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529 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
What AR prescribes the policies and responsibilities of command, which include military discipline and conduct, as well as the EO Program?
AR 600-20
What are the three formal channels of communication in the Army?
The Chain of Command, the NCO Support Channel, and Staff and Technical Channels
Describe the structure of the NCO Support Channel.
It begins with the commander’s CSM and ends with the section, squad/team leader
Who is the only person who performs as both a member of the Chain of Command and the NCO Support Channel?
The section, squad/team leader
Who represents the connection between the Chain of Command and the NCO Support Channel?
The senior NCO
Who is the only civilian authorized to exercise command in the military?
The President of the United States
What are the key elements of command?
Authority and Responsibility
Rank in the Army is divided into what classes and grades?
General Officer, Field Officer, Company Officer, Warrant Officer, Cadets, Candidates, Senior NCOs, Junior NCOs and Privates
What is the difference between MANAGEMENT and LEADERSHIP?
Management has an INDIRECT influence on subordinates, whereas Leadership has a DIRECT influence on subordinates
Commander in Chief
President George W. Bush
Secretary of Defense
Honorable Donald Rumsfeld
Secretary of the Army
Honorable Francis J. Harvey
Chairman, Joint Chief of Staffs
General Myers
Army Chief of Staff
General Shoomaker
Medical Command Commander
LTC Kiley
Troop Commander, TAMC
LTC Pierce
Commander, Alpha Co. & Medical Hold Co.
CPT Harris
Commander, Bravo Co.
CPT Burks
Sergeant Major of the Army
SMA Preston
Medical Command, CSM
CSM Eddy
CSM Jenkins
Troop Command, CSM, TAMC
CSM Veerland
1SG, Alpha Co.
1SG Williams
1SG, Bravo Co.
1SG Oilar
1SG, Medical Hold Co.
1SG Montoya
The birth of our Nation began with the signing of an important document. What was this document and what was the date?
The Declaration of Independence
July 4, 1776
What date is considered the beginning of the U. S. Army?
June 14, 1775
Who was the first Commander in Chief of the Continental Army?
George Washington
Whose last words were, “I only regret that I have but one life to lose for my country?”
CPT Nathan Hale
The Revolutionary War officially ended on what date?
September 3, 1783
The United States was initially governed by what document and was later replaced with what document?
The Articles of Confederation, which was later replaced by the Constitution
In 1803, the Nation more than doubled in size when it acquired a huge expanse of territory from France. What was this acquisition called?
The Louisiana Purchase
What treaty ended the War of 1812?
The Treaty of Ghent
What event sparked the Mexican War?
The admission of Texas to the Union
What treaty ended the Mexican War?
The Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo
On September 22, 1862, President Lincoln issued an order freeing slaves in all areas still under Confederation control. What was this order called?
The Emancipation Proclamation
When and by what means was the Medal of Honor established?
Congress authorized the Medal of Honor on July 12, 1862
Who was the first recipient of the Medal of Honor?
PVT Jacob Parrott
When did the United States officially enter WWI?
FM 7-21.13 states April 2, 1917
What event sparked the United States official entry into WWII?
The Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor and the Philipines
Who was the Chief of Staff of the Army when the United States entered WWII?
GEN George Marshall
What famous general led the fight in the Pacific theatre during WWII?
GEN MacArthur
What famous generals led the fight in the European theatre during WWII?
GEN Eisenhower and LTG Patton
June 6, 1944 marked the beginning of the invasion in Europe when GEN Eisenhower’s armies landed in France. What was this day called?
The war in Europe ended on May 8, 1945. What was this day called?
V-E Day
(Victory in Europe)
When and where was the first atomic bomb dropped on Japan?
August 6, 1945;
When and where was the second atomic bomb dropped on Japan?
August 9, 1945;
The war in Japan ended on September 2, 1945. What was this day called?
V-J Day
(Victory in Japan)
What war, formally referred to as a “conflict,” has sometimes been referred to as “the forgotten war?”
The Korean Conflict
Who was the President during the Korean Conflict?
President Truman
When did the Korean Conflict end?
July 27, 1953
When did the Vietnam War officially end for the United States?
The official signing of the Paris Peace Accords
When and what event sparked women achieving full military status?
In 1943, the creation of the Women’s Army Corps
What event symbolized the end of the Civil War?
The Dismantling of the Berlin Wall
What event sparked the Persian Gulf War?
Saddam Hussein’s armies overran Kuwait
What was the name for the actual military operation during the Persian Gulf War?
Operation Desert Storm
Who was the commanding general of the US led forces in Operation Desert Storm?
GEN Schwarzkopf
What event sparked the “War on Terrorism?”
Terrorists of the al-Qaeda network attacked the World Trade Center and the Pentagon on September 11
What Muslim leader was believed to be the mastermind behind the September 11 attacks?
Osama bin Laden
In what location of the world did the “war on terrorism” have its first tangible strike?
What was the operation into Afghanistan called?
Operation Enduring Freedom
What operation of the US Army and allied units began assaults on Taliban and al-Qaeda forces holed up in the mountains and caves of southwestern Afghanistan?
Operation Anaconda
After intense diplomatic efforts failed the United States deployed its Armed Forces to the Gulf and prepared for what operation?
Operation Iraqi Freedom
What do the letters “WMD” stand for?
Weapons of Mass Destruction
What document is considered the supreme law of the land?
The Constitution
When was the Constitution adopted?
September 17, 1787
How many amendments are there to the Constitution?
What are the first ten amendments of the Constitution called?
The Bill of Rights
The Constitution divides our government into three separate branches. What are they?
Legislative, Judicial and Executive branches
The Department of Defense was formerly known as what?
The National Military Establishment
Who is the head of the Department of Defense?
The Secretary of Defense
What are the words on the official seal of the Army?
“This We’ll Defend”
On what date was the Army Flag dedicated?
June 14, 1956
What do the letters “DA” stand for?
Department of the Army
What was the name of the daily newspaper for the US Armed Forces in WWII?
The Stars and Stripes
In what war was the helicopter first used?
Korean Conflict
In which US war did the greatest number of American casualties occur?
Civil War
Name the longest war in US history.
The Vietnam War
When did “The Star Spangled Banner” officially become the National Anthem by law?
March 3, 1931
Who was the only female recipient of the Medal of Honor?
Dr. Mary Walker
What words are inscribed on the empty crypt of the Vietnam Unknown at the Tomb of the Unknowns in Arlington National Cemetery?
“Honoring and Keeping Faith with America’s Missing Servicemen”
Who was the youngest soldier ever to enlist in the Army?
SGT Bryce
What Field Manual covers Guard Duty?
FM 22-6
What are the two types of guard duty?
Interior guard
Exterior guard
The interior guard force of an installation is composed of two elements that can be classified according to their purpose. What are these two elements?
Main guard: a combination of patrols and fixed guard posts
Special guard: guards detailed when it is impractical to use members of the main guard to guard property or an area
A guard on post is governed by two types of orders. What are they?
General orders
Special orders
What are the three General Orders?
1. I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved.
2. I will obey my special orders and perform all my duties in a military manner.
3. I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my instructions to the Commander of the Relief.
Who is responsible for insuring that all guards understand their special instructions (orders) prior to being posted?
The Commander of the Relief
Only authorized persons can give guards orders or instructions. Who is considered and “authorized person?”
Post Commanding Officer, Field Officer of the Day, Staff Duty Officer, Commander of the Guard, Sergeant of the Guard, or the Commander of the Relief
What is meant by “countersign?”
The combination of a secret challenge and its reply or password
How are the challenge and password given?
In a low tone to prevent them from being overheard by others
What is a “parole word?”
A secret word imparted only to those persons entitled to inspect the guard and to commanders and members of the guard
Who is responsible for establishing special orders for guard posts?
