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82 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Choose hyperplasia or neoplasia...
...physiologically reversible condition.
hyperplasia
Choose hyperplasia or neoplasia...
...replication exceeds physiological need.
neoplasia
What is the fancy name for big synthetic chemicals?
xenobiotics
T or F:
Cancer is the leading cause of death in dogs and cats in the US.
True!
Living in urban areas is linked to _________ cancer in dogs.
tonsillar
Pesticide use is linked to ______________ cancer in dogs.
bladder
The point after which a cell must divide is the_____ point. Which phase occurs after this point?
R point; followed by S phase
Which proteins serve as check points for each phase in the cell cycle?
CDKs (cyclin dependent kinases)
What are the 3 steps required for carcinogenesis?
Initiation
Promotion
Progression
T or F:
An initiated cell is not a cancer cell.
True!
T or F:
Tumors cannot develop if the promotor is applied before the initiator.
True
What are the 6 characteristics of cancer cells?
Sustaining proliferative signalling
Resistance to cell death
Inducing angiogenesis
Enabling replicative immortality
Activating invasion and metastasis
Evading growth suppressors
What are the 4 modes of signalling that cancer cells may use?
Endocrine, paracrine, autocrine, juxtacrine
Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...loss of membrane integrity.
Necrosis
Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...condensation of nucleus.
Apoptosis
Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...swelling of cytoplasm.
Necrosis
Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...fragmentation of cell into smaller bodies.
Apoptosis
Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...ATP-independent.
Necrosis
Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...involves at least 2 independent pathways.
Apoptosis
What are some examples of normal angiogenesis?
Estrus/menstrual cycles
Inflammation
Wound healing
What are three characteristics of blood vessels induced by cancerous angiogenesis?
Less organized
May lack one or several layers
Tortuous, dilated, and irregular
Intermittent blood pressure; may be slow or stagnant
What aspect of cancerous angiogenesis may disrupt chemotherapy?
Slow to stagnant or intermittent blood flow
What cancer therapy directly impacts cancerous angiogenesis?
Metronomic therapy
What are the benefits of metronomic therapy?
Normalize newly formed vessels (reduces hypoxia and improves drug delivery)
Works on tumors resistant to chemo
Reduce growth factor production
Lower toxicity
What enzyme in cancer cells is responsible for replicative immortality?
Telomerase
What are the two theories of metastatic disease?
1) Seed and soil (cells "prefer" a certain organ)
2) Cells get lodged in capillary beds
Suppression of which two genes helps cancer cells to evade growth suppressors?
Rb
P53
What is the most common splenic tumor in the dog?
HSA
What is the signalment for cutaneous HSA?
lightly pigmented breeds (beagles, white bulldogs, whippets...)
What are the most common sites of PRIMARY HSA?
Spleen > Liver > Right Atrium > Skin
What are the two forms of hemangiosarcoma?
Visceral
Cutaneous
What are the common sites of HSA metastasis and what are the percentages?
Lungs (65%)
Spleen & Kidneys (55%)
Liver (50%)
Approximately ______% of patients with a splenic mass will have a right atrial mass.
25%
What is a common acute presentation of HSA and why?
Dead or in baaaaaad shape;
due to splenic rupture, hemoabdomen, and cardiac tamponade
What are three major signs of hypovolemic shock?
Pale mucous membrane
Prolonged capillary refill
Dyspnea
T or F:
2/3 of splenic masses are hemangiosarcoma in dogs.
False!
It's technially 4/9! 2/3 of splenic masses are malignant and 2/3 of those are HSA.
Which of the following laboratory findings are congruent with visceral hemangiosarcoma?
a) Anemia
b) Eosinophilia
c) Thrombocytopenia
d) Neutrophilia
e) Increased nRBC
a) Anemia
c) Thrombocytopenia
d) Neutrophilia
e) Increased nRBC
What are indications for biopsying a suspected splenic HSA?
NOOOOOOOOOOOOO! Don't biopsy a HSA!!!
What should be checked before performing a splenectomy in a HSA case?
Check the right atrium for involvement!
Predict the relative values of the following in a DIC case?
BMBT, FDP, Thrombocytes, PT, PTT
BMBT, FDP, PT, PT (all increased)
Thrombocytes (decreased)
What should be looked-for 24 hours post splenectomy?
VPCs
T or F:
30-50% of canine HSA is in the right atrium.
True!
Don't get confused with the stat that 25% of splenic HSA has R atrial involvement
What might be found in a cardiocentesis of a pericardial effusion in a dog with cardiac HSA?
Troponin I (higher in HSA dogs than idiopathic effusion)
Malignant cells rarely seen
What are the signs of cardiac tamponade?
Restricted ventricular filling
Venous congestion and ascites
Muffled heart sounds
Arrthymias
How is cardiac HSA treated?
