• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/351

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

351 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
Maxair
Pirbuterol
DuoNeb (inhaltion solution)
Ipratropium Bromide and albuterol sulfate
Combivent (inhaltion aerosol)
Ipratropium Bromide and albuterol sulfate
Azmacort
Triamcinolone
Atrovent (aerosol, oral inhalation, and nasal spray)
Ipratropium
Clarinex
Desoloratadine
Pherergan
Promethazine
Rhinocort Aqua (Nasal spray)
Budesonide
Flonase

Flovent
Fluticasone
Nasonex
Mometasone
Astelin
Azelastine
Advair
Fluticasone+Salmeterol
Serevent
Salmeterol
Pulmicort
Budesonide
Proventil
Albuterol
Xopenex inhalation
Levalbuterol HCl
Spiriva (inhalation powder)
Tiotropium
Accolate
Zafirlukast
Zestoretic,
Prinzide
Lisinopril + HCTZ
Ziac
Bisoprolol + HCTZ
Mevacor
Lovastatin
Crestor
Rosuvastatin
Lescol
Fluvastatin
Gemfibrozil
Lopid
Fenofibrate
Tricor
Ezetimibe + Simvastatin
Vytorin
Ezetimibe
Zetia
Simvastatin
Zocor
Pravachol
Pravastatin
Adalat CC
Nifedipine
Cardizem
Dilacor XR
Tiazac
Diltiazem
Covera
Isoptin, Isoptin SR
Verelan, Verelan PM
Verapamil
Procardia
Nifedipine
Plendil
Felodipine
Norvasc
Amlodipine
Monopril
Fosinopril
Mavik
Trandolapril
Lotensin
Benzaepril
Accupril
Quinapril
Altace
Ramipril
Benicar
Olmesartan
Capoten
Capotopril
Cozaar
Losartan
Diovan-HCT
Valsartan-HCTZ
Univasc
Moexipril
Demerol
Meperidine
Meperidine + Promethazine
Mepergan
OxyContin
Oxycondon CR (Q12H)

