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128 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the toxin in scalded skin syndrome
exfoliative toxin A & B (ET A & B)
food poisoning toxin from staph
enterotoxin SE (heat stable)
how do you diagnose toxin mediated staph aureus
in vitro culture, because they are not in the blood
3 mechanisms by which staph aureus evades host defenses
1. protein A
2. coagulase
3. hemolysins, leukocidins
what does protein A of staph aureus bind to?
binds Fc region of IgG
what 3 mechanisms or enzymes does infectious staph aureus use to deeply invade and reach bloodstream?
1. hyaluronidase
2. staphylokinase
3. lipase
what does staphylokinase do?
lyses formed clots
what does hyaluronidase do?
breaks down connective tissue
what is the most severe syndrome of scalded skin syndrome in neonates
ritters syndrome -> exfoliative toxin is released systemically after umbilicus is cut
infectious agent in IV drug user who presents with heart failure and tricuspid valve vegetations
staph aureus (acute endo)
use 1st generation cephalosporin in what 2 cases?
surgical prophylaxis, cellulitis
activity of 3rd generation cephalosporins
less active against gram positives, very broad gram negative; efficiently crosses BBB. uses: meningitis and sepsis
pt with chronic granulomatous dz (impaired neutrophil function) are vulnerable to what bug
staph aureus
what specific structural feature of ampicillin allows it to cover gram negative bacteria
amino group makes this drug more hydrophillic, allowing it to pass through porins in gram negative cell walls, extending spectrum to cover gram negatives
what drug would you use for resistant infections or patients who cannot tolerate penicillins due to penicillin allergy
aztreonam
2 side effects of cephalosporins
hypersensitivity + disulfiram like reaction
what generation is Keflex?
1st generation cephalosporin
what drug is a derivative of ampicillin, a carboxypenicllin, and a bactericidal beta-lactam antimicrobial
ticarcillin (ticar)
Ticarcillin (ticar) covers what clinically?
most gram negative bacteria, including pseudomonas and most enterobacteriaceae (proteus, enterobacter, serratia)
what do beta-lactamases do?
beta-lactamases (penicillinases) cleave the beta-lactam ring of the drug - inactivating it
what is the drug of choice for listeria and enterococcus?
ampicillin
what does ampicillin cover clincially?
extends spectrum of penicillins to cover gram negative organisms: proteus mirabilis, E coli, Salmonella, H. influeza
what drug do you use to treat Klebsiella?
Mezlocillin (Mezlin) or Piperacillin (Pipracil) - both ureidopenicillins, like carboxypenicillin,
aztreonam (azactam) covers what clinically?
gram negative, NO effect on gram + or anaerobic bacteria
if a patient has Pseudomonas, a penicillin allergy, and renal insufficiency what do you treat them with?
Aztreonam -> covers gram negatives such as pseudomonas and enterobacteriaceae. Not cross allergic with penicillins and not renal toxic like aminoglycosides
amoxicillin + clavulanic acid =
augmentin (PO)
piperacillin + tazobactam =
zosyn (IV)
ampicillin + sulbactam =
unasyn (IV)
function of clavulanic acid
binds to and inactivates many b-lactamases, preventing destruction of susceptible b-lactam antibiotics, which include all penicillins except for the semisynthetic penicllinase-resistant generation (nafcillin)
what are the 4 classes of B-lactam antibacterials?
penicillins
cephalosporins
monobactam
carbapenems
what are 5 generations of penicillins and their associated drugs
1. natural -> penicillin
2. penicillinase-resistant -> nafcillin
3. aminopenicillin -> ampicillin
4. carboxypenicillin -> ticarcillin
5. ureidopenicillin -> mezlocillin
what family of b-lactams are susceptible to penicillinase?
Only penicillins... Cephalosporins, monobactams, and carbapenems are not
penicillins method of action
binds to and inhibits penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) which are transpeptidases that cross-link peptidoglycans, the final step in cell wall synthesis
clinical use of penicillins
gram positives: strep and listeria
Spirochetes: drug of choice for syphilis
most anaerobes except B.fragilis
rarely for gram negatives
what is a potential side effect of penicillin
drug-induced coombs positive hemolytic anemia (pen attaches to RBC membrane and serve as haptens against which an antibody response can be initiated)
How is pen G given?
