• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/318

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

318 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
how much of the body's calcium is stored in bone
99%
how much of the body's phosphorus is stored in bone
85%
what covers the inside and outside of flat bones
periosteum
endosteum

with spongy bone within, known as the diploe which forms trabeculae
what tissues are bones composed of
osseous tissue
fibrous connective tissue
cartilage
vascular tissue
lymphatic tissue
adipose tissue
nervous tissue
what is the epiphysis
a thin layer of compact bone beneath the articular cartilage
what is the periosteum
a thick fibrous tissue that covers bone surfaces except for articular surfaces
what are the two layers of the periosteum
outer fibrous layer (dense connective tissue)

inner osteogenic layer (which remains active thoughout out life, contains osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblast)
what is teh nutrient foramen
where nerve fibers, lymphatic vessels, and blood vessels enter the bone to supply the periostenum
what connects the periostenum to the bone matrix
strands of collagen
what is the endosteum
the delicate tissue membrane that covers the internal bone surface, including the trabeculae and canals
what cell types are found in the endosteum
osteoblast
osteoclast
most numerous cells in bone
osteocytes which lasts several years
bone tx with hypochlorite
digests collagen
bone tx with HCL
removes mineral
what are the components of bone matrix
25% water
25% protein/organic matrix (95% collagen, 5% chondroiten sulfate)
50% hyrdroxxyapatite (calcium phosphate) and other minerals
osteocalcin
is secreted into the blood by osteoclast and can be measured to determine bone activity
hydroxyapatite
Ca10PO4 6 OH2
where are mineral crystals deposited?
in the "hole" btwn lines of collagen fibers
in children, th emedullary cavity of nearly every bone is filled with
red bone marrow
in young - mld aged adults, the shafts of long bones are filled with
yellow marrow-- it no longer produces blood but can transform into red marrow in the event of severe or chronic anemia
where is red marrow found in the adult skeleton
axial
pectoral girdle
pelvic girdle
proximal heads of the humerus and femur
when does osteogenesis begin
when mesenchymal cells provide the template for subsequent ossification
before week 8, the human skeleton is made of
fibrous membranes
hyaline cartilage
after week 8,
bone tissue begins to replace fibrous membranes and hyaline cartilage
what is intramembranous ossification
the formation of bone directly from or within fibrous connective tissue membranes
what is endochondrial ossification
formation of bone from hyaline cartilage models
which bones are formed by intramembranous ossification
frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal
mandible
clavicle
what is the first step in intramembranous ossification
formation of the ossification center-- mesenchymal cells cluster together and secrete the organic components of bone matrix which b/cms mineralized through the crystallization of calcium salts

calcification causes mesenchymal cells to differentiate inot osteoblasts
what is the second step in intramembranous ossification
the developing bone grows downward from the ossification center in small struts called spicules

blood vessels b/cm trapped within the growing bone
what is the third step of intramembranous ossification
remodeling around trapped bld vessels produce osteons (compact bone)

connective tissue around the bone formes the fibrous layer of the periosteum while osteoblast close to teh bone surface b/cm endosteum
what is the first step of endochrondral ossification
formation of a hyaline cartilage
what happens after hyaline cartilage model forms
condrocytes near the center of the shaft of the hyaline cartilage hypertropy. their lacunae expand and the matrix is reduced to struts that calcify. the chondrocytes are deprived of nutrients since diffusion cannot occur through calcififed cartilage and they die and disintegrate
what happens after chondrocytes hypertophy
-the perichondrium forms
-blood vessels grow into teh perichondrium
-the cells of the inner layer of the perichondrium differentiate into ostoblasts
-the osteoblast forms teh periosteum
-the inner osteogenic layer produces a thin layer of bone aroumd the shaft of the cartilage
-this forms the bony collar
-what happens after the formation of the bony collar
-capillaries and fibroblasts migrate into the heart of the cartilage though the spaces left by the disentegrating chondrocytes
-the calcifed cartiaginous matrix breaks down
-the fibroblasts differentiate into osteoblasts that make spongy bone
-this forms the primary center of ossification
what happens after the formation of the primary ossification center
osteoclasts break down the newly formed spongy bone and oepn up a medullar cavity in the center of the shaft

