
Chaga\\'s Disease (heart disease)
|
|
|
What disease is caused by Giardia Lamblia?
|
Giardiasis: bloating, flatulence, foul-smelling diarrhea
|
|
|
What disease is caused by Leishmanina donovani?
|
Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)
|
|
|
What disease is caused by P. Carinii?
|
Diffuse interstitial pneumonia in HIV
|
|
|
What disease is caused by the plasmodium species (vivax, ovale, malariae, falciparum) ?
|
Malaria: cyclic fever, headache, anemia, splenomegaly
|
|
|
What disease is caused by Trypanosma Gambiense and Rhodesiense?
|
African Sleeping sickness
|
|
|
What disesase does Trichomonas Vaginalis cause?
|
Vaginitis: foul-smeilling, greenish discharge; itching and burning
|
|
|
What do you tx P. Carinii with?
|
TMP-SMZ, or pentamidine, or dapsone
|
|
|
What do you use to culture cryptococcus?
|
Asabouraud\\'s Agar
|
|
|
What do you use to Diagnose E. Histolytica?
|
Serology and/or trophozoites or cysts in stool
|
|
|
What do you use to stain Cryptococcus?
|
India Ink
|
|
|
What do you use to tx cryptosporidium?
|
nothing
|
|
|
What do you use to Tx Giardiasis?
|
Metronidazole
|
|
|
What do you use to tx T. Vaginalis?
|
Metronidazole
|
|
|
What do you used to dx P. Carinii?
|
Lung biopsy or lavage, methenamine silver stain
|
|
|
What do you used to Tx Candida Albicans?
|
Nystatin for superficial infection, Amphotericin B for systemic
|
|
|
What does Alba mean?
|
white
|
|
|
What does dimorphic mean?
|
fungi that are mold in the soil (low temp) and yeast in tissue (higher/body temp 37 C)
|
|
|
What is diagnositic for L. donovani?
|
Macrophages containg amastigotes
|
|
|
What is diagnositic of T. Vaginalis?
|
Trophozoites on wet mount
|
|
|
What is histoplasmosis associated with?
|
bird or bat droppings
|
|
|
What is the progression of S. Schenckii infection?
|
traumatic introduction into the skin, typically by a thorn (\\'rose gardner\\'s\\' disease) , causes local pustule or ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis) . Little systemic illness.
|
|
|
What is the vector for L. donovani?
|
Sandfly
|
|
|
What is the vector for T. Cruzi?
|
Reduviid Bug
|
|
|
What is the vector for T. Gambiense and Rhodesiense?
|
Tstese fly
|
|
|
What is used to dx African sleeping sickness?
|
Blood smear
|
|
|
What is used to dx T. Cruzii?
|
blood smear
|
|
|
What is used to dx toxoplasma?
|
serology and biopsy
|
|
|
What is used to treat D. Medinensis?
|
Niridazole
|
|
|
What is used to Treat E. Histolytica?
|
Metronidazole and Iodoquinol
|
|
|
What is used to tx african sleeping sickness?
|
Suramin for bloodborne disease or melaroprol for CNS penetration
|
|
|
What is used to tx Ancylostoma duodenale?
|
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
|
|
|
What is used to tx Ascaris Lumbricoides?
|
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
|
|
|
What is used to tx Clonorhis sinensis?
|
Praziquantel
|
|
|
What is used to tx E. Granulosus?
|
Albendazole
|
|
|
What is used to tx E. Vermicularis?
|
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
|
|
|
What is used to tx L. Donovani?
|
Sodium Stibogluconate
|
|
|
What is used to tx Loa loa?
|
diethylcarbamazine
|
|
|
What is used to tx malaria?
|
Chloroquine ( primaquine for vivax, ovale) , sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine, mefloquine, quinine
|
|
|
What is used to tx O. Volvulus?
|
Ivermectin
|
|
|
What is used to tx Paragonimus Wetermani?
