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391 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the Field Manual for map reading and land navigation?
FM 3-25.26
Where is the Legend of the map found?
Lower left margin
How many Mils are in one Degree?
17.7 mils
What must be done to a map before it can be used?
It must be oriented.
What is the distance between grid lines on a combat map?
1 kilometer or 1000 meters
How many mils are there in a circle?
6400 mils in 360 degrees
Are topographic symbols drawn to scale?
No
What do topographic symbols represent?
Man-made and natural features
What is Back Azimuth?
The opposite direction of an azimuth.
What is the general rule for reading military grid coordinates?
Right and UP
How many sights does a compass have?
2
What is a benchmark?
A man-made marker showing points of elevation
What are parallels of latitude?
Measured distances going north or south of the equator
What is an aerial photograph?
An aerial photograph is any photograph taken from an airborne vehicle
What does UTM stand for?
Universal Transverse Mercator
The lensatic compass has a bezel ring; each bezel ring click is equal to how many degrees?
3
How many times would the bezel ring click if it were fully rotated?
120
Large cities on a map are represented by what color?
Black
Name two ways to orient a map?
Use a compass and terrain association
What is the Field Manual for Operational Terms and Graphics?
FM 1-02
The arrow on a compass always points what direction?
Magnetic north
What does the term FLOT mean?
Forward Line Of Troops
If you find a symbol on a map that is unknown to you, where would you look?
The marginal data
What is the feature that makes the lensatic compass work well at night?
The dials and needles are luminous
What is the name of the map system that the U.S. uses?
UTM
What is a contour level?
It is the vertical distance between contour lines.
The border line around the edge of the map is called the what?
Neat Line
You must find at least how many known locations on a map and the actual ground in order to plot your location
accurately?
At least 2
What are two methods of measuring an azimuth?
Compass and a protractor
How close will an eight-digit grid get you to your point?
10 meters
How close will a six-digit grid coordinate get you to your point?
100 meters
What would you use on a map to measure actual ground distance?
The bar scale
When was the NCO support channel formally recognized?
20 December 1976
What is Sergeant's Business?
To train and lead soldiers
What is a Sergeant?
A leader
Define Responsibility
Being accountable for what you do
What is the role of the CSM?
Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Battalion commander
How does a Commander exercise command?
Through subordinate commanders
When was the position of Sergeant Major of the Army established?
4 July 1966
Is the CSM in the Chain of Command?
No
What are key elements of command?
Authority and Responsibility
What AR covers military justice?
AR 27-10
Does a person have to accept an article 15?
No, he or she has the right to demand a trial by court martial
What kind of extra duty is an NCO given by an article 15?
Supervisory duty only
What is the UCMJ?
Uniform Code of Military Justice
How many articles are there in the UCMJ?
There are 146 Articles and 12 Sub-Articles in the UCMJ.
When was the UCMJ enacted?
1950, congress enacted the UCMJ
What is a Field Grade Article 15?
An article 15 imposed by an O4 or above
Who may impose an article 15?
Any commanding officer, including a warrant officer exercising command
What form is used to record Summarized Article 15 proceedings?
DA Form 2627-1
What are articles 77 through 134 of the UCMJ known as?
Punitive Articles
Who is the highest military court?
The court of military appeals
Under what article is Non-judicial punishment imposed?
Article 15
What is one circumstance when a soldier does not have the right to refuse an Article 15 and demand trial by court martial?
When aboard a ship
What does JSLIST stand for?
Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology
What does MOPP stand for?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
When under an NBC attack, when do you give warning?
After you mask
What does C.B.R.N. stand for?
Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear
What will replace the Nerve Agent Antidote Kit (NAAK) based on shelf life expiration dates?
The Antidote Treatment, Nerve Agent Auto injector (ATNAA)
What is the number of Antidote Treatment Nerve Agent Autoinjector (ATNAA) that must be given as
immediate first aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning?
3
What is the number of Nerve Agent Antidote Kits (NAAK) that must be given as immediate first aid treatment
for nerve agent poisoning?