-osteoblasts move toward the epiphyses

-the epiphyseal cartilage grows
what happens after the formation of the primary ossification center
capillaries and ostoblasts migrate into the epiphyses

the epiphysis is transformed into spongy bone

the epiphyseal plate -- a cartilaginous plate-- remanes at the juncture btwn the epiphysis and diaphysis
at puberty, bone length is incred by which hormones
growth hormone
thyroid hormone
sex hormone
when does the epiphyseal plate close
when osteoblast produce bone faster than cartilage formation
what are the zones of growth in the epiphyseal plate
resting cartilage
proliferating cartilage
hypertrophic cartilage
calcifed cartilage
function of zone of resting cartilage
anchors growth plate to bone
function of zone of proliferating cartilage
rapid chondrocyte division (staked coins)
function of zone of hypertrophic cartilage
chondrocytes enlarged and remain inc olumns
function of zone of calcified cartilage
thin zone, chondrocytes mostly dead since matrix calcified

chondroclasts remove matrix

osteoblasts and capillaries move in to create bone over calcified cartilage
collagen is impregnanted with mineral to
add stiffness to flexibility
the stapes is a
highly mineralized bone with no flexibility
what is the disease state of hypomineralized bone
osteomalacia-- excess osteoid material; bones can deform and not break
ricketts
what is the disease state of hypermineralized bone
osteopetrosis (osteoclast can't remodel bone properly); bones are stiff but not tough and prone to fracture
why did the skeleton evolve
to be a resivour of calcium in a calcium deficent environment
what are the phases of the remodeling cycle
resorption
reversal
formation
resting
What happens during resorption
osteoclasts remove organic and inorganic components of bone matrix;
osteoclasts forms a tight seal btwn it and bone via integrin receptors to create resorption space
what happens during the reversal phase
mononuclear cells along the resorbed surface summon osteoblast into the cavity
what happens in the formation phase
osteoblast line on bone surface and produce collagen; collagen mineralizes after 21 days
what forms osteocytes
ostoblast
what is the function of osteocytes?
mechanosensors-- in tune with bones via caniliculi that connect it to the bone and other osteocytes
what happens when bone formation is complete
osteoblasts are no longer on the surface
lining cells-- (mononuclear cells) form a sheath across every bone surface; forms a blood bone layer that regulates the flow of ions into and out of the bone

mineral continues to be deposited
what happens during the resting phase
mononuclear lining cells remain
what is the difference btwn remodeling in cancellous and cortical bone
in cortical bone, osteoclast have to drill through the center of the bone and the osteoblast have to fill in a larger hole
what forms haversian systems
sheets of lamellar bone layed down by osteoblasts
what are volkmans's canal
blood vessels running perpendicular to long axis of bone
where does remodeling occur at the highest rate
areas rich in trabecular bone-- spine, femoral neck of femur, distal radius
what is the timing of resorption
2 wks for trabecular
4 wks for cortical
what is the timing for refomration
7 wks trabecular
10 wks cortical
describe the remodeling in the bone
highest negative balance on endosteal surface

positive balance on subperiosteal surface

neutral in the cortex
what changes in bone occurs with age
diameter increases but the cortical region thins
why are male bones stronger than female bones during aging
men are able to add more bone to perosteal surface than women
what is the origin of osteoclasts
circulating mononuclear cells
what is the origin of osteoblasts
fixed mesenchymal cells in marrow
what accounts for slow bone loss in men and women
osteoblast dysfunction (resporption cavity remains)

leads to thinning of trabecular plate
what accounts for rapid bone loss
osteoclast hyperactivity; happens in postmenopausal women
leads to loss of trabecular plate
what is the architecutral changes in osteoporosis
gradual thinning of trabecular plate
plate blcms rod like
rod perforate
horizontal rods drop out prefrentially
what happens to bone when estrogen levels fall
proabsorptive cytokines (IL6, TNF a) incr in weeks leading to incr bone loss
what is the effect of IL-6 on bone
it stimulates osteoclastogenesis

-if blocked osteoclast activity can be inhibited
how does estrogen protect against bone loss
inhibits IL6 activity at the bone
what is RANK?
a transcription factor impt for osteoclast formation that is expressed on the surface of osteoclast