IM or IV
treat syphilis with what drug?
penicillin
major potential side effect of ampicillin?
C. Diff
what does nafcillin cover clinically?
staph and strep infections (cellulitis)
only class of penicillins that is active against staph in absence of b-lactamase inhibitor
nafcillin mechanism of action
binds to PBP and inhibits cell wall synthesis, however it has bulky hydrophobic R group that prevents b-lactamase from leaving beta lactam ring and is therefore a penicillinase-resistant penicillin
prototype carbapenem
imipenem
of all ABX, what has the broadest spectrum and is highly beta-lactamase resistant?
Imipenem
imipenem is used clinically to cover?
empiric coverage of virtually all bacteria, except: MRSA and VRE
SE of imipenem in pt with renal dysfunction
seizures
prototype monobactam
aztreonam
is imipenem cross allergic with penicillin
yes
what b-lactam abx is not cross allergic with penicillin?
aztreonam
what are inherently resistant to cephalosporins?
enterococci
First generation cephalosporins coverage includes?
gram positives (staph and strep); some gram negatives --> used in surgical prophylaxis and cellulitis
what are the 2 subclasses that 2nd gen cephalosporins are used to treat
1. respiratory (cefuroxime) has activity against H.influenzae, M.catarrhalis
2. GI/GU (cefotetan) activity against anaerobes, used to treat peritonitis, diverticulitis, and mixed aerobic-anaerobic infections (B.fragilis etc)
3rd gen cephalosporins cover what?
very broad gram negative coverage, cross BBB, use for meningitis and sepsis
what are 2 side effects of cephalosporins
bleeding and disulfiram reactions
methicillin SE
interstitial nephritis and rash
MRSA mechanism of resistance
alteration in penicillin binding protein
What criteria is used to diagnose Rheumatic fever?
JOnes Criteria
What are the 5 major criteria for Jones criteria?
1. carditis
2. polyarthritis
3. sydenham's chorea
4. erythema marginatum rash
5. subcutaneous nodules
what are the 5 minor criteria of jones criteria?
1. fever
2. arthralgia
3. elevated ESR or CRP
4. prolonged PR interval
5. + streptococcal antibody
strep pyogenes infections
pharyngitis and skin infections (impetigo, erysipelas, cellulitis)
tx of strep pyogenes
pen G
how is imipenem degraded and what can be used with it to inhibit this?
imipenem is rapidly degraded by renal dehydropeptidase, cilastatin inhibits renal dehydropeptidase
gentamicin (garamycin) mechanism of action
aminoglycoside bactericidal antimicrobial -> enters bacteria by O2-dependent active transport, binds to 30S ribosomal subunit, and inhibits protein synthesis by 1. interfering with formation of initiation complex 2. inducing misreading of of mRNA & 3. causing breakup of polysomes
gentamicin is synergistic with beta-lactam ABX? True or False
TRUE -> they increase permeability of cell wall to aminoglycosides
clinical use of gentamicin
tx of serious gram negative infections... used for synergy with b-lactam abx or vanco for serious gram positive infections
3 major SEs of gentamicin
1. irreversible ototoixicity
2. reversible nephrotoxicity (acute tubular necrosis)
3. neruomuscular blockade and resp peralysis due to inhibition of prejunctional release of Ach and postjunctioal sensitivity to Ach
Streptomycin is active against
mycobacteria (limited use due to ototoxicity) but multi-drug resistant M.tuberculosis has caused new interest
what is related to aminoglycosides that can be used in treating gonorrhea
spectinomycin
Doxycyclines mechanism of action
tetracycline antimicrobial -binds to 30S ribosomal subunit and prevents access to aminoacyl tRNA to its acceptor site on the mRNA. Must be imported via energy-dependent active transport
Main clinical use of doxycycline
1. rickettsial infections (rocky mountain spotted fever) and chlaymdial infections
2. alternative tx for spirochtes (syphilis, lympe dz, leptospirosis)
3. alternative to macrolides and fluoroquinolones for atypical pneumonia
4. tx for multidrug resistand plasmodum falciparum malaria
SE of doxycycline
GI irritation
Tooth discoloration in kids under 7
Fatty liver in pregnant woman
What drug should tetracycline not be given with?
