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1040 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
ouabain
Na K ATP ase sensitive to it
stimulation of phosphofructokinase activity
increased glycolysis
accumulation of lactate
decreased pH
Enzymes for diagnosing MI
AST
LDH
CK = CPK
Liver enzymes
AST
ALT
GGT
most sensitive cells to hypoxic injury
neurons (3-5 minutes)
reperfusion after ischemic injury can generate
free radicals
intracellular enzymes that degrade free radicals
glutathione peroxidase
catalase
superoxide dismutase
antioxidant vitams
ACE
disaggregation of ribosomes in liver
lipid peroxidation of intracellular membranes by CCl4 causes this and it in turns leads to fatty change and eventually to plasma membrane damage and cell death
organs with coagulative necrosis
heart
kidney
organs wtih liquefactive necrosis
brain
caseous necrosis
TB granulomas
necrosis with eosinophilia
coagulative
caseous
gangenous necrosis organs
lower etremity or bowel
fibrinoid necrosis
imimune mediated vasculitis
chromatin clumbing and shrinking with increased basophilia
pyknosis
fragmentation of chromatin
karyorrhexis
fading of chromatin
karyolysis
wet vs dry gangrene
wet associated with liquefactive;

dry associated with coagulative necrosis without liquefaction
dying cells; laddered pattern
apoptosis
dying cells with inflammatory reaction
necrosis not apoptosis
blebbing
apoptosis
Councilman bodies
apoptosis in viral hepatitis
Caspase 10, 8, 3 7
extrinsic pathway by Fas ligand, trail, tnf
caspse 9
intrinsic pathway
what kind of proteins are caspases
aspartate-specific serine proteases
granzyme B
activates cytotoxic T and initiates caspase cascade
hemosiderin
ferritin
prussian blue
hemosiderin
micronodular cirrhosis
diabetes mellitus
skin pigmentation
bronze diabetes of hemochromatosis
increased serum iron
decreased total iron binding capacity
hemochromatosis
brown atrophy
lipofuscin
old people
induction of selectins
IL-1
TNF
Weibel-Palade bodies
store P selectins
Sialyl Lewis bodies X
on leukocytes
E and P selectins bind them
L selectins
on neutrophiLs
E selectins
on endothelial cells
P selectins
on endothelial cells
commonalty among:
TB, brucellosis, typhus, salmonella
monocytosis
basophilia
CML
myeloproliferative diseases
eosinophilia
alleries
parasitic
PAN
Hodgkins
selectins and sialyl lewis
rolling
Integrins (LFA, VLA)
ICAM, VCAM
adhesion
PECAM (CD31)
diapedesis
C5a
neutrophil chemotaxis
HETE
neutrophil chemotaxis
kallikrein
neutrophil chemotaxis
formylated peptirdes
bacterial products of e coli
chemotactic for neutrophils
LTB4
neutrophil chemotaxis
PAF
from basophils, masts
eosinophil chemotaxis
fibronectin
ECM protein
chemotactic for fibroblasts and endothelials
IgG and C3b
opsonization
HMPshunt
oxygen-dependent mircorbial killing initated by phagocytosis
halide ion
promotes H2O2 oxidation and killing
myeloperoxidase-halide system of bacterial killing
PAF
platelet release of histamine and serotonin

activates AA

= AGEPC
TXA2 vs PGI2
TXA vasoconstricts and aggregates platelets

PGI2 does the opposite
HPETE
product of lipoxygenase pathway
results in HETE, leukotrienes, lipoxins
acute phase proteins
CRP
serum amyloid-associated protein
complement components
fibrinogen
prothrombin
alha 1 antitrypsin
alpha 2 macroblobulin
ferritin
ceruloplasmin
Hageman factor
XII

initiates Kinin system and intrinsic pathway

links kinin, coagulating, plasminogen and complement systems!!!
kinin system
activates complement cascade
bradyknin
vascular permeability
arteriolar dilation
pain
EDRF
NO
catalase + vs - organisms in context of CGD
positives are ingested but not killed (as CGD would predict)

negatives kill themselves by producing just the H2O2 needed by the phagocytes that ingest them
neutropenia
albinism
cranial and peripheral neuropathy
tendency for repeated infections
Chediak-Higashi
WBC abnormality
abnormal microtubule formation
large cytoplasmic granules in granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes

large abnormal melanosomes in melanocytes
Checiak-Higashi
imparied lysosome fusion
Chediak-Higashi
LAD I
Adhesion problem
integrin deficiency

If you adhere you are 1
LAD 2
Sialyl lewis deficiency because of mutated fuxosyltransferase gene

Rolling problem

It takes 2 to roll
noncaseating pulmonary granulomas
sarcoidosis
langhans giant cell
TB
blasto
histo
cociidioides
granulomatous fungi
prtmsnrny vrlld
neurons (ha!)
yocardial cell
PDGF
collagen via stimulating fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells
EGF
fibroblasts and endothelial cells
FGF
fibronectin
red infarct locations
lungs and GI tract
PGI2
Inhibits platelet aggregation

PGI - IGP
Inhibits Gregation of Platelets
thrombomodulin
activates protein C
Activated protein C (APC)
cleaves Va and VIIIa
activated by K
factor V leiden
hereditary thrombohpilia (most comon variant)

Factor V can't be activated by Protein C
resistance to APC (activated protein c)
factor V leiden
deficiencies in Antithrombin III
protein C
protein S
hereditary thrombophilia
APC - factor V leidein associated
methylene tetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR)
if mutated, increase in homocystein
antiphospholipid antibody
lupus anticoagulant
can be associated wtih SLE
fasle positive for syphilis
anticardiolipin antibody
prothrombotic and antithrombotic disorder
DIC
lines of Zahn
arterial thrombi

lines of zArterial tHrombi
dark red thrombi with no/weak lines of Zahn
venous thrombi/phelbothrombosis
currant jelly appearance of clots
postmortem

(in cell-rich lower layer)

currants are not current!
chicken fat appearance in clots
postmortem

(in cell-poor upper layer)

he was chicken and got killed
choromosomal disorder with male hypogonadism
klinefelter

prader willi
typical cause of klinefelters
materanal meiotic nondisjunction
Fragile x results from a defect on...
the long arm of the X chromosome, in which carriers have increased CGG repeats in the FMR-1 gene
Mormon from utah with telangiectasias of skin and mucous membranes, with recurrent hemorrhage from these lesions
Osler-Weber-Rendu
pigmented iris hamartomas
Lisch nodules in Nerofibromatosis
a functional NF1 gene codes for
a GTPase-activating protein that facilitates the conversion of active ras-GTP to inactive ras-GDP
adenoma sebaceum
tuberous sclerosis
renal angiomyolipomas associated with...

renal cell carcinoma associated with...
Tuberous sclerosis

von Hippel-Lindau
Von Gierke disease deficient enzyme
g6P
pompe disease deficient enzyme
alpha 1,4 glucosidase
Cori disease defieicent enzyme
amylo 1,6 glucosidase
McArdle deficient enzyme
muscle phosphorylase
galactosemia defieicnet enzyme
galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
phenylketonuria deficient enzyme
phenylalanine hydroxylase
hepatosplenomegaly
erosion of the femoral head and of the long bones
mild anemia
adult Gaucher disease
inheritance of Hurler and Hundter
Hurler is AR
Hunter is X linked
disease that involves a codon deletion
CF
mural thrombi in left atrium are associated especially with
mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation
mural thrombi in the left ventricle are caused by
myocardial infarction
cause of fat emboli
partlcle sof bone marrow and other fatty intraosseous issue that enter circulation as a result of sever (often multiple) fractures
kind of emboli in divers' decompression sickness
air emboli
infarcts in divers going through decompression sicknesss
Caisson
anasarca
generalized edema
transudate vs exudate
transudate has low protein and results from pressures

exudate is caused by inflammation and the resulting increased vascular permeability
where are t cells in the spleen
periarteriolar sheaths
which complement pathway is initiated by antibody xomplexes
classic
what do the following have in common:
- warm antibody autoimmune hymolytic anemia
- hemolytic transfusion reactions
- hemolytic disease of the newborn
- Goodpastures
all are type II hypersensitivity reactions mediated by complement-fixing antibodies
what kind of hypersensitivity reactionis ADCC
type II
is complement involved in ADCC
no
type of hypersensitivyt in Graves disease
II (Two Thyroid)

anti-receptor antibodies bind with the receptor
serum sickness - what type of hypersensitivity
III
SLE - what type of hypersensitivity?
III
Arthus reaction - what type of hypersensitivity
III
localized immune complex reaction that occurs when exogenous antigen is introduced, either by injection or by organ transplant, in the presence of an excess of preformed antibodies
Arthus reaction
PAN- type of hypersensitivity
III
type of reaction in hyperacute transplant
Arthus, type II hypersensitivity
type of hypersensitivity in Acute (days to weeks) rejection
T cell mediated Type IV
cause of chronic transplant rejection
antibody mediate vascular damage featuring marked vascular fibrointimal proliferation
in what kind of transplant do we especially see graft vs host disease
bone marrow
whole blood transfusion for SCID
main target organs fo GVHD
liver
skin
GI mucosa
serum sickness - what type of hypersensitivity
III
SLE - what type of hypersensitivity?
III
Arthus reaction - what type of hypersensitivity
III
localized immune complex reaction that occurs when exogenous antigen is introduced, either by injection or by organ transplant, in the presence of an excess of preformed antibodies
Arthus reaction
PAN- type of hypersensitivity
III
type of reaction in hyperacute transplant
Arthus, type II hypersensitivity
type of hypersensitivity in Acute (days to weeks) rejection
T cell mediated Type IV
cause of chronic transplant rejection
antibody mediate vascular damage featuring marked vascular fibrointimal proliferation
in what kind of transplant do we especially see graft vs host disease
bone marrow
whole blood transfusion for SCID
main target organs fo GVHD
liver
skin
GI mucosa
btk gene
Bruton's x-linked agammaglobulinemia
recurrent viral and fungal infections
tetany
DiGeorge
CATCH22
cardiac defects
abnormal facies
thymic hypoplasia
cleft palate
hypocalcemia
22nd chromosome microdeletion
DiGeorge
type of immune cells affected in SCID
B and T
eczema
thrombocytopenia
recurrent infections
poor antibody response to polysaccharide antigens
normal total immunoglobulins
Wiskott Aldrich, which is a platelet disorder
why does HIV have an affinity for CD4 cells
because it has a surface rptoein, gp120 that binds with the CD4 on T cell surface
which people have resistance to some HIV strains
people who are homozygous for CCR5