The Post Commander
Special orders differ for various posts depending upon the nature of the area being guarded and are based on what two considerations?
Realism and clarity
What are the two main qualifications for performing guard duty?
1. Guards must have completed range firing or training with the weapon they use on guard duty.
2. Guards must know the three general orders.
Who supervises the enlisted members of the guard, assigns them to reliefs, and is responsible to the commander of the guard or assumes the responsibilities of the commander of the guard if one has not been detailed?
The Sergeant of the Guard
Who is responsible for the instruction, discipline, and performance of the guard as well as security of weapons and ammunition?
The Commander of the Guard – may be an officer or senior NCO
Who is responsible for assigning posts to guard members and ensuring that guards are posted on time?
The Commander of the Relief
Who inspects the guard?
The Officer of the Day or the COG/SOG when an OD is not appointed
What is the maximum range and minimum effective range of the M9 pistol?
Maximum range – 1,800 meters
Maximum effective range – 50 meters
What Field Manual covers “Combat Training with Pistols, M9?
FM 3-23.35
What is the weight of the M9 pistol?
2.1 lbs w/ empty magazine
2.6 lbs w/ full magazine
Describe the steps for CLEARING the M9 pistol.
1. Place the decocking/safety lever in the SAFE position. 2. Hold the pistol in the raised pistol position. 3. Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine from the pistol. 4. Pull the slide to the rear and remove any chambered round. 5. Push the slide stop up, locking the slide to rear. 6. Look into the chamber and ensure that it is empty.
Describe the procedure for performing a FUNCTION check on the M9 pistol.
1. Clear the pistol in accordance with the unloading procedures. 2. Depress the slide stop, letting the slide go forward. 3. Insert an empty magazine into the pistol. 4. Retract the slide fully and release it. The slide should lock to the rear. 5. Depress the magazine release button and remove the magazine. 6. Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the SAFE position. 7. Depress the slide stop. 8. Squeeze and release the trigger. 9. Place the decocking/safety lever in the fire POSITION. 10. Squeeze the trigger to check double action. 11. Squeeze the trigger again. 12. Squeeze the trigger to check the single action.
Describe IMMEDIATE ACTION for the M9 pistol.
1. Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the FIRE position. 2. Squeeze the trigger again. 3. If the pistol does not fire, ensure that the magazine is fully seated, retract the slide to the rear, and release. 4. Squeeze the trigger. 5. If the pistol again does not fire, the magazine and retract the slide to eject the chambered cartridge. Insert a new magazine, retract the slide, and release to chamber another cartridge. 6. Squeeze the trigger. 7. If the pistol still does not fire, perform remedial action.
Describe REMEDIAL ACTION for the M9 pistol.
1. Clear the pistol. 2. Inspect the pistol for the cause of the stoppage. 3. Correct the cause of the stoppage, load the pistol, and fire. 4. If the pistol again fails to fire, disassemble it for closer inspection, cleaning, and lubrication.
Describe the proper procedure for mechanically zeroing the M16A2 rifle?
Adjust the front sight post up/down until the base if flush with the front sight post housing; Adjust the elevation knob counterclockwise until the rear sight assembly rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index line on the left side of the carrying handle; Position the apertures so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down; Rotate the windage knob to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly
Describe the proper procedure for CLEARING the M16 weapon?
Point the muzzle in a designated SAFE DIRECTION. Place selector lever on SAFE. Remove the magazine. Pull charging handle rearward. Visually inspect the receiver and chamber to ensure these areas contain no ammo. Allow the bolt to go forward by pressing the upper portion of the bolt catch. Place the selector on SEMI and squeeze the trigger. Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release it, slowing the boot to return to the full forward position. Place the selector lever on SAFE. Close the ejection port cover.
Explain the proper procedure for performing a function check on a M16 weapon.
Place the selector lever on SAFE. Pull the trigger to the rear, the hammer should not fall. Place the selector lever on SEMI. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. While holding the trigger, pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear again. Place the selector lever on BURST. Pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear three times and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear again.
What firing positions are used on a KD alternate course?
Prone supported position, Prone unsupported
What Army publication covers rifle marksmanship for the M-16 series rifle?
FM 3-22.9
According to FM 3-22.9, what are the five phases of Basic Rifle Marksmanship?
Phase I – Preliminary Rifle Instruction
Phase II – Downrange Feedback
Phase III – Field Fire
Phase IV – Advanced Rifle Marksmanship
Phase V – Advanced Optics, Lasers, and Iron Sights
What are the primary differences of the M16A2/A3?
M16A2 fires in SEMI and 3-round BURST modes
M16A3 fires in SEMI and AUTO modes
What are the weights of the M16A2/A3 weapons?
w/o magazine and sling – 7.78
w/ sling and loaded: 20 round magazine – 8.48
w/ sling and loaded: 30 round magazine – 8.79
What is the length of the M16A2/A3 weapons?
Overall rifle length: 39(5/8)”
What are the max effective rates of fire of the M16A2/A3?
Semiautomatic: 45 rounds/min
Burst: 90 rounds/min
Automatic: 150-200 rounds/min (A3)
Sustained: 12-15 rounds/min
What are the ranges of the M16A2/A3?
Maximum range: 3600 meters
Maximum effective range:
Point target: 550 meters
Area target: 800 meters
What are the operational characteristics of the M16A2/A3?
Barrel rifling – right hand: 1/7
Muzzle velocity (fps): 3100
Cyclic rate of fire: 700-900 rounds/min
Which sight aperture is used when battlesight zeroing all M16 series weapons?
The small aperture
Each “click” of elevation on the elevation knob of the M16A2/A3 weapons changes the point of impact how much at 100 meters?
What is meant by the “stoppage” of a weapon?
The failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of operation
What word is commonly used to remember the procedure for applying immediate action?
(S)lap upward on the magazine
(P)ull the charging handle to the rear
(O)bserve the chamber
(R)elease the charging handle
(T)ap the forward assist
(S)queeze the trigger
What is meant by “remedial action?”
The continuing effort to determine the cause of a stoppage or malfunction and to try to clear the stoppage once it has been identified
What is considered a “malfunction?”
A procedural or mechanical failure of the rifle, magazine, or ammunition
What are the primary categories of malfunctions?
1. Failure to feed, chamber, or lock.
2. Failure to fire cartridge.
3. Failure to extract.
4. Failure to eject.
What are the four basic fundamentals of rifle marksmanship?
1. Steady position
2. Aiming
3. Breath control
4. Trigger Squeeze
Describe the two types of breath control techniques and when each is used.
1. Used during zeroing, squeeze the trigger during the natural respiratory pause that occurs when most of the air has been exhaled from the lungs and before inhaling.
2. Employed during rapid fire, the soldier stops his breath when he is about to squeeze the trigger and resumes breathing after the shot has been fired.
During preliminary marksmanship instruction only two basic firing positions are taught. What are they?
The foxhole supported and the prone unsupported positions
In order of preference, what courses can be used for record qualifications?
1. Standard Record Fire range
2. Known Distance Alternate Course
3. 25-meter Alternate Course
4. 15-meter Alternate Course
What are the qualification standards for a Record Fire range?
Expert: 36-40
Sharpshooter: 30-35
Marksman: 23-29
Unqualified: 22-below
What firing positions and targets are used on a KD alternate course?
Prone supported position: 300 yards, E-type silhouette, 20 rounds, 60 sec
Prone unsupported: 200 yards, E-type silhouette, 10 rounds, 60 sec
Prone unsupported: 100 yards, F-types silhouette, 10 rounds, 60 sec
What are the qualification standards for the Known Distance Alternate Course or the scaled 25-meter Alternate Course?
Expert: 38-40
Sharpshooter: 33-37
Marksman: 26-32
Unqualified: 25-below
Proper maintenance of the M16A2 rifle includes what five steps?