Pericardiocentesis + Doxorubicin
(maybe right atrial appendage resection)
T or F:
If you see two cutaneous hemangiosarcoma lesions, it may represent metastatic disease.
True!
Describe the level of infiltration for stage 1 cutaneous HSA. What is the treatment?
Stage 1 - skin only
WIDE surgical excision
Describe the level of infiltration for stages 2 and 3 cutaneous HSA? How are these treated?
Stage 2 (hypodermal)
Stage 3 (muscle)
Sx excision + doxorubicin
What are the four classifications of cancers involving histiocytes?
Cutaneous histiocytosis
Cutaneous histiocytoma
Systemic histiocytosis
Histiocytic sarcoma
Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...spontaneous regression.
Cutaneous histiocytoma and histiocytosis
Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...lymphadenopathies.
Systemic histiocytosis
Histiocytic sarcoma
Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...good response to immunosuppression.
Cutaneous histiocytosis
Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...systemic involvement.
Systemic histiocytosis
Histiocytic sarcoma
Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...overrepresentation of Bernese Mountain Dogs.
Systemic histiocytosis
Histiocytic sarcoma
Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...most cases <2 years.
Cutaneous histiocytoma
What IHC tests can be diagnostic for histiocytic sarcoma?
CD1, CD11, CD18
Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...rapid fatality.
Histiocytic sarcoma
Which of the classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...erythrophagocytosis.
Splenic histiocytic sarcoma
What are the types of soft tissue sarcomas?
Liposarcoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
Histiocytic sarcoma
Myxosarcoma
Peripheral nerve sheath tumor
Undifferentiated sarcoma
T or F:
Most soft tissue sarcomas are encapsulated and locally invasive.
False!
While they are locally invasive, they are PSEUDOENCAPSULATED
Which dogs are predisposed to soft tissue sarcomas (large or small)?
Large
Hypoglycemia is a paraneoplastic syndrome involved with which soft tissue sarcomas?
Leiomyoma
Leiomyosarcoma
What does an FNA tell you about a soft tissue sarcoma?
Not diagnostic; helps to rule-out lipoma or abscess.
What are the rules for surgical excision of a soft tissue sarcoma?
3 cm margins and 1-2 fascial planes deep!
Maybe 5cm margins in vaccine associated sarcomas!
Which chemotherapeutic is most effective in post-op treatment of soft tissue sarcomas?
None! Chemo doesn't increase survival! Use radiotherapy if you don't think you got it all.
Which soft tissue sarcoma is the least responsive to radiotherapy?
fibrosarcoma
What is a common signalment and location for low/high soft tissue sarcomas?
In the maxilla of goldens. (low grade benign tumors but highly aggressive biological behavior)
What is a common signalment for osteosarcoma?
Older (7yo), large to giant-breed, intact dogs OR young, female, spayed rottie
Where are the 4 major places to find OSA on the appendicular skeleton? Which is most/least common?
Distal radius (1st), proximal humerus (4th)
Proximal tibia, distal femur (Tied for 2nd)
"from the elbow, towards the knee" - for some reason this always makes me think of the "Get Low" Li'l Jon song...
T or F:
OSA is found 4x more often in the front limbs than in the rear.
False!
I'm gettin y'all Dr. Schlipf style! It's actually only 2x more prevalent in the front!
Where is OSA most commonly found?
a) Epiphysis
b) Metaphysis
c) Diaphysis
b) Metaphysis
If OSA isn't in the limbs, where is it?
the mouth! (27% mandible, 22% maxilla) or the spine (15%)
If you see OSA in the diaphysis of the femur, what is the likely etiology?
Fracture-associated
Which of the following clinical signs can be associated with OSA?
a) chronic lameness
b) acute lameness
c) localized swelling
d) facial deformity with lack of pain
a) chronic lameness
b) acute lameness (pathological fracture)
c) localized swelling
note - facial deformity is associated but its painful
With appendicular OSA, how often will mets in the thorax be seen?
a) 10-15%
b) 25-40%
c) 75%
d) 95%
a) 10-15%
(only 10-15% have detectable metastasis; almost ALL have micrometastasis and 75-95% will eventually develop mets to the lungs within 1 yr)
What is the most accurate technique for OSA biopsy?
a) FNA
b) Bone aspirate
c) Jamshidi
d) Michele trephine
d) Michele trephine
What is the gold standard treatment for appendicular OSA?
Amputation
What is probably the BEST treatment regimen for appendicular OSA? What is the MST in this case?
Amputation + Chemotherapy (Carboplatin)
MST = 321 d
Which radiotherapeutic technique can minimize soft tissue damage when treating OSA?
Stereotactic radiation
Which non-chemo pharmaceutical can have some positive effect on OSA?
Bisphosphonates
What are good prognostic indicators for OSA survival?
Low initial total ALP
Increased tumor necrosis
What value is highly predictive of the eventual development of pulmonary metastases in OSA?
intra-tumoral ALP