-it is activated by RANKL binding
what is RANKL
protein expressed by osteoblast and bone lining cells

it binds to RANK and activates RANK promoting osteoclast formation and survival
what is osteoprotegerin (OPG)
a protein secreted by osteoblast that is a natural inhibitor of RANKL
what is the effect of estrogen on RANKL pathway
presence of estrogen leads to dcr synthesis of RANKL

loss of estrogen leads to incr in RANKL and more osteoclasts form
what is sclerostin
negative regulator of bone formation
made by osteocytes
what is sclerostesosis
a high bone mass disease c/b loss of function in sclerostin
what are common disorders of bone and mineral metabolism
osteoporosis
primary phyerparathyroidism
vit d def
rickets
osteomalacia
hypercalcemia of malignaey
bone diesase of keiney failure
hypomagnesemia
what are the functions of calcium
skeletal integrity
excitation contraction coupling
coagulation
membrane stability and permeabilty
cell secrertion of hormonae
transmembrane signaling
skeletal mineralization
what is the distribution of calcium in teh body
1000g in body
990 g in skeleton: 99& is complexed, 1% is available for use

10 g extraskeleateal: 700mg tissues 300mg in blood
what are the forms of calicium in blood
40% protein bound
50% ionized
10% complexed to anions
what are sx of hypocalcemia
irritability and anxiety
paresthesis (esp around mouth)
seizures
laryngospasm
bronchospasm
hrt failure
muscle cramps
tetany (Chvostek's sign, Trousseu' sign)
prolonged QT interval
what are sx of hypercalcemi
dcr ability to concentrate
incr sleep requirement
depression
confusion and coma
polyuria
polydispia
death
arrhythmia
bradycardia
muscle weakness
tetany is a sign of
impending hypocalcemic crisis (hand ulnar/laterally deviates)
what is the normal range of total serum calcium levels in the blood
8.5 - 10.4 mg/dl
what states change serum calcium concentration
albumin
anion concentration
acid base status
how does changes in serum albumin affect changes in serum calcium
total calcium changes in same direction

ionized calcium does not change
what is the equation for albumin corrected calcium
for every gram teh serum albumin is below 4.0, add 0.8 mg to the total serum calcium

= 4 - serum albumin
x 8
+ total calcium
a rise in plasma phosphate
dcr the ionized calcium
total serum calcium does not change
(causes bone disesae in kidney pts)
acidosis leads to
more H+ binding to albumin so that less Ca binds to albumin

ionized Ca incr

total serum calcium doesn't chage
alkemia leads to
less H+ on albumin = more binding sites for calcium
dcr in ionized calcium

total serum calcium doesn't change
what is the only source of calcium
diet
what influeces calcium absorption
amt of Ca in diet
ability of intestine to absorb it
where is calcium absorbed in the intestine
duodenum
upper jejunum
how is calcium absorbed in the intestine
-active transport, which requires vit D
-concentration dependent paracellular transport
what conditions dcr Ca absorption from the intestine
intestinal diseases
aging
estrogen deficiency
what is the major site of calcium balance
kidney
how much of the filtered calcium is actively reabsorbed or excreted to maintain calcium balance
2%
what regulates renal calcium excretion
PTH
calcitriol
what is the normal urine calcium excretion
100-300mg/day
what 3 organs are invovled in calcium homeostasis
bone
kidney
intestin
what 3 hormones are involved in calcium homeostasis
PTH
vit D
calcitonin
in an adult with 1000 mg Ca intake a day what is the net absorptoin
200mg
(350mg absorb, 150mg excreted)
what are the physiological functions of phosphorus
skeletal integrity
acid base buffer
what is the normal serum levels of phosphate
2.5-4.5mg/dl
what are the forms of phosphate in the body
45% ionized
40% complexed
15% protein bound
what infuences serum phosphate levels
age
sex
diet
pH
hormones

phosphate levels are not tightly regulated
what is the only source of phosphate
diet
where is phosphate absorbed
jejunum
what are the mechanisms of phosphate absorption in the intestine
passive transport
vit D dependent active transport

absorption is directly related to intake
unlike calcium absorption from the intestine, phosphate absorption
can occur in the absence of vit D