1. Clear
2. Dissassemble
3. Inspect
4. Clean & lubricate
5. Reassemble
The first consideration when handling any weapon is to do what?
What does “CLP” stand for and how does it work?
Cleaner, Lubricant, and Preservative; It contains solvents to dissolve firing residue and carbon; It lays down a layer of Teflon as it dries to provide lubrication; It prevents rust from forming
What FM covers “First Aid”?
FM 4-25.11
What are considered the four adverse conditions affecting human life?
Lack of oxygen, Bleeding, Shock, Infection
What three tasks are considered the basics of first aid?
Check for BREATHING, Check for BLEEDING, Check for SHOCK
What are the eight steps in properly evaluating a casualty?
Responsiveness, Breathing, Pulse, Bleeding, Shock, Fractures, Burns, Head Injury
What is CPR?
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
What are the two vital body functions?
Respiration and Blood Circulation
Name four common points for checking pulse?
Side of the neck, Groin, Wrist, Ankle
What are the three basic measures of first aid?
Open the airway and restore breathing; Stop the bleeding and protect the wound; Check for shock and administer first aid measures
What is the single most common airway obstruction?
The tongue
What are the two prescribed methods for opening an airway?
Jaw thrust and head tilt/chin lift
While maintaining an open airway the rescuer should check for breathing by observing the casualty’s chest and performing what four actions within 3 – 5 seconds?
LOOK for the chest to rise and fall, Listen for air escaping during exhalation, FEEL for the flow of air on your cheek, PERFORM rescue breathing
What are the two prescribed methods of rescue breathing?
Mouth-to mouth or mouth-to-nose
What is the preferred method of rescue breathing?
What are the two prescribed methods for opening an airway obstruction of a conscious casualty?
Abdominal thrust or chest thrust
Name five prescribed methods for controlling bleeding?
Field dressing, Manual pressure, Pressure dressing, Digital pressure, Tourniquet
How should the tails be tied on a field dressing?
In a non-slip knot over the outer edge of the dressing
When applying manual pressure, what additional measure can be taken to reduce bleeding?
Elevate the injured limb slightly above the level of the heart
When should a pressure dressing be applied to a wound?
If bleeding continues after the application of a field dressing, manual pressure, and elevation.
How should the ends of an improvised dressing be tied on a pressure dressing?
In a non-slip know directly over the wound site
How many different pressure points are there to control bleeding?
What should you do after applying a tourniquet to a casualty?
Mark the casualty’s head with a “T” to indicate that a tourniquet has been applied
What are the nine signs/symptoms of shock?
Clammy skin, Paleness, Restlessness/Nervousness, Thirst, Bleeding, Confusion, Faster than normal breathing, Blotchy or bluish skin, Nausea/Vomiting
What are the seven steps in treating/preventing shock?
Move casualty to cover, Position casualty on back, Elevate casualty’s feet, Loosen constricting clothing, Prevent chilling or overheating, Calm the casualty, Seek medical aid
In the case of an abdominal injury, how should the legs be positioned?
Place the knees in an upright position
What is the best way to “calm” a casualty?
By being authoritative and by showing self-confidence
What action should you take if you must leave the casualty or if the casualty becomes unconscious?
Turn the head to the side to prevent choking in case they vomit
Head injuries can be classified into two types. What are they and what is the difference?
Open – a wound that is visible, or a break in the skin; Closed – a wound that may be visible
What are some of the signs/symptoms of a severe head injury?
Nausea/vomiting, Slurred speech, Recent unconsciousness, Drowsiness, Paralysis, Convulsions/twitches, Confusion/ loss of memory, Dizziness, Blurred vision, Bruising around eyes, Complaint of headache, Deformity of the head, Staggering while walking, Bleeding or other fluid discharge from the scalp, ears, or nose
Wounds to the skin are often categorized using terms such as abrasions, contusions, lacerations, and avulsions. What do these terms mean?
Abrasion – scrape of the skin; Contusion – injury without a break in the skin; Laceration – cuts or breaks in the skin; Avulsion – a rip in the skin
What are the two kinds of fractures?
Closed – a broken bone that does not break the skin; Open – a broken bone that breaks the skin
Before administering the proper first aid for burn injuries you must be able to recognize the type of burn to be treated. What are the four types of burns?
Thermal, Electrical, Chemical, Laser
What are the first five aid measures for treating burns?
Eliminate the source of the burn, Expose the burn, Apply a field dressing to the burn, Take precautions, Seek medical attention
What are the three types of heat injuries?
Heat cramps, Heat exhaustion, Heatstroke
What are the signs/symptoms of heat cramps?
Cramping in the extremities, Abdominal cramps, Heavy sweating, Thirst
What are the first aid measures for heat cramps?
Move casualty to a cool or shady area, Have casualty slowly drink at least one canteen full of cool water, Monitor the casualty and give more water as tolerated
What are the signs/symptoms of heat exhaustion?
Excessive sweating with pale, moist, cool skin; Dizziness; Cramping; Urge to defecate; Rapid breathing; Confusion; Headache; Weakness; Loss of appetite; Nausea; Chills; Tingling of hands or feet
What are the first aid measures for heat exhaustion?
Move the casualty to a cool/shady area and loosen/remove clothing; Pour water on casualty and fan to permit coolant effect; Have casualty slowly drink at least one full canteen of water; Casualty should not be permitted to participate in strenuous activity (if possible); Seek medical assistance
What are the signs/symptoms of heatstroke?
Casualty’s skin is red, hot and dry; Confusion; Seizures; Stomach pains or cramps; Loss of consciousness; Weakness; Dizziness; Headaches; Nausea; Respiration and pulse may be rapid and weak
What are the first aid measures for heatstroke?
Move the casualty to a cool/shady area and loosen/remove clothing; Pour water on casualty and fan to permit coolant effect; Elevate the casualty’s legs; Have casualty slowly drink at least one full canteen of water; Seek medical assistance
Name some of the contributing factors to cold weather injuries.
Weather, Relatively stationary activities, Physical fatigue, Depression, Excessive use of alcohol/drugs
Discuss some of the signs/symptoms of cold weather injuries.
Numbness or tingling; discoloration of the skin; swelling; blisters
What are the general first aid measures for cold weather injuries?
Superficial – rewarm affected area of the body; Deep cold – requires prompt first aid and remove casualty from the environment
Name the six cold weather injuries
Chilblain, Immersion syndrome, Frostbite, Snow blindness, Dehydration, Hypothermia
What are the specific first aid measures for chilblain?
Area usually respond to locally applied rewarming; Do not rub or massage area; Seek medical aid
What are the signs/symptoms normally associated with immersion foot/trench foot?
Affected foot is cold and painless, pulse is weak and numbness mat be present; Second – parts may feel hot, burning and shooting pains; Later stages – Skin is pale with bluish cast and pulse decreases; Other symptoms are blistering, swelling, redness, heat, hemorrhaging and gangrene
What are the specific first aid measures for immersion foot/trench foot?
Gradual rewarming by exposure to warm air; Do not massage or moisten skin; Protect affected parts from trauma; Dry feet thoroughly, avoid walking; Seek medical aid
What are the signs/symptoms normally associated with frostbite?
Loss of sensation or numb feeling in any part of the body; Sudden blanching followed by momentary tingling sensation; Redness of skin or Grayish color of skin; Blisters; Swelling or tender areas; Loss of previous sensation of pain in affected area; Pale, yellowish, waxy-looking skin; Frozen tissue that feels solid to the touch
What are the specific first aid measures for frostbite?
Warm the area at the first sign of frostbite, using firm steady pressure of hand; Face, ears, nose – cover area with hands; Hands – Open field jacket and place casualty’s hands against his body; Feet – Remove socks and boots and place exposed feet under clothing or against another soldier’s body; DO NOT thaw; Loosen or remove constricting clothing; Increase insulation
What are the signs/symptoms of snow blindness?