CCR five keeps you alive
tests for HIV
ELISA
Western blot
direct assessment of viral RNA
why do AIDS patients often have hypergammaglobulinemia
unexpected polyclonal B cell activation
HIV positive patients demonstrate seropositivity very quickly to
gp120
p24
HLA DR5
Hashimoto's (also B5)
HLA B5
Hashimotos (also DR5)
HLA DR3
DM II (also DR4)
HLA DR4
DM II (also DR3)
ANA test with a "rim" pattern seen
positive dsDNA test, which means SLE
Smith antigen
rionucleoprotein
specific for SLE
immune complexes at dermal-epidermal junction
SLE
why do SLE patients have false-positive tests for syphilis
becuase of anticardiolipis, a form of anti-phospholipid antibody
CREST symptoms
Calcinosis
Raynauds
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
xerostomia and keratoconjunctivities with no other Sjogren's symptoms
Sicca syndrome

you ain't sicca than Sjogren!
reddish-purple rash over exposed areas of face and neck
dermatomyositis
skin rash associated with malignancy
dermatomyositis
increased serum creatine kinase
rash on exposed areas
ANAs present usually
polymyositis (including dermatomyositis)
high-titer anti-nRNP
MCTD
mixed connective tissue disease
like SLE, scleroderma, etc but NO RENAL INVOLVEMENT
segmental fibrinoid necrosis in walls of small and medium arteries, usually of men
PAN
vasculitis that may be associated with Hb B antigen, sulfonamides and penicillin
PAN
amyloid in primary amyloidosis
AL (light chain)
primary amyloidosis is often assocated with what kind of disorders
plasm cell:
- multiple myeloma
- Waldenstrom macroblobulinemia
lymphoma with IgM and plasma cells involved, and often primary amyloidosis
Waldenstrom
AA
amyloid of seconary amyloidosis, which is typically a complication of chronic inflammatory disease
polyserositis
episodic fever
amyloid (AA)
Familial Mediterranean fever
amyloid in Alzheimers
A4 or amyloid beta
which kind o f amyloid is on chromosome 21
A4 = beta (Alzheimers)
amyloid that deposits in the heart
derived from tranthyretin
dialysis amyloid
derived from beta microglobulin
what's HUMARA used for (human androgen receptor gene)
most common marker for determining clonality
cancer with cushings
SCLC
cancer with SIADH
SCLC
cancer with hypercalcemia
bone
squamous cell bronchogenic carcinoma
multiple myeloma
cancer with hypoglycemia
hepatocellular carcinomas
mesotheliomas
some sarcomas
cancers with hyperthyroidism
hydatidiform moles
choriocarcinomas
some lung
skin lesions associated with malignancies
acanthosis nigricans
dermatomyositis
cancr associated with coagulation abnormalities
Trousseau (pancreas)
DIC is associated with various
cancer associated with carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
colon
cancer associated with alpha fetoprotein
hepatocellular carcinoma
may germ cell tumors
fetal anencephaly and neural tube defects also
cancers associated with alcohol
carcinoma of mouth and esophagus (especially with cigarette smoking)

hepatocellular carcionma
high gat diet associated with which cancer
breast carcinoma
why do aniline dyes, aromatic amines, beta naphthylamine cause transitional cell carcionoma of bladder
bladder mucosal glucurnidase detoxifies them eand makes them carcinogens
cancer associated with aflatoxin B1
hepatocellular
cancer associated with polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
hepatic hemangiosarcoma (angiosarcoma)
cancer associated with thorotrast
hepatic hemangiosarcoma (angiosarcoma)
cancers associated with nickel, chromium, uranium
carcinoma of lung
h pylori is related to
adenocarcinoma and B cell lymphomas of stomach
radium watch dial workers get
osteosarcom
radiologists get
skin cancer
myeloid leukemias
carcinogenic form of hepatitis
HBV
what is c myc
proto-oncogene
what is bcl-2
inhibits apoptosis
what is bcr-abl?
TK
what is created by the t(15;17)
retinoic acid receptor that can be treated with all trans retinoic acid
what do N-myc and c-erbB2 have in common
marked amplification
what is Rb
tumor suppressor
what is WT-1
tumor suppressor
what is WT-2
tumor suppressor
what is APC
tumor suppressor
what is BRCA-1
tumor suppressor (bereast and ovarian cancer)
iris hamartomas
NF1, von Recklinghausen
what is NF1
tumor suppressor (a GAP protein that inactivates ras)
what is ret
proto-oncogene
associated with MEN, so check for thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, hyperparathyroidism
familial right sided colorectal carcionomas
HNPCC, ynch
second degree burns damage?
dermis, slightly
which degree burns require intervention to heal
third
bug that infects burn patients
pseudomonas
radiation causes what kinds of leukemias
myeloid, not lymphoid
cancers caused by localized radiation
myeloid leukemias
skin
thyroid
lung
breast
drug abuse associated with seizures
cocain
damage caused by methanol
blindness (via formaldehyde and formic acid)
what does CCl4 induce?
cCentriLobular ncrosis and fatty change in liver
what does cyanide inhibit
cytochrome oxidase
anemia caused by lead toxicity
hypochromic microcytic
what does lead inhibit
ALA dehydratase and ferrochetelase (sp?)
waht is an environmental cause of fanconi
lead
what part of the kidney does Fanconi affect
proximal renal tubule
what substance makes epiphyses more radiodense
lead
what does ethylene glycol cause
ATN
chloracne
impotence
visual changes
pCBs (polyCHLORinated bEYEphenyls)
drug that causes fatal aplastic anemia
chloramphenicol (via an idiosyncratic reaction)
drugs that cause PAN
sulfonamides
what drugs must G6PD patients avoid
sulfonamides (because of an acute, self-limited hemolytic anemia)
what do sulfonamides cause
immune complex disease (e.g., PAN)
crystallization in the collecting system
bone marrow failure
acute self limited himolytic anemi in G6PD patients
child
after a flu
microvesicular fatty change in liver
encephalopthy
Reyes
chronic analgesic nephritis
renal papillary necrosis
urothelial neoplasms
acute hemolysis (in G6PD patientes)
phenacetin
deficiency of almost all nutrients
marasmus
protein deficiency
Kwashiorkor
depigmented bands with pale streaking in hair or skin
Kwashiorkor
B1 is
thiamine
B2 is
riboflavin
B3 is
niacin
nicotinic acid
B6 is
pyridoxine
cheilosis
corneal vascularization
glossitis
dermatitis
B2 deficiency
vitamin in FAD and FMN, and what are those needed for
B2, redox
what vitaimin is a compnent of NAD NADP
B3 = Nicotinic
cheilosis
glossitis
anemia
convulsions in infants
neurologic dysfunction
B6 deficiency
vitamin needed for transamination
porpyrin synthesis
synthesis of niacin from tryptophan
B6
vitamin needed for porphyrin synthesis
Pyridoxine for Porphyrins
anemia caused by B12
megaloblastic
defective formation of mesenchymal tissue and osteoid matric
vitamin C deficiency
needed for wound healing
vitamin C
vitaimin needed for hydroxylation of proline and lysine

(and what are they needed for?)
C is needed for lysine and proline hydroxylation needed in collagen synthesis

Lip Police needed for Collagen
vitamin that helps to keep iron and FH4 reduced
C
fad diet
peripheral neuropathy
dry beri beri
fad diet
high output cardiac failure
wet beri beri (because of peripheral dilation of arterioles and capillaries - increased arteriovenous shunting - hypervolemia - cardiac dilation
confusion
ataxia
ophtalmoplegia
Wernicke triad
what must diet lack to lead to niacin deficiency
niacin AND tryptophan
NAD (and therefore niacin) is necessary for which processes
glycolysis
TCA
other
eat too many egg whites
Biotin deficiency (B7)
cofactor in fatty acid metabolism and gluconeogenesis
vitamin deficiency with INH
B6 because it competes for pyridoxine binding sites)
dementia
dermatitis
diarrhea
pellagra
B3
niacin
what neurotransmitter is compromised by B6 deficiency
GABA
patients fo which disorder need a lot of B6
hymocystinuria
vitamin that is an antioxidant
Vitamin E
glutamyl carboxylation
K does it ino order to make gamma carboxyglutamyl residues of active serine proteases for for clotting factors II VII IX X
what kind of metaplasia is caused by vitamin A deficiency
squmous (in trachea, bronchi, renal pelvis, conjunctivae, tear ducts
main cause of Vitamin K deficiency
fat malabsorption or alterations in intestinal flora caused by antibiotics
calcific sclerosis in radial and ulnar arteries
no obstruction to flow
Monckeberg, which is distrinct from athero
layer that Monckeberg sclerosis affects
media -- so no flow obstruction
ring like calcifications in media of arteries, "Pipestem" arteries
Monckeberg
hyaline thickening or proliferative changes of small arteries and arterioles is usually associated with
HTN
DM