IR formulation --> Q4-6H
Darvon-N
Propoxyphene
Darvcet
Propoxyphene +APAP
Fioricet with codeine
cet-> APAP
+ butalbital + caffeine + codeine
Fiorinal with codeine
nal -> Aspirin
+ butalbital + ceffeine + codeine
Lortab = Norco
Hydrocodone + APAP
Percocet
Oxycodone + APAP
Percodan
Oxycodone + Aspirin
Vicodin
hydrocodone + APAP
Motofen
diphenoxin + atropine
(AE: anticholinergic effects due to the presence of atroine)
Lomotil
diphenoxylate + atropine (AE: anticholinergic effects due to the presence of atropine)
Talwin (Pentazocine)
Opioid agonist-antagonist
Nubain
Nalbuphine
Naloxone
Narcan
Trexan
Naltrexone
Ketamine (emergence delirium limits value of ketamine in adults)
Ketalar (raise in BP and IP) Concurrent atropine to minimizes hypersalivation
Cerebyx
Fosphenytoin (use up to 5 days)
Carisoprodol, generic? (CI in porphyria)
soma (350 mg TID-QID)
Flexeril (max: 60 mg/day; use in elderly up to 2-3 weeks)
Cyclobenzaprine (avoid MAOi)
AE: urinary retention, angle-closure glaucoma, increased ocular pressure)
Sr89, Sm153 ?
Used for bone pain in bone cancer patients
Tigabine (Take with food)
-> reduced dose in pts who are not taking enzyme-inducers and impaired liver functions
Gabitril (used for seizures but can lower seizure threshold)
1 mg PO finateride is used for?
hair loss
Ceftazidime-->
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
To treat syphilis
2.4 MU IM x 1
2.4 MU IM QW x 3 weeks (3,late)
Monitoring: Oxacillin
(oral solution: 3 days @ Room
14 days @ refrigeator)
Liver function (>12 g/day)
Monitoring: Nafacillin
1. Neutropenia
2. Decreased INR with Warfarin
3. Decreased Cyclosporin level
Invanz
Ertazpenem (do not mix with dextrose)
Unasyn
Ampicillin + sulbactam
ketamine
(C-III)
ketalar
Use: Anesthetic and Sedatives
Emergence delirium limits value of ketamine in adults
Tizanidine
zanaflex
Baclofen
Lioresal
ertapenem
Invanz (good G (-) coveage
E.E.S
Erythromycin ethyl succinate
Dymelor
acetohexamide
antidiabetic
Diabinese
Chloropropamide
Tolinase
Tolazamide
Orinase
Tolbutamide
Amaryl
Glimepiride
Glucotrol, Glucotrol XL
Glipizide, Glipizide XL
Diabeta, Micronase
Glyburide
Glynase
Glyburide micronized
Actos
Pioglitazone
Avandia
Rosiglitazone
Troglitazone
Rezulin (D/C 3/31/2000 due to severe liver damage)
Prandin
Repaglinide
Starlix
Nategglinide
Desiccated thyroid USP
Armour Thyroid
Cytomel
Triostat
Liothyronine (T3)
Thyrolar
Liotrix (T4:T3 in a 4:1 ratio)
PTU
Propylthiouracil
Tapazole
Methimazole
Metopirone
Metyrapone
Lysodren
Mitotane
Aminogluthmide
Cytadren
Nizoral
Ketoconazole
Decadrone
Dexamethasone
Medrol, solu-medrol,
methylprednisolone
Florinel
Fludrocortisone
Pitressin
Vasopressin
Stimate (DDAVP)
Desmopressin
Sensipar
cinacalcet; a calcimimetic agent; to control iPTH
Epoetin alfa
Epogen, or Procrit
Darbepoetin alfa
Aranesp
Venofer
Iron sucrose (100 mg/5ml; 20 mg/ml)
Ferrlecit
Sodium Ferric gluconate (62.5 mg elemental iron in 5 ml; 12.5 mg/ml)
InFed, Dexferrum
Iron dextran (50 mg/ml)
Slow Fe
Ferrous sulfate; 200 mg Elemental iron
Phos-Lo
Calcium acetate (25% elemental calcium) vs. calcium carbonate (40% elemental calcium)
Rengel
Sevelamer
Fosrenol
Lanthanum
Nephrocap
Vitamin B complex + vitamin C + folic acid
What is the treatment dose of enoxaparin?
1 mg/kg q12h or 1.5 mg/kg q24H
What do DTIs (direct thrombin inhibitors) use?
Use in place of heparin for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
What is the antidote for Heparin and LMWH?
Protamine sulfate
What is the major and severe adverse effect of Lamictal?
Rash (including Stevens Johnson and toxic epidermal necrolysis)
Morphine vs. Hydromorphone, Fentanyl
1. Morphine --> more histamine release
2. Morphine renally-excreted
Lorazepam--> long-term choice for ICU patients
than prpofol or midazolam
What is the DOC of NMB (neuromuscular blocking agents) in ICU patients?
Pancuronium (Pavulon)
What is the regimen of choice for posttraumatic seizure prophylaxis?
Phenytoin for 7 days
What is the initial treatment of choice in patients with an acute DVT who are hemodynamically stable?
Full dose Heparin or full dose LMWH
What is the initial treatment of choice in patients with a massive DVT who are hemodynamically INstable?
Thrombolytic therapy
Does dobutamine have alpha-1 activity (vasoconstrictor, increased BP)?
NO.
What are the most common electrolyte abnormalities associated with amphotericin B?
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesemia
Marasmus
Low Fat and muscle mass
Kwashiorkor
Normal/elevated fat with depressed immune function
RQ
Respiratory quotient
Na acetate uses in metabolic acidosis
NaCl uses in metabolic alkalosis
1. Why higher Ca is needed in long-term PN patients?