Sensation of grit in the eyes with pain in and over the eyes; Watering, redness, headache, and increased pain with exposure to light
What are the specific first aid measures for snow blindness?
Cover the eyes with a dark cloth; Seek medical aid
What are the signs/symptoms of dehydration?
Mouth, tongue and throat become parched and swallowing becomes difficult; Feels tired and weak; Focusing eyes may become difficult; Nausea; Dizziness; Fainting; May experience muscle cramps
What are the specific first aid measures for cold weather dehydration?
Keep warm; Casualty needs fluid replacement, rest, and prompt medical aid
What are the signs/symptoms of hypothermia?
Shivering, Faint pulse, Drowsy or mentally slow, Slurred speech, Eyes in glassy state, Slow and shallow breathing; Body temperature below 85
What are the first aid measures for hypothermia?
Mild Hypothermia: Rewarm body evenly and without delay; Keep dry, protect from elements; Gradually give warm liquids; Be prepared to start basic life support; Seek medical treatment
Severe Hypothermia: Stabilize the temperature; Attempt to avoid further heat loss; Gently handle casualty; Evacuate to nearest treatment facility; Prompt medical attention is necessary
Describe the first aid measures for a snakebite?
Move casualty away from snake; Remove jewelry; Reassure casualty and keep quiet; Apply a constricting band 1-2 fingerbreaths from bite; Immobilize the affected part in a position below the heart; Kill the snake; Seek medical attention
What are the first aid measures for animal bites?
Thoroughly cleanse the wound; Flush it well with water; Cover it with a sterile dressing; Immobilize the injured arm or leg; Seek medical attention
What is a “Mark I NAAK”?
Nerve Agent Antidote Kit, Mark I
What is meant by the “Mark II” configuration of the NAAK?
The two autoinjectors are issued without the plastic slip to hold them together
What are NAPP tablets?
Nerve Agent Pyridostigmine Pretreatment tablets
What are the nine MILD symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
Unexplained runny nose; Unexplained sudden headache; Sudden drooling; Difficulty seeing; Tightness in the chest or difficulty in breathing; Localized sweating and muscular twitching in the area of the contaminated skin; Stomach cramps; Nausea; Tachycardia followed by brachycardia
What are the eleven SEVERE symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
Strange or confused behavior; Wheezing, difficulty in breathing, and coughing; Severely pinpointed pupils; red eyes with tearing; Vomiting; Severe muscular twitching and general weakness; Involuntary urination and defecation; Convulsions; Unconsciousness; Respiratory failure; Bradycardia
What is the new nerve agent antidote injection device that has been fielded to replace the Mark I?
Antidote Treatment, Nerve Agent, Autoinjector
What is the biggest visible difference between the NAAK and the ATNAA?
NAAK has two injectors; ATNAA has both packaged into a single container
What does CANA stand for?
Convulsant Antidote for Nerve Agents
Where is the injection site for the NAAK, ATNAA, or CANA?
The outer thigh muscle
How many sets of the nerve agent antidote are you authorized to administer to yourself?
What is the maximum number of NAAK or ATNAA injections a soldier should receive through a combination of self-aid and buddy-aid?
When should CANA be administered? Why?
As buddy-aid, one CANA injection should be administered following the third set of autoinjections in order to prevent convulsions
What are the first aid measures for treating blister agent poisoning?
Use uncontaminated water to flush the eyes. Use the M291 decontamination kit to decontaminate the skin. If blisters form, cover them loosely with a field dressing and secure.
What are the first aid measures for blood agent poisoning?
Mask immediately! There are no first aid measures. SEEK ATTENTION IMMEDIATELY!
What are the first aid measures for radiological casualties?
Transportation of the sick and wounded is normally the responsibility of whom?
Medical personnel who have been provided special training and equipment
What five factors depends on the distance that a casualty can be carried?
Nature of the casualty’s injuries; Strength and endurance of the bearer; Weight of the casualty; Obstacles encountered during transport; Type of terrain
Name some of the one-man carries.
Fireman’s carry; Supporting carry; Saddleback carry’ Pistol-belt carry; Neck drag; LBE carry; Alternative fireman’s carry; Arms carry; Pack-strap carry; Pistol-belt carry; Cradle drop drag
Name the five different two-man carries.
Two-man support carry; Two-man fore-and-aft carry; Two-hand seat carry; Two-man arms carry; Four-hand seat carry
What organization provides mapping, charting, and all geodesy support to the armed forces and all other national security operations?
What does NGA stand for?
National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency
What are some of the different TYPES of maps produced by the NGA?
Planimetric; Topographic; Photomap; Joint Operations Graphics; Photomosaic; Terrain Model; Military City; Special
The east-west rings around the earth and parallel to the equator are known as what?
Parallels of Latitude or simply Parallels
What are the north-south rings around the earth called?
Meridians of Longitude or simply Meridians
On what two grid systems are the military grid reference systems based on?
Universal Transverse Mercator and Universal Polar Stereographic
What are the two most commonly used base lines?
Magnetic north and Grid north
Which of the two approved techniques for holding the compass result in a greater degree of accuracy?
One key to success in tactical missions is the ability to move undetected to the objective. What are the four steps to land navigation?
Know where you are; Plan the route; Stay on the route; Recognize the objective
What FM covers “Map Reading and Land Navigation?”
FM 3-25.26
What is a map?
A graphic representation of a portion of the earth’s surface drawn to scale, as seen from above.
Military maps are categorized by what two things?
Scale and type
What is meant by the “scale” of a map?
Scale is expressed as a representative fraction and gives a ratio of map distance to ground distance
DMA maps are classified by scale into what three categories?
Small scale (1:1,000,000 and smaller); medium scale (larger than small scale maps but smaller than 1:75,000); large scale (1:75,000 and larger)
What is meant by the “military grid reference system?”
It is a network of squares formed by north-south, east-west lines superimposed on a geographic projection
What is the principle for reading grid coordinates on military maps?
The graphic scale is divided into two parts. What are they?
Primary scale and the extension scale
What is a pace count?
A “pace” is equal to one natural step – the number of paces it takes you to walk 100 meters
What six conditions must be considered when adjusting pace count?
Slopes, winds, surfaces, elements, clothing, and visibility
How many base lines are there on a military map and what are they?
True North; Magnetic North; and Grid North
Define the term “azimuth?”
A horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line
What is a “back azimuth” and how is it obtained?
It is the opposite direction of an azimuth; If azimuth is <180, add 180; If azimuth is >180, subtract 180
What is meant by “declination?”
The angular difference between any two north’s
What is the “declination diagram” and where is it located?
This diagram shows the relationship between true north, magnetic north and grid north; it is located in the lower margin on most large scale maps
What is meant by “intersection?”
A method used to determine the location of an unknown point by successively occupying at least two known positions on the ground and then map sighting on the unknown location
What is meant by “resection?”
A method used to locate one’s position on a map by determining the grid azimuth to at least two well-defined locations that can be pinpointed on the map
What is an “overlay?”
A clear sheet of plastic or semi-transparent paper on which information is plotted to the same scale as the map it is to be used on
What device is considered the most common and simplest instrument for measuring direction?
The lensatic compass
What are the four types of compasses described in
FM 3-25.26?
Lensatic compass, artillery compass, wrist/pocket compass, and protractor
What are the three major parts of the lensatic compass?
Cover, base, and lens
What are the two approved techniques for holding the compass when sighting?
Centerhold and compass-to-cheek
Name three field expedient methods for determining the four cardinal directions.
Shadow-tip method, watch method, and star method
What is “elevation?”
The vertical distance above or below sea level
What is “relief?”
The representation of the shapes of hills, valleys, streams, or other terrain features on the earth’s surface
What are the five methods of depicting relief?