(and this is arteriolosclerosis)
concentric laminated "onion skin" thickening of arteriolar walls, possibly with intramural fibrinouid
hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis (=malignant nephrosclerosis in kidneys)
obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum and necrosis of the media
syphyilitic leutic tree bark aneurysm
most frequent histology of aortic root aneurysms
cystic medial necrosis
layer involved in dissecting aneurysms (= dissecting hematoma)
lognitudinal intraluminal tear, amking a lumen within the media
inheritance pattern of OWR
audtosomal dominant
cavernous hemangiomas associated with
von Hippel Lindau, which is associated with
hemangioblastomas
adenomas and cysts of liver, kidneys, pancreas, other organs
increased incidence of renal cell carcinoma
hemangiosarcoma (angiosarcoma) associated with
arsenic
thorotrast
angiosarcoma of liver associated with
PVC
malignant vascular tumor affecting MSM, or endemic in africa
ks
necrotizing immune complex inflammation of small and medium sized arteries
PAN
layers involved in PAH
destruction of arterial media and internal elastic lamella
aneurysmal nodules
PAN
PAN is associated with prior infection by
HepB
antibodies to neutrophilic myeloperoxidase
PAN

these are the same as perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodis, or P-ANCA
granulommatous angiitis in lungs
Chrug-Strauss
immune complex mediated vasculitis
Henoch Schonlein
Serum Sickness
generalized deposition of antigen antibody complexes in hearts, joints and kidneys post administration of antitoxins containing animal serum
serum sickness
granulomatous vasculitis in respiratory trac, esp paranasal sinuses and lungs
Wegerners
circulating antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
cANCA - Wegeners
stenosis of medium to large sized arteries, esp aortic arch
Takayasu
young men
acute inflammation of small to medium sized arteries of extremeities
extending to adjacent veins and nerves
Buerger
cigarette smoking associated
vasopsasm in small arteries and arterioles of fingers and toes
Raynaud
associated with
SLE
scleroderma
adrenal hyperplasias that result in htn
17 and 11
flea bitten kidney
malignant hypertension
what causes unstable angina
disruption of atherosclerotic plaque with superimposed thrombosis
embolication
vasospasm
intermiitent chest pain at rest
prinzmetal angina (vs unstable is prolonged or recurrent pain at rest)
cells involved in evotion of MI
neutrophils
macrophages
fibroblasts
when, post MI, are striations lost
12-24 hours
when, post MI, does coagulative necrosis start
24 hours
when, ost MI, do macrophages replace neutrophils
day 3
when, post MI, do fibroblasts start
7 days
when, post MI, can ventricular aneurysm occur
3-6 months, in scarred areas
when, post MI, does fibrosis set in
5th week (fibroblasts started at 7 days)
when, post MI, is CK-MB present
6 hours - 3 days
strong at 12-16 hrs
peaks at 24
when, post MI, is troponin I present
persists (like CK, strong 12-16 hours and peaks at 24)
leading cause of death in first hours after MI
arrhythmia
fishmouth deformity
rheymatic mitral valve
increased ESR
migratory polyarthritis
subcutaneous nodules
erythema marginatum
chorea
Actue rheumatic fever
main pathogen for acute vs subacute endocarditis
shap aureus vs strep viridans
endocarditis associated with cancer and other wastin conditions
nonbaterial thrombotic endocarditis = marantic
sterile emboli
marantic dnocarditis (associated with metastatic cancer and other wasting conditions)
SLE
vegetations on either/both surfaces of valve leaflets
Libman Sacks endocarditis
right sided endocarditis
think carcinoid
what can the following cause:
nondissecting aortic aneurysm
rheumatic heart disease
syphilitc aortitis
aortic insufficiency
defect in fossa ovalis
septum secundum
when are ASD symptoms noted
often not untl adult life
tetralogy of fallot
pulmonary stoenois
VSD
overriding aorta
RVH
tetralogy of fallot
pulmonary stoenois
VSD
overriding aorta
RVH
hpertension limited to upper extremities
coarctation of aorta
PDA is associated with
congenital rubella syndrome
inheritance pattern of Tetralogy of Fallot
multifactorial
cardiomyopathy related to thiamine deficiency
dilated
what heart failure does cardiac amyloidosis result i
right and left
which changers are hypertorphied/dilated in dilated cardiomyopathy
all four
inheritance pattern of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
AD
most common cause of myocarditis
coxsackie
Chagas (trypanosoma cruzi)
what is serous pericarditis associated with
SLE
Rheumatic Fever
viral infections
fibrinous pericarditis is associated with
uremia
myocardial infarct
acute rheumatic fever
prurulent pericarditis is associated twith
bacterial infection
constrictive percarditis is usually associated with
tuberculous or pyogenic staph etiology
dyspnea and orthopnea
left sided HF
renal hypoxia
fulid retention
peripheral edem
enlarged and congested liver and spleen
right sided HF
is anemia of prgnancy anemia
no -- just increased plasma voume
hpochromia
microcytosis
iron deficiency anemia
pancytopenia
oval macrocytes
hypersegmented neutrophils
achlorhydria, etc
pernicious anemia
achlorhydria
pernicious anemia
hypersegmented neutrophils
pernicious anemia
anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
pernicious anemia
absent position and vbration sensations
anemia
pernicious aneia
pancytopenia
reticulocytopenia
marked hypocellularity of bone marrow
aplastic anemia
cuses of aplastic anemia
toxic drugs and chemicals
anemia
normochromic
normocytic/macrocytic
anemia of chronic disease
anemia
hypochromic
microcytic
decreased serum iron and binding capacity
anemia of chronic disease
myelophthisic anemia
malignant tumor causes
tumor cells in bone marrow
diseases associated with anemia of chronic disease
rheumatoid arthritis
renal disease
chronic infection
pallor
fatigue
dyspnea on exertion
anemia
koilonychia (spooning of nails)
extreme anemia
partially obstructing upper esophageal web
extreme iron deficiency anemia
3 caues of hypochromic, microcytic anemia
iron deficiency
anemia of chronic disease (sometimes)
beta thalassemia minor
low iron and low TIBC
anemia of chronic disease
increased A2 hemoglobin
beta thalassemia minor
large erythroid precurose cells with open, loose-appearing chromatin pattern
megaloblastic anemia (e.g., vitamin B12 or folate deficiency)
lemon yellow skin color
pernicious anemia
stomatitis and glossitis
pernicious anemia
ataxic gait
hyperreflexia with extensor plantar reflexes
impaired position and vibration sensation
subacute combined degeneration
abnormal Schilling test
pernicious anemia
drugs that can interfere with folate absorption
phenytoin
oral contraceptives
sprue and anemia
folate deficiency
giardia lamblia and anemia
folate deficiency
drugs that can cause aplastic anemia
**chloramphenicol
sulfonamides
antimalarials
alkylators
is there bilirubinuria in the increased uncongjugated bilirubin resulting from increased red cell destruction?
no, just increased urine urobilinogen
consequence of bilirubinemia of red cell destruction
pigment containing gallstones
increased urine urobilinogen
when does hemoglobinemia and uria happen in hemolytic anemia
when the haptoglobins are exhuaseted, which happens f the hemolysis is very rapid
normoblastic erythroid hyperplasia
reticulocytosis
polychromatophilia
increased erythropoiesis
a hemolytic anemia iof rescent onset suggests what kind of hyemoytic anemia
immune
hemolytic anemia
spherocytosis
positive direct Coombs test
warm antibody hemolytic anemia
blood group that cold agglutin disease will often have specificity for
I (i i i i am cold)
immune hemolysis that can be associated with lymphoid neoplasms
chronic cold agglutinin disease
main blood antigen that is infolved in erythroblastosis fetalis
D antigen of Rh
causes of erythroblastosis fetalis
maternal alloimmunization
ABO incompatibility
PIG-A
paroxysmal nocutrnal hemoglobinuria
CD59
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

this is because there is impaired synthesis of the GPI anchor needed for the fixation of certain proteins to the cell surface. This includes proteins needed for protection of red cells, granulocytes and platelets, (CD 55, 59, 8
dark urine in the morning
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
decreased erythrocyte osmotic gragility to hypotonic saline
hereditary spherocytosis
increase in mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
MCHC
inheritance of hereditary elliptocytosis (ovalocytosis)
AD
elongated, oval red cells
hereditary elliptocytosis
AD
inheritance of G6PD D
X
bite cells
G6PD d
the other enzyme deficiency hemolytic anemia
pyruvate kinase deficiency
Duffy blood group angtiens are associated with
malarial resistance
site of mutation leading to Hemoglobin S
point mutation
codon 6 of beta globin gene
glu replaced with val
hemoglobin type that causes sickling
S
population with hemoglobin E disorders
southEast asia
population with hemoglobin C
afriCa
what causes decreased RBC lifespan in thalassemia
aggregation of insoluble excess alpha chains
distortion of skull, facial bones and long bones
blood disorder
beta thalassemia, due to erythroid marrow expansion
which hemoglobin increases in beta thalassemia major
F (aplpha 2 gamma 2)
which hemoglobin incrases in beta thalassemia minor
A2 alpha 2 delta 2
increased hemoglobin F
beta thalassemia major
increased hemoglobin A2
beta thalassemia minor
thalassemia most common is southeast asia
alpha (deletions of 1-4 of the alpha globin genes)
ANEMIA
SPHEROCYTOSIS
RETICULOCYTOSIS
UNCONJUGATED HYPERBILIRUBINEMIA
ACHOLURIC JAUNDICE
POSITIVE DIRECT COOMBS
warm antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia
direct Coombs test poisitive on cord blood
progressive postnatal increase in unconjugated bilirubin
hemolytic disease of the newborn
erythroblastosis fetalis
blood disorder with autosomal dominant inheritance
hereditary spheroytosis

dominant sphere
failure of erythrocyte hexose monophosphate shunt under oxidative stress
G6PD
schistocytes or helmet cells
hemolytic anemia due to mechanical disruption of circulating erythrocytes
most common malignancies in kids
leukemias - esp ALL
CD 10 marker
present in the most treatable ALLs
most treatable ALL has this marker
CD 10