3
What Field Manual covers NBC Operations?
FM 3-11
What Field Manual covers NBC Protection?
FM 3-11.4
What Field Manual covers NBC Decontamination?
FM 3-5
What is FM 3-7?
NBC Handbook
Soldiers in MOPP 4 may lose how much water per hour through perspiration?
1 quart or more
Which of the NBC reports is most widely used?
NBC 1
How long should you apply pressure when using the Auto injector?
10 seconds
The protective mask will not protect against what two types of gases?
Ammonia vapors or carbon monoxide
When giving Buddy Aid, whose auto injectors would you use?
The other person
When giving Buddy Aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptoms of Nerve agent, to
administer a second nerve agent antidote (MK1)?
Immediately give the second and third
When giving Self Aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptoms of a Nerve Agent before
administering a second MK1?
Wait 10 to 15 minutes
Once a unit has masked, who can make the decision to unmask?
The unit commander
What is the shape of the contamination markers?
Triangle
What type of attack does an M22 ACADA alarm warn you of?
Chemical (ACADA = Automatic Chemical Agent Detection Alarm)
What are the dimensions of an NBC marker?
11 1/2 inches on the top by 8 inches on either side
When crossing a contaminated area, what 2 things should you avoid doing?
Stirring up dust and touching anything
Of these 3, Nerve, Blood, and Blister agents, which causes the most casualties?
Nerve agents
How should an area that is suspected of contamination be crossed?
Quickly, avoiding depressions and vegetation
What is the color of a Nuclear (radiological) contamination marker?
White background with ATOM in black letters
What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Nuclear assets?
Last Resort
What are Flash Burns?
Direct burns produced by the flash of thermal radiation from the fireball
What causes the most casualties in a nuclear attack?
The initial blast and the heat of detonation
What is the difference between Dose Rate and Total Dose?
Dose Rate is the amount of radiation per hour; Total Dose is the actual accumulation
Who has the authority to order the use of nuclear weapons?
Only the President of the U.S.
What does an AN VDR-2 detect and measure?
nuclear radiation from fallout and radioisotopes.
An NBC-1 report is used to determine what?
The initial detection of NBC weapons usage by the enemy
What FM covers Nuclear Contamination Avoidance?
FM 3-11.3
For maximum radiation effect, which nuclear burst would you use?
Air burst
What is the best way to protect against Biological agents?
Personal hygiene
What is a vector?
An insect used to disseminate biological agents
What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Biological assets?
No Use
What is the color of a Biological contamination marker?
Blue background with BIO in red letters
What does FM 3-3 cover?
Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear Contamination Avoidance
What is the best decontamination for Biological agents?
Warm soapy water
What are the most effective times to use chemical agents?
Evening and early morning
What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Chemical assets?
No First Use
What is the color of the Chemical contamination marker?
Yellow with GAS in Red letters
What is Self Aid?
Emergency treatment one applies to oneself
What is the quickest way to splint a broken leg?
Tie the broken leg securely to the unbroken leg
How many pressure points, which can be used to control bleeding with fingers, thumbs or hands are there on
the human body?
11
What FM covers first aid for soldiers?
FM 4-25.11
What is First Aid?
It is the first care given to casualties before treatment by medical personnel can be made available
What is the unique feature of type "O" blood?
It is a universal donor
When would you not remove a casualties clothing to expose a wound?
If in a chemical environment or if the clothing is stuck to the wound
How high should an injured limb be elevated above the heart to control bleeding?
2 to 4 inches
When applying splint, where should the bandages be tied?
The bandages should be tied with knots against the splint
Whose first aid dressing should be used on a casualty?
Use the casualty’s field dressing.
How should the ends of an improved pressure dressing be tied?
Tie the ends together in a nonslip knot, directly over the wound site.
Should a casualty be given water to drink?
He should not eat or drink
Why should you dress and bandage the wound as soon as possible?
