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280 Cards in this Set

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rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis
phsophofructokinase-1
rate limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis
fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase
rate limiting enzyme of TCA cycle
isocitrate dehydrogenase
rate limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis
glycogen synthase
rate limting enzyme of glycogenolysis
glycogen phosphorylase
rate limiting enzyme of HMP shunt
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
rate limiting enzyme of de novo pyrimidine synthesis
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
rate limiting enzyme of de nove purine synthesis
glutamine PRPP amidotransferase
rate limiting enzyme of urea cycle
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
rate limiting enzyme of fatty acid synthesis
acetyl-coA carboxylase
rate limting enzyme of ketogenesis
HMG-CoA synthase
rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis
HMG-CoA synthase
what is the characteristic sequence of the promotor region? What does a mutation in the sequence cause?
-25 TAAT box
-75 CAAT box

mutation would cause decreased amount of transcribed gene
what are the pathological findings in the arteries of pulmonary HTN?
atherosclerosis
medial hypertrophy
intimal fibrosis of pulmonary arteries
Rate limiting enzyme of Urea cycle
CPS-I
rate limiting enzyme of HMP shunt
Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
rate limiting enzyme of Fatty acid synthesis
acetyl-coa carboxylase
rate limiting enzyme of b-oxidation of fatty acids
carnatine acyl-transferase
rate limiting enzyme of ketone bodies
HMG-CoA synthetase
rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis
HMG CoA reductase
rate limting enzyme of bile synthesis
7-a-hydroxylase
rate limiting enzyme of heme synthesis
ALA synthetase
what is the normal value for the A-a gradient?
normal = 10-15 mmHg
what might an elevated A-a gradient indicate?
something wrong inside the lungs
hypoxemia, V/Q mismatch, advanced age
a 42 year old with fibroids is chronically tired. What is the most likely diagnosis and what changes have occurred in the oxygen content and saturation?
the patient is most likely having increased vaginal bleeding
this can lead to decreased hemoglobin available to transport oxygen producing an iron deficiency anemia (hypochromic microcytic)
- oxygen content is low but oxygen saturation is normal
patient with hypoxia and CXR reveals enlarged heart. What is the most likely cause of hypoxia?
heart failure
what is the V/Q at the apex of the lung
3
wasted ventilation
what is the V/Q at the base of the lung?
0.6
wasted perfusion
what is the V/Q during airway obstruciton?
1
decreased ventilation
shunting
what is the V/Q during blood obstruciton?
infinity
decreased perfusion
increased ventilation with no where to go
how is carbon dioxide transported in the blood?
1. bicarbonate
2. N-terminus of Hb
3. Dissolved
how do the CO2 levels in circulation change during exercise?
no change in PaO2 or PaCO2 but an increase in venous PaCO2
in what disorder is there an abnormal breakdown of elastin?
a1-anti-trypsin deficiency
name the genetic syndrome: alcoholics with a B1 deficiency and neurological defects
pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
normal genetic syndrome: abnormal type I collagen synthesis
osteogenesis imperfecta
name genetic syndrome
Heinz bodies
G6PD deficiency
name genetic syndrome
must/mousy odor, albinism, MR, eczema
Phenylalanine kinase deficiency (PKU)
name genetic disorder
hyperextensible skin, loose joints, bleeding tendancy
Elhers- Danlos syndrome
hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis
Fructose intolerance
bloating
cramps
osmotic diarrhea
lactose deficiency
dark brown urine, organs, and CT, benign disease
alkaptourina
multiple fractures and blue sclera
osteogenesis imperfecta
what are the questions asked during the 4 clinical phases of drug development?
I: is it safe?
II: does it work?
III: does it work better?
IV: post market surviellence
how does the body compensate for hypoxia at high altitudes?
respiratory alkalosis
increased EPO
increase 2,3 BPG
increase mT
increased renal excretion of bicarbonate
how must does the H&H change in a person that has acclimatized to hypoxic environment for weeks?
Hematocrit: normal is 40-45
increases to 60

Hemoglobin: normal 15 g/dL
increases to 20 g/dL
at what G force does visual black out occur? why?