keeps the 10 year old ALLive
type of lymphoid cell that proliferations in CLL typically
B
leukemia in old men
CLL
leukemia in kids
ALL
smudge cells
CLL
leukemic cells
CD5 positive, 10 negative
CLL
cell type affected in hairy cell leukemia
B
tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase staining
hairy cell (B cells)
middle aged man
splenomegaly
pancytopenia
hairy cell
leukemia that responds to:
alpha interferon
2 chlorodeoxyadenosine
deoxycoformycin
hairy cell
what kind of protein is Bcr-abl
TK
many granlocytic precursor cells in blood and moarrow
CML
reduction in leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
CML
marked erythrocytosis
polycythemia vera
decreased EPO
erythrocytosis
increase in granyulocytes and platelets
polycythemia vera
extensive extramedullary hematopoiesis inovlving the liver and spleen and sometimes the lymph nodes
fibrous tissue replaces normal hematopoietic cells
Chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis=
agnogenic myeloid metaplasia=
myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
teardrop shaped erythrocytes
myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
fibrous tissue replacing hematopoietic cells
myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
thrombocytosis in peripheral blood
megakaryocytosis in bone marow
bleeding
thrombosis
essential thrombocythemia
punched out lytic lesions in bone
multiple myeloma
Bence Jones proteins includ
free immunoglobulin light chains
rouleaux formation
multiple myeloma
anemia
increased susceptibility to infection
hypercalcemia
renal insufficiency with azotemia
primary amyloidosis
mutliple myeloma
prominent tubulat casts of Bence Jones protein
multiple myeloma
man over 50
high serum IgM
plasmacytoid lymphocytes
Bence Jones proteinuria
absence of bone lesions
hyperviscosity from increased IgM
retinal vascular dilation
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, which manifests lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
otherwise healthy old person
M spike
no Bence JOnes
MGUS
monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
type of Hodggkin lymphoma that affects young women primarily
nodular sclerosis
Hodgkin with many lymphocytes and histiocytes but few Reed-Sternberg
lymphocyte-predominance HL
no EBV association
Hodgkin with many lymphocytes
Lyphocyte-rich HL
EBV association
kind of Hodgkins with no EBV association
Lymphocyte rich
prognosis for nodular sclerosis Hodgkin
relatively good
Ann Arbor classification
staging (and prognosis!) of Hodgkins
WHO classification
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
leukemia that B cell lymphoma resembles
CLL
CD 5 positive
CD 10 negative
express CD19 and 20
indolent course
angulated grooved cells
t(14;18)
Follicular lymphoma
gene association with t(14;18)
bcl2, an apoptosis inhibitor
gene in t(11;14)
bcl 1
(vs bcl 2 for (14;18)
lymphoma associated with
Sjogren
Hashimoto
Helicobactor
MALToma
what is c myc
Burkitts
proto oncogene
in Burkitt's c myc ends up next to
immunoglobulin heavy chain locus on 14
histology with
cerebriform nuclei
Pautrier microabscesses
T cell lymphoma - Mycosis fungoides type
mycoises fungoides PLUS circulating neoplastic cells with cerebriform nuclei
Sezary
perifollicular papules
twisted corkscrew like hair
Scurvy
fever
arthralgias
hemorrhagic urticaria
palpable purpura
Henoch schonlein
inheritance of OWR
AD
decreased production of platelets because of bone marrow replacement, usually by tumor cells
myelophtisis
difference in ITP between kids and adults
acute in kids
chronic in adults
antiplatelet antibodies
ITP
maternal IgG antibodies in mothers iwth ITP
can pass on fetal thrombocytopenia
throbocytopenia with normal or increased megakaryocytes,
no known exposure to thrombocytopenic agents
lack of palpable splenomegaly
ITP
platelet derived hyaline microaggregates in small vessels
thrombocytopenia
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
helmet cells
schistocytes
neurologic abnormalities
TTP
GP IIb-IIIa disorder
Glanzmann
GP Ib-IX-V disorder
Bernard Soulier
vWF
prolonged aPTT and nothing else
Hemophilia or Christmas disease
Factor IX abnormality
Christmas disease = Hemophilia B
Factore VIII assay
hemophilia
Bleeding time prolonged, but no other abnormalities
Normal platelet count
qualitative platelet defects
all bleeding times prolonged
DICi
increased thrombin time reflects
deficiency of fibrinogen
dysfunction of platelet adhesion and factor VIII
vWF
most often occurrence of DIC
obstetric complications
the only coagulation factor not produced in liver
vWF
usual cause of epitlottitis
H flu
infection of
larynx
trachea
epiglottis
= croup
usually viral
most frequent nasal tumor
squamous cell
lesions on true vocal cords
benign singer's nodule
laryngeal papilloma
squamous cell carcinoma
glottic carcinoma
most common malignant tumor of larynx
squamous cell carcioma
laryngeal tumor related to smoking and drinking
squamous carcinoma
hoarseness in a 50 year old male smoker and drinker
laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma
Curschmann spirals
chronic bronchial asthma
bronchial smooth muscle hypertrophy
bronchial asthma
hyperplasia of bronchial submucosal glands
bronchial asthma and bronchitis
increased Reid index
chronic bronchitis

= ratio of thickness of gland layer to the bronchial wall
abnormally dilated bronchi filled with mucus and neutrophils

inflammation and necrosis of bronchial walls and alveolar fibrosis
bronchiectasis
duration requirement for chronic bronchitis
3 months over 2 year
mechanism of chronic bronchitis
hyperplasia of mucus-secreting submucosal glands
type of emphysema associated wtih subpleural bullae, or blebs
paraseptal
piZZ
bad allele for alpha 1 antitrypsin
chromosome 14.

Don't start smoking when you're 14, or you'll pizz out
intra-alveolar hyaline membrane composed of fibrin and cellular debris
severe impairment
ARDS
cause of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (hyalin membrane disease)
deficiency of surfactant
dipalmitoyl lecithin
surfactant
cells that secrete surfactant
type II pneumocytes
lecithin: sphingomyelin ration
2:1 = fetal lung maturity
does NRDS make lungs heavier or lighter
heavier
anthracosis
irrecgular black patches on lungs due to carbon dust inhalation and ingestion by macrophages
pneumoconiosis
inhalation of coal dust, can lead to fibrosis
pneumoconiosis asssociated with TB
silicosis
ferruginous bodies
asbestosis
stain prussian blue
iron and protein coating on asbestos fibers
dense hyalinized fibrocalcific plaques of the parietal pleura
asbestosis
eye manifestation of sarcoidosis
anterior uveitis
hemorrhagic pneumonitis with no renal component
idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
cells that look like tennis rachets in lungs
Birbeck granules
eosinophilic granuloma
associated with histiocytosis X
most common cause of PHTN
COPD
Q fever bug
coxiella burnetii, a rickettsia.

working with cattle or drinking unpasteurized milk from infected animmals
interstitial pneumonia from inhaling dried excreta of infected birds
ornithosis
empyema
pus in pleural cavity
associated with strep pneumo
causes of pneumonia-related lung abscess
staph
pseudomonas
klebsiella
proteus
tb with cavitation
secondary, not primary

caseation seen in both
ghon complex
primary not secondary

caseation seen in both
pulmonary organisms visualized in India ink
cryptococcus
mutiple pulmonary lesions with late calcification
histoplasmosis
fungal spherules containing endospores found within granulomas
cocidioidomycosis
lung cancer
hilar mass
frquent cavitationelevated PTH
squamous cell
lung cancer thati is less linked with smoking
adenocarcinoma
lung cancer
columnar to cuboidal tumor cells line alveolar walls
multiple densities on xray
mimics pneumonia
bronchioalveolar adenocarcinoma
central
undifferentiated lung tumor
ectopic ACTH or ADH
sclc
peripheral
undifferentiated lung tumor
large cell carcinoma
oral cancer:
most frequent cell type
most frequent location
squamous cell

tongue
large mucocele of salivary gland origin
ranula
parotid gland
elderly patient
large, granular appearing eosinophilic staining epithelial cells
oncocytoma
parotid gland
most common tumor
myxoid
pleomorphic adenoma
esophageal atresia in neonate
maternal polyhydramnios
locatin of enker diverticulum
immediately above upper esophageal sphincter
gangion cells affected in achalasia
myenteric
type of cells in Barrett's
columnar

Barrett was a columnist
type of cancers in esophageal carcionoma in US and worldwide
in USA, Squamous cell = Adenocarcinoma (USA)

squamous more frequenet worldwide
which part of esophagus gets squamous vs adeno
squamous in upper 2/3
adeno in lower 1/3

downdeno
extreme enlargement of gastric rugae
menetrier disease
increased risk of stomach cancer
blood group associated with carcinom of stomach
A
cArcinomA of stomAch
type of cancer that stomach carcionoma tends to be
adeno
ulcer with smooth base and nonelevated, punched out margins

vs

ulcer with irregular necrotic base and firm, raised margins
peptic ulcer
vs
carcinoma
blood group associated with peptic ulcer in small intestine
O

duOdenum
where do peptic ulcers occur in small intestine
first portion of duodenum
is peptic ulcer associated with hypersecretion of gastric acid and pepsin?
everywhere but tin the stomach
layers of intestinal wall involved in Crohn's vs UC
all layers (transmural) in Crohn's
crypt abscesses and pseudopolyps
UC
do Crohns and UC increase incidence of colon cancer
crohn's no. UC yes. Up Cancer
HLA B8
HLA DW3
Celiac
Bread ate
don't wheat 3
enteropathy type T cell lymphoma
associated with celic
most frequent site for carcionoid
appendix
PAS positive macrophages in intestinal mucosa
Whipple
tropheryma whippelii bacilli
circulating acanthocytes (red cells with spiny projections)
abetalipoproteinemia
apoprotein B deficiency
beta lipoprotein deficiency
abetalipoproteinemia
flushing
diarrhea
bronchospasm
valvular lesions of the right side fo teh heart
carcinoid
splenic flexure and rectosigmoid junction
most often ischemic areas becaus ethey are at watershed areas between SMA/IMA/Internal iliac
polyarthritis
uveitis and episcleritis
sclerosing cholangitis
sacroiliitis
erythema nodosum
pyoderma gangrenosum
associated with UC and Crohn's
red granular appearance of colonic mucosa, with minimal ulceration
UC
complications of US
toxic megacolon
performation of colon
carcionoma of colon
flask shaped ulcers
amebic colitis due to entamoeba histolytica
hamartomatous polyps of colon and SI

melanotic accumulations in mouth and on lips, hands, and genitalia
peutz jeghers
putz jeghers is aassociated with increased risk of
adenocarcinoma of colon
stomach, breast, ovarian malignancy
most common type of adenomatous polyp
tubular ademoa (75% of them)
most malignant polyps
villous

villainous villous
inheritance of FAP
AD
inheritance of Gardner syndrome
AD

gardner dominates the garden
polyps
osteomas
soft tissue tumors
gardner syndrome
AD

gardner down on his bones working the soft tissue of the garden
adenomatous polyps
tumors of the CNS
Turcot syndrome
obstruction of the rectosigmoid colon
sign of carcinoma
enzyme for conjugating bilirubin
glucuronyl transferase
what do you have to distinguish physiologic jaundic eo fthe newborn from
neonatal cohlestasis due to:
extrahepatic biliary atresia
alpha 1 antitrypsin
CMV
other conditions
deficiency of glucuronyl transferase
Crigler-Najjar
GI use of phenobarbital
Crigler-Najjar, because it decreases seru concentration of unconjugated bilirubin
Crigler Najjar vs Dubin Johnson
Criger is hyper unconjugated
Dbun is hyper conjugated
Dubin Johnson without the pigment
Rotor syndrome
increased urine bilirubin
normal to decreased urine urobilinogen
hepatocellular jaundice
increased urine bilirubin
decreased urine urobilinogen
obstructive jaundice
absent urine bilirubin
increased urine urobilinogen
hemolytic jaundice
transmssion of hepatitis
A
B
C
D
E
G
fecal oral
sexual parenteral
parenteral
sexual and parenteral
fecal-oral
parenteral
HBsAG after 4 months means?