To protect the wound from further contamination of germs, and also to control the bleeding
What should you do to indicate that a casualty has received a tourniquet?
Mark his or her forehead with a T and if possible, note the time of the application of the tourniquet
(FM 4-25.11 Dec 2002 / 2-20 / PDF 51)
Should you ever remove or loosen a tourniquet?
No, only qualified medical personnel can do that
(FM
Should you ever remove or loosen a tourniquet?
No, only qualified medical personnel can do that
If a casualty were suspected of having a neck/spinal injury or severe head trauma, which method would you use
for opening an airway?
The jaw thrust technique
What are two basic types of fractures?
1. Open (compound)
2. Closed (simple)
With an open fracture, what should you do first?
Stop the bleeding
What is the basic proven principle in splinting fractures?
"Splint them where they lie"
How tight should tourniquet be?
Tightened until the bright red bleeding has stopped.
What is a heat injury?
A loss of water and salt, a general dehydration of the body
What is the greatest preventive measure for disease?
Cleanliness
What is CPR?
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, it is used to restore a heart beat
What is AIDS?
AIDS is the end stage of the HIV infection.
Name two types of rescue breathing
1. Mouth to mouth
2. Mouth to nose
What do the letters AIDS stand for?
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
How long is direct manual pressure applied to control bleeding?
5 to 10 minutes
What should you do prior to leaving an unconscious casualty?
Turn their head to the side to prevent them from choking on their own vomit
When should a tourniquet be used to stop bleeding?
As a last resort when everything else has failed or when an arm or leg has been severed off
What is the first indication of frostbite?
Skin becomes numb and white particles/patches form on it
When should an airtight dressing be applied to a sucking chest wound?
As the individual breathes out
How should you position a casualty with an open abdominal wound?
On his back with his knees up to relieve abdominal pressure
What do you do with exposed abdominal organs?
Wrap them in dry clean material and place on top of the abdomen
How do you take the Carotid pulse?
Feel for a pulse on the side of the casualty’s neck closest to you.
Should you put any medication or cream on a burn?
No
What is the primary objective in the treatment of burns?
Lessen or prevent shock and infection
What is the first step in the first aid of a burn victim?
Remove the casualty from the source of the burn
What are the 2 prescribed methods for opening an airway?
1. The jaw thrust
2. Head tilt/chin lift methods
What is the major cause of tooth decay and gum disease?
Dental plaque
What Army Regulation prescribes the policies for completing evaluation reports that support the Evaluation
Reporting System (ERS)?
AR 623-3
What DA Pamphlet prescribes the procedures for completing evaluation reports that support the Evaluation
Reporting System (ERS)?
DA Pam 623-3
Can an NCO that is on a recommended list for promotion or frocked to one of the top three NCO grades (first
sergeant (1SG), SGM, or CSM) and is serving in an authorized position for the new grade, rate any NCO under
their supervision, if after the rater's promotion he/she will be senior in pay grade or date of rank to the rated NCO?
Yes
What is the minimum period of time for rater qualification?
3 Rated Months
What is the minimum period of time for senior rater qualifications?
2 months
When will a member of an allied force meet senior rater qualifications?
Never
What form is used for the NCO Counseling/Checklist Record?
DA Form 2166-8-1
What forms are used for the NCOER?
1. DA 2166-8-1, NCO Counseling Checklist/Record

2. DA 2166-8, NCO Evaluation Report.
What is the minimum time period before the initial counseling must be done?
Within the first 30 days of the rating period
Who is the last individual to sign the NCOER?
The rated NCO
Does the rated NCOs signature mean that the rated NCO approve of the bullets / comment on the NCOER?
No, The rated Soldier’s signature will only verify the accuracy of the administrative data in Part I, to include non rated
time
Are NCOERs required for POWs?
No
What is the minimum period of time for the reviewer?
None,there is no minimum time required
Are handwritten comments allowed on the NCOER?
No
Will any references be made in an NCOER to an incomplete investigation (formal or informal) concerning a
Soldier?
