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49 Cards in this Set
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- Back
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To ensure that the expected newborn animal gets good immunity against the prevalent diseases in the area, you vaccinate the pregnant mother at the following time:
A - Vaccinate the mother w/modified live virus at the early stages of pregnancy so that it will give long-term immunity even to the newborn. B - Vaccinate the mother at the middle stages of pregnancy so that the peak Ab levels occur at the time of colostrum production. C - At the later stages of pregnancy so that the peak Ab levels occur at the time of colostrum production. D - at early, middle, and later stages of pregnancy so that the peak Ab levels occur at the time of colostrum production. |
C - At the later stages of pregnancy so that the peak Ab levels occur at the time of colostrum production.
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An owner has brought his/her dog in for revaccination. In order to determine the revaccination schedule, you check the following information about the previous vaccination:
A - whether the vaccine contained live or killed organism or subunit vaccine. B - Estimated duration of immunity the previous vaccination gave. C - THe route of admin. that was used to give the previous vaccination. D - All of the above |
D - All of the above
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An outbreak of contagious viral disease has occurred in a large farm. The feds want you to contain the disease ASAP. Your containment strategy is:
A - Give supportive therapy & the viral disease will naturally subside after a few weeks. B - Vaccinate the entire population of animals/birds on the farm. C - Adopt either a ring vaccination or predictive vaccination or both strategies & recommend killing the severely infected to prevent further spread. D - Isolate all the animals and give antibiotics. |
C - Adopt either a ring vaccination or predictive vaccination or both strategies & recommend killing the severely infected to prevent further spread.
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The antiviral activities of this cytokine occurs within a few hours after viral invasion & reaches peak long before the acquired immunity is developed:
A - Grnulocyte Macrophage CSF B - Interferon alpha/beta C - IL-10 D - TNF-alpha |
B - Interferon alpha/beta
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A month has passed following immunization w/a CDV/CPV vaccine. TiterCHEK test shows that the Ab titer is nearly 0. What might be the reason:
A - Vaccine failed because of owner's fault of improper dog handling B - Dog breed has low MHC compatibility C - titerCHEK has given false negative D - the live vaccine might have been dead or the animal may have been immunosuppressed at vaccination time |
D - the live vaccine might have been dead or the animal may have been immunosuppressed at vaccination time
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The following are the mechanism/s bacteria adopt to evade the host immune response:
A - replicate in tissues instead of blood B - prevent recognition by antigenic variation or changing surface coat C - resistance to effector mechanisms such as interfering w/phagocytosis or complement activity D - B and C |
D - B and C
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An animal has been infected w/Clostridium tetani. Why does antitetanus toxin Ab not improve the case?
A - antitetanus toxin Ab are working but animal is too weak B - animal needs more energy-rich diet C - tetanus toxin has already bound to receptors and antitetanus toxin Ab is ineffective in reversing the combination D - antitetanus toxin Ab are not good because of a bad batch |
C - tetanus toxin has already bound to receptors and antitetanus toxin Ab is ineffective in reversing the combination
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Johne's dz in sheep is caused by Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis. THe Lepromatous form has poor prognosis, whereas the Tuberculoid form has good prognosis. THis is because:
A - poor Th1 response and good Ab response in Lepromatous form whereas Tuberculoid form has good Th1 response and macrophage activation. B - In Lepromatous form, there is poor Th2 response byt good Th1 response whereas in Tuberculoid form has good Th2 response and macrophage activation. C - The Lepromatous form is caused by a very virulent bacterial strain whereas the Tuberculoid form is caused by a mildly pathogenic strain. D - none of the above |
A - poor Th1 response and good Ab response in Lepromatous form whereas Tuberculoid form has good Th1 response and macrophage activation.
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Do you recommend vaccination of animals already experiencing either feline infectious peritonitis or CAE/OPP or EIA? Why?
A - Yes, the vaccination will help the animal boost its immune response and help prevent further viral invasion. B - No, the animal is stressed and vaccination will be ineffective. C - No, the Ab increases the severity of the dz. D - Yes, the vaccination will contain the dz and will not spread to other animals. |
C - No, the Ab increases the severity of the dz.
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THe following viral disease in a host is an example of how virus-host adaptation influences the severity of dz in the host.