2. Why higher Phosphate is needed in severe malnourished patients?
1. To prevent metabolic bone disease;

2. To prevent refeeding syndrome
What are the renal Mg-wasting drugs?
1. Cisplatin
2. Amphotericin B
3. Aminoglycosides
4. Loop diuretics
What the nutrients are required more in alcholic patietnts?1
1. Mg
2. Folic acid
3. Thiamine
1) 2% lipid--? calories

2) 20% lipid --> calories
1) 200 kcal/L

2)2 kcal/ml --> 2000 kcal/L
1. Skin fold is assessment for

2. Visceral protein stores for

3. Somatic protein stores for..
1) Body fat stores

2) serum protein

3)Skeletal muscle and viscreal organs
Can 0.2 micron filter filter bacteria?
Yes
TNM staging system for solid tumor. TNM stands for?
T: the size of tumor
N: # of lymph node involvement
M: presence or absence of
metases

Stage 0 to Stage IV
What is Neoadjuvant therapy?
The therapy give prior to primary therapy. The goal is to shrink the tumor
What is adjunctive therapy?
Additional therapy given after primary therapy. The goal is to make sure that all residual disease has been eradicated
What is the MOA of Alkylating agents?
Non-phase specific
1. cyclophosphamide (C)
2. Ifosamide (I)
3. carmustine
4. Dacarbazine and
5. Temozolmide
MOA: Covalent bond formation of drugs to nucleic acids and proteins--> cross linking one or two DNA starnds and inhibition of DNA replication
What is the major AE of carmustine?
pulmonary fibrosis and seizure
What is the major AE of Ifosfamide (I) and cyclophosphamide (C)?
hemorrhagic cystitis
What is the major AE of Ifosfamide, other than cystitis?
Encephalopathy
What class of antimetabolites of Pemitrexed (Alimta) and Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)is?
Folic acid antagonist
What are 3 antimetabolites with adverse effect neurotoxcity?
1. Cytarabine
2. Fludarabine
3. Methotrtexate
What is MOA of anthracyclines?
1. Block DNA and RNA transcription through the intercalation (insertion) of adjoining nucleic acid pairs in DNA, which results in DNA breakdown

2. Also inhibits topoisomerase II enzyme
What is the MOA of taxanes and vincas?
Interfere with microtubule
What is the MOA of camptothecins?
Inhibit Top I --> cause DNA strand break (G2 phase)
What is the MOA of epidophyllotoxins?
Inhibit Top II --> DNA strand break (S phase)
What are the counseling points for Avastin?
1. Blood pressure checked regulary

2. Protein in urine
What are the counseling points for Erbitux?
Wearing sunscreen
What are the side effects from Alkyating-like agents, Cisplatin, carboplatin, and oxliplatin?
Nephrotoxicity
Peripheral neurotoxicity
Myelosuppression
Otoxicity
Nausea and vomiting
Plaquenil
Hydroxychloroquine
Probenecid
Benemid
Zyloprim, Aloprim
Allopurinol
Colchicine + Probeneacid
Colbenemid
Sulfinpyrazone
Anturane
Kineret
anakinra (antirheumatic agents) DMARDs
Meperidine
1. Naloxone can not reverse hyperexcitiability
2. Should not use inm patients with renal or CNS disease, for more than 48 hours , or at dose greater than 600 mg/24 hours
Demerol
Dilaudid
Hydromorphone
Hydrocodone/APAP
1) Vicodin
2) Lortab
3) Norco
Hydrocodone/Ibuprofen
Vicoprofen (Class III)
Propoxyphene
Darvon

Propoxyphene/APAP
(Darvocet-N50)
(Darvocet-N100)
Tramadol
Ultram

Tramadol+ APAP
(Ultracet 37.5/325)
Avinza
Long-acting morphine sulfate
Kadian
LA morphine sulfate sprinkle
EXcedrin Migraine
APAP 250
Aspirin 250
Caffeine 650
D.H.E. 45