|
Praziquantel
|
|
|
What is used to tx S. Stercoralis?
|
Ivermectin/thiabendazole
|
|
|
What is used to tx schistosoma?
|
Praziquantel
|
|
|
What is used to tx T. Canis?
|
diethylcarbamazine
|
|
|
What is used to tx T. Cruzii?
|
Nifurtimox
|
|
|
What is used to tx T. Spiralis?
|
Thiabendazole
|
|
|
What is used to tx taenia solium infection?
|
Praziquantel/niclosamide; albendazole for cysticercosis
|
|
|
What is used to tx toxoplasma?
|
sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
|
|
|
What is used to tx W. Bancrofti?
|
diethylcarbamazine
|
|
|
What patient population is susceptible to Mucor disease?
|
Ketoacidotic patients and Leukemic patients
|
|
|
What stain do you use for lung tissue when you are detecting P. Carinii?
|
silver
|
|
|
What state predisposes you to P. Carinii infection?
|
Immunosuppression
|
|
|
What test can be used to detect polysaccharide capsular antigen of Cryptococcus?
|
latex agglutination test
|
|
|
What types of infections can Candida Albicans cause?
|
systemic or superficial fungal in fections
|
|
|
When do you start prophylaxis in HIV patients?
|
when the CD4 drops below 200 cells/mL
|
|
|
Where do the mucor and rhizopus species fungi proliferate?
|
in the walls of blood vessels and cause infarction of distal tissue
|
|
|
Where is Blastomycosis endemic?
|
States east of the Mississippi River and Central America
|
|
|
Where is Coccidioidomycosis endemic?
|
SWUS, California (San Joaquin Valley or destert (desert bumps) \\'Valley fever\\')
|
|
|
Where is Histoplasmosis endemic?
|
Mississippi and Ohio River valleys
|
|
|
Where is Paracoccioidomycosis endemic?
|
Rural Latin America
|
|
|
All viruses are haploid except _________?(1)
|
Retroviruses, which have two identical ssRNA molecules (diploid).
|
|
|
Bites from what 3 animals are more prone to rabies infection than a bite from a dog?
|
Bat, Raccoon, and Skunk
|
|
|
Define complementation?
|
When one of 2 viruses that infects the cell has a mutation that results in a nonfunctional protein. The nonmutated virus \\'complements\\' the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses.
|
|
|
Define genetic drift.
|
Minor changes based on random mutations.
|
|
|
Define genetic shift.
|
Reassorment of viral genome (such as when human flu A virus recombines with swin flu A virus.)
|
|
|
Define phenotypic mixing?
|
When virus A acquires virus B coat proteins and acts like virus B buts its progeny will have virus A genome and coat.
|
|
|
Define reassortment?
|
=-When viruses with segmented genomes (eg. influenza virus) exchange segments. -High frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.
|
|
|
Define recombination?
|
Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology.
|
|
|
Describe its incubation period and whether or not it has a carrier.
|
-Short incubation period (3 weeks) -No carriers
|
|
|
Describe its incubation period and whether or not it has a carrier.
|
-Long incubation (3 months) - has carriers
|
|
|
Describe the general concept of bacterial super infection which can occur with influenza infection?
|
A life-threatening illness where a bacterial infection is superimposed on an existing viral infection.
|
|
|
Describe the genetic and physical properties of influenza virus?
|
=-Enveloped -ssRNA virus with segmented genome -prone to genetic changes
|
|
|
Describe the migration of rabies within the CNS.
|
It migrates in a retrograde fashion within the CNS up n. axons.
|
|
|
Describe the physical shape and duration of incubation for rabies.
|
-Bullet-shaped capsid (illus. in book) -long incubation period (wks. - 3 months)
|
|
|
Describe the technique and purpose for performing a Tzanck test?
|
=-assay for herpes -make a smear of an opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells
|
|
|
Describe whether or not it has a carrier.
