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110 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are the stages of death and grief
denial
anger
bargaining
depression
acceptance
what is the nurse practice act
a series of statutes that have been enacted by each state legislature to regulate the practice of nursing in each state
what is the nursing process
assessment, analysis, planning, implementing, and evaluation
what part of the nursing process can UAP's take part in
implementing
how should leaders communicate with others
in an assertive manner, start with I and not you
what are the 4 levels of disaster management
mitigation, preparedness, response, recovery
what is mallows hierarchy of needs
basic needs, safety and security, love and belonging, self esteem, self actualization.
what test do you do before drawing bags
allens test
what are the symptoms of respiratory failure
dyspnea, tachypnea; intercostal and sternal retractions; cyanosis pulmonary inflitrates
what are the early signs of shock
agitation and restlessness resulting from cerebral hypoxia
what are the signs of shock
tachycaridia, tachypnea, decrease in BP, mental status change, skin changes: cool clammy skin, diaphoresis, paleness, fluid status changes: urine output decreases, difference in input and output, CVP is abnormal (less than 4) urine specific gravity is greater than 1.020
what are the stages of shock
initial, compensatory, progressive, irreversible
what urine specific gravity indicates hypovolemia
greater than 1.020
what is the equation for map
cardiac output x toral peripheral resistance = systolic BP +2 (diastolic BP)/3
what is trendelenburg position
feet up 45 degrees, head flat
how should you administer medications for shock victims
IV
when is DIC suspected
bloody oozing from two or more unexpected sites
what do lab values look like in DIC
prolonged PT and PTT, decreased fibrinogen and platelet count
what are the symptoms of a DIC crisis
sob, unexpected bleeding, weak, thready pulse, cold and clammy skin, hematuria
what electrolyte increase in dehydration
sodium
what are the lab changes in fluid volume changes
dehydration: elevated BUN and creatinine, increased serum osmolarity, elevated hemoglobin and hematacrit

opposite it excess
what type of fluid is water
hypotonic
what is the normal ratio of BUN and creatinine
1:20
what do the adrenal glands do
secrete aldosterone which causes sodium retention and potassium excretion
what do the parathyroid glands do
regulate calcium and phosphorus balance
what does the pituitary gland do
secretes ADH
what other electrolyte accompanies a low potassium level
a low magnesium level
what are some foods high in potassium
bananas, oranges, cantaloupes, avocados, spinach, potatoes
what are the two neuro signs for hypocalcemia
trousseau sign and chvosteks sign
what vitamin increases uptake of calcium
D
what are foods high in magnesium
meats, nuts, legumes, fish and veggies
when is the U wave most prominent
hypokalemia
what does the nurse monitor for in postoperativenursing care
signs of shock and hemorrhage
individuals with fewer than how many CD4 T cells are at risk for opportunistic infections
200
when do initial symptoms of HIV occur
within 3 seeks of exposure
what are the stages ofHIV
Primary infection, HIV asymptomatic, HIV symptomatic, AIDS
what are the symptoms of the primary infection stage of HIV
mononucleosis like illness, lymphadenopathy, fever, malaise, rash
what are the symptoms of the symptomatic stage of HIV
persistent generalized lympadenopathy, persistant fever, weight loss, diarrhea, peripheral neuropathy, herpes zoster, candidiasis, cervical dysplasia, hairy leukoplakia, extreme fatigue
what does the CD4 Tcell count represent
how many infection fighting lymphocytes the person has
what is given for narcotic induced respiratory depression
Narcan 0.1-0.4 IV every 2-3 minutes as needed until 1mg is achieved
renal failure causes all hypo except in what electrolytes
phosphate and magnesium
what are the characteristics of kussmal respirations
abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate
what are the signs of phlebitis
heat, redness, tenderness at the site, not swollen or hard
what are the signs of infiltration
edema, pain and coolness at the site
if you want in increase intravascular volume, what kind of solution do you give
hypertonic
what are the symptoms of circulatory overload
headache, dyspneic, chills, and apprehensive with an increased pulse rate
what are the signs of infection of a wound
redness, erythema, ecchymosis, drainage, approximation of the wound edges
what position should patients be in with evisceration or dehiscence
low fowlers with knees bent
what is homans sign
positive is a sign of DVT, dorsiflexion on the foot at 90 degree angle
barrel chest is a symptom of what disease
emphysema
what are the manifestations of inadequate arterial oxygenation
cyanosis and slow capillary refill. chronic is clubbing of the fingernails and a late sign is clubbing of the fingers
what is related to the development of cancers of the larynx
alcohol and tobacco
cancers of the larynx usually require what
laryngectomy and need a trach
patients with a laryngectomy need what
humidity
what is the transmission of TB
airborne
what is a positive tb skin test
10mm or greater in diameter 48 hr after skin test
what is an important teaching point for clients with TB
must take meds through whole time usually 9-12 months
how should the client be positioned if a pneumonectomy occurred
on operative side or back
what do you do if a chest tube becomes disconnected
do not clamp, place distal end in a container of sterile water
what fluctuations should be seen in a chest tube
upward with each inspiration and down with each expiration
what is the difference between emphysema and chronic bronchitis
bronchitis-blue bloaters, rt sided heart failure, chronic sputum with cough production, increase in bronchial wall thickness