A - Herpes virus infection causes severe mortality in the host due to antigenic drift. B - rabies is lethal in unnatural host (dogs, cattle, ninjas, etc) whereas it causes no dz in natural host (bats). C - Influenza virus can become latent & cause relatively mild infection in the host. D - all of the above |
B - rabies is lethal in unnatural host (dogs, cattle, ninjas, etc) whereas it causes no dz in natural host (bats).
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SInce protozoan parasites have multiple stages of development to complete their life cycle, in general acquired immunity should include:
A - neutrophils that control the extracellular stage and Th2 cells control the intracellular stage. B - Neutrophils, mast cells, and IgE that control different stages of the protozoan parasite. C - Ab and complement that control the extracellular stage and CMI control intracellular stage. D - CMI control extracellular stage and Ab control intracellular stage. |
C - Ab and complement that control the extracellular stage and CMI control intracellular stage.
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Vaccines for arthropods are usually made from the internal antigens of the parasite. The reason is:
A - the immune response will stop the tick from taking blood. B - The immune resopnse will act on the saliva & reduces the inflammation at bite site. C - THe immune response will prevent Type IV hypersensitivity response at the site. D - The immune response will impair the parasite's digestive process & damage the repro tract, reducing fecundity. |
D - The immune response will impair the parasite's digestive process & damage the repro tract, reducing fecundity.
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In genital, parasitic worms elicit a very strong Th2 response characterized by the production of:
A - high levels of IL-2, IFN-gamma, and cytotoxic T cells B - high levels of IgE, eosinophils, and mast cells C - high levels of IgA and macrophages D - high levels of IgG and neutrophils |
B - high levels of IgE, eosinophils, and mast cells
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Which of the following cells play a role in Type I hypersensitivity?
A - Mast cells, dendritic cells, eosinophils, Th2 cells, and IgE producing B cells B - Th2 cells, macrophages, neutrophils & basophils C - Th1 cells, B cells producing IgM, dendritic cells, cytotoxic T cells D - none of the above |
A - Mast cells, dendritic cells, eosinophils, Th2 cells, and IgE producing B cells
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Many of the symptoms of shock are the result of:
A - explosive release of a large number of microbes from shock organs B - sudden access to good food causes extreme excitement shock in shock organs C - vasoactive molecules making smooth muscles contract in the major organs & causing blood vessel dilation resulting in insufficient blood supply to major organs. D - cytokines such as IL-10 & TGF beta which are immunosuppressive and causes shock due to bacterial infection |
C - vasoactive molecules making smooth muscles contract in the major organs & causing blood vessel dilation resulting in insufficient blood supply to major organs.
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What is the immunological mechanism for desensitization therapy?
A - reduce mediator release from mast cells and decreases serum IgE levels B - promotes IgG rather than IgE response C - induces a shift from Th2 to Th1 response D - all of the above |
D - all of the above
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Which of the following describes how hemolytic anemia in foals occurs?
A - placental transfer of virus to fetus causes hemolytic disease of the foal. B - Aa positive foal's RBC leaked into maternal circulation & sensitized the Aa negative mother. C - The Ab concentrated in colostrum are ingested by the suckling foal & caused RBC destruction. D - B and C |
D - B and C
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Blood group antigens...
A - are RBC surface antigens B - influence graft rejection and blood transfusion reactions C - natural Ab against foreign blood group antigens exist because of exposure to similar epitopes D - all of the above, bitches |
D - all of the above, bitches
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In infectious diseases such as FIP, EIA with a significant generalized Type III hypersensitivity, although the immune complexes form within the blood stream, the major lesion occurs in these following tissues & why?
A - Lungs and liver; they're shock organs B - Epidermis & dermis; many mast cells which cause major lesions C - Glomeruli & synovia; there is a physiological outflow of fluid in these locations D - Thymus & bone marrow; the activated lymphocytes cause the lesion in these organs. |
C - Glomeruli & synovia; there is a physiological outflow of fluid in these locations
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In Arthrus reaction, the immune complexes are deposited within a tissue that occurs in blue eye of dog or hypersensitivity pheumonitis of cattle. THe mechanism involved in acute inflammation & tissue destruction is due to:
A - killing mechanism of cytotoxic T lymphocytes B - the release of cytokines such as IL-2 & Interferon gamma by Th1 cells. C - the release of lysosomal enzymes and oxidants into the tissues predominantly by neutrophils D - all of the above |
C - the release of lysosomal enzymes and oxidants into the tissues predominantly by neutrophils
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MOdified live vaccines during pregancy:
A - should be given to prevent infection of mother and fetus B - can cause severe or lethal infection in the fetus C - response to vaccine depends on the state of immunological development of the fetus D - all of the above E - B and C |
E - B and C
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A vaccine has 80% mortality in the control group and 20% in the vaccinated animals. What is the efficacy?