|
has carriers
|
|
|
Does HDV have carriers?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Explain the concept of a slow virus infection.
|
Virus exists in patient for months to years before it manifests as clinical disease.
|
|
|
From the following selection which classes are considered infectious and which aren\\'t: dsDNA, ds RNA, (-)ssRNA, (+)ssRNA.
|
-Infectious: dsDNA (except poxviruses and HBV) and (+)ssRNA -Noninfectious: dsRNA and (-)ssRNA
|
|
|
HCV is a common form of hepatitis in what US population?
|
IV drug users
|
|
|
How does a Monospot test work?
|
It detects heterophil antibodies by agglutination to sheep RBC\\'s
|
|
|
How is RNA translated and processed in picornaviruses?
|
RNA is translated into one long polypeptide that is cleaved by proteases into many small proteins.
|
|
|
How many segments and what sense is the RNA genome of influenza viruses?
|
-8 segments -negative sense
|
|
|
How may serotypes do paramyxoviruses have except parainfluenza which has ___?
|
-5
|
|
|
Into what class RNA or DNA to all segmented viruses fall?
|
RNA
|
|
|
Killed vaccines induce what type of immunity?
|
Humoral, with no possibility of the virus reverting to virulence
|
|
|
Live attenuated vaccines induce what type of immunity?
|
Humoral and Cellular -with a risk of the virus reverting to virulence
|
|
|
Mneumonic for rotavirus symptoms: ROTA
|
Right Out The Anus
|
|
|
Mneumonic: Hep D:
|
Defective, Dependent on HBV
|
|
|
Mneumonic: Hep E:
|
Enteric, Expectant mothers, Epidemics
|
|
|
Mneumonic: Hep A:
|
Asymptomatic (usually)
|
|
|
Mneumonic: Hep B:
|
Blood-borne
|
|
|
Mneumonic: picoRNAvirus
|
pico -> \\'small\\' RNA viruses
|
|
|
Name 2 common bacterial infections in AIDS pts.
|
TB, M. avium-intracellulare complex
|
|
|
Name 2 common protozoan infections in AIDS pts.
|
Toxoplasmosis, cryptosporidiosis
|
|
|
Name 3 members of the arborvirus family.
|
Flavivirus, Togavirus, and Bunyavirus
|
|
|
Name 3 possible sequelae of measles infection?
|
-SSPE -encephalitis -giant cell pneumonia (rare;found in immunocompromised persons)
|
|
|
Name 4 common fungal infections in AIDS pts.
|
=-Thrush (Candida ablicans) -cryptococcosis (cryptococcal meningitis) -histoplasmosis -Pneumocystis pneumonia
|
|
|
Name 4 common viral infections in AIDS pts.
|
=-HSV -VZV -CMV -progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (JC virus)
|
|
|
Name 4 herpesviruses using the mneumonic: Get herpes in a CHEVrolet.
|
=-CMV -HSV -EBV -VZV
|
|
|
Name 4 main segmented viruses using the mneumonic BOAR.
|
=-Bunyaviruses -Orthomyxoviruses (influenza virus) -Arenaviruses -Reoviruses
|
|
|
Name eveloped DNA viruses (3). HPH
|
=-Hepadna -Pox -herpes
|
|
|
Name naked DNA viruses (3). PAP
|
-Parvo -Adeno -Papova \\'You need to be naked for a PAP smear.\\'
|
|
|
Name the 3 naked RNA viruses Naked CPR).
|
=-Calcivivirus -Picornavirus -Reovirus
|
|
|
Name the characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions seen in neurons infected with rabies.
|
Negri bodies
|
|
|
Name the DNA enveloped viruses (3).
|
-Herpesviruses (herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2, VZV, CMV, EBV) -HBV -smallpox virus
|
|
|
Name the DNA nucleocapsid viruses (2).