significant in renal failure where there are low levels of vit D--- serum phosphate can rise much higher than calcium
how much phosphate is filtered by the kidney a day
700g
how much of the filtered phosphate is reabsorbed
80-90%
what regulates kidney phosphorus excretion
vitamin D
PTH
phosphatonins
what are phosphatonins
secreted by osteoblasts; way osteoblasts communicate with kidney
what are the three main functions of bone cells
modeling
remodeling
Ca and PO4 balance
what receptors do osteoclast have
calcitonin
cytokines
RANKL
TNFa
osteoblasts has receptors for what ligands
PTH
1,24(OH)2D
estrogen
cytokines
what are the two functions of of osteoblasts
synthesis bone collagen matrix
mineralize bone collagen matrix
what initiates the bone remodeling process
the death of the osteocyte
what ages does slow loss of bone take place
30 - 40
what perid does rapid loss take place
40 -55 in menopausal women
what are the calcitrophic hormones
PTH
vit D
what are the functions of PTH
regulate serum Ca and PO4
regulate bone remodeling
regulate synthesis of vit D
when do the parathyroids secrete PTH
when plasma calcium falls
when is there a rapid drop in PTH levels
when serum Ca is about 8-10mg/dL
what is the mechanism underling PTH secretion
parathyroid cells have a calcium sensing receptor on the membrane

CaSR is coupled by G protein to phospholipase C

rise in extracellular ionized calcium cause incr intracellular ionized calcum and inhibition of PTH

fall in extracellular ionized cl leads to dcr PTH secretion
what is the mechanism of PTH on the kidney
PTH binds to PTHrP, coupled by Gs to adenylate cyclase

cAMP activates PKA

PKA inhibits NaPO4 cotransporter at luminal surface
what is the effect of PTH on the proximal tubule of the kidney
inhibits NaPO4 cotransport
incr 1,25 D synthesis
what is the effect of PTh on the distal tubule
Incr Ca reabsorption
what is the effect of PTH on the osteoblast
incr formation which leads to incre release of both Ca and PO4
what is indirect effect of PTH on the osteoclast
incr resorption (long term) leading to incr release of Ca and PO3
what is the indirect (mediated by vit D) effect of PTH on the upper jejunum
incr Ca and PO4 absorption
PTH leads to incr PO4 absorbtion from the intestion and resorption from the bone but net PO4 levels
are unchanges since the kidneys NaPO4 trasporter is inhibited
contrite
peniten, feeling or showing sorrow and regret for having done wrong; repentant- Her contrite tears did not influence the judge when he imposed sentence
what are sources of vit D
D3 (cholecalciferol):
-UV light on 7-dehyrocholesterol in skin
-fatty fish
-cod liver oil

D2 (ergocalciferol):
-irradition of ergosterol in plants in yeast
-fortified cereal, milk and bread
what is the RDA of Vit D
400-800IU
what is the main circulating form of vit D, which is also measured to determine if someone has a deficency
25-OHD
what is the control point in the kidney for regulating vit D
1a hydroxylase which will make active 1,24(OH2)D
what stimulates 1a hydroxylase
low serum calcium
high PTH
low phosphate
how does the kidney form inactive vit D
hydroxylating the 24 position instead of the 1 position
how is vit d synthesized
D2 and D3 from diet is transported to liver

the liver hydroxylates the 25 carbon

the kidney hydroxylates either the 1 carbon or 24 carbon
what are the target organs of vit D
intestine
bone
kidney
parathryoids
what are the molecular downstream effects of vit d
incr transcription of genes and synthesis of proteins taht control biological responses to vit D
what is vit d effect on the parathyroid
regulate its secretion via neg feedback
what are the effects of vit D on the intestine
incr Ca and PO4 absorption
what are vit D effect on kidney
incr Ca and PO4 reabsorption
what are vit d effect on bone
incr osteoclast bone resporption with PTH
incr osteoblast bone fomration
what is the overall effect of vit D
incr plasma Ca and PO4 and incr bone mineralization
where is calcitonin secreted
parafollicular C cells of thyroid
what is major stimulus for calcitonin release
rise in plasma Ca
what are actions of clacitonin
inhibits osteoclast bone resorption

incr urinary ca excretion
what is therapeutic use of calcitonin
mild forms osteoporosis
hypercalcemia
what are the physiological functions of magnesium
structural (complexed with ca and po4 in bone)
-cellular energy transfer
-essential component of ATP
-genomic regulator
-neuromuscular esxcitation contraction coupling
what is the body's distribution of magnesium
50-60% in skeleton
40% intracellular
very little in ECF
55% serum Mg is ionized
what is the cavet in measuring serum Mg levels
they do not correlate well with body's store
what is the regulation of Mg
30% of dietary Mg is absorbed

bone does not contribute to Mg balance

kidney is main site of control and reflects body stores of Mg
what are the main causes of hypermagnesiemia
antacids
renal insufficency is a risk factor
therapy of toxemia of pregnancy of premature labor to suppress neuromuscular activity
what are sx of hypermagnesemia
similar sx of hypercalcemia