No
Rating an NCO's fears, inner feelings, enthusiasm, and overall confidence falls into which Values/NCO
Responsibility block?
Physical Fitness / Military Bearing
Is the use of the 2166-8-1 mandatory for counseling all NCOs in the ranks of CPL through CSM?
Yes
Who receives an NCOER?
All NCOs
What annotation will be made on the NCOER for a NCO's performance as a member of a Court Martial?
None
What NCOER is used upon the removal of an NCO from a ratable assignment based on the decision by a member of the NCO's chain of command?
Relief-for-cause
What does FM 6-22 cover?
Army Leadership
What does FM 7-0 cover?
Training the force
What is military bearing?
Projecting a commanding presence, a professional image of authority.
What are the three core domains that shape the critical learning experiences throughout Soldiers' and leaders'
careers?
1. Institutional training.
2. Training
3. Self-development.
What are the Leader Actions?
1. Influencing
2. Operating
3. Improving
What are the three levels of leadership?
1. Direct
2. Organizational
3. Strategic
Attributes of an Army leader can best be defined as what an Army leader is. What are the attributes of an Army
leader?
1. A leader of character
2. A leader with presence
3. A leader with intellectual capacity
Core leader competencies are what an Army leader does. What are the core leader competencies?
1. An Army leader leads
2. An Army leader develops
3. An Army leader achieves.
What is communication?
A process of providing information
Name the two barriers of communications
1. Physical
2. Psychological
Name some physical barriers of communication
- Noise of battle
- Distance
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
1. Event counseling
2. Performance counseling
3. Professional growth counseling
Character is essential to successful leadership. What are the three major factors that determine a leader's
character?
1. Army Values
2. Empathy
3. Warrior Ethos
What are the team building stages?
1. Formation
2. Enrichment
3. Sustainment
What does ASAP stand for?
Army Substance Abuse Program
What army Regulation covers ASAP?
AR 600-85
All ASAP referrals are accomplished by the Commander or 1SG using what form?
Completing and signing the DA 8003 Referral Form.
Will Soldiers who are command referred to ASAP be flagged?
Yes
What Does ACS stand for?
Army Community Service
What Army regulation covers ACS?
AR 608-1
How is ACS staffed for the most part?
By volunteers
What is the motto of the ACS?
Self-help, service and stability.
What regulation covers the ACES?
AR 621-5
What regulation covers Army Learning Centers?
AR 621-6
What does TABE stand for?
Test ofAdult Basic Education
How much of your tuition does the tuition assistance grant pay?
100%
What does DANTES stand for?
Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support
Soldiers who begin their active service after what date are eligible to receive the new GI Bill?
July 1985
What does SOC stand for?
Service members Opportunity Colleges
What does SOCAD stand for?
Service members Opportunity College Army Degrees
AER closely coordinates with what other organization?
American Red Cross
What does AER stand for?
Army Emergency Relief
What does ACES stand for?
Army Continuing Education Center
What is the Army Regulation that covers AER?
AR 930-4
Are you required to contribute to AER to receive help?
No
How are monetary contributions made to AER?
Cash,check or allotment
When is the AER annual fund campaign held army-wide?
March 1 through May 15
How does AER provide financial assistance?
By either a loan without interest, a grant or a combination of both
What is the purpose of AER?
AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active and retired) and their families in time of distress.
What is the dollar limit on AER loans?
There is no dollar limit.
What is the AER Motto?
"Helping the Army Take Care Of its Own"
The minimum amount that can be contributed to AER through allotment is what amount?
1 dollar each month for 3 months
More than half of sexual assault offenses include what?
Alcohol
Prevention of sexual harassment is whose responsibility?
The Commander’s Responsibility
What does EO stand for?
Equal Opportunity
What is an EOR?
Equal Opportunity Representative
What rank should an EOR normally be?
SGT (P) through 1LT
What Army Regulation covers the EO program?