G force = 4-6
due to excessive pooling of the blood in the abdomen and LEs and decreased perfusion of the heart and brain
how is the body affected by a prolonged stay in space at zero gravity?
decreased BV
decreased RBC mass
decreased max CO
decreased muscle strength & work capacity
decreased calcium and phosphate leading to decreased bone mass
common cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patient
Pneumocytist jiiroveci
most common cause of atypical/walking pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumonia
common causative agent for pneumonia in alcoholics
Klebsiell pneumonia
can cause an interstitial pneumonia in bird handlers
Chlamydia psittici
often the cause of pneumonia in a patient with history of exposure to bats and bat droppings
Histoplasma
often the cause of pneumonia in a patient who has recently visited south california, new mexico, or west texas
Coccidiodes
pneumonia associated with recurrent jelly sputum
Kleibsella
Q fever
Coxeillia burnetti
associated with pneumonia from air conditioners
Legionella pneumophilia
most common cause of pneumonia in children 1 year of age and younger
RSV
most common cause of pneumonia in a neonate
group B strep
most common cause of pneumonia in children and young adults
Strep pneumonia
common cause of pneumonia in patients with other health problems
Klebsiella pneumonia
most common cause of viral pneumonia
RSV
causes a wool sorters pneumonia
Bacillus anthracis
endogenous flora in 20% of adults
Strep pneumonia
common bacterial cause of COPD exacerbation
Hamophilus influenza
common pneumonia in ventilator patients and those with CF
Pseudomonas
Pontiac fever
Leigonella
examination of a lung at autopsy reveals peripheral lesion with caseous necrosis. What is the diagnosis?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a 30 year old comatose man on ventilatory support in the ICU develops an infection and dies. Autopsy reveals a pus filled cavity in his right lung. What is the likely etiology?
Aspiration --> lung abscess
a 55 year old man who is a smoker and heavy drinker presents with a new cough and flu-like symptoms. Gram stain shows NO organisms; silver stain of sputum shows gram negative rods. What is the diagnossi?
Leigonella pneumophilia
CXR shows collapse of middle lobe of right lung and mass in right bronchus; patient has history of recurrent pneumonias. What is the diagnosis?
Broncheogenic carcinoma
infections agent causing pneumonia: Gram + cocci in clusters
Staph aureus
infectious agent causing pneumonia: Gram + cocci in pairs
Strep pneumonia
infectious agent causing pneumonia in 80 year old Gram - rod
E. coli
infectious agent causing pneumonia in neonate Gram + cocci
Group B strep
infectious agent causing pneumonia in neonate Gram - rod
E. coli
exotoxin that inhibits Ach release leading to flaccid paralysis
Clostridium botulinum
botulinum toxin
exotoxin Lecithinase that causes gas gangrene
C. perferinges
Alpha toxin
exotoxin that inhibits the inhibitor of adenylate cyclase > whooping cough
Pertusis toxin
Bordetella pertusis
exotoxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase > Cl- and water into the gut > diarrhea
Cholera toxin (Vibrio cholera)
Heat liable E. coli
exotoxin that destroys leukocytes
Leukocidiin (S. aureus)
exotoxin that is an enterotoxin that causes rice water diarrhea
cholera toxin (V. cholera)
Heat liable E. coli
exotoxin that causes scarlet fever
Erythogenic and pyogenic toxins from Strep. pyogenes
causes toxic shock syndrome
TSST S. aureus
inactivates EF2 > pseudomembranous phayngitis
Diphtheria toxin
Corneybacterium
blocks the release of the inhibitory NT glycine
Tetanospasmin f/ C. tetani
what 5 bacteria secrete enterotoxins ( exotoxin that causes water and electrolyte imbalances of intestinal epithelium resulting in diarrhea)?
E. coli (heat liable)
Vibrio cholera
Bacillus anthracis
Yersina entercolitica
Staph. aureus
by what method are plasmids exchanged between bacteria?
conjugation
causes scalded skin syndrome
Staph aureus
white membrane on pharynx
Corneybacterium diphtheria
pharyngitis > glomerulonephritis
Group A strep
strep pyogenes
most common cause of meningitis
S. pneumonia
most common cause of osteomyolitis
Staph aureus
serious new born infections
E. coli
Listeria
Group B strep (strep aglacia)
infant with poor muscle tone
Clostridium botulinium
diarrhea after antibiotic tx
C. diffficile
respiratory distress in a postal worker
Bacillus anthracis
otitis media in children
Strep pneumonia
Cellulitis
S. aureus
S. pyogenes
one hour after eating potato salad at a picnic an entire family began to vomit. After 10 hours they were better. What i the organism?