A - 25% B - 50% C - 60% D - 75% |
D - 75%
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First dose of core vaccination in puppies and kittens can be given starting at age:
A - 2-3 wks B - 6-9wks C - 9-12wks D - 13-16wks E - ?16wks |
B - 6-9wks
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Which of the following are not mechanisms by which the immune system combats bacteria?
1) intracellular bacterial destruction by activated macrophages 2) neutralization of toxins or enzymes by antibody 3) killing of bacteria by antibodies or complement 4) direct killing by cytotoxic T cells and NK cells 5) opsonization of bacteria by Ab and complement A - 1,5 B - 1,4 C - 2,3 D - none E - all of the above are mechanisms |
E - all of the above are mechanisms
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Which of the following factors does not cause the induction of heat shock proteins by bacterial pathogens?
A - O2 radical production within phagocytes B - starvation C - opsonization by Ab D - pyrexia E - toxin production |
C - opsonization by Ab
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Modified live vaccines are preferred for viruses, intracellular bacteria and parasites because of:
A - predominant Th1 immunity and interferon production B - predominant Th2 immunity and B cell response C - predominant dendritic cells and neutrophil response D - less inoculating doses required E - few side effects compared to killed vaccines |
A - predominant Th1 immunity and interferon production
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To prevent animal to animal transmission of Equine herpes virus-1 you would give the following vaccine:
A - modified live virus vaccine via intranasal B - modified live virus vaccine via IM C - inactivated vaccine via intranasal D - inactivated vaccine via IM |
A - modified live virus vaccine via intranasal
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The mode of action of depot adjuvant is:
A - preserve integrity of the killed pathogen B - enhance cytokine production and local immunity C - slow removal of antigen and prolong immune response D - all of the above |
C - slow removal of antigen and prolong immune response
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Advantage of temperature-sensitive mutant of bovine herpesvirus-1 vaccine is:
A - gives systemic immunity w/less chance of hypersensitivity B - prevents herpes virus latency & carrier state C - does not cause fever in vaccinated animal D - all of the above |
B - prevents herpes virus latency & carrier state
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When considering mucosal vaccination the following characteristics are important to remember:
A - inactivated antigens are usually not effective in triggering IgA response B - secondary immune responses are difficult to induce on surfaces C - high IgA levels can block booster antigen absorption and prevent it from reaching antigen presenting cells D - all of the above E - none of the above |
D - all of the above
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What might be the immunological cause for vesicle formation in allergic contact dermatitis to flea collars?
A - Activated B cells attack sensitized epidermal cells creating vesicles B - activated T cells attack sensitized epidermal cells creating vesicles C - chemical in the collars kills epidermal cells creating vesicles D - all of the above |
B - activated T cells attack sensitized epidermal cells creating vesicles
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Insulin producing islet beta cells from a donor w/MHC incompatibility can be implanted into the testes because they are:
A - located outside body B - are cooler C - easy to access for implantation D - immunoprivileged |
D - immunoprivileged
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During fetal life in utero, fetal response to infection is determined by the:
A - nutritional status of mother B - physiological condition of mother C - state of immunological development of fetus D - number of fetuses growing in uterus |
C - state of immunological development of fetus
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Management of a farm should ensure that newborn animals ingest colostrum within 12-24 hours because:
A - After 24 hrs, maternal Ab do not protect newborns B - After 24 hrs, the colostrum turns to milk C - After 24 hrs, the newborn needs strength to withstand vaccination D - After 24hrs, the absorption of maternal Ab ceases due to replacement of FcRn+ intestinal epithelial cells by a cell population that does not express FcRn. |
D - After 24hrs, the absorption of maternal Ab ceases due to replacement of FcRn+ intestinal epithelial cells by a cell population that does not express FcRn.