after 6 months?
usually persists for 3-4 months

carrier state
which HB antigen correlates with viral infectivity
HBeAg
window period marker for BH
Anti HBcAg

anti core is the window -- flee from the core
heb with only parenteral transmission
C and G
councilman bodies
Yellow fever

(indicate midzonal hepatic necrosis)
also seen in all of the hepatitides
manifestations of apoptosis
disorders resulting in microvesicular fatty liver (small fat vacuoles in parenchyma)
Reye's
Fatty liver of pregnancy
Tetracycline toxicity
outcome of fatty liver of pregnancy
high mortality
Mallory bodies
alcoholic hepatitis

hyalin -- look like plasma cells with smaller nuclei
alcoholic
fatty change
focal liver cell necrosis
ilfiltrates of neutrophils
intracytoplasmic eosinophilic hyaline inclusions
alcoholic hepatitis
what kinds of cirrhosis lead to hepatocellular carcionma
all of them have increased risk
cirrhosis
diabetes
inceased skin pigmentation
hemochromatosis
palmar erythema
spider nevi
loss of body and pubic hair
testicular artrophy
gyecomastia
hyperestrinism in alcoholic cirrhosis
large irregular cirrhotic nodules
LATE alcohol
or any post hepatitic cirrhosis
primary sclerosing cholangitis associations
associated wtih IBD
eventually leads to secondary biliary cirrhosis
increased incidence of cholangiocarcionoma
increased serum iron
decreased transferrin
increased ferritin
hemochromatosis
part of brain affected by Wilson's disease
BG - putamen
hepatic vein occlusion
Budd Chiari
Budd Chiari associations
polycythemia vera
hepatocellular carcinoma
abdominal neoplasms
may be a complication of pregnancy
hepatic adenomas
related to use of oral contraceptives
sequela of hepatic adenoma
(caused by oral contraceptives)
intraperitoneal hemorrhage
kind of liver cancer that results from cirrhosis
hepatocellular carcinoma
aflatoxin B1
contaminant in nuts and grains
mutates p53
hepatocellular carcinoma
dissemination of hepatocellular carcionma is via?
hematogenous
why is bile duct carcioma more common in Far East
Clonorchis sinensis (liver fluke)
associations of hemangiosarcoma
in liver

Pvc
thorotrast
arsenic
what kind of gallsstones are visualized
mixed, because of calcium content (which I think comes from teh cholesterol aspect)
effect of tumors vs stones that obstruct the common bile duct
tumors result in enlarged, distended gallbladder; obstructing stones don't (Courvoisier law)
main cancer type in gallbladder
adenocarcioma
incidence of gallbladder vs biliary duct cancer
much more common in gallbladder
what happens to calcium in pancreatitis
decreases because of loss of calcium into the precipitated calcium-fatty acid soaps
what's in a pancreatic pseudocyst
parencyma, but not lined with ductal epithelium
where does pancreatic carcionma usually occur
head (but can happen in tail)
sequela of pancreatic adenocarcinoma in tail
DM due to islet destruction
main kind of pancreas carcionma
adenocarcinoma
hyperhydramnios (increased amniotic fluid) associated with
duodenal atresia
or
tracheoesophageal fistula

(oligohydramnios is decreased flluid!)
associations with oligohydramnios
decreased amniotic fluid
bilateral renal agenesis
hypoplastic lung
extremity defects
(Potter sequence)
thick basement membrane
granular immunofluorescence
spike and dome
membranous glomerulonephrtis
thick bm
diffuse or nodular mesangial accumulations of BM-like material
diabetic neuropathy
immune complex deposition in subendothelial location -- can lok like membranous
lupus nephropathy
subepithelial humps
"lumpy bumpy immunofluorescence
poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
crescents
RPGN (immune complex, anti BM, or pauci immune)
linear immunofluorescence
Goodpasture
spli basement membrane
Alport
mesangial IgA
Berger (IgA nephropathy)
tram-trach
C3 deposits
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

if your population members are going to proliferate you'll need tracks to get them around
why is there hyperlipidemia in nephrotic syndrome
increased hepatic lipoprotien synthesis
highest incidence o fmembranous glomerulonephritis is among?
tennagers and young adults
nephrotic syndrome plus azotemia
think membranous gn
in spike and dome, the spikers are? domes are?
spikes are BM
domes are immune complexes
accumulations of mesangial matrix material
Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
diabetic nephropathy
nephrotic or nephritic: membranous glomerulonephritis
nephrotic
nephrotic or nephritic: renal amyloidosis
nephrotic
nephrotic or nephritic: lupus nephropaty
nephrotic (but IV and V can have nephritic component)
nephrotic or nephritic: RPGN
nephritic
nephrotic or nephritic: goodpastures
nephritic
nephrotic or nephritic: alports
nephritic
wire loop abnormalities
Type IV lupus nephropathy
key findins of nephritic syndrome
oliguria
azotemia
HTN
hematuria
*mild proteinuria and edema possibly)
oliguria
azotemia
HTN
hematuria
nephritic syndrome
red cell casts
azotemia
decreased serum C3
postrep glomerulonephritis
ASO
recent strep infection
anti-DNAase B
recent strep infection
anticationic proteinase
recent anti strep infection
innumerable punctate hemorrhages on surface of both kidneys
enlarged hypercellular, swollen bloodless glomeruli
intense inflammatory reaction in poststrep glomerulonephritis
where are humps in
poststrep glomerulonephritis
membranous glomerulonephritis
lupus nephropathy
crescents
subepithelial
subepithelial
subendothelial
between Bowman's and glomerular tuft
where are crescents in RPGN
between Bowman capsule and glomerular tuft
men in mid 20s
nehpritic
hemoptysis
crescents
goodpastures
lens discoloration
nerve deafness
hereditary nephritis
Alport
benign recurrent hematuria in kids, usually after an infection
IgA nephropathy
nephropathy associated with Henoch Schonlein
IgA
glomerular disease associated with C3
membranoproliferative
tram track appearance

take the C3 train to membrano
pyuria
hematuria
no white cell casts
cystitis, not pyelonephrtiis
phenacetn
renal papillary necrosis
interstitial nephritis
penicillin derivative drugs
NSAIDS
diruetics
most frequent cause of ATN
renal ischemia
what can crush injury cause in kidney
myobobinuria
ATN
toxins that precipitate ATN
mercuric chloride
geeentamicin
enthylene glycol
part of kidney affected by Fanconi
proxial renal tubules
glycosuria
hyperphosphaturia
hypophosphatemia
aminoaciduria
systemic acidosis
fanconi syndrome
(dysfunction of Proximal tubule with impaired reabsorption of glucose, aa, phosphate, bicarb)
impaired tubular reabsorption of tryptophan
Hartnug - leads to pellagra like manifestations
cause of thyroidization of kidney
chronic pyelonephritis
diffuse cortical necrosis
obstetric catastrophes
septic shock

probably mediated by end organ vasospasm and DIC
most urinary stones are made of
calcium
what causes staghorn (struvite) calculi
ammonium magnesium phosphate stones, which form in alkaline urine, which is caused by urease positive orgnisms like protease or staph
HTN
hematuria
palpable renal masses
progression to renal failure
Adult Polycystic Kidney disease
(AD)
prognosis in infantile polycystic kidney disease
death at birth
(its AR)
acquired cystic disease in kidney
long term dialysis therapy
what is azotemia
increased serum urea nitrogen and creatinine
azotemia
acidosis
hyperkalemia
inability to dilute urine
CHG
hypocalcemia
anemia
HTN
uremia in renal failure
oliguria with low sodium?
oliguria with normal sodium?
normal sodium indicates ATN
low sodium indicates prerenal azotemis, perhaps due to SHOCK
renal cell carcioma can be associated with
von Hippel-Lindau
flank pain
palpable mass
hematuria
renal cell carcionma
tissue that gives rise to Wilms tumor
primitive metanephric
what kind of genes are WT-1 adn WT-2
tumor suppressors

Weight on Tumors
poor development of iris, and what it's associated with
aniridia
WAGR (deletion of WT-1)
two syndromes associated with WT-1 gene
WAGR
Denys Drash
intersexual disorders
nehpropathy
Wilms tumor
Denys Drash
WT-1
hemihypertrophy
macroglossia
organomegaly
neonatal hypoglycemia
emrbyonal tumors
Beckwith-Wiedemaa
WT2
WAGR
Denys Drash
Beckwith Wiedemann

which is associated with WT1 or 2
Beckwith Wiedemann is 2; others are 1

the kids is 2 big
cancer that can be caused by cyclophosphamide
transitional cell cander
urniary tract squamous cell cancer
schistosoma haematobium
hypospadias involves what structure?
urethral meatus opens on ventral surface
epispadias involves what structure
urethral meatus opens on dorsal surface
inflammation of glans penis
balanitis
acute prurulen urethritis in male
gonorrhea
which of these does gonorrhea not usually affect:
prostate
seminal vesicles
epididymis
restis
testis
prurulent urethral discharge without bacteria
suspect chlamydia
uncircumcised male in his 50s
single erythematous plaque on shaft of penis or scrotum
Bowen disease
10% become invasive carcionoma
muliple verrucoid lesions resembling condyloma acuminatum and containing HPV 16 sequences
younger men
Bowenoid papulosis
what type of cancer is penile cancer usually
squamous cell
associated with HPV 16, 18, 31, 33
increased risk for what with cryptorchidism
testicular atrophy and sterility
seminoma
embryonal carcinoma
how do you distinguish hydrocele from solid testicular tumors
transillumination
tumors associated with cryptorchidism
seminoma
embryonal carcinoma

Stayed EpigastriC
cause of bacterial orchitis
syphilis
orchitis with epididymtiis
bacterail vs viral
cuase of viral orchitis
mumps
causes of epididymitis
gonorrhoeae
chlamydia
e colie
TB