Migranal (Nasal spray)
Dihydroergotamine
Midrin
Isometheptence ( 65 mg )

Dichloralphenazone (100 mg)
+
APAP (325 mg)
1) OxyContin (Tab)
1) Oxycodone controlled released
2) OxyIR (capsule)
2) Oxycodone Immediate release
3) OxyFast, Oxydose
3) Oral concentrate solution

( 20 mg/ml, Oxycodone)
Selective serotonin receptor agonists (5-HT1B, 5HT-1D, or AKA ? (1)
1. Triptans
Imitrex
Sumatriptan
Maxalt
Rizatriptan
Zomig
Zolmitriptan
Mysoline
Primidone (metabolized to phenobarbital)
Ethosuximide
Zarontin
Fosphenytoin
Cerebyx
Felbatol
Felbamate
Lamictal
Lamotrigine
Keppra
Levetiracetam
Trileptal
Oxcarbazepine
Gabitril
Tiagabine
Topiramate
Topamax
Zonisamide
Zonergran
Valium
Diazepam
Alprazolam
Xanax
Librium
Chlordiazepoxide
Ativan
Lorazepam
Serax
Oxazepam
Dalmane
Flurazepam
Temazpam
Restoril
Halcion
Triazolam
Diastat
Gel Diazepam (to give rectally)
Thorazine
Chlorpromazine
Mellaril
Thioridazine
(BBW: QT prolongation)
Prolixin
Fluphenazine
Zyprexa
Olanzapine
Seroquel
Quetiapine
Geodon
Ziprasidone
Abilify
Aripiprazole
Haldol-D
Haloperidol decanoate
Risperadl Consta

--> reach steady state in 8 weeks
Risperidone long-acting injection

--> must overlap with po medications for 3 weeks
Lithobid
Eskalith CR
Lithium
Depakote
Divalproex sodium
Tegretol
Carbamazapine
Olanzapine+Fluoxetine
Symbyax (use for depressive episodes ass. with bipolar disease)
Elavil
Amitriptyline
Pamelor or Aventyl
Nortriptyline
Imipramine
Tofranil
Doxepin
Sinequan
TCA compound
antidepressant
Anafranil
Clompiramine
Norpramin
Desipramine
Nardil
Phenelzine (MAO i)
Parnate
Tranycypromine
Luvox
Fluvoxamine
Effexor, Effexor XR
Venlafaxine
(Inhibits the reuptake of 5-HT and NE) also NE at higher dose
Desyrel
Trazodone

(25-150 mg qhs for insomnia)
Serzone
Nefazodone

(BID doing, BBW for hepatoxicty)
Niravam
Alprazolam orally disintegrating tablet
BuSpar
Buspirone
Rogaine
Minoxidil (2%, 5%)
MOA: increased blood flow
Propecia
Finasteride
MOA: Inhibits the enzyme 5-alpha-reductase, which is respobsible for the conversion of teststerone to the more powerful DHT
1 mg for alopecia ( 2 years)
Witch hazel (Hamamelis water)
Astringents
Burow's solution
Aluminum acetate

(Astringents)
Head and Shouldes
X-Seb
Zincon
Zinc pyrithione
Balnetar,
Denorex
Estar
Polytar
Coal tar
Loprox
Ciclopirox (antifungal)
Lamisil
Terbinafine
Witch hazel (Hamamelis water)
Astringents
Burow's solution
Aluminum acetate

(Astringents)
Head and Shouldes
X-Seb
Zincon
Zinc pyrithione
Balnetar,
Denorex
Estar
Polytar
Coal tar
Loprox
Ciclopirox (antifungal)
Lamisil
Terbinafine
Allegra
Fexofenadine
- 2nd Generation antihistamine
- Low incidence of sedation
- no anticholinergics
Desloratadine
Clarinex
- 2nd Generation antihistamine
- Low incidence of sedation
- no anticholinergics
Cetirizine
Zyrtec
- 2nd Generation antihistamine
- Low incidence of sedation
- no anticholinergics
Azatadine
Optimine
- 2nd Generation antihistamine
- Low incidence of sedation
- no anticholinergics
Imodium AD
Loperamide
Caduet
amlodipine + atorvastatin
Crestor