AR 600-20 chapter 6
Soldiers are required to have how many periods of EO training per year?
4 (1 each quarter)
What action does the Army take against off-post activities, including housing and public ccommodations,
which arbitrarily discriminate against members of the Army and their dependents?
Off limits or off limits sanctions may be applied.
Who is the primary source for solving EO complaints?
Your Unit Chain of Command
What is the primary channel for correcting discriminatory practices and for communications on equal
opportunity matters?
Chain of Command
Does every unit have an EO representative?
Yes
What does AFAP stand for?
Army Family Action Plan
What Army Regulation covers the Army Family Action Plan?
AR 608-47
When was the AFAP program established?
The AFAP program was established in 1983
The AFAP program creates an information loop between whom?
The Global Army Family and Leadership.
The AFAP program's process of improvement begins where?
At the local level
How is the ARC staffed for the most part?
By volunteers
What Army Regulation covers Red Cross?
AR 930-5
What Army Regulation covers the Army Retention Program?
AR 601-280
What is an SRB?
Selective Reenlistment Bonus
What is the minimum number of years that a soldier must reenlist for to be eligible for an SRB?
Three years
Can a Soldier request separation if a bar to reenlistment is imposed?
No
A Bar to Reenlistment is reviewed how often?
Every three months or 30 days prior to PCS / ETS
Who can initiate a Bar to Reenlistment?
Any commander in the soldier’s chain of command
Who is the final approving authority for a Bar to Reenlistment?
A Commander who is one approval level higher than the commanding authority
What type of fire extinguisher must not be used on electrical fires?
A water fire Extinguisher
Who is responsible for the Army Safety Program?
It is the responsibility of each soldier
The word SAFETY is often associated with what term?
Risk Management
What accounts for the majority of accidents?
Carelessness
Accidents are reported in accordance with what regulation?
AR 385-40
How often are fire extinguishers in the barracks required to be checked for serviceability, and how can this be
determined?
Once a month, a tag on the fire extinguisher indicating the date and initials of authorized unit safety personnel
What AR covers safety?
AR 385-10
Where on post can you find out how many privately owned vehicle accidents that were fatal have occurred this
year?
A sign in the vicinity of the outbound gate on post
Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?
Yes
What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?
AR 600-8-8
What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?
DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E
How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?
10 days unless the sponsorship is declined
What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?
The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming soldier.
The primary goal of the Army's QOLP is to promote the development of military group commitment and
cohesiveness, is essential to what?
Readiness (combat effectiveness).
What does QOLP stand for?
Quality Of Life Program
The Army's Quality of Life program is dedicated to the precept that the Army's number one operational
resource must be taken care of. What is this resource?
The soldier
Quality of Life needs and the programs and actions to address them, are categorized under two general
headings. What are they?
1. Living conditions
2. Duty environment.
Who is the senior enlisted advisor to the BOSS council, and approves members selected to serve on BOSS
committees?
The Installation Command Sergeant Major
What type of program is BOSS?
BOSS is categorized as a category B Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) program.
What is the lowest level unit that has a BOSS council representative?
The battery/company level
What is CHAMPUS?
Civilian Health And Medical Program for the Uniformed Services.
What Army regulation covers CHAMPUS?
AR 40-121
What Does DEERS stand for?
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System.
What is DEERS used for?
To obtain dependent ID cards for eligible spouse and children
What does NCODP stand for?
Non commissioned Officer Development Program
As with all leader training and leader development, who is responsible for NCODP?
The command.
NCODP is typically managed by whom?
The CSM or Senior NCO in the organization.
What Army Regulation covers NCODP?
AR 350-1 Chap 4
What does ARC stand for?
American Red Cross
What does BOSS stand for?
Better Opportunities for Single Soldiers
What is meant by the term "overweight"?
A soldier is considered overweight when his or her percent body fat exceeds the standard specified in AR 600-9.
Who is responsible for meeting the standards prescribed in AR 600-9?
Every Soldier
What are the primary objectives of the Army Weight Control Program?