Layer tinting, form lines, shaded relief, hachures, and contour lines
What are “contour lines?”
Imaginary lines on the ground that connect points of equal elevation
What are the three types of contour lines?
Index, Intermediate, and Supplementary
What are the five MAJOR terrain features?
Hill, Valley, Ridge, Saddle, Depression
What are the three MINOR terrain features?
Draw, Spur, Cliff
What are the two SUPPLEMENTARY terrain features?
Cut and Fill
What is the best way to orient a map without a compass?
By aligning the features on the map with the same features on the ground
What are the colors used to facilitate the identification of features on a standard large-scale topographic map?
Black – man-made features; Red-brown – combined to identify cultural features (contour lines seen on red-light readable lights); Blue – water feature; Green – vegetation features; Brown – relief features and elevation; Red – cultural features
What four units of measure are most commonly used on military maps and can be found in the Graphic Scales?
Statute miles, Nautical miles, Yards and Meters
What does “NBC” stand for?
Nuclear, Biological, and Chemical
What does “CBR” stand for?
Chemical, Biological and Radiological
What are the three fundamentals of NBC defense?
Contamination avoidance
Name some of the Army Field Manuals that explain the fundamentals of NBC defense.
FM 3-3, FM 3-3-1, FM 3-5, FM 3-7, FM 3-11, FM 3-11.4
There are four steps to contamination avoidance. What are they?
1. Implement passive defensive measures
2. Warn and report NBC attacks
3. Locate, identify, track, and predict NBC hazards
4. Limit exposure to NBC hazards
NBC hazards can be classified into two types. What are they?
Immediate hazards
Residual hazards
NBC protection is divided into what two components?
Individual protection
Collective protection
What are the three categories of decontaminants?
What are the five transmission methods for contamination hazards?
What eight factors affect persistency of chemical agents?
1. Type of contamination
2. Concentration and droplet size
3. Temperature
4. Wind speed
5. Sunlight
6. Humidity and rain
7. Composition and contaminated surface
8. Type of soil and terrain
What are the three classifications of NBC markers? Describe them.
Chemical: Red letters “GAS” on a yellow background
Biological: Red letters “BIO” on a blue background
Radiological: Black letters “ATOM” on a white background
How many NBC Reports are there and what is the purpose of each?
NBC 1: Observer’s Initial Report
NBC 2: Evaluated Data Report
NBC 3: Warning of Predicted Contamination and hazard areas
NBC 4: Monitoring and Survey Report
NBC 5: Actual Contaminated Areas Report
NBC 6: Detailed Information on Chemical/Biological Attack Report
What are the four principles of decon?
1. Speed
2. Need
3. Limit
4. Priority
NBC decontamination is expressed in terms of levels and techniques. There are three basic levels which can be further subdivided into a total of seven techniques. What are the three basic levels of decontamination?
1. Immediate
2. Operational
3. Thorough
What seven decon techniques are used to support the three levels of decon?
1. Skin Decon
2. Personal Wipedown
3. Operator’s Spray Down/Wipe Down
1. MOPP Gear Exchange
2. Vehicle Washdown
1. Detailed Equipment/Aircraft Decon
2. Detailed Troop Decon
What do the abbreviations “SDK” and DKIE” stand for?
SDK – Skin Decontaminating Kit
DKIE – Decontaminating Kit, Individual Equipment
A MOPP-gear exchange should be performed within how many hours of being contaminated?
What are the three phases of Operational Decon?
Site clearance
What are the four portals of entry that toxic agents may use when entering the body?
What is MOPP?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
What is the standard time allowed for a soldier to achieve MOPP levels 1 through 4 in sequence?
8 minutes
The protective mask will not protect against what two types of gases?
Ammonia vapors
Carbon monoxide
What is the standard time allowed for the donning of the M-40 protective mask?
9 seconds to put on, clear and seal the mask
What is the last step in donning the protective mask?
Snap the mask carrier closed
What does IPE stand for?
Individual Protective Equipment
How many levels of MOPP are there? Describe them.
MOPP Ready – carry mask, IPE nearby
MOPP 0 – carry mask, IPE available
MOPP 1 – don over garment
MOPP 2 – don protective boots
MOPP 3 – don protective mask
MOPP 4 – don protective gloves
What does “MGX” stand for?
MOPP Gear Exchange
What are the three types of procedures for MOPP gear exchange?
Buddy team
Triple team
Who is normally responsible for supervising and conducting MPX?
The squad or platoon leader
What is the approximate amount of time that should be allotted for MGX?
60 minutes
What are the four principle effects of any nuclear explosion?
Thermal radiation
Nuclear radiation
What are the three types of nuclear bursts?
What are the two types of area monitoring?
What are the two types of radiation surveys?
Biological agents can be placed into two broad categories. What are they?
What are the two primary aerosol dissemination techniques?
Bursting type munitions
Spray tank/generators
There are two basic types of toxins. What are they?
The body possesses several defenses against biological agents. What are they?
Physical barriers
Natural immunity
Acquired immunity
Biological agents can be disseminated in what three forms?
Liquid droplets
Dry powder
By what six means may chemical or biological agents be delivered?
Aircraft spray
Threat forces classify chemical agents according to their effect on the body. What are the five major types of chemical agents classified by threat forces?
Choking agents
Chemical agents can exist in one of what four forms?
What is the vocal alarm for any chemical or biological hazard or attack?
Name three suggested nonvocal signals for a chemical attack.
1. Rapid and continuous beating together of any two metal objects to produce a loud noise.
2. A succession of short blasts on a vehicle horn or other suitable device.
3. An intermittent warbling siren sound.
What is the visual signal for a chemical attack?
The standard visual signal is done by extending both arms horizontally to the sides with fists closed and facing up, and rapidly moving the fists to the head and back to the horizontal.
What is the most widely used method of detecting liquid chemical agents?
M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper
Where can you find a color comparison bar chart for use with the M8 detector paper? What are the colors and what do they represent?
Inside the front cover;
Dark green – V (nerve)
Yellow – G (nerve)
Red – H (blister)
When using M9 Detector Paper, what indications should cause you to suspect the presence of chemical agents?
Whenever pink, red, reddish brown, or purple color(s) appear on the paper
When attaching M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper to clothing, where should it be placed?
On opposite sides of the body
Right handed – place a M9 strip around right upper arm, left wrist, and right ankle
What phrase epitomizes the Army Leadership Framework?
“Leaders of Character and Competence Act to achieve excellence by providing purpose, motivation, and direction.”
How does the Army Leadership Framework phrase fir the “BE-KNOW-DO” concept?
BE – a leader’s character or inner strength
KNOW – a leader’s competence
DO – a leader’s ability to perform acts that achieve excellence by providing purpose, direction, and motivation
When it comes to character, what a soldier must “BE” to be a good leader is subdivided into what two areas?
What are the Army VALUES that define a leader’s character?
Selfless Service
Personal Courage
The desired ATTRIBUTES of a good leader are further subdivided into three categories. What are these three categories and give specific attributes of each
Mental attributes: will, self-discipline, initiative, judgment, confidence, intelligence and cultural awareness
Physical attributes: health fitness, physical fitness, military bearing and professional bearing
Emotional attributes: self-control, balance, and stability
What are the four “skill domains” that determine a leader’s level of COMPETENCE?
Interpersonal skills: knowledge of your people and how to work with them
Conceptual skills: ability to understand doctrine and ideas related to your job
Technical skills: how to use your equipment
Tactical skills: ability to make the right decisions regarding employment of units in combat
What three things must a leader DO in order to provide “purpose, direction and motivation?”
Influence: make decisions, communicate those decisions, and motivate people
Operate: actions taken to accomplish the organization’s immediate mission
Improve: the things you do to increase the organization’s capability to accomplish current or future missions
What are the three INFLUENCING ACTIONS?