|
Adenovirus, Papillomaviruses
|
|
|
Name the DNA viruses using the mneumonic \\'HHAPPPy viruses.\\'
|
=-Hepadnavirus -Herpesviruses -Adenovirus -Parvovirus -Papovavirus -Poxvirus
|
|
|
Name the illness caused by rabies and 2 primary symptoms.
|
Encephalitis, fatal is not prevented, with seizures and hydrophobia.
|
|
|
Name the members of the PaRaMyxovirus using the letters in bold (4 viruses).
|
=-Parainfluenza -RSV -Measles -Mumps
|
|
|
Name the recombinant vaccine available (1).
|
HBV (antigen -> recombinant HBsAg)
|
|
|
Name the RNA enveloped viruses (9).
|
=-influenza viruses -Parainfluenza viruses -RSV -Measles -Mumps -rubella -rabies -HTLV -HIV
|
|
|
Name the RNA nucleocapsid viruses (3).
|
=-Enteroviruses (poliovirus, coxsackievirus, echovirus, hepatitis a virus) -rhinovirus -reovirus.
|
|
|
Name the vaccines that are killed (4).
|
-rabies -influenza -hepatitis A -SalK-> Killed
|
|
|
Name the vaccines that are live attenuated (6).
|
=-MMR -Sabin polio -VZV -yellow fever
|
|
|
Of these 3 markers (HBsAg, HBsAb, HBcAg), which ones are positive in each of the 4 phases below: (acute disease, window phase, complete recovery, chronic carrier).
|
=-HBsAg, HBcAg -HBcAg -HBsAb, HBcAg -HBsAg, HBcAg
|
|
|
On HIV, what is gp41 and gp120?
|
envelope protein
|
|
|
On HIV, what is p24? (illus. p. 205)
|
rectangular nucleocapsid protein
|
|
|
Roughly, what are the time periods for acute, latent, and immunodeficient stages of HIV?
|
Acute: 1-3 months Latent: 3 months-3years Immunodefic.: 3 yrs.-death (diagram p. 205 that follows serologic course).
|
|
|
Statement: HEV resembles HAV in:
|
course, severity, and incubation,
|
|
|
Use the mneumonic PERCH to name members of the Picornavirus family.
|
=-poliovirus -echovirus -rhinovirus -coxsackievirus -hepatitis a
|
|
|
Viral nucleic acids with (choose) same/different nucleic acids as host are infective alone; others require special enzymes (contained in intact virion.)
|
same
|
|
|
What 2 antigens are used to classify influenza?
|
Neuraminadase, Hemagglutinin
|
|
|
What age group is the primary target of paramyxoviruses?
|
children
|
|
|
What antiviral treatment is approved for influenza A (especially prophylaxis) but not for influenza B & C
|
Amantadine and Rimantadine
|
|
|
What antiviral treatment is approved for influenza A and B?
|
Zanamivir
|
|
|
What are Councilman bodies and what are they pathomneumonic for?
|
acidophilic inclusions seen in the liver of those with yellow fever
|
|
|
What are the 3 C\\'s of measles?
|
=-Cough -Coryza -Conjunctivitis
|
|
|
What are the 4 C\\'s of HCV.
|
Chronic, Cirrhosis, Carcinoma, Carriers
|
|
|
What are the 4 most common diseases caused by prions?
|
-Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD: rapid progressive dementia) -kuru -scrapie (sheep -\\'mad cow disease\\'
|
|
|
What are the causes of SSPE and PML in immunocompromised pts.
|
=-Late sequelae of Measles -REACTIVATION of JC virus
|
|
|
What are the classic symptoms of yellow fever?
|
=-High fever -black vomitous -jaundice
|
|
|
What are the common diseases (1) and routes of transmission(1) for HHV-8?
|
-Kaposi\\'s sarcoma (HIV pts.) -sexual contact
|
|
|
What are the common diseases (2) and routes of transmission(2) for EBV?
