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94 Cards in this Set

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What is the average lifespan for the following in circulation?
Neutrophil
Platelet
Erythrocyte
Neutrophil - 1-2 d
Platelet 9-10 d
Erythrocyte ~120d
Which of the following are true regarding relative polycythemia?
a) usually due to dehydration
b) appropriate response
c) most common form of polycythemia
d) increased EPO
e) APUDoma can cause it
a) usually due to dehydration
c) most common form of polycythemia
(also splenic contraction can cause it)
Which of the following are true regarding absolute secondary polycythemia?
a) usually due to dehydration
b) may be an appropriate response
c) most common form of polycythemia
d) increased EPO may be associated
e) APUDoma can cause it
b) may be an appropriate response
d) increased EPO may be associated (appropriate response)
e) APUDoma can cause it (inappropriate response)
What are some causes of inappropriate secondary polycythemia?
Renal disease
Paraneoplastic syndrome (APUDoma or endocrine pancreatic cancers)
What is the common presentation for absolute polycythemia?
Lethargic, blind, hypertensive, possibly cyanotic with congested mucosae; PO2 <60mmHg
Diagnose the polycythemia:
CBC (erythrocytosis)
PO2 (normal)
EPO (normal)
US (no significant findings)
Relative polycythemia
Maybe Polycythemia Vera (need a bone marrow aspirate)
Diagnose the polycythemia:
CBC (erythrocytosis)
PO2 (decreased)
EPO (increased)
US (no significant findings)
Secondary appropriate response
Diagnose the polycythemia:
CBC (erythrocytosis)
PO2 (normal)
EPO (increased)
US (no significant findings)
Secondary, inappropriate resonse (go on a neoplasia hunt and check the kidneys)
Diagnose the polycythemia:
CBC (erythrocytosis)
PO2 (normal)
EPO (elevated)
US (small kidneys)
Secondary inappropriate response (probably renal disease)
How is absolute primary polycythemia treated?
Phlebotomy until PCV is normal.
Crystalloids/saline to volume expand.
Maybe hydroxyurea.
Choose the genetic/metabolic disorder associated with:
- excitement-induced anemia
- fluorescence of teeth and urine
- cats get it
- Dutch
- regenerative hemolytic anemia
PFK deficiency - excitement-induced anemia
Porphyria - fluorescence of teeth and urine
Porphyria and PK deficiency - cats get it
Spectrin deficiency - Dutch
PK deficiency - regenerative hemolytic anemia
Which of the following are NOT true regarding regeneration in anemias?
a) punctate reticulocytes are not counted in cats
b) dogs show more regeneration than cats
c) cats show more regeneration than dogs
d) relative reticulocyte count is the most important
e) reticulocytes take 3 days to appear
c) cats show more regeneration than dogs (NO; dogs>cats)
d) relative reticulocyte count is the most important (NO; absolute)
What are the most important non-regenerative anemias?
Anemia of chronic disease
Chronic renal insufficiency
FeLV
Fe deficiency
Pure Red Cell Aplasia
Bone marrow diseases
What are the three mechanisms of non-regenerative anemia?
Red cell hypoplasia
Inflammation/cytokine mediated
Immune mediated
Which types anemias are inflammation/cytokine mediated?
Chronic disease
Neoplasia
Which anemias below DO NOT involve red cell hypoplasia?
a) pure red cell aplasia
b) neoplasia
c) CRF
d) Addison's disease
e) Fe deficiency
a) pure red cell aplasia (immune mediated)
b) neoplasia (inflammation/cytokine mediated - UNLESS it is a myelofibrotic process)
Choose the type of non-regenerative anemia associated with...
- macrocytic, normochromic anemia
- microcytic hypochromic anemia
- normocytic, normochromic anemia
FeLV - macrocytic, normochromic anemia
Fe deficiency - microcytic hypochromic anemia
Chronic dz & etc - normocytic, normochromic anemia
Describe the pathogenesis of anemia of chronic renal insufficiency?
Kidneys don't make EPO
Marrow doesn't respond to EPO
Uremia reduces EPO response
T or F:
Fe deficiency anemia is usually due to some sort of blood loss.