Staphy aureus
ingestion of the preformed toxins
what patients are susceptible to Listeria monocytogenes?
newborns
immunocompromised
what bacteria are spore formers?
Bacillus spp.
Clostridium spp.
Coxiella burtenetti
MOA of penicillins
cell wall inhibitors
binds penicillinase binding protein
blocks transpeptidase cross linking of cell wall
activates autolytic enzymes
clinical use of ampicillin and amoxicillin?
Gram + bacteria
Gram - bacteria
HELPS:
Hamophilus influenza
E. coli
Listeria
Proteus spp.
Salmonella
Shigella
what 3 penicillins are used to treat Psedomonas infections?
Piperacillin
Ticardicillin
Carbenicillin
mycoplasma pneumonia antibiotic
azithromycin
tetracyclines
rocky mountain spotted fever antibiotic
doxycycline
early lyme disease
doxycycline
late lyme disease
ceftriaxone
syphilis
penicillin G
leprosy antibiotic
dapsone
rifampine
clofazimine
bacterial vaginosis antibiotic
metrondiazole
crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best heard at the 2nd-3rd intercostal space close to the sternum
aortic stenosis
early diastolic decrescendo murmur heart best along the left side of the sternum
pulmonic regurgitation
late diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best along the left side of the sternum
tricuspid stenosis
pansystolic murmur best heard at the apex and often radiates into the left axillia
mitral regurgitation
late systolic murmur usually preceded by mid systolic click
mitral valve prolapse
crescendo decrescendo systolic murmur best heard in the 2-3rd intercostal interspace close to the sternum
pulmonic stenosis
pansystolic murmur best heard along the left lower sternal border and generally radiates to the right lower sternal border
tricuspid regurgitation
VSD
rumbling late diastolic murmur with an opening snap
mitral stenosis
pansystolic murmur best heard at the 4-6th left intercostal space
tricuspid regurgitation
VSD
continuous machine like murmur in systole and diastole
PDA
high pitched diastolic murmur associated with a widened pulse pressure
aortic regurgitation
drug of choice for partial and tonic-clonic seizures
carbamazeipine
phenytoin
valproic acid
4 other drugs useful in partial and tonic clonic seizures
lamotrigene
topiromate
gabapentine (adjunct therapy)
drug of choice absence seizures
Ethosuximide
valproic acid
used to treat status epilepticus and eclampsia
epilepticu: benzodiazepienes
eclampsia: magnesium sulfate
common side effects of epilepsy drugs
diplopia
sedation
ataxia
nystagmus
dizziness
Steven Johnson Syndrome
SE of phenytoin
gingivial hyperplasia
hirsuitism
fetal hydantoin syndrome
induces CYP450
drug induced lupus
which anti-epileptics are teratogens?
valproic acid
phenytoin
carbamazepiene
what drugs cause Stevens Johnson Syndrome?
Seizure drugs
Sulfonamides
Penicillins
Allopurinol
what drugs are known to cause agranulocytosis?
Carbamazepiene
Clozapine
Colchicine
PTU and Methimazole
hepatotoxic anti-epileptics
valproic acid
carbamaziepine
what drugs induce the CYP450 system?
Barbiturates
Carbemezipine
Griseofulvin
Phenytoin
Quinidine
Rifampin
St. Johns Wort
which anti-epileptics block the sodium channels
carbamazepine
valproic acid
phenyotion
lamotrigiene
topiromate
which anti-epileptics work by potentiating the effects inhibitory effects of GABA?
Valproic acid
Phenobarbital
BZDs
Gabapentiene
topiromate
Tiagabine
Vigabatrin
Levetiracetam
how is Barbiturate overdose managed?
symptom support
how is benzo overdose managed?