GET Chlamydial orchitis
female analog to seminoma
dysgerminoma
painless enlargement of testis
seminoma
tx for testicular seminoma
radiation
testicular tumor with peak incidence in infancy and early childhood
endodermal sinus (youk sac) tumorf
testicular tumor with increased alpha fetoprotein
endodermal sinus (yolk sac)
malignant type of teratoma
Mature
Malignant
testicular tumor that often causes precocious puberty
Leydig cell tumor

get Leyd early
testicular tumor with cells that resembe syncytiotrophoblasts
choriocarcionoma

SYNphony CHORus
what determines prognosis in a mixed germ cell tumor
the least mature element
part of prostate that gets carcionoma
periperal zone - posterior lobe
(nomenclature changed)

you prostate gets posted posteriorly
parts of prostate most affected in BPH
periurethral and transitional zones
=anterior and middle lobes

(vs peripheral/posterior in cancer)
Gleason grading
prostate
is fraction of free PSA increased or decreased in prostate cancer
decreased, because free form increases with BPH but complexed form increases in cancer
what is PSA bound to when it's complexed in cancer
alpha 1 anti chymotrypsin
second most common type of vaginitis
Trichomonas
(first is candida)
most common cause of vaginal discharge
Gardnerella
cause of loss of normal vaginal lactobacilli
clue cells
Gardnerella vaginitis
what are the following associated wtih:
pharyngitis
proctitis
purulent arthritis
ophtalmia neonatorum
gonorrhea
cause of lymphogranuloma venereum
chlamyida
L1, 2 or 3
gray, flattened, wart-like lesions in female genital area
condyloma lata of syphilis
bug of chancroid
haemophilus ducreyi
donovan bodies
granuloma inguinale

histiocytes form large genital/inguinal ulcerations
condyloma acuminatum
benign HPV, most often 6 and 11
HPV types associated with vulvular carcinoma
16
18
31
33
form of uterine cancer that leads to pseudomyxoma peritonei
mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

mucinous migrates
most frequent ovarian tumor
mature teratoma (which here is benign, vs malignant in males)
increased hCG in serum and urine
choriocarcinoma in males or females
ovarian fibroma
ascites
hydrothorax
Meigs syndrome
benign
gyn tumor that secretes estrogen
granulosa cell tumor
benign
are fibromas benign or maligant
benign
are granulosa cell tumors benign or malignant
benign
CIN3
HPV dysplasia iwth atypical changes extending through entire thickness of epithelium
virulence factors of HBV
viral proteins E6 and E7
inactivate p53 and Rb
Rb and RET
Rb is a tumor suppressor
RET is a protooncogene
relationship between leiomyoma nd leiomyosarcoma
none
hormones in excess in PCOS
LH
androgens

Lots of Hair and Androgens
placental trouble that leads to DIC often
abruptio
what's the dangerous sequela of amniotic fluid embolism
DIC
increased hCG in women associated with:
ovarian choriocarcinoma
hydatidiform mole
gestational choriocarciinoma
precipitants of gestational choriocarcinoma
hydatidiform mole (50%)
abortion of ectopic pregnancy (20%_
normal term pregnancy (20-30%)
severe hypotension during delivery can precipitate
insidious onset pituitary hypofunction
=Sheehan's syndrome
blue dome cysts
fibrocystic disease of breast
when does fibrocystic diseae of breast carry cancer risk
epithelial hyperplasia
sclerosing adenosis
atypia
proliferation fo small ducts and myoepithelial cells in breast
combined with fibrosis
sclerosing adenosis
this type of fibrocystic disease carries a cancer risk
firm, rubber, pianless, well circuscribed breast mass
fibroadenoma
not a cancer precursor
breast tumor with ulceration fo overlying skin
leaflike projections from cyst walls
phyllodes tumor
benign or malignant:
fibroadenoma
phylloides
adenoma of nipple
inraductal papilloma
carcionma
only carcinoma is malignant
serous or bloody discharge
intraductal papilloma
benign but needs to be differentiated
breast tumor with cheese-like consistency
inraductal carcinoma in situ
comedocarcinoma
breast tumor
cells arranged in cords, island and glands in a dense fibrous stroma
firm consistency
invasive ductal carcinoma
breast tumor
eczematoid lesion of nipple or areola
clear halo-like area in cells
Paget disease of breast
bilateral breast cancers
lobular
invasive lobular
breast tumor
Indian file appearance
invasive lobular carcinoma
breast tumor
lymphocytic infiltrate
medullary carcinoma
breast tumor
pools of extracellular mucus surrounding clusters of tumor cells
gelatinous consistency
mucinous colloid carcinoma
breast tumor
red, swollen, hot skin
inflammatory carcinoma
prognosis of invasive intraductal carcinoma
poor
prognosis of invasive lobular carcinoma of breast
better than invasive ductal
prognosis of medullary carcinoma of breast
better than for invasive ductal
prognosis of mucinous (colloid) carcinoma of the breast
better than for invasive ductal carcinoma
prognosis of inflammatory carcinoma of breast
poor
which BRCA alaso is associated with ovarian malignancy
1
type of staining in prolactinoma
chromophobic
amenorrhea and galactorrhea in women
prolactinoma
rx that cause prolactinoma
methyldopa
reserpine
pituitary tumor with acidophilic staining
somatotropic adenoma with hypersecretion of growth hormone
tumor that induces hyperproduction of somatomedins by liver
somatotropic adenoma of pituitary
(which primarily involves overproduction of growth hormone)
tumor that causes gigantism and acromegaly
pituitary somatotropic adenoma
basophilic adenoma in pituitary
cushing disease
difference between cushing disease and syndrome
disease is pituitary in origing
generalized panhypopituitarism
pititary cachexia, or Simmonds disease
caused by tumors or Sheehan's
hormones from neurohypophysis
oxytocin
ADH
cause of diabetes insipidus
ADH deficiency
polyuria with dhydration and insatiable thirst
diabetes insipidus
how does a nonsecreting pituitary adenoma usually stain
chromophobic (like prolactinoma)
development of large pituitary adenomas following bilateral adrenalectomy
Nelson syndrome
lack of feedback inhibition
toxic goiter means
goiter associated with hyperthyroidism
endemic goiter means
enlarged thyroid in areas where iodine deficiency is endemic
what happens to thyroid size in iodine deficiency
increases - goiter
what happens to thyroid size in hashimoto thyroiditis
inreases - goiter
what happens to T3 resin uptake (THBR) in hypothyroidism
decreases

(it means that there are more unbound thyroid hormone binding sides)
what happens to T4 in hypothyroidism
decreased
severe mental retardation
impairment of physical growth with retarded bone development and dwarmism
large tungue
protuberant abdomen
cretinism (hypothyroid)
hyper or hypo thyroid... menorrhagia vs amenorrhea
amenorrhea in hyper; menorrhagia in hypo
cause fo Graves disease
diffuse toxic goiter
HLA DR3 and HLA B8
Graves disease
what kind of antibody is thyroid stimulating immunglobulin (TSI)
IgG

It reacts with TSH receptors
TSI and TGI
thyroid stimulating and growth immunoglobulin that stimulate hormone production and glandular hyperplasia
hyperthyroidism
nodular goiter
absence of exophthalmos
Plummer disease

The plummer jumped out of the grave
massive infiltrates of lymphocytes with germinal center formation in the thyroid
atrophic follicles with Hurthle cells
Hashimoto
atrophic thyroid follicles with epithelial cells with eosinophilic granular cytoplasm
Hashimotos
cells are Hurthel cells
antithyroblobulin antibodies
Hashimotos
antimicrosomal antibodies
Graves
natithyroid perosidase antibodies
Hashimoto
anti-TSH receptor antibodies
Hashimodots
anti-iodine receptor antibodies
hshimotos
HLA DR5 and B5
Hashimotos
subacute thyroidits on a self-limited course of several weeks
flu-like illness
pain and tenderness of thyroid
may follow mumps or oxsackie
subacute de Quervain thyroiditis
thyroid replacement by fibrous tisue
Riedel thyroiditis
can mimic carcinoma
most common thyroid cancer
papillary carcinoma
thyroid
papillary projections into gland like spaces
ground glass nuclei
calcified spheres
Papillary carcinoma
Ophan Annie nuclei
psammoma bodies

Orphan Annie lost her Papi but got her mmoma
ret-PTC
thyroid papillary carcinoma
10;17 translocation
paipillary carcinoma
ret-PTC tk domain

orphan annie lived alone from the ages of 10 to 17
prognosis for papillary carcinoma
good
thyroid tumor
relatively uniform follicles
follicular
calcitonin produceing tumor in thyroid
medullary carcioma
thyroid cancer with amyloid in the stroma
medullary
medullary carioma of thyroid associated with ?
MEN IIa and III (IIb)
alk phos in hyperparathyroidism
increased
manifestation of primary hyperparathyroidism
osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghause)
fibrous replacement of resorbed bone tumor may lead to formation of non-neoplastic tumor like masses (brown tumor)
osteitis fibrosa cystica
hypoparathyroidism due to multihormone resistanc to PTH and pituitary hormones (TSH, LH, FSH)
pseudo hypoparathyroidism
shortened foruth and fifth metacarpals and metatarsals
short statue
pseudohypoparathyroidism
GNAS1
gene that encodes G proteins that mediate tissue responsiveness to hormones

pseudohypoparathyroidism
parathyroid disorder due to imprinting (paternal imprinting; expression only of maternal)
pseudohypoparathyroidism
transmission of a mutant maternal GNAS1 (paternal imprinting)
pseudohypoparathyroidism
transmission of a mutant paternal GNAS1 allele (maternal imprinting/silencing)
pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism
inncreased serum renin
SECONDARY hyperaldosteronism
hypocorticism (adrenal atrophy) due to infection
Waterhouse-Friderichsen