Ensureth at all personnel:

1.Are able to meet the physical demands of their duties under combat conditions
2. Present a trim military appearance at all times.
Name some limitations on personnel that are overweight, including Soldiers who become pregnant while on the
weight control program?
1. Are non promotable (to the extent such non promotion is permitted by law).
2. Will not be assigned to command, command sergeant major or first sergeant positions.
3. Are not authorized to attend professional military schools.
Can a Soldier who has been flagged for being overweight or an APFT failure receive an award?
A Soldier that is flagged for being overweight cannot receive an award.
A Soldier that is flagged for APFT failure can receive an award
When is a determination of percent body fat required to be made on personnel?
1. When their body weight exceeds the screening table weight.

2. When the unit commander or supervisor determines that the individual's appearance suggests that body fat is
excessive.
What are three reasons why the Army is so conc e r n e Pda gae b1 o/ u5 t excess body fat?
1. Connotes a lack of personal discipline.
2. Detracts from military appearance.
3. May indicate a poor state of health, physical fitness, or stamina.
When does enrollment in a weight control program begin?
On the day that the soldier is informed by the unit commander
Tape measures used for taping should be made of what material?
The tape measures could be made of a non stretchable material, preferably fiberglass
How often should soldiers in the weight control program weight in?
Monthly to measure progress
What is the required weight loss goal for Soldiers on the Army Weight Control Program?
The required weight loss goal of 3 to 8 pounds per month
What regulation covers the Army Weight Control Program?
AR 600-9
Screening table weights and heights are measured to the nearest what?
1/2 pound or 1/2 inch
How often should soldiers be weighed?
A soldier should be weighed when they take the APFT or at least every six months
Define Tape Test:
The method of determining the percent of body fat on a soldier.
What circumference sites are used for taping male and female soldiers?
Male- Abdomen and Neck
Female- Neck, Waist and Hip (largest portion of the protruding buttock)
How many times is each measurement required to be made?
Three times(Each sequential measurement will be within 1?2 inch of the next or previous measurement.)
How many people should be utilized in the taping of soldiers?
Two
If circumstances prevent the weighing of soldiers immediately following the APFT, when can they be weighed?
Within 30days of the APFT
In regards to percent body fat, all personnel are encouraged to achieve the more stringent Department of Defense-wide goal of what?
Males - 18%
Females - 26%
To assist soldiers in meeting the requirements prescribed in AR 600-9, weight-screening tables are used. The
screening weight is based on what two considerations?
Height and age with separate tables for males and females
When you take the APFT, what is the minimum number of points you must score in each event?
60 points
What FM covers Physical Fitness Training?
TC 3-22.20 replacing FM 21-20
What are the three phases of physical conditioning?
1. Preparatory
2. Conditioning
3. Maintenance
About how long is the preparatory phase?
2 weeks
What is a MFT?
Master Fitness Trainer
What does FITT stand for?
Frequency,Intensity, Time, and Type
What is DA Form 3349?
Physical profile form
What is the objective of physical fitness training?
To enhance soldiers’ abilities to meet the physical demands of war.
What are the three periods of a normal daily exercise routine?
1. Warm-up
2. Conditioning
3. Cool-down
What AR covers the Army Physical Fitness Program?
AR 350-1Chapter 1 Section 24
Soldiers 55 years of age or older have the option of taking the 3 event APFT or what?
The alternate APFT.
How many scorers should be supplied for the APFT?
A minimum of 1 per every 15 soldiers
What is the DA form 705?
Physical Readiness Test Scorecard
Name the two physical fitness formations?
1. Extended Rectangular
2. Circular
What Army Field Manual is called "Training The Force"?
FM 7-0
What is meant by performance oriented training?
The soldiers learn best by hands on
What is the Army's number one priority?
Training
What does realistic training inspire?
It builds competence, confidence and inspires excellence
An AAR is not called what?
Critique
What is the goal of combat level training?
To achieve combat level standards
What are the three types of training plans?