|
-infectious mono, Burkitt\\'s lymphoma -resp. secretions, saliva
|
|
|
What are the common diseases (2) and routes of transmission(2) for HSV-2?
|
=-herpes genitalis, neonatal herpes -sexual contact, perinatal
|
|
|
What are the common diseases (3) and routes of transmission(1) for VZV?
|
=-varicella zoster (shingles) -encephalitis -pneumonia
|
|
|
What are the common diseases (3) and routes of transmission(2) for HSV-1?
|
=-gingivostomatitis keratoconjunctivitis temporal lobe encephalitis herpes labialis -respiratory secretions and saliva
|
|
|
What are the common diseases (3) and routes of transmission(6) for CMV?
|
=-congenital infection, mono, pneumonia -congenital, transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, urine, transplant
|
|
|
What are the general characteristics of a prion?
|
infectious agent that does not contain RNA or DNA, consists only of protein
|
|
|
What are the major viruses of the paramyxovirus family? (4)
|
=-Parainfluenza (croup) -RSV -Measles -Mumps
|
|
|
What are the primary symptoms of the mumps virus? (MOP)
|
-aseptic Meningitis -Orchitis -Parotitis (mumps give you bumps -> parotitis)
|
|
|
What are the primary viruses of the picornavirus family? (PERCH)
|
=-poliovirus -echovirus -rhinovirus -coxsackievirus -hepatitis a
|
|
|
What are two classic illness caused by arborviruses?
|
-dengue fever (break-bone fever) -yellow fever
|
|
|
What general form of encephalopathies do prions present as?
|
spongiform encephalopathies
|
|
|
What genetic property does segmentation afford viruses and how does this play into flu epidemics?
|
=-Segmentation allows reassorment to occur in RNA viruses -this contributes to antigenic shifts which Cause most flu pandemics.
|
|
|
What group has a high mortality rate from HEV?
|
pregnant women
|
|
|
What hematologic finding is characteristic of mono?
|
abnormal circulating cytotoxic T cells (atypical lymphocytes)
|
|
|
What is HBcAb, and what does it indicate?
|
Antibody to HBcAg; IgM HBcAb indicates recent disease
|
|
|
What is HBcAg?
|
Antigen associated with core of HBV
|
|
|
What is HBeAb, and what does it indicate?
|
Antibody to e antigen; indicates low transmissibility
|
|
|
What is HBeAg, and what does it indicate?
|
it is a 2nd different antigen marker of HBV core; indicates transmissibility (HBeAg-> Beware)
|
|
|
What is HBsAb, and what does it do?
|
Antibody to HBsAg; provides immunity to hepatitis B
|
|
|
What is HBsAg, and what does it indicate?
|
Antigen found on surface of HBV; continued presence indicates carrier state
|
|
|
What is IgM HAVAb, and what is it used to detect?
|
IgM antibody to HAV; best test to detect active hepatitis A
|
|
|
What is meant by the \\'window period\\' in HBV infection, and what is positive in this period?
|
It is the period between disappearance of HBsAg and appearance of Anti-HBs; HBcAb is pos. during this period.
|
|
|
What is the classic vector for arborvirus?
|
Arthropods (mosquitos, ticks, etc.) ARBOR-> Arthropod Borne
|
|
|
What is the function of reverse transcriptase in HIV?
|
synthesize dsDNA from RNA for integration into host genome.
|
|
|
What is the major mode of protection from influenza virus?
|
Killed viral vaccine which is reformulated each year and is given to those in high risk of infection (elderly, health-workers, etc.)
|
|
|
What is the method behind ELISA/Western blot and during what period of HIV infection are they often negative?
|
look for abs to viral proteins; false negatives common in first 1-2 months of infection
|
|
|
What is the mneumonic for remembering the Tzanck smear?
|
Tzanck heavens I don\\'t have herpes.
|
|
|
What is the only DNA virus that is not double stranded?
|
Parvoviridae (ssDNA)
|
|
|
What is the only RNA virus that has dsRNA?