depressed neuromuscular function
which magnesium disorder is most common, esp in hospitalized pts
hypomagnesium
what are causes of hypomagnesemia
-Mg loss of intestine (esp lg bowel) (i.e. diarrhea)
-loop diruetics
-cysplatin and other immunosuppresive agents
-antitumor trugs
-incr in urinary flow, sodium and/or calcium excretion
what occurs cocomittaly with hypocalcemia
hypomagnesemia
how does hypomagnesemia affect calcium levels
PTH won't be secreted
PTH won't work well
what are sx of hypomagnesemia
-variable; masked by underlying illness
-asymptomatic
-neuromuscular irritability (tetany)
-cardiac arrhythmias
-hypocalemia
-hypokalemia
how do you tx hypomagnesemia
infuse a lot of magnesium (days)
what allows us to be in calcium balance
kidney which excretes teh amt that has been absorbed
what is the turn over of calcium per day at the bone
500mg
what are the causes of hypercalcemia
primary hyperparathyrodism
malignancy
vitamin D excess
incr bone turnover
what are the causes of hyperparathyroidism
Primary: adenoma

tertiary: after long standing secondary hyperparathyroidsm (As in renal failure) an autonomous nodule develops

lithium
what are causes of malignancy related hypercalcemia
PTHrP

cytokines and incr vit D

local osteolysis
what are cuases of incr bone turnover
hyperthyroidsim
immobilization + Paget's disease

vit A
what are miscellaneous causes of hypercalceima
thiazides
Ca based antiacids
adrenal insufficency
what are causes of vitamin D excess related hypercalcemia
granulomas (sarcoid, TB, histo, WEgners)

vit D intoxication
what is primary hyperparathyrodism
common endocrine disorder characterized by incompletely regulated, excessive secretion of PTH from teh parathyroid glands
hyperparathyrodism is associated with
elevated serum Ca
high PTH levels
normal PTH levels in pts with primary hyperparathyrodism
is considered abnormal since PTH levels should be supressed
what are CXR signs of osteitis fibrosa cystica
salt and pepper granulations of skull

bone resorption of phalanges
what is osteitis fibrosa cystica
bone changes caused by severe hyperparathyrodism
what is the modern clinical profile of primary hyperparathyroidism
-asymptomatic (80%)
-hypercalciuria (39%)
-nephrolithias (17%)
-overt skeletal disease (1%)
what are the biochemial findings in pts with primary hyperparathyroidsm
hypercalcemia
elevated PTH
high active vit D
why is active vit D levels high in primary hyperparathyrodism
PTH stimulates 1a hydroxylase
densitometric bone findings in hyperparathyrodism (DXA) (dual energy X ray absorptiometry)
gold standard for osteoporosis
what is the relationship btwn bone mineral density and fracture risk
for every 1 SD below normal bone density, risk of fracture incrs 2 fold
what BMD changes do you see in the spine, femoral neck and radius in postmenopausal women with primary hyperparathyrodism
radius density has the greatest dcr

lumbar spine retains most of its density
which bone has high cortical bone composition
distal radius
which bone has high cancellous bone composition
lumbar spine
parathyroid hormone is most catabolic for which bone
cortical
PTH is anabolic for which bone
cancellous (lumbar spine)
what are guidelines that indicate parathyroid removal to tx hyperparathryodism
hypercalcemia >1mg/dL above normal