1. Long-range
2. Short-range
3. Near-term
Who is responsible for maintaining all assigned equipment in a high state of readiness in support of training or
combat employment?
Soldiers and leaders.
What does AAR stand for and what does it provide?
After Action Review. An AAR provides feedback to units by involving participants
in the training diagnostic process in order to increase and reinforce learning.
What does the term METL stand for?
Mission Essential Task List
What are the codes used to rate task proficiency?
"T" = trained
"P" = needs practice
"U" = untrained
Who stated, "The best form of welfare for the troops is first class training, for this saves unnecessary
casualties"?
Field Marshal Erwin Rommel
What does MILES stand for?
Multiple Integrated Laser Engagement System
What does well-structured training contain?
It contains a mixture of initial and sustainment training.
True or false. Safe training is the predictable result of performing to established tactical and technical
standards.
True
What is ITEP?
Individual Training Evaluation Program
What is the range of proficiency within which a unit is capable of executing its wartime METL tasks?
Band of Excellence
Are senior leaders supposed to make on the spot corrections, underwrite honest mistakes, and demand
aggressive action to correct training deficiencies?
Yes
What are the three core domains that shape the critical learning experiences throughout a soldier's and leader's
career?
The Operational, Institutional and Self-Developmental Domains.
What is the foundation of the training process?
The training management cycle.
What are the three marching steps used in drill?
1. 15in step
2. 30in step
3. 30in step, DOUBLE TIME 180 steps per minute
What FM covers Drill and Ceremony?
FM 3-21.5
What are two prescribed formations for platoons?
1. line
2. column
What are the 4 rest positions that can be given at the halt?
1. Parade rest
2. Stand at ease
3. At ease
4. Rest
What is the primary value of ceremonies?
To render honors, preserve tradition, and to stimulate Esprit de Corps
What is a rank?
A line, which is only one element in depth
What foot is your leading foot?
Your left foot
What is the only command given from "Inspection Arms"?
“Ready, Port, Arms”
What is a file?
A column, which has a front of only one element
If you were marching a squad, when would you give the command "squad halt"?
When either foot strikes the ground
What is a formation?
The arrangement of elements of a unit in a prescribed manner
After weapons have been issued to a unit and all other soldiers have fallen in with their weapons, what is the
next command that you should give?
Inspection arms
While passing the colors or while the colors are passing you, when is the hand salute rendered?
Six paces before and six paces after
How many steps per minute is quick time?
120 steps per minute
How many steps per minute is double time?
180 steps per minute
What command is given to reverse the direction of a march?
Rear March
From what position are all stationary movements given?
Position of attention
On what foot would you give the command "Mark time march"?
On either foot
How do you measure a "step"?
Heel to heel
What is depth?
The space from front to rear of a formation
What is the interval between the preparatory command and the command of execution?
1 step or 1 count
What are the two parts of most drill command?
1. Preparatory command
2. Command of execution
What position is the unit guidon once a preparatory command is given?
The raised vertical position
What are some examples of a combined command?
At ease
Fall in
Rest
What command is given to revoke a preparatory command?
As You Were
Who is responsible for training and appearance of the color guard?
The CSM
When executing a Rear March, on which foot do you pivot?
Both feet, turning 180 degrees to the right
What are the three methods used to teach Drill?
1. Step by step
2. By the numbers
3. Talk-through method
What 4 movements in marching require a 15-inch step?
1. Half step
2. Left step
3. Right step
4. Backward march
How many steps should separate platoons when a company is formed?
5 steps
What is the "Blue Book"?
A drill manual used by Baron Von Steuben
Can a command be changed after the command of execution has been given?
No
How far in front of the Honor Company or color company do the colors halt?
Ten steps
What are the 4 types of waste?
1. Human
2. Liquid
3. Garbage
4. Rubbish
What is the water requirement per person, per day in a temperate zone?
5 gallons
A latrine can be no closer than what distance to a water source?
100 ft
What is Potable water?