1. Proper decision making abilities
2. Proper communication
3. Ability to motivate
Name some methods of motivating subordinates.
1. Empower them – train them to do a job, give them the necessary resources and authority, get out of their way, and let them work
2. Use positive reinforcement whenever possible
3. Use negative reinforcement whenever necessary
What are the three OPERATING ACTIONS?
Planning and preparing
Planning always begins with what?
A mission – either specified or implied
What is the difference between a “specified” and an “implied” mission?
Specified – mission that originates from your boss or higher headquarters
Implied – results when a leader sees something within his/her area of responsibility that needs to be done and develops a plan of action on his/her initiative
Having attainable goals is important to successfully EXECUTING any mission. What four points should you consider when developing goals?
Goals must be realistic, challenging and attainable
Goals should lead to improved combat readiness
Subordinate ought to be involved in the goal setting
Leaders develop a plan of action achieve each goal
What are the THREE PILLARS of the Army’s Leader Development model?
Institutional training
Operational assignments
What is mentoring?
Mentoring – the proactive development of each subordinate through observing, assessing, coaching, teaching, developmental counseling, and evaluating that results in people being treated with fairness and equal opportunity.
What are the three mentoring techniques?
Developmental counseling
What are the three stages of TEAM BUILDING?
What are the two steps of the FORMATION stage of team building?
What are the three LEVELS of Army Leadership?
What are the five BASIC STYLES of Army Leadership?
What are the four INTERPERSONAL SKILLS at the DIRECT level of leadership?
Team building
What are the four broad categories of COMMUNICATING?
Which of the four broad categories of communicating is the one most people receive the least amount of formal education in, yet is every bit as important as the others?
What are the two forms of one-way communication?
What is considered one of the most important skills in two-way communication?
Active listening
What is the considered the “cardinal sin” of active listening?
Interrupting the speaker
Give some examples of barriers of listening.
Forming your response while the other person is still talking
Allowing yourself to become distracted by your angry
Allowing yourself to become distracted by you having a problem with the speaker
Allowing yourself to become distracted by having more important things to think about
What type of communication involves all the signals you send with your facial expressions, tone of voice and body language?
Non-verbal communication
What are the four CONCEPTUAL SKILLS at the DIRECT level of leadership?
Critical reasoning
Creative thinking
Ethical reasoning
Reflective thinking
What are the steps in the ETHICAL REASONING process?
Define the problem
Know the relevant rules
Develop and evaluate courses of action
Choose the course of action that best represents Army values
The ETHICAL CLIMATE of an organization is determined by what factor?
Individual character of unit members
Policies and practices within the organization
Actions of unit leaders
Environmental and mission factors
What are the two TECHNICAL SKILLS at the DIRECT level of leadership?
Knowing equipment
Operating equipment
What are the two TACTICAL SKILLS at the DIRECT level of leadership?
Doctrine and tactics
What are the two types of authority?
Command authority
General military authority
What is counseling?
Counseling – subordinate-centered communication that produces a plan outlining conditions necessary for subordinates to achieve individual or organizational goals
What are the five CHARACTERISTICS of effective counseling?
What are the four QUALITIES of an effective counselor?
Respect for subordinates
Self-awareness and cultural awareness
What are the three LEADER COUNSELING SKILLS that all leaders should seek to develop and improve?
Active listening
What are the two CATEGORIES of developmental counseling?
1. Event-oriented counseling
2. Performance/
professional growth counseling
What are the three APPROACHES to counseling?
What are some counseling techniques that may be used in the NONDIRECTIVE approach?
Suggesting alternatives
What are some counseling techniques that may be used in the DIRECTIVE approach?
Corrective training
What are the four stages involved in the “counseling process” of an effective counselor?
1. Identify the need for counseling
2. Prepare for counseling
3. Conduct counseling
4. Follow up
What are the four basic steps in CONDUCTING the counseling session?
Open the session
Discuss the issues
Develop the plan of action
Record and close the session
What form is used for Developmental Counseling?
DA Form 4856-E
What two steps should be used in the FOLLOW-UP of a counseling session?
Ensure plan of action has been implemented
Assess the plan of action (did it work)
What are the three stages of the CHARACTER DEVELOPMENT PYRAMID?
Leaders teach values
Leaders reinforce values
Leaders shape the ethical climate
What Army publication covers information about the Leader Book?
FM 7-22.7, The Army Noncommissioned Officer Guide, Appendix C
In what Army publications would you look for information about the “Duties, Responsibilities, and Authority of Noncommissioned Officers?”
AR 600-20, FM 22-100,
TC 22-6
What are the four SPECIFIC Noncommissioned Officer responsibilities?
1. That each member of the unit is trained to proficiency in his/her MOS
2. That all government property issued to members of their unit be properly maintained and accounted or at all times, and discrepancies are reported promptly
3. They be ready at all times to report the location and activity of all members of their unit
4. That the unit is trained to function in its primary mission role
What are the 19 leadership traits?
1. Initiative; 2. Will; 3. Integrity; 4. Self-discipline; 5. Humility; 6. Tact; 7. Assertiveness; 8. Bearing; 9. Endurance; 10. Self-Improvement; 11. Sense of Humor; 12. Empathy or compassion; 13. Decisiveness; 14. Confidence; 15. Creativity; 16. Coolness under stress; 17. Maturity; 18. Flexibility; 19. Justice
What are the five roles of a leader?
1. Teacher
2. Trainer
3. Administrator
4. Counselor
5. Commander
The NCO Vision
An NCO Corps, grounded in heritage, values and tradition, that embodies the warrior ethos; values perpetual learning; and is capable of leading, training and motivating soldiers.
What are the three pillars of the leader development process?
Institutional training
Operational assignments
What are the four resident training levels of the Noncommissioned Officer Education System (NCOES)?
PLDC – Primary Leadership and Development Course
BNCOC – Basic Noncommissioned Officer Course
ANCOC – Advanced Noncommissioned Officer Course
USASMC – U.S. Army Sergeant Major Course
What is an LDP?
Leader Development Program
What is NCODP?
Noncommissioned Officer Development Program
What is the difference between DUTY, RESPONSIBILITY, and AUTHORITY?
DUTY – something you must do by virtue of your position and is a legal or moral obligation
RESPONSIBILITY – being accountable for what you do or fail to do
AUTHORITY – it is the legitimate power of leaders to direct soldiers or to take action within the scope of their position
What are the three different types of duties?
Specified duties
Directed duties
Implied duties
RESPONSIBILITY falls into two categories. What are they?
Command responsibility
Individual responsibility
What are the two categories of inspections for determining the status of individual soldiers and their equipment?
What are the four steps in making an on-the-spot correction?
Correct the soldier
Attack the performance, never the person
Give one correction at a time
Don’t keep bringing it up
What are the four parts of an AAR?
Review what was supposed to happen
Establish what happened
Determine what was right or wrong with what happened
Determine how the task should be done differently next time
What are the six characteristics of effective counseling?
What are the four stages of the effective counseling process?
Identify the need for counseling
Prepare for counseling
Conduct counseling
What is the Army QOLP?
Quality of Life Program
Quality of Life needs, and the programs and actions to address them, are categorized under two general headings. What are they?
Living conditions
Duty environment
What does “ACS” stand for?
Army Community Services
What Army regulation prescribes the policies and responsibilities for establishing and operating an Army Community Service center at Army installations?
AR 608-1
What does the ACS symbol represent?
The giving of kind-hearted help and stability
The heart, the cross, the gyroscope
The ACS delivers services according to a four-pronged delivery model. What are the four prongs?
Centralized intake
Services/Readiness Areas
Resource file and client tracking
ACS services consist of five key readiness areas. What are they?
Deployment/Mobilization and Stability and Support Operations Readiness
Soldier and Family Readiness
Relocation Readiness
Employment Readiness
Financial Readiness
What does the ACS Loan Closet do for the service member?