(max: 40 mg/day)

All other statins --> 80 mg/day
Rosuvastatin

Monitoring urinalysis for proteinuria
Lopid
(CrCl< 10 is CI)
Gemfibrozil (max: 1200 mg/day)

Decreased TG
Tricor
Fenofibrate 48, 145 mg (max:145)
Antara, Lofibra
Fenofibrate (micronized capsule)
Zetia
Ezetimibe (max: 10 mg/day)

Take in PM
Niacor vs. Niaspan
Niacor: IR crystalline ( 6g/day)

Niaspan: ER niacin (max: 2 g/day)
Plan B
Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg
Lozol
Indapamide
(and Metalozone ok to use CrCl < 30 ml/min)
Lozol
Indapamide
(and Metalozone ok to use CrCl < 30 ml/min)
K+ sparing diuretics.
1) Amiloride (A)
2) Eplenrenone (B)
(A) Midamor
(B) Inspra
Aldosterone antagoinsts.
1) Aldactone (A)
2) Dyrenium (B)
(A) Spironolactone
(B) Triamterene
Coreg

Take BID with food
Carvedilol
(combined alpha and beta blockers)
- Safer in patients with PAD (peripheral arterial disease)
Trandate, Normodyne
combined alpha and beta blockers)
- Safer in patients with PAD (peripheral arterial disease
(more orthostasis)
Labtealol

IV HTN, HTN emergencies
Norvasc
Amlodipine
Plendil
Felodipine
Dynacir (BID)

Dynacir CR (QD)
Isradipine
Cardene (TID)

Cardene SR (BID)
Nicardipine
Procardia XL (QD)
Adalat CC (QD)
Nifedipine
Nisoldpine (QD)
Sular
Calan, Calan SR
Isoptin SR
Veralan, Verlan PM
Covera HS
Verapamil
Minipress
Q HS
alpha-1 blocker
Prazosin
1st dose phenomenon
Hytrin

QHS
alpha-1 blocker
Terazosin
Cardura
Doxazosin (DOC for BPH)
Minoxidil

-direct vasodilator
-Orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachy and renin release
Loniten
Hyralazine

DOC for preeclampsia
(HTN w/ edema and/or proteinuria during pregnancy)
Apresoline
Reserpine
- Avoid in depression
- Peripheral adrenergic neuron antagoinst
Serpasil
Atacand
Candesartan
Tevetan
Eprosartan
Avapro
Irbesartan
Cozaar
Losartan
Micardis
Telmisartan
Benicar
Olmesartan
Diovan
Valsartan
Aldactazide
Spirnolactone + HCTZ
Dyazide, Maxzide
Triamterene + HCTZ
Havrix,
VAQTA
Hep A vaccine

(routine vaccine @1 year old)
Twinrix
Hep A and Hep B (0,1, and 6 months old)
HPV

HPV 16, 18 (70% Cervical CA)
HPV 6,11 (90% Cervical CA)
Gardasil (only 2 strains)

VLP vaccine (Virus Live protein) clumbing together
ProQuad
- (All live virus vaccines)
- Give SC
Measles, Mumps, Rubella