Water that is safe to drink
How many gallons of water will a Lister bag hold?
36 gallons
How deep is a cat hole?
6 to 12 inches
What is a communicable disease?
A disease that ca be transmitted person to person, animal to person and insect to person
What are the 5 "F"s of Field Sanitation?
1. Fingers
2. Feces
3. Flies
4. Foods
5. Fluids
What is the best protection against disease or biological warfare?
Immunization and personal hygiene
What Field Manual covers Unit Field Sanitation Team?
FM 4-25.12
What Field Manual covers Field Hygiene and Sanitation?
FM 21-10
What is a vector?
Any living organism that can carry a disease-producing virus
What is palatable water?
Water that is pleasing to the taste, but which may be unsafe
What are the 5 communicable disease grouped by the Army?
1. Respiratory
2. Intestinal
3. Insect borne
4. Venereal
5. Miscellaneous
What 3 rules apply to water discipline in the field?
1. Drink only from approved sources
2. Conserve water
3. Do not contaminate your sources
What are the three most common poison plants?
1. Poison ivy
2. Poison oak
3. Poison sumac
Where should the latrine be located in relation to the mess hall?
At least 100 meters downhill or downstream
How far should garbage pits be located away from the mess area?
30 yards and no closer than 100 ft from any water sources.
Enough straddle trenches should be dug to accommodate what percentage of the unit at one time?
8 percent
What are two ways to purify water?
1. Iodine tablets
2. Boiling
Who gives the final approval on whether water is safe to drink?
Medical personnel
What is the FM concerning the M16/A2 Rifle?
FM 3-22.9
What is the first thing you should do when you handle a weapon?
Make sure you clear it
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
1. Steady Position
2. Proper Aim (Sight Picture)
3. Breathing
4. Trigger Squeeze
During Preliminary Marksmanship Training (PMI), what are the only two positions taught?
1. Individual Foxhole supported
2. Basic Prone unsupported
What are the two basic elements of the Sight Picture?
1. Sight Alignment
2. Placing of the Aiming Point
What does the acronym SPORTS stand for?
Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap and Shoot
Is SPORTS an Immediate or Remedial Action?
Immediate action
How many times should immediate action be applied to a weapon?
Once.
Name the different categories of malfunctions on the M16/A2.
1. Failure to feed, chamber or lock
2. Failure to fire cartridge
3. Failure to Extract
4. Failure to Eject
How do you clear a stoppage?
Apply immediate or remedial action
What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
The greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit
What does CLP stand for?
Cleaner
Lubricant
Preservative
What is the muzzle velocity of the M16/A2 Rifle?
3,100 feet per second
Describe the Barrel Rifling for the M16/A2 Rifle.
Right hand twist 1/7
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M16/A2 Rifle?
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
The elevation knob adjusts the point of aim for the M16A2 Rifle how much?
300 to 800 meters
What is the overall length of the M16/A2 Rifle?
39.63 inches
What is the FM concerning the M4 Rifle?
FM 3-22.9
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M4.
1. Try to place the weapon on safe
2. Remove the magazine
3. Lock the bolt to the rear
4. Place the weapon on safe if not already done
What is a malfunction?
The weapon ceasing to fire due to a stoppage resulting from mechanical failure of the weapon, magazine or ammo.
What is stoppage?
A stoppage is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of operation.
What is the muzzle velocity of the M4 Rifle?
2,970feet per second
Describe the Barrel Rifling for the M4 Rifle.
Right hand twist 1/7
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M4?
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
The elevation knob adjusts the point of aim for the M4 Rifle how much?
300 to 600 meters
What is the overall length of the M4 Rifle?
Buttstock Closed - 29.75 inches
Buttstock Open - 33.00 inches
What are the four positions for the buttstock of the M4 Rifle?
1. Closed
2. 1/2 Open
3. 3/4 Open
4. Full Open
What part of the M4 Rail Adapter System may be removed to perform PMCS?
Only the Lower Assembly