Loans basic housekeeping items when establishing new households
What does “ACES” stand for?
Army Continuing Education System
List some of the basic services provided by the Army Continuing Education Center
Basic Skills Education Program
English as a second language
Tuition Assistance
If a soldier under your supervision had a GT score of less than 110, what program would you refer him/her to?
BSEP – program designed to improve educational deficiencies in the basic skills of reading, math, and language
What does “TABE” stand for?
Test of Adult Basic Education
Which of the ACES programs take precedence over all others?
ESL (English as a second language)
What does “DANTES” stand for and what is its purpose?
Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Educational Support; an educational agency providing free, standardized testing services to military personnel
Are DANTES examinations available to family members/civilians?
Yes, on a cost per test basis
What is “TA?”
Tuition Assistance
Tuition assistance is a grant that pays how much of tuition?
What is the required contribution to the GI Bill? How much will you receive back from the GI Bill?
$100/month for 12 months

$300/month for up to 3 years or $10,800
What is AER?
Army Emergency Relief
What Army publication states programs and policies for AER assistance to eligible Army members and their dependents?
AR 930-4
Why does AER exists?
Solely for the purpose of “helping the Army take care of its own”
The AER coordinates closely with what other organization in order to avoid duplication and assure coverage of all areas of aid?
The American Red Cross
Describe the types and forms of assistance that AER provides.
Loans and Grants
Describe loan repayments to AER.
Repayment starts the 1st day of the second month following the initiation of the loan, normally does not extend more than 12 months and is made by allotment for active duty personnel.
What is the purpose of the AER Annual Fund Campaign?
To raise funds to help cover the financial assistance program, increase awareness about AER assistance, publicize procedures, and help the Army take care of it’s own
How are contributions made to AER?
Allotments, cash or check
What Army publication provides information concerning the mission, operation, and Army utilization of the American Red Cross?
AR 930-5
Briefly describe what the American Red Cross is.
It is a voluntary health and welfare organization that was established in 1881.
Primary purpose: to improve the quality of human life, to enhance self-reliance and concern for others, and to help people avoid, prepare for and cope with emergencies
Describe the symbol used for the Red Cross.
A Greek red cross on a white background
What publication defines Army policy on alcohol and other drug abuse as well as defining responsibilities for implementation of the program?
AR 600-85
What does “ASAP” stand for?
Army Substance Abuse Program
Administering the unit biochemical-testing program is the responsibility of what individual?
The UPL – Unit Prevention Leader(s)
ASAP staffing is divided into what two categories?
What is the mission of ASAP?
To strengthen the overall fitness and effectiveness of the Army’s total workforce and to enhance the combat readiness of its soldiers
Who is eligible for ASAP services?
All personnel who are eligible to receive military medical services
What are the five methods of alcohol and other drug abuse detection?
Command/Supervisor identification
Biochemical identification
Medical identification
Investigation and/or apprehension
Which of the five methods of alcohol and other drug abuse detection most desirable?
What are two examples of biochemical identification?
What is the primary objective of the rehabilitation program?
Return soldiers to dull duty as soon as possible – or process them for separation if they cannot be rehabilitated
What are the three levels of alcohol prevention?
What is the only drug testing technique that is fully supportable for UCMJ action?
Army Forensic Toxicology Drug Testing Laboratories (FTDTL) tests
What is the degree of accuracy of FTDTL testing?
There has never been a reported false positive result in an Army FTDTL
What is a “BAT?”
Blood Alcohol Tests
What is the primary regulation used for the Army Safety Program?
AR 385-10
What are the five steps of the risk management process?
Identify hazards
Assess hazards
Develop controls and make risk decisions
Implement controls
Supervise and evaluate
What does “OSHA” stand for?
Occupational Safety Health Association
What Army publication covers the Army Equal Opportunity Program?
AR 600-20, Chapter 20
What is meant by “equal opportunity” in the Army?
Consideration and treatment based on merit, fitness, and capability irrespective of race, color, religion, gender, or national origin
What are the two components of the EO program?
Affirmative action component
Education and training component
Define the term “ethnic group”
Group of individuals distinguished from the general population, based on actual or perceived criteria
Define the term “minority group”
Group distinguished from the general population in terms of race, religion, sex, age, or national origin
Define “racism” and “sexism”
Acting out of prejudices by individuals against other individuals or groups because of race or gender
EORs should normally be what rank?
SSG or 1LT
What is meant by sexual harassment?
It is a form of gender discrimination that involves unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature.
Mandatory unit EO training must be conducted at least how often?
Twice per year
What regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?
AR 600-8-8
What regulation covers the Army Retention Program?
AR 601-280
How many months can a soldier reenlist?
What are some reasons that a soldier would be ineligible for reenlistment?
Soldier barred/flagged
Soldier enrolled in ADAPCP
Who is the final approval authority for a bar to reenlistment?
One approval level higher than the initiating authority
Who may lift the bar?
With written recommendation from the unit commander, the same authority that approved the bar may lift it
Can a soldier reenlist if they are overweight?
Yes, if the overweight condition is the result of a medical condition that is documented
What does “NCODP” stand for?
Noncommissioned Officer Development Program
What Army regulation covers NCODP?
AR 350-17
Fraternization is punishable under what Article of the UCMJ?
Article 92
When is a Family Care Plan required to be completed?
A pregnant soldier who has no spouse or is married to another service member
Soldier who has no spouse, but has legal or full custody of family members under the age of 19
Soldier is divorced
Soldier’s spouse is incapable of self-care and requires special care
Soldier is considered dual military and they joint or full custody of family members under the age of 19
What is the EFMP?
Exceptional Family Member Program
Program for family members who require special medical or educational services
What Army regulation covers “Salutes, Honors, and Visits of Courtesy?”
AR 600-25
What is the 50-gun salute called and when it is used?
Salute to the Union
At 1200 hours on the 4th of July
How long is the “Reveille?”
20 seconds
How does the raising of the US flag differ from the lowering of the flag?
During the Reveille, the flag is raised quickly to the top of the flagpole. During the Retreat, the flag is lowered slowly and ceremoniously.
What two bugle calls are normally heard at “Retreat?”
“To the Colors”
How long is the call “To the Color?”
40 seconds
Give the number of cannon salutes on arrival and departure for the following dignitaries.
President, Former President,
Vice President, Sec. of Defense,
Sec. of the Army, Chairman, JCS; Army Chief of Staff, Generals, LTG, MG, BG
President 21 21
Former Pres 21 21
Vice Pres 19 None
Sec. of Defense 19 19
Sec of the Army 19 19
Chairman, JCS 19 19
Army Chief of Staff 19 19
Generals 17 17
LTG 15 None
MG 13 None
BG 11 None
What Army regulation prescribes the design, acquisition, display, and use of flags, guidons, streamers, automobile and aircraft plates, and tabards?
AR 840-10
What other Army publication is a good source of information on Flags and Guidons?
FM 3-21.5
Guidons – Appendix H
Flags and Colors – Appendix K
When was the current 50-star flag adopted?
July 4, 1960
What are the 10 types of National Flags?
1. Garrison
2. Post
3. Field
4. Storm
5. Interment
6. Boat
7. Ensign
8. Union jack
9. Grave decoration
10. Automobile
Which three of the National flags are normally flown over Army installations and what are their dimensions?
Storm – 5” X 9’6”
Post – 8’ 11(3/8)” X 17’
Garrison – 20’ X 38’
The U.S. flag is flown at half-staff to signify what?
The U.S. flag is folded in the triangular shape of a cocked hat. Why is this?
It symbolizes the three-pointed hats worn by the soldiers of the Revolutionary War
The ceremonial raising of the flag is known as what?
The ceremonial lowering of the flag is known as what?
What is a flag?