#1 @ 1 year old
#2 @ 4-6 y.o
Prevnar
PCV 7 (all children < 2 y.o)
-2, 4, and 6 months of age
Pneumovax
PCV 23 (AGE 2-5)
Vivotif Berna
-1,3,5,7 days, last 5 years
Typhoid (po, live vaccine)
Varivax
Varicella (live)
2 doses
Zostavax
-Live, SC, and 1 dose only
Zoster
- > 60 years or older
QVAR
Beclomethasone HFA (Inhaled corticosteroid)
Pulmicort
Budesonide (IC)
Aerobid
Flunisolide (IC)
Flovent
Fluticasone
Serevent
Salmeterol (LABA)
Foradil
Formoterol (LABA)
Accolate
Zafirlukast
Take on empty stomach
Intal
Cromolyn sodium
Mast cell stablizer
Tilade
Nedocromil (unpleasant taste)
DuoNeb
Albuterol + Ipratropium
Combivent
Albuterol + Ipratropium
Xopenex
Levalbuterol (SABA)
R-isomer of albuterol
Maxair
Pirbuterol (SABA)
Alupent
Metaprosterenol )SABA)
Nasonex (aqueous solution)
Intranasal corticosteroids
Mometasone furoate
Nasacort AQ
Intranasal corticosteroids
Triamcinolone
(Nasacort HFA, Nasacort AQ)
Hydroxyzine

1st gene antihistamine
Atarax; Vistaril
Brompheniramine, chlorpheniramine
1st gene antihistamine
Zyrtec

More sedation than other 2nd gene antihistamine
Cetirizine (max: 5 mg/24 h > 6 months-23 months)
Loratadine

(take on empty stomach)
Claritin, Alavert
desloratadine
Clarinex (active metabolite of clarinex)
Allegra
- Avoid taking with fruit juice
fexofenadine
Optiva (ophthalmic formulation)

Astelin
Azelastine
Atrovent Nasal spray
Ipratropium

(IN anticholinergic agent)
NasalCrom
Cromolyn Sodium
Beclomethasone
1) Name For Asthma
2) Name For Allergy
Beclomethasone
1) QVAR
2) Beconase, Beconase AQ
Budesonide
1) Name For Asthma
2) Name For Allergy
1) Pulmicort (Turbuhaler, flexhaler, and respules)

2) Rhinocort Aqua
Fluticasone
1) Name For Asthma
2) Name For Allergy
1) Flovent (rotadisk)
2) Flonase
Flunisolide
1) Name For Asthma
2) Name For Allergy
1) Aerobid
2) Nasalide, Nasarel
Mometasone
1) Name For Asthma
2) Name For Allergy
1) Asamanex Twisthaler
2) Nsonex
Triamcinolone
1) Name For Asthma
2) Name For Allergy
1) Azamacort
2) Nasacort
Cromolyn sodium
1) Name For Asthma
2) Name For Allergy
1) Intal
2) NasalCrom
Patanol
Olopatadine

(Antihistamine)
Alrex
Lotemax

(corticosteroid)
Acular
Ketorolac (NSAIDs)
Eye drop
What is the class of: Dymelor, Diabenese, Tolinase, and Orinase?
1st Gene Sulfonylureas
Dymelor
acetohexamide
Diabenese
Chloropropamide (disulfiram reaction with ETOH)
Tolinase
Tolinase
Orinase
Orinase
Amaryl
glimeperide

1) renal adjustment
2) 3rd gene of sulfonylureas
Glucotrol
Glipizide
Diabeta, Micronase
Glyburide
What is MOA of sulfonylureas?
Stimulate insulin release from pancreatic islet cells
What is the class of metformin? MOA?
1) Biguanides

2) Decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis, increased glucose utilization
Prandin

(If skip meal, skip dose)
Repaglinide
Starlix

(if skip meal, skip dose)
Nateglinide
Robitussin
Guafenisn
Robitussin DM
Guafenisn + dextromethorphan
Robitussin PE
Guafenisn + Phenylephrine
Robitussin CF
Guafenisn + phenylphrine + dextromethorphan
Imuran
azathioprine
Rasburicase
Elitek
atomoxetine
Strattera
1) Ritalin, Ritalin LA, Ritalin SR

2) Methylin, Methylin ER

3) Metadate ER, Metadate CD

4) Concerta
Methylphenidate
Adderall
amphetamine + dextroamphetamine
Depokote
Divalproex sodium
Depokene
valproic acid
Triavil
perphenazine + amitriptyline
Campral
acamprosate
Symbyax
olanzapine + fluoxetine