penicillin and tetracycyline are antagonistic
Demeclocycline has adverse effect of ?
causing nephrogeneic diabetes insipidus by acting as ADH antagnoist - > therefore used to treat SIADH
neomycins mechanism of action is similar to that of what drug
gentamicin
what bacteria are inherently resistant to neomycin/gentamicin and why?
anaerobes are inherently resistant because they lack the O2-dependent active transport
what are 2 main clinical applications of neomycin
1. topical abx for bowel surgery; drug is administered PO and is not well absorbed from GI tract
2. tx of hepatic encephalopathy: decreases amount of bacteria in the gut, therefore decreases ammonia levels in the blood and decreases encephalopathy
mechanism of neomycin
enters via O2dependent active transport, binds to 30S ribosomal subunit, inhibits protein synthesis
neomycin is rarely active against gram +s, except in combo with
b-lactam or vancomycin
clinical use of tetracycline
acne
3 ABX - 30S inhibitors
buy AT 30 - CELL for 50

A (aminoglycosides-> NAG)
T (tetracycline -> Doxy)

doxycycline
gentamicin
neomycin
3 ABX - 50S inhibitors
chloramphnicol
clindamycin
erythromycin
2 antimetabolites
sulfonamides
trimethoprim
mechanism of action of clindamycin
binds to 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes; suprresses protein syntehsis by disrupting formation of 70S initiation complex and by inhibiting amionacyl translocation step of peptide bond synthesis
clinical use of clindamycin
gram positive cocci
anaerobes (except C.Diff)
what drug is used to treat aspiration pneumonia and lung abscesses
clindamycin - over metronizdazole because superior penetration into lung tissue and activity against gram + anaerobes
major and minor SE of clindamycin
pseudomembranous colitis
GI irritation
clinical use of Linezolid
50S protein synthesis inhibitor that acts against highly resistant gram positive organisms such as MRSA and VRE
What are 2 drugs used to treat MRSA & VRE that act via 50S
1. linezolid
2. quinupristin/dalfopristin (synercid)
Chloramphenicol mechanism of action
binds to 50S subunit of bacteria ribosome, blocks peptidyl transferase, stops protein synthesis
clinical uses of chloramphenicol
1. 3 types of meninigitis in people intolerant to b-lactams (meningococcal, pneumococcal, h. influenza)
2. topical tx of eye infeciton
SE of chloramphenicol
1. bone marrow suppression (dose related and reversible) -> due to inhibition of mitochondrial protein synthesis in bone marrow cells
2. aplastic anemia (worst!) idiosyncratic and dose independent
3. gray baby syndrome -> fatal toxicity in neonates
Does chloramphenicol cross BBB? placenta?
YES to both
protoype macrolide
erythromycin
erythromycin mechanism of action
macrolide antimicrobial that inhibits protein synthesis by binding reversibly to 50S ribosomal subunit -> inhibits translocation step of protein synthesis where tRNA -amino acid complex moves from acceptor site to peptidyl site on ribosome
erythromycin is the drug of choice for what?
cornebacterial infections (diptheria)
name 3 clinical uses of erythromycin
1. community acquired pneumonia (mycoplasma and legionella)
2. chlamydial infections
3. strep or pneumo infections in pen-allergic pts
4. corynebacterial infections
SE of erythromycin
GI effects (Anorexia/n/V)
cholestatic hepatitis
s. mutans causes what local infection
dental caries
s. intermedius causes what local infection
brain or abdominal abscess
S. mutans or S. intermedius can attach to heart valves how?
Viridans streptococci have the unique ability to synthesize dextrans from glucose, which allows them to adhere to fibrin-platelet aggregates at damaged heart valves. This mechanism underlies their ability to cause subacute valvular heart disease following their introduction into the bloodstream (e.g., following tooth extraction).