True!
What are some marrow diseases?
Drug/Chemo/irridation induced
Myelofibrosis/myelophthisis
Neoplasia (LSA & myeloma)
FeLV or Parvo
What type of anemia is treated with each of the following?
- Fe supplementation
- Folate/cobalamin supplement
- immunosuppress
- stop blood loss
- EPO
Fe deficiency - Fe supplementation
Pure red cell aplasia - Folate/cobalamin supplement
Pure red cell aplasia, IMHA - immunosuppress
Fe deficiency - stop blood loss
Anemia of renal insufficiency - EPO
Which of the following are NOT true regarding primary IMHA?
a) IgM more likely to activate complement
b) Complement mediated most commonly
c) often extravascular hemolysis
d) Schistocytes
e) American Cocker Spaniel
b) Complement mediated most commonly (NO; this is less common but more significant)
d) Schistocytes (NO; spherocytes)
Choose intravascular or extravascular hemolysis (or both)
- fever
- jaundice
- splenomegaly more common
- more commonly severe anemia
- leukocytosis w/left shift
BOTH - fever
Intravascular - jaundice
Intravascular - splenomegaly more common
Intravascular - more commonly severe anemia
BOTH - leukocytosis w/left shift
How can you tell autoagglutination from Rouleaux?
Drop of saline will disperse Rouleaux but not autoagglutination.
What is the major cause of death in IMHA?
Pulmonary thromboembolism
What is Evan's syndrome?
IMHA + IMTP
What are causes of oxidant mediated hemolytic anemia? Which animals are mostly affected?
Cats mostly due to alium (onion/garlic), acetaminophen, vit K3, benzocaine, propofol, etc
Name the blood parasite associated with the following:
- severe and fatal in cats
- usually nonpathogenic in dogs
- mild anemia in dogs
- mild anemia in cats
Cytauxzoon - severe and fatal in cats
Mycoplasma hemocanis - usually nonpathogenic in dogs
Babesia - mild anemia in dogs
Mycoplasma hemofelis - mild anemia in cats
You see a cat with cyclical bouts of anemia. What gives? How should you treat it?
Probably Mycoplasma hemofelis
Tx - Doxy +/- prednisolone
Need to look for underlying dz (FeLV, immunosuppression, etc)
What are some causes of microangiopathic disease? What is the hallmark sign?
SCHISTOCYTOSIS in CBC!!
d/t DIC, vasculitis, HSA, heartworm dz
What does the CBC look like in IMHA?
Spherocytosis, anisocytosis, polychromasia, reticulocytosis
What does the Chem/UA panel often look like in IMHA?
Hemoglobinemia/uria, hyperbiliribubinemia/uria
When should a transfusion be given?
Low PCV + evidence of hypoxia
Ongoing severe hemorrhage
What are the dog blood groups that you gotta worry about? Cats?
DEA 1.1 and 1.2
Just make sure to crossmatch cats!
Which factors are involved in...
- Common pathway
- Extrinsic pathway
- Intrinsic pathway
V & X - Common pathway
VII - Extrinsic pathway
XII, XI, IX, VIII - Intrinsic pathway
T or F:
Thrombin plays a role in the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.
False!
Only the intrinsic (VIII and XI)
Which clotting factor does vWF interact with?
VIII
OK lets review...does PT or PTT measure the intrinsic pathway?
PT = extrinsic
PTT = intrinsic
T or F:
PT is more affected in vitamin K antagonist toxicity.
True!
You see a dog with acute lameness, petechiae, and respiratory distress...what gives?
Might be rodenticide toxicity!
Which factors does PIVKA test?
intermediates of factors II, VII, IX, and X (the vitamin K influenced factors)
What is cryopoor plasma?
a) fresh frozen plasma
b) no vWF
c) no factor VII
d) no factor VIII
e) cheap plasma
b) no vWF
d) no factor VIII
e) cheap plasma (cheaper than FFP)
How is vitamin K antagonist toxicity treated?
Plasma (maybe cryopoor)
Oxygen
Vitamin K (parenteral + enteral)
T or F:
IMTP isn't really seen in cats.