emphysema- reduced gas exchange surface area, increased air trapping "punk puffers"
what are some common symptoms of pneumonia
tachypnea, fever with chills, productive cough, bronchial breath sounds, infiltrates, increased WBC count
what are the three major types of renal failure
prerenal, intrarenal, postrenal
what are the three phases of acute renal failure
oilguric phase, diuretic phase, recovery phase
what are the primary extracellular ions
sodium and chloride
what are the primary intracellular ions
potassium and phosphate
what is the difference in lab values in the oliguric phase and the diuretic phase of acute renal failure
oliguric: increased BUN and Creatinine, increased potassium, decreased sodium, decreased pH, fluid overload, high urine specific gravity

diuretic: decreased fluid volume, decreased potassium, decreased sodium, low urine specific gravity
what is the normal kidney exertion in 24 hours
1ml of urine per kg of body weight per hour, usually around 1-2 liters in 24 hours
what is kayexalate for
if potassium is too high
what are the signs of hyperkalemia
dizziness, weakness, peaked t waves, muscle cramps, diarrhea, nausea
what diet should ARF patients be on
low protein, moderate fat, high carb, low potassium, low sodium
what must be restricted in chronic renal failure patients
protein
what is most often used as an indicator of the level of protein consumption
glomerular filtration rate
what should be assessed for in a person with an AV shunt, fistula or graph
thrill and bruit
what is the difference in pain between angina and an MI
MI has sudden onset of pain, pain is not relieved by rest, pain is not relieved by nitroglycerin
what is an indicated of heart failure
wet lungs
what is a classic pain sign of peripheral vascular disease (arterial)
intermittent claudication
what are the symptoms of right and left sided heart failure
right: peripheral edema
Left: pulmonary edema
what are the 5 Ps of neurovascular functioning
pain, paresthesia, pulse, pallor and paralysis
what is hodgkins disease characterized by
generalized painless lymphadenopathy
how is the diagnosis of hodgkins disease made
reed-sternberg cells
what drugs are used to treat myasthenia gravis
antichloinerterase
a chancre is related to what disease
primary syphilis
how do you determine the extent of surface area burned on a person
rule on nines: head and neck 9%, upper extremities (9% each), lower 18 % each, front trunk 18%, back trunk 18%, perineal area, 1%.

can also use lund and browder chart
what should be noted in the suction control chamber of the chest tube
continuous bubbling
what is the pH to confirm placement of an NG tube
3.5 or lower
what is kept at the bedside of a client with a trach
kelly clamp and obturator
what does the patient do when removing chest tube
valsalva maneuver
what are the characteristics of psoriasis
silvery-white scaly patches on the scalp, elbows, knees, and sacral regions
what are the characteristics of celluitis
a skin infection into the dermis and subcutaneous tissue
what are the characteristics of a melanoma
irregularly shaped pigmented papule or plaque with a red, white, or blue toned color
when should a breast self exam be done
7 days after the start of the menstrual period
what is the most common symptom of bladder cancer
hematuria
what is myxedema coma from
from persistently low thyroid production
what is pheochromocytoma
a catecholamine producing tumor
what are the primary manifestations of pheochromocytoma
hypertension and headache
what is the sequence for abdominal assessment
inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpitation
what are the symptoms of dumping syndrome
vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations and the desire to lay down
where is acute pancreatitis pain
severe and unrelenting pain in the epigastric area and radiating to the back
where is the pain in cholecystitis
right upper quadrant pain that radiates to the right scapula
what is the biggest side effect of thyroid meds
agranulocytosis
when do the posterior fontanel close
8 weeks
when does a child speak two to three word sentences
2 years
when is steady head control developed
4 months
when does the anterior fontanel close
12-18 months
what are ericksons stages
trust vs mistrust-infant birth to 1
autonomy vs shame and doubt-toddler 1-3 years
initiative vs guilt- preschool-3-5 years
industry vs inferiority- school age 6-12
identity vs role confusion-12-19
what is the normal urine output for children
1-2 ml/kg/hr
what are the signs of respiratory distress in children
restlessness, increased respiratory rate, increased pulse, diaphoresis
what are the signs of cardiac problems in an infant
poor feeding, poor weight gain, respiratory distress and infection, edema, cyanosis
what are the signs of hydrocephalus
opposite of shock, decreased pulse, increased blood pressure. Change in level of consciousness