Flumaziel
antidote acetaminophen
N-acetylcysteine
antidote salicylates
sodium bicarbonate to alkalinze the urine
antidote amphetamines
ammonia chloride to acidify the urine
antidote for anticholinesterases and organophosphates
Proloxidone to replenish the AChE and Atropine
antimuscarinic and anticholinergic antidote
Pheostygimine
antidote b-blockers
Glucagon
Atropine
Calcium
antidote Digitalis
follow ACLS protocol
bradycardia > Atropine
Iron antidote
Deforoximine
Lead antidote
EDTA/Succimer/Dimercapil
Arsenic/mercury/gold antidote
Dimercapril/succimer
antidote Copper, arsenic, gold
Penicillamine
antidote cyanide
Nitrites
Hydroxycobalamin
antidote methemoglobin
Methylene blue
antidote carbon monoxide
100% oxygen
antidote for methanol, ethylene glycol
Fomepezil
- inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
antidote opioid overdose
naloxone/Netrexone
antidote for BZDs overdose
Flumazenil
TCA overdose antidote
sodium bicarbonate
antidote for Heparin OD
Protamine sulfate
antidote for Warfarin OD
Vitamin K and Fresh Frozen Plasma
antidote for tPA, streptokinase
aminocaproic acid
antidote for theophylline OD
b-blockers
Fabry's Disease clinical findings
peripheral neuropathy of hands and feet
angiokeratoma
CV/renal disease
deficient enzyme: alpha-GALACTOsidase A
Accumulated: Ceramide trihexodase
X-linked recessive
what is the deficient enzyme and accumulated substance in Fabry's disease?
alpha-GALACTOsidase A

accumulated: Ceramide Trixhexadase
clinical findings in Neiman Picks disease
progressive neurodegeneration, hepatosplenomegaly, cherry red spot on macula (FOAM cells)
deficient: sphingomyelinase
accumulated: sphingomyelin
autosomal recessive
deficient enzyme and accumulated substance in Nieman Picks disease?
deficient: sphingomyelinase
accumulated: sphingomyelin
clinical description of Krabbe's disease.
peripheral neuropathy, developmental delays, optic atrophy, globoid cells
deficient: b-GALACTOcerebrosidase
accumulated: GALACTOcerebroside
autosomal recessive
deficient enzyme and accumulated substance in Krabbe's disease.
deficient: GALACTOcerebrosidase
accumulated:
GALACTOcerebroside
clinical description of Hurler's syndrome
mucopolysacharidosis
Development delays, GARGOYLISM, airway obstruction, corneal clouding, hepatosplenomegaly
Deficient: a-L-Iduronidase
accumulated: heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate
autosomal recessive
deficient enzyme and accumulated substance in Hurler's syndrome.
deficient: a-L-Iduronidase
accumulated: hepran sulfate and dermatan sulfate
Gaucher's disease clinical description
most common lysosomal storage disease.
CF: hepatosplenomegaly, aseptic necrosis of femur, bone crisis
macrophages look like crumpled up tissue paper
deficient: Glucocerebrosidase
accumulated: Glucocerebside
autosomal recessive
Tay Sachs disease clinical description
progressive neurodegeneration, developmental delays, cherry red spot on macula
Lysosome have onion skin appearance
NO HEPTOSPLENOMEGALY
deficient: Hexosaminidase A
accumulated: GM2 ganglioside
autosomal recessive
clinical description of Metachromatic leukodystrophy
central and peripheral demyelination + ataxia and dementia
Deficient: Arylsulfatase A
accumulated: cerebroside sulfate
autosomal recessive
accumulated substance and deficient enzyme in Metachromatic leukodystrophy.
deficient: arylsulfatase A
accumulated: cerebroside sulfate
Hunters syndrome
mucopolysaccharodosis
MILD Hurler's + aggressive behavior, NO corneal clouding
deficient: Iduronate sulfate
accumulated: heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate
X-linked recessive
accumulated substance and deficient enzyme in Hunter's syndrome.
deficient: Iduronate sulfate
accumulation: heparan sulfate dermatan sulfate
C5 Nerve root
sensation of the lateral arm
elbow flexion
biceps reflex
C6 nerve root
sensation of the lateral forearm
wrist extension
brachioradialis reflex
C7 nerve root
sensation of the middle finger
elbow extension and wrist flexion
triceps reflex
C8 nerve root
sensation of medial forearm
finger flexion
T1 nerve root
sensation of medial arm
interosseous muscle action
DAB: dorsal abduct
PAD: palmar aDduct
22q11 deletion syndrome
abberent development of 3rd/4th branchial pouches
cleft palate, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cardiac defects, hypocalcemia
microdeletion of 22q11 `
Fragile X syndrome
X linked defect
FMR1 gene trinucleotide repeat CGG
2nd MCC of genetic mental retardation
CF: macrorchidism, long face, large jaw, autism, elevated ears, mitral valve prolapse
what trisomy is Edward syndrome?
Trisomy 18
what is Patau's trisomy?