True (unless d/t methimazole)
More in Cocker, Poodle, and Olde English Sheepdog
What platelet concentration is associated with...
- Erlichiosis
- Secondary IMTP
- Spontaneous hemorrhage
- moderate risk of spontaneous hemorrhage
- primary IMTP
~5000 - Erlichiosis
>20K - Secondary IMTP
<5000- Spontaneous hemorrhage
<15K - moderate risk of spontaneous hemorrhage
<15K - primary IMTP
How is IMTP treated?
Maybe transfusion
Treat underlying disease!
Immunosuppress if primary
Choose the type of vWD associated with...
- GSH and wirehaired pointers
- complete absence of all multimers
- all multimer sizes present
- low numbers of HMW multimers
- Doberman
II - GSH and wirehaired pointers
III - complete absence of all multimers
I - all multimer sizes present
II - low numbers of HMW multimers
I - Doberman
T or F:
Dogs with type I vWD usually have normal platelet counts.
True!
Which of the following are altered in vWD?
a) PT
b) PTT
c) ACT
d) BMBT
d) BMBT
What types of hypersensitivity cause SLE? Which plays the largest role in disease?
Type II
Type III (big one)
Type IV
What is the end result of the hypersensitivity reactions in SLE?
Apoptosis which creates more antigens for autoantibodies!
Who gets SLE?
Collies, Shelties, GSDs; often middle-aged and male
What are signs of SLE?
Fever, polyarthropathy (nonerosive/nonseptic), erythema, renal dz, lymphadenopathy
Which of the following lab tests are NOT indicative of SLE?
a) monoclonal gammopathy
b) Leukocytosis
c) Anemia
d) Positive Coomb's Test
e) Thrombocytopenia
a) monoclonal gammopathy (POLYCLONAL)
b) Leukocytosis (LEUKOPENIA)
What is diagnostic for SLE?
Positive ANA test + at least 2 of the following:
Polyarthropathy, Skin Lesions, Proteinuria, Coomb's anemia, thrombocytopenia
Who gets idiopathic polyarthritis?
Young, male, large-breed dogs
Choose SLE, Idiopathic polyarthritis, or Rhumatoid Arthritis...
- Young male dogs
- Mid-aged dogs
- nonerosive, nonseptic polyarthropathy
- Erosive polyarthropathy
- small adult dogs
Idiopathic - Young male dogs
SLE - Mid-aged dogs
Idiopathic & SLE - nonerosive, nonseptic polyarthropathy
RA - Erosive polyarthropathy
RA - small adult dogs
Choose SLE, Idiopathic polyarthritis, or Rhumatoid Arthritis...
- Akitas
- anti-IgG antibody positive
- antinuclear antibody positive
- glomerulonephritis
Choose SLE, Idiopathic polyarthritis, or Rhumatoid Arthritis...
Idiopathic - Akitas
RA - anti-IgG antibody positive
SLE - antinuclear antibody positive
RA & SLE - glomerulonephritis
Choose the immune-mediated arthropathy that is...
- Rare in dogs but common in cats
- Common in dogs
- SLE is an important differential
- BMD w/CNS involvement
Feline Polyarthritis - Rare in dogs but common in cats
Idiopathic Polyarthritis - Common in dogs
Idiopathic Polyarthritis - SLE is an important differential
Polyarthritis/Meningitis Syndrome - BMD w/CNS involvement
Which of the following are NOT TRUE regarding immunity?
a) B cell response to antigen is part of cell-mediated immunity
b) Recognition of MHC-I stimulates cytotoxic T cells.
c) T cells recognize both MHC-I and MHC-II.
d) NK cells are part of cell-mediated immunity.
e) Lysosomes and dendritic cells are part of innate immunuty.
a) B cell response to antigen is part of cell-mediated immunity (NO; HUMORAL)
d) NK cells are part of cell-mediated immunit (NO; INNATE)
What protein is activated by glucocorticoids? What happens next?
Glucocorticoids stimulate IkB-alpha which inhibits the production of NF-kB.