stone or overt bone disease

reduced bone density

younger than 50
if hypercalcemia is not due to parathyroid secretion and PTH levels are low
it can be c/b by malignancy
what is the eitology of humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy
malignant tumors synthesize and secrete a factor that stimulate osteoclast mediated bone resorption
what is the criteria for PTHrP HHM
-produced by tumor
-blood levels correlates with hypercalcemia
-mimics the clinical syndrome
-reducing the PTHrP buder reverses hypercalcemia
which malignancies are associated with high levels of PTHrP
-HTLV T cell lymphoma
-classical squamous cell carcinoma
-adenocarcinoma
-breast carcinoma
-myeloma and other hematological malignancies
what are potential physiological functions of PTHrP
lactation
placental calcium transport
bone growth
smooth muscle function
what are clinical features of hypercalcemia
constitutional
CNS - disoriented, incr sleep
GI - anorexia, constipated
renal - polyuria
cardiovascular- shortened QT interval
what factors determine if a pt will have sx of hypercalcemia
how high serum Ca is
the rate of rise of serum Ca
how long Ca has been elevated
individual variability
what is the pathophysiology of acute hypercalcemia
1. stimulus to hypercalcemia
2. hypercalcemia b/cms symptomatic
3. worsening hypercalcemia
4. reduced plasma volume
when should hypercalcemia be treated emergently
calcium greater than 14 (or in btwn 12-14)
what is the general approach to management to hypercalcemia
-IV saline (to correct possible volume depletion c/b hypercalcemia induced urinary salt wasting)
-diuresis (furosemide)
-calcitonin
-bisphosphonates
-dialysis (if necessary)
-mobilization
what is the specific management of hypercalcemia
bisphosphonates (zoledronate, pamidronate)
mechanism of bisphosphonate action
high affinity for bone
get engulfed by osteoclast and disrupt its function
what factors are related to existing stimulus to hypercalcemia
-osteoclast activation
-renal tubular conservation of calcium (due to PTH)
-reduced mobility
when hypercalcemia b/cms sx what sx are seen
polyuria
polydyspia
anorexia
what are complications of anorexia in hypercalcemia
reduced fluid intake, continued polyuria and dehydration.

dehydration leads to reduced plasma volume, impaired renal function, reduced renal calcium clearence and worsening hypercalcemia
which IV bisphosponates are used for emergent lowering of hypercalcemia
zoledronate
pamidronate
what are adverse effects of pamidronate and zoledronate
acute phase reaction
mild transient fever
transient leukopenia
small reduction in serum phosphate
hypocalcemia
how does calcitonin tx hypercalcemia
osteoclast inhibitor
calciuretic
rapid reduction in calcium

but weak and short lived effect
what are the causes of hypocalcemia
-hypoparathyroidsim
-pseudohypoparathyroidms (c/b contrast agents)
-vit D defiency
-chronic renal failure
-accelerated net bone formation
-calcium sequestration
what are causes of hypoparathyroidism
-autoimmune (polyglandular autoimmune syndrome type I, anti CaSR antibodies)
-iatrogenic (surgery, radiation)
-hypomagnesium and acute and severe hypermagnesium
-hemochromatosis
what are causes of pseudohypoparathyroidism
PTH endo organ resistance
what are causes of vit D deficencey or resistance which can lead to hypocalcemia
sunlight deprivation
GI disese/fat malabsorption
-anticonvulsants, rifampin, ketoconazole, F-FU, leucovorin
how does chronic renal failure lead to hypocalcemia
dcr vit D production
incr phosphate from dcr clearance
what are causes of calcium sequestration that can lead to hypocalcemia
pancreatitis
citrate excess (after blood transfusion)
acute incr in phosfate (ARF, rhabdomyolysis, tumor lysis)
if you have hypoparathryodism, when your calcium drops
there is no response from parathyroid and PTH levels are low
mild hyupomagnesima
leads to incr PTH
severe hypomagnesium
leads to dcr in PTH
pts with severe hypomagnesimia leads to
dcr PTH secretion
dcr 1,25 activation
dcr PTH action
what are the goals emergent tx hypomagnesium
alleviate sx and symptoms

correct hypocalcmei and hypokalemia
what is secondary hyperparathyroidism
high PTH to correct for hypocalcemia
what are clincial features of hypocalcemia
neuromuscular irritability
renal osteodystrophy
what are signs of neuromuscular irritability assoc with hypocalcemia
perioral paresthesias
cramps
Chvostek's sign
Trousseu's sx
laryngo, or broncho, or carpal spasm
depression
psychosis
icr ICP
seizures
prolonged QT interval
what is renal osteodystrophy
dcr vit D and incr PTH in renal failure which leads to osteomalacia an osteitits fibrosa cystica
what is a Chvostek's sign
tapping facial nerve leads to contraction of facial muscles
what is the Trousseu's sign
inflating BP cuff leads to carpal spasm
what are are indications for acute tx of hypocalcemia
-sx
-no sx but serum calcium corrected for serum albumin less thatn 7.5mg/dL
-hx of seizures
-previous compression fracture
what is used to tx acute hypocalcemia
calcium gluconate
how is chronic hypocalcemia tx
oral calcium
oral vit D
what is calcitriol
active vit D
what is hypercalcemic crisis
when calcium levels rise abruptly to 13-15 leading to polyuria, dehydration, coma
phosphate retention and secondary hyperparathyroidism lead to
chronic renal failure