Trisomy 13
translocation 8:14
Burkhitt's lymphoma
translocation 11:14
mantle cell lymphoma
translocation 14:18
follicular lymphoma
-BCL2 expressoin
TdT+ leukemia
ALL
CALLA + leukemia
ALL
translocation 12:21 is good prognostic factor in leukemia
ALL
PAS+ leukemia
ALL
smudge cells
CLL
translocation 15:17
AML
Auer rods
AML
PAS negative leukemia
AML
translocation 9:22
CML
Philadelphia chromosome in leukemia
CML
BCR-ABL fusion gene leukemia
CML
defect in frucotkinase
essential fructosuria
-benign/asymptomatic
- S/S: fructose appears in blood and urine
Deficiency in Aldose B
Fructose intolerance
- Fructose-1-phosphate accumulates
- decreased phosphate
- inhibition of Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
S/S: hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis, vomiting
tx: decrease intake of fructose and sucrose
deficiency in Galactose kinase
Galactose kinase deficiency
- Galacticol accumulates if galactose present in diet
- S/S: Galactose appears in blood and urine
infantile cataracts: may first appear as failure to track objects or develop a social smile
absence of Galactose-1-phosphate Uridlytransferase
Classic Galactosemia
- accumulation of toxic substances (Galacticol in lens)
S/S: failure to thrive, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, infantile cataracts, mental retardation
tx: exclude galactose and lactose from diet
Lactose deficiency
age dependent/hereditary lactose intolerance
loss of brush border enzymes
may follow gastroenteritis
S/S: bloating, cramps, osmotic diarrhea
name the developmental structure.
fetal placental structure that secretes hCG
syncytiotrophoblast
maternal component of placenta
deciduia basalis
order the follow molecules by how much energy they contain that can be made into available fuel endergonic reactions:
pyruvate
AMP
Glucose
Adenosine
ATP
Glucose
Pyruvate
ATP
AMP
Adenosine
what are the stages of an embryo between conception and inner cell mass?
zygote
morula
blastocyst
neural crest derivatives of the neural crest:
Peripheral nervous system
ans
vagus
sympathetic ganglion
dorsal roots
cranial nerves
sensory nerves
neural crest derivatives of the ear
bones of the inner ear
neural crest derivatives of the eye
anterior chamber, cornea, sclera, ciliary muscle, iris pigment
neural crest derivatives fo the adrenal gland
chromaffin cells of medulla
neural crest derivatives of the mouth
odontoblast
neural crest derivatives of the heart
aorticopulmonary septum
neural crest derivatives of the digestive system
enteric nervous system
celiac ganglion
enterochromatic cells
neural crest derivatives of the thyroid
parafollicular cells
neural crest derivatives of the skin
melanocytes
a patient with an aganglionic colon and other neural crest cell derivatives deficiencies
What other findings would you expect to see?
deficiency of celiac ganglion
deficiency of enterochromaffin cells
albinism
dental abnormalities
PNS abnormalities
abnormalities of bones of the skull
List as many drugs as you can that are contraindicated in pregnancy.
phenytoin
warfarin
ACE-I
Chloramphenicol
Tetracyclines
Alkylating agents
Fluroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
DES
Methotrexate
Lithium
thalidomide
sulfonamides
valproic acid
during what weeks of fetal development does oranogenesis occur?
weeks 3-8
what is the relationship between the notochord, the neural plate, and neural tube, and the neural crest cells?
Notochord induces overlying ectoderm to differentiate into neuroectoderm and form the neural plate
Neural plate gives rise to the neural tube and neural crest cells
embryonic origin of anterior pituitary
surface ectoderm
embryonic origin of cornea
neural crest
embryonic origin of lens
surface ectoderm
embryonic origin of olfactory epithelium
surface ectoderm
embryonic origin of mammary glands
surface ectoderm
embryonic origin of salivary glands
surface ectoderm
embryonic origin of sweat glands
surface ectoderm
what forms the nucleous pulposus of the intervertebral disk during development?
notochord
what is the embryonic origin of the tissue just above the pectinate line?
endoderm
what is the embryonic origin of the tissue just below the pectinate line?
surface ectoderm
what teratogenic effect might ACE-I cause?
renal damage
what teratogenic effect might aminoglycosides have?