usually meningococcal
meningococcal infection can do what in the adrenals
hypocorticism due to Waterhouse-friderichsen
chromaffin cell tumor
pheochromocytoma
small blue cell tumor of adrenal medulla
neuroblastoma
catecholamine secreting malignancy of early childhood
neuroblastoma
hypertension
sodium and water retention
hypokalemia (with alkalosis usually)
Conns
why is there decreased renin in Conn's
negative feedback of increased blood pressure
cuase of secondary aldosteronism
renal ischemia
renal tumors
edema
virilizing congenital enzyme defects
21 and 11 hydroxylase
most common cause of Addison disease
autoimmune lymphocytic adrenalitis with atrophy
cause of Waterhouse Friderichsen
hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal cortex, usually due to meningococcemia
what is Waterhouse Friderichsen often associated with
DIC
paraganglioma
"pheochromocytoma" that happens from extra-adrenal chromaffin cells
increased urinary excretion of vanillymandelic acid
pheochromocytoma
(also expect NE and norepi in urine)
can pheochromocytoma involve hyperglycemia
yes
most common catecholamine secreting tumor in childhood
neuroblastoma
amblicficaiton of n-myc
Neuroblastoma
what can happen to the malignant cells of neuroblastoma
can revert to benign
which DM runs more in families
2
which DM is from a failure of insulin synthesis
I
HLA-DR3 and 4
DM I
point mutation in HLA-DQ
DM I
what mediates ketoacidosis in DMI
increased catabolism of fat with production of ketone bodies
inheritance of Maturity-onset diabetes mellitus of the young (MODY)
AD
mild hyperglycemia
hyposecrtion of insulin
no loss of beta cells
MODY
how does hereditary hemochromatosis lead to secondary DM
fibrosis in pancreas
how does Cushings lead to secondary DM
increased gluconeogenesis
impaired peripheral utilization of glucose
how does Acromegaly lead to secondary DM
anti-insulin like effect of GH
notable consequence of gestational diabetes
increased birth weight
respiratory distress due to hyaline membrane disease
hyperplasia of pancreatic islets and HYPOglycemia (even though mom was HYPERglycemic)
which DM features fibrosis and hyaliziation of islets
II
amylin deposition in isleets
DM II
Kimmelstiel-Wilson
diabetes
Armanni-Ebstein lesion
tubular deposition of glcogen in DM due to untreated hyperglycemia
most common islet cell tumor
insulinoma
(1) episodic hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia
(2) confusion, anxiety, stupor, convulsions, coma
(3) dramatic reversal of CNS abnormalities by glucose administration
whipple triad of pancreatic insulinoma in beta cells
gastrin hypersecretion and hypergastrinemia
pancreatic gastrinoma
Zollinger-Eillison often associated
is insulinoma benign or malignant
can be either
necrolytic migratory erythema
glucagonoma (alpha cell tumor)
Watery Diarrhea
Hypokalemia
Achlorhydria
VIPoma

(WDHA syndrome or WADHOKA, I'd say)

Verner Morrison syndrome
pancreatic cholera)
role of VIP
homologous to secretin
relaxes GI smooth muscle (so lower esophageal sphincter)
stimulates bicarb
inhibits gastric acid
which MEN includes Zollinger Ellison
I

because that's the three Ps and one is pancreas
Wermer syndrome
MEN I
Sipple syndrome
MEN IIa
which MEN is pheochromocytoma
IIa
which MEN is medullary carcinoma of thyroid
IIa
which MEN is due to ret mutations
MEN IIa and IIb (although different mutations)
which MEN does not have hyperparathyroidism
IIb or III
acanthosis
thickening of epidermis
what caauses lichenification
scratching
Munro abscesses
psoriasis

minute neutrophilic abscesses in the parakeratotic stratum corneum

Judy Monro had psoriasis
acantholytic disorder
pemphigus vulgaris
acanthosis and parakeratosis
psoriasis

acatnthosis is epidermal thickening

parakeratosis is hyperkeratosis with retention of nuclei
severe intraepidermal bullae
pemphigus vulgaris
subepidermal bullae with eosinophils
bullous pemphigoid
IgG antibodies against the epidermal BM
bullous pemphigoid
IgG antibodies against epidermal intercellular cement substance
pemphigus vulgaris
pruritic blistering on extensor surfaces, scalp, upper back, sacrum

microabscesses with PMNs and eosinophils
dermatitis herpetiformis
macules, papules and vesicles
target lesions
erythema multiforme
inheritance of ocular albinism
X linked

you need your eyes to see that X marks the spot
which albinism involves tyrosinase deficiency?
oculocutaneous
enzyme deficiency in oculocutaneous albinism
tyrosinase - converts tyrosie to DOPA (which then is converted to melanin)
increase of melanin in basal keratinocytes
ephelis (freckle!)
melanocytic hyperplasia in epidermis
lentigo
what are nevus cells derived from
melanocytes
is spitz nevus benign or malignant
always benign

can be confused with melanoma, though, because of the spindle-shaped cells
inheritance pattern of dysplastic nevus syndrome
AD
Hutchison freckle
precursor to lentigo maligna melanoma
sun exposure
umbilicated dome shaped papules
transmission by contact among kids
molluscum contagiosum
acrochordon
skin tag!!

this one was just for fun, Meges. Let's see if that helped you remember it
benign neoplasm that regresses spontaneously without threapy
keratoacanthoma
which is premalignant?
seborrheic keratosis
keratoacanthoma
actinic keratosis
actinic keratosis
acanthosis nigricans marks visceral malignancy in
BULS
Breast
Uterus
Lung
Stomach
port-wine stain
ipsilateral glaucoma
vascular lesion of ocular choroidal tissue
hemangiomas of meninges
convulsions, mental retardation
retinal detachment
Sturge Weber
syndromes that include hemangiomas
Sturge Weber
von Hippel Lindau
melanoma that grows vertically
nodular melanoma
in muscle, fibers that have a central darker area reminiscent of a bull's eye are called in tissue with denervation atrophy
target fibers
muscle tissue with clusters of type I and clusters fo type II fibers
denervation atrophy with subsequent renervation
atrophied muscle with primarily type II fibers
angular atrophy due to disuse of muscle

If you don't use muscle you lose type I
muslce tissue with increased CK
dystrophic
what is muscle creatine kinase derived from
degenerating muscle
muscle biopsy
random variation in muscle fiber size
necrosis of individual muscle fibers
replacement of necrotic fibers by fibrofatty tissu
MD
what happens to serum CK in MD
increases
what happens to the hypertropied calves in MD
pseydohypertrophy

(increased firous tissue and adipose tissue)
muscular dystorphy with and without a frameshift
Duchenne has frameshift
Becker has segmental deletions
muscular dystrophy with segmental deletions
Becker

in Becker genes have been pecked out
inheritance mpattern of myotonic dystrophy
AD
trinucleotide CTG repeats in myotonin protein kinase
anticipation
weakness associated with inability to relax muscles once contracted
cataracts
testicular atorphy
baldness
myotonic dystrophy
floppy baby
loss of mitochondria and other organelles in the central portion of type I muscle fibers
central core disease
floppy baby
tangles of small rod-shaped granules in type I fibers
Nemaline myopathy
prognosis in central core disease
affected infants become ambulatory

(this is the one with a loss of mitochondria in central potion of type I fibers)
ragged red muscle fibers
opthalmoplegia
pigementary retinoaphy
heart block
cerebellar ataxia
Kearns-Sayre
inheritance pattern of Kearns Sayre
mitochondrial - maternal
autoantibodies to acetylcholine receptors
MG

MGAR
muscle disorder associated with tumors of thymus or thymic hyperplasia
myasthenia gravis
defect in release of acetylcholine by nerve cells
Lambert-Eaton

wants to keep Eatin the ACh and not let the muscles have it
a patient with a defect in release of acetylcholine by nerve cells might also have?
SCLC

(This was Lambert-Eaton)
cause of osteitis fibrosa cystica
hyperparathyroidism
bone disease with normal calcium and phosphorus
Ostoporosis and Pagets
osteoporosis and paget's disease both have normal calcium and phosphorus. How can you tell them apart?
makedly increased alk phos in pagets

alk Phos higher in Pagets
what's renal osteodystropy
osteomalacia secondary to renal disease
what accumulates in rickets
osteoid
thinnign and softening of occipital and parietal bones
craniotabes of rickets
thickeing of costochondral junctions, resulting in a string of beads appearance
rachitic rosary of rickets
depression along the line of insertionof teh diaphragm into the rib cage
Harrison groove in rickets
protrusion of the sternum
Pigeon breast in rickets
increased osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity
Pagets
locations for Pagets
spine
pelvis
calvarium
femur
tibia
new bone formation with a mosaic pattern
pagets
bone disorder that can lead to high output cardiac failure
ppagets

because of arteriovenous shunts in highly vascular early lesions
osteosarcoma in an older person is probably secondary to
paget's disease
impaired osteoid matrix formation
vitamin C deficiency - scurvy

failure of proline and lysine hydroxylation
subperiosteal hemorrhage
scurby
osteoporosis a tthe metapheses
scurvy
location of FGFR3 gene
chromosome 4
achondroplasia

tiny 4
3 diseases where bone is replaced with fibrous tissue
McCune Albright
Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
GNAS1
McCune Albright

Growth early
Nymphs - young girls
Au lait spots
Short
avascular necrosis at the head of the femur
Legg Calve Perthes

Legg at the top of the calves
avascular necrosis at the tibial tubercle
Osgood Schlatter
avascular necrosis of the navicular bone
Kohler bone disease

Kohler used to be a navicular sailor, which is why he turned to bathtubs and other things that move water
blue sclerae
osteogenesis imperfecta
cause of greatly increased density of the skeleton in osteopetrosis
failure of osteoclasts!
bone disease with
anemia
blindness
deafness
osteopetrosis
osteopetrosis inheritance pattern
AR form kills in infancy
AD (yes, that's right, the AD form) is less severe (which makes sense, right)
most common bug for osteomyelitis
staph aureus

osteo aureo
most common bug for osteomyelitis in sicklers
salmonella sickler
most commong osteomyelitis bug in newborns
strep B and e coli
most common osteomyelitis bug in IV drug users
pseudomonas
part of bone that osteomyelitis usually gets to
metaphysis (esp distal femur, proximal tibia and humerus)

myelitis metaphysis
abscess in bone - name and how it developes
Brodie
sleeve of new bone around infected necrotic area with surrounding wall of granulation tissue
tennis racket shaped cytoplasmic structures in Langerhans cells of teh ?
epidermis

this is Histiocytosis X with Birbeck granules
4 year old kid
skull lesion
diabetes insipidus
exophthalmos
Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
Histiocytosis X variant
look for tennis racquet Birbeck