PTH reduces permeability of BM

high phosphate damages the parenchyma
describe the bone in osteoporosis
spaces in btwn bone b/cms wider and filled with marrow making it weak
what is the prevlance of ostoprosis
8 million women 2 million men
prevelance of osteopenia
34 million
where are the most risky sites of fractures in osteopoorosis
spine
hip
wrist
hip and wrist fractures
are often painful
spine fractures
can be unfelt
what is the morbidity after hip facture
incr risk of death, permanent disability, unable to walk indp, or unable to carry out at least one ADL
what is teh morbidity after vertebral fracture
not as severe as hip
-back pain
-loss of ht
-deformity: kyphosis, protuberant abdomen
-reduced pulmonary function
-diminised quality of life
-dependent on narcotic analgesic
-sleep disorder
bone remodeling in postmenopausal women
always leads to a net bone loss
osteoprosis is a problem of
quantity and quality (horizontal beams are lost)
what is osteporosis
skeletal disorder charactherized by comprommied bone strength leading to incr risk of fracture
what are the determinants of bone strenght
bone density
rate of turnover
microarchitecture
bone size and shape
damage accumulation
mineralization
matrix quality
at the same bone density a larger bone size
protects against fractures
what are lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis
low calcium intake
vit D insufficency
high caffeine (which leads to ca loss in urine)
alcohol
smoking
falling
immobilization
thinness
what are causes of secondary osteoporosis
hyperthyroidism
hyperthyroidism
hypogonadism
cushing syndrome
diabetes mellitus type i
vit d def
malabsorption syndromes
*glucocorticoid/steroids
anticonvulsants
rheumatoid arthritis
myeloma
what are medications associated with osteoporosis
glucocorticoids
cyclosporin
cytotoxic drugs
anticonvulsants
excessive thyorid hormone
heparin
GnRH antagonists
progestin only birth control
aromatase inhibitors
how do glucocorticoids cause bone loss
block Ca absorption in intestine

icr urinary excretion of Ca

lower LH/FSH and estrogen

incr osteoclast activity

dcr number and function of osteoblasts
pts who are about to start glucocorticoid therapy should
have a bone density scan
gold standard of dx osteoporosis
DXA bone mineral density testing
how is DXA used
-measures spine, hip and wrist
-lg normative data base
-safe
-
BMD =
grams of calcium/cm2
t score from DXA
compared to young normal adults

predictive of pts risk of having a fracture
z score from DXA
how pt differs from other pts of same age, race and gender;

SD from aged matched mean

if more than 2 SD from aged matched mean, likely another underlying reason of osteoporosis
what are the WHO osteoporosis guidelines in postmenopausal caucasian women
if t score is greater than -1 = normal

if t score is btwn -2.5 and -1 = osteopenia

if t score is less than -2.5 = osteoporosis
who should have a bone density test
women over 65
men over 70
-postmenopausal women with fragility fractures
-women and men on or starting steroids
-post menopausal women and men less than 70 with risk factors (thin, early menopause, smoking, fhx of hip fracture, secondary cause of osteoporosis)
postmenopausal osteopenic women (-1-- -2.5)
have incr risk of fracture
most fractures occur in women with osteopenia b/c
there are more numerous than women with osteoporosis though fracture rate is higher in osteoporosis
for a given BMD, risk of fracture increases with
age
what is the FRAX WHO risk tool
gives the 10 year probability of having a fracture in osteopenic women
who should be tx for osteopenia/osteoporosis
-hx of hip or vertebral fracture
-BMD t score less than -2.5 at femoral neck or spine
-BMD t score btwn -1.0 and -2.5
-if 3% or greater chance of hip fracture or 20% or greater of major osteoprotic fracture, for next 10 yrs
what is osteomalacia
deficency of minerals in the bone leading to soft bone
what are sx of osteomalacia
diffuse dull bone pain
tenderness and muscle weakness
waddling gait
fractures with little trauma
what are xray findings of osteomalacia
dcr bone density with blurring and deformity
most common cause of osteomalacia
vit d deficency
what is rickets
osteomalacia in children
-widening of ends of long bones
-bowing
normal vit levels
30ng/mL
bone disese in renal insufficency results from
dcr excretion of phosphate by damaged kidney leading ot hypocalcemia and high PTH