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When an oral vaccine containing rotavirus is given to a calf, memory B cells producing IgA in Peyer's patches can move to effector sites and give protection at the following sites:
A - intestinal mucosa B - blood C - Peyer's patches D - all mucosal surfaces |
D - all mucosal surfaces
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An example of vaccines that contain live expression vectors expressing heterologous genes for immunizing antigens is:
A - E. coli expressing FeLV gp70 B - Pseudorabies vaccine that lacks THymidine Kinase gene C - Canary pox virus expressing West Nile virus E and M antigen. D - all of the above |
C - Canary pox virus expressing West Nile virus E and M antigen.
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The following agent is the most commonly used inactivating agent in vet vaccines because it does not alter the protein (antigenic) structure:
A - Alkylating agents such as beta-propiolactone B - alcohol C - acetone D - formaldehyde |
A - Alkylating agents such as beta-propiolactone
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Passive immunity is important in the first few weeks of the newborn because:
A - the acquired immunity cannot function at full adult levels for several wks B - phagocytic capabilities and bactericidal activities are depressed at birth due to high endogenous corticosteroids C - passive immunity helps to establish microbial culture in the neonate gut D - all of the above E - A and B |
E - A and B
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Failure of passive transfer:
A - can occur due to premature birth or suckling after FcRn loss B - foals w/<400mg/dL of serum IgG C - can be diagnosed w/RID test D - all of the above E - A and C |
D - all of the above
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Regarding vaccination of calves and foals:
A - vaccinate no earlier than 3-4mos followed by one or two revaccinations at 4 wk intervals B - vaccinate no earlier than 6wks followed by one or two revaccinations at 4wk intervals C - animals vaccinated b4 6 mos should always be revaccinated @6mos or after weaning D - A and C E - B and C |
D - A and C
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Regarding control of IgA production
A - transforming growth factor beta is primarily responsible for the IgM to IgA switch B - interferon gamma and IL4 are primarily responsible for the IgM to IgA switch C - terminal differentiation of IgA producing plasma cells is mainly mediated by IL6 D - A and C E - B and C |
D - A and C
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When using a modified live vaccine by genetic manipulation, the following is critical to success:
A - safety to fetus B - level of attenuation C - enzymes used in genetic manipulation D - all of the above E - A and C |
D - all of the above
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When a nasal vaccine containing feline rhinotracheitis is given to a cat, memory B cells producing IgA in the inductive site can move to effector sites and give protection at the following site/s:
A - nasal mucosa B - blood C - BALT D - all mucosal surfaces E - A and B |
D - all mucosal surfaces
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The utility of vaccination relies on the production of:
A - Ab B - effector cells C - IgM in the primary immunization D - IgG in secondary immunization E - memory B and T cells |
E - memory B and T cells
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Immune response influences the course and severity of infectious disease depending on Ab or CMI response. THe following is an example:
A - in lepromatous form of Johne's dz, intestinal lesion contains enormous bacteria in the macrophages. There is poor CMI response but high Ab levels. B - in tuberculoid form of Johne's dz, intestinal lesion contains few bacteria in the macrophages. There is poor CMI response but high Ab levels. C - In effusive (wet) form of feline infectious peritonitis, the dz is characterized by the presence of large amounts of proteinacious fluid in the body cavities. Th2 response Ab increase this form. D - non-effusive (dry) form of FIP is characterized by multiple small granulomas on the surface of the major abdominal organs. Th2 response Ab increase. E - A and C F - B and D |
E - A and C
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Milk ring test
A - is used to detect Ab to brucella B - is used to detect brucella antigen C - burcella remains suspended in a negative test D - brucella remains suspended in a positive test E - B and D F - A and C |
F - A and C
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In Aleutian dz of Mink:
A - neutrophils are defective B - nonneutralizing Ab form immune complex +C3 that deposits in arteries and glomerulus C - polyclonal gammopathy occurs D - all of the above E - B and C |
D - all of the above
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The allergy loop includes:
A - Th2 cells, neutrophils, macrophages & basophils B - mast cells, dendritic cells, eosinophils, Th2 and B cells producing IgE Ab C - mast cells, neutrophils, Th1 and B cells producing IgG Ab D - Th1 cells, B cells producing IgE, cytotoxic T cells, macrophages |
B - mast cells, dendritic cells, eosinophils, Th2 and B cells producing IgE Ab
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The mechanism of desensitization therapy is:
A - indouches a shift from Th2 to Th1 response B - induces a shift from Th1 to Th2 response C - promotes IgA rather than IgE response D - promotes IgG rather than IgE response E - B and C F - A and D |
F - A and D
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