Christian had a Historic Hand for Tennis Rackets of Birbeck
cartilage-capped subperiosteal bony projection from bone surface
osteochondroma (exostosis)
benign
bone tumor that is more common in females (the only one!)
giant cell tumor (benign)

because women are the giants of the race!!
which two bone tumors are benign
osteochondroma
giant cell tumor

Gentle Giant is OCay
bone tumor with multinucleated giant cells and fibrous stroma, at epiphyses
giant cell tumor
(women 20-40)
intramedullary cartilaginous neoplasm in hands and feet
enchondroma
bone tumor that often protrudes into paranasal sinus
osteoma
proliferation of osteoid and fibrous tissue
osteoid osteoma
bone tumor in vertebrae
ostoblastoma

blasts the skeleton
the three main malignant bone tumors
osteosarcoma (teenage boys)
chondrosarcoma (middle aged boys)
Ewing sarcoma (little boys)
undifferentiated small blue cell tumor in long pones, pelvis, scapulae, ribs
Ewing Sarcoma
osteoid and bone producing neoplasm in tibia or femur near the knee
osteosarcoma
codman triangle
osteosarcoma
sunburst pattern of growth in bone
osteosarcoma
2-3x increase in alk phos with bone growth at the knee
osteosarcoma
familial retinoblastoma predisposes patients to this kind of bone tumor
osteosarcoma
loss of Rb tumor suppressor on 13
bone tumor related to neural crest
Ewing's sarcoma
rheumatoid factor is usually what kind of immunoglobullin
IgM (that is anti-IgG Fc specific)

rheuMatoid
HLA DR4
rheumatoid arthritis
pannus over articular cartilage
rheumatoid arthritis
splenomaegaly
neutropenia
rheumatoid arthritis
Felty syndrome
(RA variant)
arthritis of spine and sacroiliac
ankylosing spondylitis
eburnation
osteoarthritis
polished, ivory like appearance of bone
eburnation in osteoarthritis
Hebreden nodes
osteoarthritis
immunoglobulin in gout
IgG for Gout
nodular growth in helix and antihelix of ear or Achilles tendon
Gout!
calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition
pseudogout or Chonddrocalcinosis
monoarticular arthritis in knee with purulent synovial fluid
gonococcal arthritis
tick associated arthritis (which Ig associated)
Lyme disease

IgM for lyMe
clubbing of fingers
periostitis at distal end of radius and ulna
hypertrophic osteoarthropathy associated with
chronic lung disease
congenital cyanotic heart disease
cirrhosis of liver
inflammatory bowel disease
desmin stains for
muscle

desM-IN is IN Muscle
vimentin stains for
mesenchyme, and thus sarcomas

it is a part of cytoskeletal elements
synovial tumor with a biphasic growth pattern in which both epithelial and spindle cells occur
synovial sarcoma
tumor with spindle shaped cells demonstrating a herringbone pattern
fibrosarcoma
posterior vertebral arches fail to close
spina bifida
vertebral arch defect limited to one or two vertebrae
spina bifida occulta
calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition
pseudogout or Chonddrocalcinosis
monoarticular arthritis in knee with purulent synovial fluid
gonococcal arthritis
tick associated arthritis (which Ig associated)
Lyme disease

IgM for lyMe
clubbing of fingers
periostitis at distal end of radius and ulna
hypertrophic osteoarthropathy associated with
chronic lung disease
congenital cyanotic heart disease
cirrhosis of liver
inflammatory bowel disease
desmin stains for
muscle

desM-IN is IN Muscle
vimentin stains for
mesenchyme, and thus sarcomas

it is a part of cytoskeletal elements
synovial tumor with a biphasic growth pattern in which both epithelial and spindle cells occur
synovial sarcoma
tumor with spindle shaped cells demonstrating a herringbone pattern
fibrosarcoma
posterior vertebral arches fail to close
spina bifida
vertebral arch defect limited to one or two vertebrae
spina bifida occulta
spina bifida with herniation of meninges
spina bifida cystica
nerniated membranes consisting of meninges only
meningocele
portion of spinal cord included in herniated tissue
meningomyelocele
in communicating hydrocephalus there is free flow of CSF between
ventricles and subarachnoid
presence of a thoracolumbar meningomyelocele is almost always characteristic of this brain deformity
Arnold Chiari
hear defect associated with fetal alcohol syndrome
ASD

ASD Alcohol
cell type that proliferatues in tuberous sclerosis
astrocytes

stars of sclerosis
adenoma sebaceum
angiomyolipoma of kidney
associated with tuberous sclerosis
inheritance of tuberous sclerosis
AD
small white nodules scattered in cerebral corte and periventricular areas
tuberous sclerosis
most common cause of brain thrombosis
atherosclerosis
most common cause of brain embolism
mural thrombi
bubbles of air
droplets of fat
most common sites of brain infarct
carotid fiburcation
MCA
most common sites of brian emboli
MCA
(not also carotid bifurcation, as in infarcts)
pure motor lacular infarcts are associated with what location
internal capsule

motoring along in your capsulea
pure sensory lacunar strokes are associated with
thalamus

thalamuSensory
intracerebral hemorrhage associated with HTN
Charcot-Bouchard aneyrys
where does intracerebral hemorrhae usually happen
basal ganglia/thalamus
meningitis
numerous neutrophils
decreased glucose
increased protein
;yogenic meningitis
top causes of pyogenic meningitis in neonates and infants
group B strep Agalactiae
E coli
Listeria

the Baby BELl Brain
top causes of pyogenic meningitis in older infants, children, young adults
strep pneumo
Neisseria

PN - post natal
top causes of pyogenic meningitis in older adults
strep pneumo
gram negative rods

Post being a GRAMma or GRAMpa, which can be a negative
what is Waterhouse Friderichsen
in contect of Meningococcemia
hemorrhagic destruction of Adrenal Cortex
Hypocorticism
DIC

Accountants Make Hard Decisions with Money
most frequent presentation of toxoplasmosis in immunocompetent adults
lymphadenitis
Perivascular cuffing
infiltrate of mononuclear cells within Virchow-Robin spaces

Meningoencephalitis and encephalitis
brain
perivascular cuffing
inclusion bodies
glial nodules
meningoencephalitis and encephalitis
which part of the spinal cord degenerates and necrosis in polio
anterior horn cells

polio polo sit on the anterior horn of the horse
giant cells with eosinophilic inclusions in the brain
CMV
cerebellar degeneration
marked tremor
ataxia
slurred speech
progressive mental deficiency
death within a few months
Kuru or Creutzfeldt Jakob
cause of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
latered measles virus without M component (which mediates extracellular spread), so it moves lowly

SSP
Slow Slow Progression - no M
viral infection that demyelinates oligodendrocytes rapidly

abnormal oligodendrocytes and astrocytes
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
multiple oligoclonal bands showing increased CSF immunoglobulin
MS
HLA A3, B7, DR2 DW 2
MS
scanning speech
intention tremor
nystagmus
MS
demyelination of peripheral nerves
Guillain Barre
ascending muscle weakness and paralysis beginning in the lower part of the lower extremities and ascending upward; respiratory failure and eath acan occur but most patients recover
Guillain Barre
albumino-cytologic dissociation of CSF
Guillain-Barre
Hirano bodies
Alzheimers
intracytoplasmic proximal dendritic eosinophilic inclusions consisting of actin
hirano bodies in alzheirmers
granulovacuolar degeneration in pyramidal cells of hippocampsu
Alzheimers
intraneuronal cytoplasmic granule-containing vacuoles in pyramidal cells of hippocampus
swollen eosinophilic nerve cell processes occuring in spherical focal collections within the cerebral cortex, hippocampus and amygdala
neuritic senile plaques of AD
generalized cerebral atrophy with moderate neuronal loss in frontal and hippocampal areas
AD
decreased number of neurons in the nucleus basalis of Meynert
Alzheimers
dementia that is more frequent in women
Pick

Women get picked on
cerebral atrophy with gliosis and losss of cortical neurons, especially in temporal and frontal lobes
Pick
horn of Ammon
particular site for Pick bodies in Pick disease
brain areas affected in Hingtinton
CN
Putamen
Frontal Cortex
spinal cord areas affected by ALC
lateral corticospinal tracts and anterior motor neurons
bad allele for ApoE
epsilon 4
nucleus basalis of Meynert
Meynert was a CholMEYNer (coal miner)

site of cholinergic neurons in brain
confusion
ataxia
opthalmoplegia
Wernicke's triad
parkinsonism with autonomic dysfunction and orthostatic hypotension
Shy-Drager
MPTP (methyl-phenyl-tetrahydopyridine)
contaminant in illicit street drugs

may cause Parkinsons

Makes Parkinsons Terribly Possible
infantile progressive spinal muscular atrophy
manifests clinically in infancy
Werdnig-Hoffmann syndrome
main cause of conjunctivitis
adenovirus
night blindness with progressive loss of central vision
retinitis pigmentosa
difference between open angle adn angle closure glaucoma
open angle is most common form

angle-closure is from narrow anterior chamber angle
glaucoma that manifests as visual impairment leading to blindness

glaucoma that manifests in pupillary dilation
open angle
vs
angle closure
gene for retinoblastoma
Rb
gene that inspired the two hit hypothesis of Knudson
Rb

Remedial Bumb = 2nd hit
brain tumor that happens in convexities
meningioma
brain tumor that is easily resectable
meningioma
tumor in young kid's cerebellum
medulloblastoma
where does neuroblastoma happen in the brain
cerebral hemispheres
brain tumor with fried egg appearance
oligodendroglioma

oligo all-egg-o
neoplasm in the fourth ventricle
ependymoma
what cells does mningioma originate in
arachnoidals
what is hemangioblastoma associated with
von Hippel Lindau
what can hemangioblastomas cause
secondary polycythemia via EPO production
what's the difference between Antoni A and B
Antoni - hearing tones - VIII - neurilemmomo

Antoni A is interlacing bundles of elongated cells with palisading nuclei

B is looser and less cellular
what syndrome is neurfibroma a part of
Von Recklinghausen
with what kind of study do you use odds ratio vs relative risk
odds for case control

relative risk for cohort
mean median and mode in positive skew
mean > median > mode

alphabetical order