Any type of cloth device used to convey information
What AR covers Military Justice?
AR 27-10
What is the “UCMJ?”
The Uniform Code of Military Justice
Military justice is administered at two levels. What are they?
Nonjudicial punishment
Judicial punishment
What is the purpose of nonjudicial punishment?
To educate and reform offenders; to correct misconduct in violation of UCMJ
Who may impose an Article 15?
Any commanding officer, including a warrant officer exercising command
What are the three classifications of Article 15s?
Company Grade
Field Grade
What is a “Field Grade” Article 15?
An Article 15 imposed by an O-4 or above
What six things should be considered when deciding whether or not to announce punishment of soldiers in the rank of SGT or above?
1. The nature of the offense
2. The individual’s military record and duty position
3. The deterrent effect
4. The impact on unit morale or mission
5. The impact on the victim
6. The impact on the leadership effectiveness of the individual concerned
Who may be reduced for misconduct under Article 15, UCMJ?
Soldiers in pay grade E2-E6
How many pay grades can a soldier be reduced for inefficiency/misconduct?
For inefficiency – reduced by one pay grade
For misconduct – reduced by one or more pay grades
What form is designed for the purpose of notifying a soldier of Article 15 proceedings against him/her?
DA Form 2627
What form is used to record summarized Article 15 proceedings?
DA Form 2627-1
What is the maximum number of days of extra duty that may be given by a field grade commander?
45 days
What article of the UCMJ is designed to protect the rights of the soldier?
Article 31
What are Articles 77 through 134 of UCMJ known as?
Punitive Articles
What are the three types of courts-martial?
How many members are on a court martial board?
As a minimum:
Summary – 1
Special – 3
General – 5
What is the maximum punishment imposed by a Special court martial?
Confinement at hard labor for 6 months
Forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month for 6 months
Reduction to lowest enlisted grade
What is the maximum sentence you can be judged by a General court martial?
What are the five types of discharges?
Other than Honorable
Bad conduct
What steps are involved in the imposition of nonjudicial punishment?
1. Preliminary inquiry
2. Notification and explanation of rights
3. Decision period
4. Hearing
5. Appeal
6. Recording and filing of DA Form 2627/2627-1
What are the three primary objectives of punishment, punitive or nonpunitive?
1. Protect society against the repetition of the offense
2. Reform the offender so he/she will not repeat the offense
3. Deter others from considering and committing such an offense
What Army regulation prescribes the policy, criteria, and administrative instructions concerning individual military awards?
AR 600-8-22
What is the goal of the total Army awards program?
Foster mission accomplishment by recognizing excellence of both military and civilian members of the force and motivating them to high levels of performance and service
Individual awards are grouped into what six categories?
1. Decoration
2. Good Conduct Medal
3. Service Medals
4. Service Ribbons
5. Badges and Tabs
6. Certificates and Letters
What are the two categories of Decorations?
Awards of Heroism
Awards for Achievement
What are the qualifying periods of service for award of the GCM?
1. For each 3 years completed
2. For first award only – upon termination of service of less than 3 years but more than 1 year
3. For first award only – upon termination of service of less than 1 year by reason of physical disability
When is the DA Form 4950 presented to enlisted soldiers?
Only on these occasions:
Concurrent with the 1st award of GCMDL
Concurrent with retirement
What indicates the successful completion of the respective levels of the NCO Professional development courses?
Bar Ribbon Device – PLDC
2 – Basic Level (BNCOC)
3 – Advanced Level (ANCOC)
4 – Senior Level (USASMC)
What ribbon is awarded to members of the US Army for successful completion of initial entry training?
The Army Service Ribbon
What are the four categories or types of badges worn on the Army uniform?
Combat and special skill badges
Marksmanship badges and tabs
Identification badges
Foreign badges
Who has the final approval authority for the following decorations:
AAM: LTC and above
ARCOM: COL and above
MSM: MG and above
LM: LTG and above
DSM: Chief of Staff, US Army
Identify the following Forms:
DA Form 87
DA Form 638
DA Form 2442
DA Form 3931
DA Form 4950
87: Certificate of Training
638: Recommendation for Award
2442: Certificate of Achievement
3931: Certificate of Appreciation
4950: Good Conduct Medal Certificate
Whose profile is on the Purple Heart?
George Washington
Name the three newest ribbons authorized for enlisted personnel.
NCO Professional Development Ribbon
What is the Army’s newest individual decoration?
The Army Achievement Medal
What is the newest U.S. service medal?
Military Outstanding Volunteer Service Medal
What is the newest non-U.S. service medal?
The Saudi-Arabia Kuwait Liberation Medal
A Certificate of Achievement is worth how many promotion points?
What three words are inscribed on the front of the Good Conduct Medal?
Honor, Efficiency, and Fidelity
What words are inscribed on the reverse side of an AAM?
For Military Achievement
What words are inscribed on the reverse side of an ARCOM?
For Military Merit
What are the three special skill tabs?
Special Forces
President’s Hundred
What FM covers Drill and Ceremonies?
FM 31-21.5
What is the primary purpose of drill in the Army today?
It enables a commander or noncommissioned officer to move his unit from one place to another in an orderly manner; to aid in disciplinary training by instilling habits of precision and response to the leader’s orders; and to provide for the development of all soldiers in the practice of commanding troops.
What are the three methods of instruction used to teach drill to soldiers?
What are the five types of commands in drill?
Most drill commands have two parts. What are they?
Preparatory command
Command of execution
What two commands may be given to call a unit or individuals to attention?
What are the four rest positions at the halt?
Parade Rest; Stand at ease
At ease; Rest
What five facing movements can be executed from the position of ATTENTION?
Left face; Right face;
Half left face; Half right face; About face
What is quick time cadence?
120 steps per minute
How fast is the double-time cadence?
180 steps per minute
What is the normal length of step in marching?
30 inches
What is the length of the following steps:
Forward (quick time)
Left/Right step
Double time
Forward – 30 inches
Half step – 15 inches
Left/Right step – 15 inches
Backward – 15 inches
Double time – 30 inches
What is an “element?”
An individual, squad, section, platoon, company or larger unit forming as part of the next higher unit
What is a “formation?”
An arrangement of elements of a unit in a prescribed manner
What is a “line” formation?
A formation in which elements are side by side or abreast of each other
What is a “column” formation?
A formation in which the elements are one behind the other
What is a “rank?”
A line that is only one element in depth
What is a “file?”
A column that has a front of only one element
What is a “flank?”
The left or right side of any formation as observed by an element within that formation
What is an “alignment?”
The arrangement of several elements on the same line
What is a “base?”
The element on which a movement is planned or regulated
What is “cover?”
Aligning oneself directly behind the man to one’s immediate front while maintaining correct distance
What is the “head?”
The leading element of a column
What is “depth?”
The space from front to rear of a formation, including the front and rear element
What is the “post?”
The correct place for an officer or noncommissioned officer to stand in a prescribed formation
What are the two prescribed formations for a squad?
How many types of intervals are there? What are they?
Normal interval
Close interval
Double interval
What command is used to form a squad at normal interval?
What command is used to have an element FALL IN at close interval?
At Close Interval, FALL IN
What commands are used to align a squad at normal interval?
Dress right, DRESS
Ready, FRONT
What commands are used to align a squad at close interval?
At close interval, dress right, DRESS
What two commands are used to align a squad in a column?
Explain the movement of each squad in platoon formation on the command “Open Ranks, March.”
1st rank – 2-30 inch steps forward
2nd rank – 1-30 inch step forward
3rd rank stands fast
4th rank – 2-15 inch steps backward
Explain the movement of each squad in platoon formation on the command “Close Ranks, March.”
1st rank – 4-15inch steps backward
2nd rank – 2-15inch steps backward
3rd rank stands fast
4th rank – 1-30 inch step forward