dcr vit d due to damaged kidney

renal osteodystrophy
what is paget's disease of the bone
focal areas of accelerated bone remodeling leading to overgrowth of bone
sx of paget's disease of bone
usually asympotmatic but can have pain and deformites
dx of paget's disease of bone
elevated alkaline phosphatase or x ray findings
tx of paget's disease of bone
bisphosphonate to ease pain and reduce rate of bone remodeling

monitor alkaline phosphatase
what is osteogenesis imperfecta
inherited connective tissue disorder
brittle bone disease
mutation in genes that code for proteins that combine to form type I collagen
fractures with minimal trauma
tx for osteogenesis imperfecta
bisphosphonates
what should the total calcium intake be
1200-1500mg
how much Ca should you take at a time and why
500-600mg with protein for better absorption
what is required with calcium carbonate
a source of acid (Gastric or food)
proton pumps inhibitors
can block calcium absorption
what are side effects of calcium carbonate
gas
bloating
constipation
why isn't 1,25 vit D levels used to measure index of vitamin D
-short half life
-not stored in fat
what form of vit D is measured in blood
25-hydroxyvitimin D (the storage form)
when does parathryoid hormone level start to rise
when vit d drops to less than 30ng/ML
what is the daily recommendation of vit D
1200-1500 IU day
what are the 2 forms of vit D
D3 (cholecalciferol)
D2 ergocalciferol
what are antiresorptives
dcr rate of bone remodeling
what are FDA approved antiresorptives for osteoporosis
estrogen
raloxifene
bisphosphonates
calcitonin
denosumab
what was the WHI finidng in estrogen and progestein or estrogen alone therapy
dcr risk of hip fractures
what are adverse risks of estrogen
VTE
stroke
CAD
breast cancer
what are the official recommendations regarding estrogen use for osteoporosis
it should not be used as a primary threapy to prevent bone loss

it should not be used as a primary approach to tx osteoporosis
what is an ideal SERM
skeletal and cardiovascular agonist

breast and uterus antagonist
what drug class is raloxifene
SERM
how is calcitonin given
nasal spray
what are the adverse effects of raloxifene
incr hot flashes
incr leg cramps
incr risk of DVT
incr risk of PE
stroke with incr mortality
what are the benefits of raloxifene
incr bone mass
dcr vertebral fractures
no breast tenderness
no uterine bleeding
dcr risk of breast cancer
no incr cardiovascular risk
what is the outcome of calcitonin therapy
reduced incidence in vertebral fractures
what is the outcome of calcitonin therapy
reduced incidence in vertebral fractures
what is a contraindication of calcitonin
pregnancy
what is a contraindication of calcitonin
pregnancy
what is the key biochemistry of bisphosphonates
a PCP bond that can't be metabolized by the body

an amino group
what is the key biochemistry of bisphosphonates
a PCP bond that can't be metabolized by the body

an amino group
what are the characteristics of oral bisphosphonates
-poorly absorbed
-must be taken in fasting state in morning with water and fast 30 min after
-
what are the characteristics of oral bisphosphonates
-poorly absorbed
-must be taken in fasting state in morning with water and fast 30 min after
-
what are side effects of bisphosphonates
GI intolerance
what are side effects of bisphosphonates
GI intolerance
what is the pathway bisphosphonates work
inhibit cholesterol pathway preventing the expression of anchoring proteins on osteoblasts
what is the pathway bisphosphonates work
inhibit cholesterol pathway preventing the expression of anchoring proteins on osteoblasts
which bisphosphonates reduce vertebral fractures
all
which bisphosphonates reduce vertebral fractures
all
which bisphosphonates reduce nonvertebral fractures
alendronate
which bisphosphonates reduce nonvertebral fractures
alendronate
what are adverse events assoc with bisphosphonates
-upper GI intolerance
-acute phase rxn (more with IV agents)
-atypical fractures after long term use (oversuppression sydrome)
-osteonecrosis of the jaw
what are adverse events assoc with bisphosphonates
-upper GI intolerance
-acute phase rxn (more with IV agents)
-atypical fractures after long term use (oversuppression sydrome)
-osteonecrosis of the jaw
what is denosumab
a human IgG antibody to RANKL; reduces all types of fractures
what is denosumab
a human IgG antibody to RANKL; reduces all types of fractures
what is an osteoanabolic
teriparatide or full lenghth PTH
how can PTH be anabolic
when given intermittently; leads to inhibition of sclerostin
what are the effects of teriperitide
dcr bone pain
improved trabecular connectivity