Why do cats need higher glucocorticoid doses?
Less sensitive receptors!
Which of the following ARE NOT systemic glucocorticoid effects?
a) Alopecia
b) Hyperkeratosis
c) Increases Ca resorption and Ca excretion
d) Increases BMR
e) Calcinotis Cutis
b) Hyperkeratosis (NO; THIN SKIN)
d) Increases BMR (NO; decreases T4/T3 via TSH)
How do glucocorticoids affect the CBC?
Stress leukogram!
Neutrophilia, Monocytosis, Lymphopenia, Eosinopenia; also causes thrombocytosis
Which of the following statements are NOT true?
a) Betamethasone is a long-acting and very potent glucocorticoid
b) Dexamethasone has no mineralocorticoid activity
c) Dexamethasone is more potent than betamethasone
d) Triamcinolone is 3x more potent than hydrocortisone
e) Cortisone and Prednisone are short-acting
c) Dexamethasone is more potent than betamethasone (MAYBE; Beta is 25-40 while Dexa is 30)
d) Triamcinolone is 3x more potent than hydrocortisone (NO; 5x)
e) Cortisone and Prednisone are short-acting (NO; Cort and Hydrocort are short acting)
Identify the following as ultra short acting or long acting:
- Na succinate
- Acetate
- Na phosphate
- Hemisuccinate
- Acetonide
Short - Na succinate
Long - Acetate
Short - Na phosphate
Short - Hemisuccinate
Long - Acetonide
Choose the immunosuppressive drug that does the following:
- Causes profound BM suppression in cats
- Hemorrhagic cystitis in dogs
- good for poorly-responsive IMHA in dogs
- interferes w/DNA synthesis and cell adhesion
Azathioprine - Causes profound BM suppression in cats
Cyclophosphamide - Hemorrhagic cystitis in dogs
Leflunomide - good for poorly-responsive IMHA in dogs
Mycophenolate - interferes w/DNA synthesis and cell adhesion
Choose the immunosuppressive drug that does the following:
- Only affects DIVIDING T and B cells
- causes T-cell suppression and gingival hyperplasia
- contraindicated in SLE
- folic acid antagonist
Azathioprine - Only affects DIVIDING T and B cells
Cyclosporine - causes T-cell suppression and gingival hyperplasia
Au salts - contraindicated in SLE
Methotrexate - folic acid antagonist
Choose the immunosuppressive drug that does the following:
- great for cats w/LSA or leukemia
- indicated for perianal fistulas
- indicated for MG, aplastic anemia, masticatory myositis
- alkylating agent affects resting and dividing cells
Chlorambucil - great for cats w/LSA or leukemia
Cyclosporine - indicated for perianal fistulas
Mycophenolate - indicated for MG, aplastic anemia, masticatory myositis
Cyclophosphamide - alkylating agent affects resting and dividing cells
Choose the immunostimulant associated with:
- TLR activation
- malignant melanoma treatment in dogs
- canine osteosarcoma treatment
- anthelminthic
Probiotics - TLR activation
P. acnes - malignant melanoma treatment in dogs
Muramyl dipeptide - canine osteosarcoma treatment
Levamisole - anthelminthic
Which 3 cells arise from a myeloblast?
Eosinophil
Basophil
Neutrophil
How long does it take for neutrophils to be released after stimulation? How long are they in circulation?
7days
Only in circulation for hours
How do cats handle stress differently than dogs (on the CBC)?
Dogs get lymphopenia
Cats get lymphocytosis
How can one discern leukemia from a leukemoid response? What condition is it associated with?
No blast cells in leukemoid response; common in IMHA
If you see young white AND red blood cells in circulation, what is it called?
Leukoerythroblastic response
T or F:
Infection, inflammation, and immunodeficiency can all lead to either neutrophilia OR neutropenia.
True!