|
Reoviridae [\\'repeatovirus\\' (reovirus) is dsRNA]
|
|
|
What is the viral cause of the common cold?
|
-Rhinovirus, 100+ serotypes -Rhino has a Runny nose.
|
|
|
What neurologic infection can picornaviruses (except rhinoviruses and hepatitis A viruses) cause?
|
Aseptic Meningitis
|
|
|
What physical finding is diagnostic for measles?
|
Koplik spots (bluish-gray spots on buccal mucosa)
|
|
|
What population should not receive a live vaccine?
|
Those who are immunocompromised and their close contacts.
|
|
|
What reproductive complication can mumps cause?
|
sterility; especially after puberty
|
|
|
What shape are all the DNA viruses? Which virus (1) is the exception?
|
=-Icosahedral -Poxvirus (COMPLEX)
|
|
|
What test is used to make the presumptive dx of HIV, and then, which test confirms the dx?
|
ELISA (sensitive w/ high false + and low threshold); Western blot (specific, high false - rate with high threshold)
|
|
|
What tests are gaining popularity for monitoring drug tx efficacy in HIV?
|
PCR/viral load tests
|
|
|
What type of genome does HIV have?
|
diploid RNA
|
|
|
What type of nucleic acid structure does rotavirus have?
|
segmented dsRNA
|
|
|
What type of transcription occurs and what type of polymerase does it possess?
|
=-Reverse transcription -the virion contains an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
|
|
|
What type of virus is HAV and how is it transmitted?
|
=-RNA Picornavirus -fecal-oral route
|
|
|
What type of virus is HBV and how is it transmitted?
|
=-DNA Hepadnavirus -parenteral, sexual, and maternal-fetal routes
|
|
|
What type of virus is HCV and how is it transmitted?
|
=-RNA flavivirus -via blood and resembles HBV in its course and severity
|
|
|
What type of virus is HDV and what is special about its envelope?
|
=-DELTA agent, it is a defective virus -requires HBsAg as its evelope
|
|
|
What type of virus is HEV and how is it transmitted?
|
-RNA calicivirus -enteric transmission; causes water-borne epidemics
|
|
|
What variant of dengue fever is found in Southeast Asia?
|
hemorrhagic shock syndrome
|
|
|
What virus causes and what are the classic symptoms of mononucleosis?
|
=-EBV -fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy (esp. posterior auricular nodes)
|
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What virus causes yellow (-> flavi) fever, and what is its vector and reservoirs (2)?
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=-flavivirus -Aedes mosquitos -monkey or human reservoir
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What virus is the most common global cause of infantile gastroenteritis and acute diarrhea (in the US).
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Rotavirus
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Where do enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes, and what virus is the exception to this rule?
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=-Plasma membrane -Herpesviruses which acquire their envelope from the nuclear membrane
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Where in the cell do DNA viruses replicate, and which virus is the exception to this rule?
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-Nucleus -exception: poxvirus in cytoplasm (carries DNA-dependent RNA polymerase)
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Where in the cell do RNA viruses replicate, and what 2 viruses are the exception to this rule?
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=-cytoplasm -exception: influenza virus and retroviruses
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Which marker tests are appropriate for each phase of hepatitis infection: Incubation, Prodrome/acute illness, Early Convalescence, Late Convalescence.
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-HBsAg -HBsAg (Anti-HBc) -Anti-HBc -Anti-HBs (anti-HBc)
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Which two DNA viruses don\\'t have a linear genome? (they\\'re circular)
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Papovaviruses and Hepadnaviruses
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Which two hepatitis viruses follow the fecal-oral route?
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A and E; \\'The vowels hit your bowels.\\'
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Which two hepatitis viruses predispose to hepatocellular carcinoma?
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HBV and HCV
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Why is mono called the \\'kissing disease?\\'
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-Peak incidence occurs during peak kissing years 15-20 yo -(saliva transmission)
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