CN VIII toxicity
what teratogenic effect might DES have?
predisposes to vaginal clear cell carcinoma
what teratogenic effect would tetracylcines have?
discolor teeth
what teratogenic effect would valproic acid have?
inhibition of the maternal folate absorption > neural tube defects
what vitamin should not be supplemented in large amounts during pregnancy?
vitamin A
what molecules provide the structural framework for DNA and nuclear envelope?
nuclear lamins
what must be present on a protein in order for that protein to gain entry into the nucleaus?
nuclear localization signals: amino acid sequence of 4-8 amino acids: lysine, arginine, proline
which type of proteins are responsible for fostering the progression through the cell cycle?
cyclines
cyclin-dependent kinases
what cyclin-CDK complex assist in progression form G1-S phase?
Cyclin D-CDK4
cyclin E-CDK2 > progression into S phase
which tumor suppressor proteins prevent the progression from G1-S phase?
p53
Rb
which cycle-CDK complex assist in the progression from G2-M phase?
Cyclin A-CDK2
Cyclin B-CDK1
what is the shortest phase of the cell cycle?
M phase
what is I-cell disease?
deficiency in mannose phosphorylation
NO mannose-6-phosphate to target lysosomal proteins > secretion out of cell instead of into lysosome
death by age 8
CF: corneal clouding, coarse facial features, HSM, skeletal abnormalities, restricted movements
what molecule targets proteins from the ER to lysosomes?
mannose-6-phosphate
what is deficient in I-cell disease?
mannose phosphorylation
- failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate to lysosome proteins > enzymes are secreted outside of the cell instead of being targeted to the lysosome
what are the different methods that a cell uses to break down proteins?
protease
calcium
ubiquination mediated degradation
which cell types are rich in smooth ER?
adrenal cortex
hepatocytes
which amino acids are found in nuclear localization signals?
lysine
arginine
proline
what is the most common cause of MR in infants?
fetal alcohol syndrome
how do Rb protein and p53 regulate the cell cycle?
tumor suppressor genes
- regulate phase G1> S phase
intermediate filament Vimentin
supports cellular membranes
keep certain organelles fixed in cytoplasm
-structural component of connective tissue
intermediate filament: Desmin
muscle cell
- smooth, skeletal, heart
intermediate filament: Cytokeratin
epithelial cells
- keratin in desmosomes and hemidesmosomes
intermediate filament: GFAP
astrocytes
schwann cells
other neuroglia
intermediate filament: Peripherin
neurons
intermediate filament: Neurofilaments
axons within neurons
intermediate filament: nuclear lamins
nuclear envelopes and DNA within
what drug acts on microtubules?
Mebendazole/thiabendazole: antihelminths
Greseofulvin: antifungal
Vincristine/Vinblastine: anti-cancer
Paclitaxel: anti-breast cancer
Cochicine: anti-gout
what two fundamental substances are required to make most things work inside cell?
ATP
Calcium
which organelle is responsible for breakdown of very long chain fatty acids?
peroxisomes
intermediate filament for connective tissue?
Vimentin
intermediate filament for muscle tissue?
desmin
intermediate filament for epithelial cells?
cytokeratin
intermediate filament for axons
neurofilaments
what are the defects seen in Kartanger's syndrome?
immotile cilia due to dynein arm defect
male and females are infertile, bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis, associated with sinus inversus
what arachodonic acid product increases bronchial tone?
LTC4, D4, TXA2
AA product decreased bronchial tone?
PGI2, PGE2
AA product increases platelet aggregation?
TXA2
AA product increased uterine tone?
PGF2a
AA product decreased uterine tone?
PGI2
AA product increased vascular tone?
TXA2
AA product decreased vascular tone?
PGE2, PGI2
what are the two most abundant substances in the plasma membrane?
cholesterol
phospholipids
Corticosteroids action on AA pathway
inhibits phospholipase A2
NSAIDS, ASA, COX-2 inhibitors action on the AA pathway?
inhibits cyclooxygenase
Zileuton action on the AA pathway?
inhibits Lipooxygenase
Zarfalukast/Montelukast action on the AA pathway?
inhibits LTC4, D4
what protein is involved in transporting an endocytosed vesicle from the plasma membrane to the endosome?
clatherin
what drugs inhibit the cellular sodium-potassium ATPase?
Cardiac glycosides (Digoxin)
what drugs interfere with microtubule functions?
Mebendazole
thiabendazole
Griseofulvin
Vincristine/Vinblastine
Paclitaxil
Colchicine
which cell types are constantly regenerating themselves due to an absence of the G0 phase and a short G1 phase?
Labile cells
- bone marrow
- gut epithelium
- skin/hair follicles