Which of the following are NOT true?
a) Pulger-Huet neutrophils have reduced function
b) Aussie Shepherds with an autosomal recessive cLamin B gene get the Pulger-Huet Anomaly
c) Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is common in Aussie Shepherds
d) Pale eosinophilic inclusion bodies in granulocytes and monocytes are the hallmark of Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
e) Both Chediak-Higashi Syndrom and Pulger-Huet Anomalies have decreased chemotaxis.
a) Pulger-Huet neutrophils have reduced function (NO, they work fine)
b) Aussie Shepherds with an autosomal recessive cLamin B gene get the Pulger-Huet Anomaly (DOMINANT)
c) Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is common in Aussie Shepherds (NO; Smoke Blue Persians)
e) Both Chediak-Higashi Syndrom and Pulger-Huet Anomalies have decreased chemotaxis (NO; only Chediak-Higashi)
What are some clinical signs of Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
Frequent infections
Hemorrhage
Cataracts
Light pigmentation
Name the leukocyte disorder associated with:
- Bull terriers
- GSDs
- Birman Cat
- Irish Setter
- Rough/Smooth Collies
Lethal acrodermatitis - Bull terriers
IgA deficiency - GSDs
Neutrophil Granulation Anomaly - Birman Cat
Leukocyte Adhesion Defect - Irish Setter
Cyclic Hematopoiesis - Rough/Smooth Collies
Name the leukocyte disorder associated with:
- doesn't manifest till 3 yrs
- pink/purple granules in neutrophils
- Musculoskeletal or CNS signs
- Lymphoid tissue atrophy
Shar-Pei Immunodeficiency - doesn't manifest till 3 yrs
Birman Cat LAD - pink/purple granules in neutrophils
Lysosomal Storage Dz - Musculoskeletal or CNS signs
X-Linked SCID; LEthal acrodermatitis - Lymphoid tissue atrophy
Name the leukocyte disorder associated with:
- neutropenia w/rebound neutrophilia
- autosomal dominant
- Corgis and Bassets
- Interleukin defect
Cyclic hematopoiesis - neutropenia w/rebound neutrophilia
Pulger-Huet - autosomal dominant
Canine X-linked SCID - Corgis and Bassets
Canine X-linked SCID - Interleukin defect
What are lab abnormalities commonly seen in splenic disease?
Schistocytes, nRBC, thrombocytopenia
T or F:
A splenic mass without hemoabdomen is unlikely to be benign.
False! 60% of these are benign
T or F:
A splenic mass with hemoabdomen is unlikely to be benign.
True! 63-80% of these are malignant
___________ are highly suggestive of neoplastic splenic disease.
Schistocytes
Nucleated RBCs are associated with which splenic conditions?
Extramedullary hematopoiesis
Leukoerythroblastic response
Which of the following are NOT true regarding the spleen:
a) the head is between the stomach and left kidney on VD
b) hypoechoic texture near the splenic veins is indicative of HSA
c) the splenic tail is not typically seen in the cat
d) splenic torsion resembles a trouser snake on lateral rad
e) echotexture cannot distinguish benign from malignant splenic masses
b) hypoechoic texture near the splenic veins is indicative of HSA (NO; this is NORMAL fat deposition)
d) splenic torsion resembles a trouser snake on lateral rad (NO; torsion or hemorrage causes decreased detail)
Which of the following are part of a normal splenic aspirate?
a) neutrophils
b) eosinophils
c) lymphocytes (large)
d) lymphocytes (small)
e) macrophages
a) neutrophils (rare)
d) lymphocytes (small)
e) macrophages (a few)
(also a few plasma cells)
What cardiovascular anomaly is associated with splenectomy?
Ventricular arrthymias
Splenectomy predisposes animals to which diseases?
Mycoplasma, Ehrlichia canis, Babesia canis
T or F:
Nodular hyerplasia and hematoma are thought to be different stages of the same process.
True
T or F:
Splenic hematoma occurs rarely in the cat due to differences in vasculature and anatomy.
True
Which drugs can cause splenic congestion?
Phenothiazine
Barbiturate
Choose benign focal, benign diffuse, splenitis, congestion, or malignant:
- Blastomycosis
- Abscess
- Chronic anemia
- right-sided CHF
- granuloma
splenitis - Blastomycosis
benign focal - Abscess
benign diffuse - Chronic anemia
congestion - right-sided CHF
benign focal - granuloma