what is a systemic infection caused by strep viridans
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
pathophys of dental carries
S. mutans binds to pellicle of teeth -> bacteria ferments sugars into lactic acid -> lactic acid demineralizes tooth enamel -> dental carries
pt has meningitis with penicillin allergy - > tx with what drug emperically?
chloramphenicol
gray baby syndrome is caused as a side effect of what drug
chloramphenicol - liver enzyme (UDP glucoronlytransferase) can't metabolize drug and its stays in body and they turn gray
most common cause of meningitis in 60+ yrs:
S. pneumo
gram - rods
listeria
common causes of pneumonia in 40-65 yrs
S. pneumo
H. influenza
Legionella
common causes of pneumonia in 65+ yrs
S. pneumo
gram - rods
H. influenza
Strep Pneumo evades host by what mechanisms
IgA protease
capsule (escapes phagocytosis)
tetracycline SE's
1. GI upset, teeth discoloration, bone deformity in children, Fnaconi's syndrome (aminoaciduria, phosphaturia, acidosis, gylcosuria); photosensitivity; dizziness
what 2 drugs cause Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
Strep viridans and Enterococci -> colonize valves damaged by Group A strep (rheumatic fever)
on PE you see Janeway lesions - this is pathonemonic of what - what would cause this ?
janeway lesions are pathonemonic for infeciton endocarditis
Acute - Staph aureus
Subacute -Strep viridans and Enterococci
what test differentitates b/w Strep pneumo and Strep viridans
optochin
Sensitive = s. pneumo
Resistant = s. mutans, intermedius
leading infectious agent in osteomyelitis in kids and adults
staph aureus
test to differentiate b/w staph saprophyticus and staph epidermidis
novobiocin
sensitive = S. epidermidis
resistant = S saprophyticus
tx of UTI in pt whos gram stain shows coag -, novobiocin resistant
TMP-SMX
tx for staph sap UTI or cystitis
what infection is caused by indwelling medical devices - and how does this infectious agent do so
staph epidermidis
polysaccharide capsule allows adherence to inserted medical devices
Pt with endocarditis and recent (30 days) heart valve replacement -> infectious agent is?
endocarditis with a prosthetic heart valve
<60 days = S. epi
>60 days = Strep viridans
what test differentiates GAS and GBS
bacitracin
sensitive = GAS (pyogenes)
resitant = GBS (agalactiae)
do GAS have pili
yes!
Virulence factors of GAS
1. streptokinase (fibrinolysis)
2. M protein (resists phagocytosis)
3. hyaluronidase (breaks down CT)
4. DNase (digest DNA)
what infectious agent will cause an increase in ASO+
Strep:
ASO = anti-streptolysin O antibodies
infectious agent from skin infection that 3 wks later causes HTN, periorbital edema, and hematuria
Strep pyognes infection -> glomerulonephritis (ASO antibodies generated immune complexes that deposit in BM of kidney)
pt presents with "sandpaper" rash that begins on trunk and spreads outward, and a very red tongue -> infectious agent?
Strep pyogenes -> scarlet fever
*S. pyogenes pharyngitis causing systemic release of pyrogenic exotoxin A,B,C -> ferver -> rash and strawberry tongue
Necrotizing fascitis caused by GAS -> what is the toxin
exotoxin B (protease)
3 presentations of GBS
neonatal meningitis, neonatal pneumonia, neonatal sepsis
pregnant woman who tests positive for S. agalactiae - how do you treat or do you?
yes. prophylaxis (ampicillin)
this infectious agent is the 2nd most common cause of nosocomial infections in the US
enterococcus faecalis - all strains resistant to cephalosporins and some to vanco
old man develops UTI after being in hospital for 5 days and being treated with cephalosporins, what is unique about infectious agent?
Enterococcus faecalis

grows in 40% bile, capsule prevents bile salt degradation, resistant to cephalosporins and is known to cause UTI, biliary tract infection, and SBE
+ quellung reaction is significant for what bacteria?
strep pneumo
Asplenic patients are especially susceptible to pneumonia because unable to remove Ab-coated organisms... therefore what would you give them?
pneumovax - vaccine with capsular polysaccharides

Strep pneumo