Board Exam

Front 1

Which type of lever occurs when two forces are applied on either side of an axis?

Back 1

First Class

Front 2

What type of lever is the triceps at the elbow?

Back 2

First Class

Front 3

Which type of lever occurs when two forces are applied on one side of an axis, with the resistance between the force and axis?

Back 3

Second Class

Front 4

What is one example of a second class lever in the human body?

Back 4

Toe Raises

Front 5

What type of lever occurs when the effort force lies closer to the axis than the resistance force?

Back 5

Third Class

Front 6

What is the most common type of lever in the human body?

Back 6

Third Class

Front 7

What are the three types of motion that can occur at a joint?

Back 7

Roll

Glide

Spin

Front 8

Concave-Convex Rule:

Distal Phalanx on Proximal Phalanx

Back 8

Concave on Convex

Front 9

Concave-Convex Rule:

Proximal Phalanx on Metacarpal

Back 9

Concave on Convex

Front 10

Concave-Convex Rule:

Distal Radius on Distal Ulna

Back 10

Concave on Convex

Front 11

Concave-Convex Rule:

Proximal Radius on Proximal Ulna

Back 11

Convex on Concave

Front 12

Concave-Convex Rule:

Radius on Humerus

Back 12

Concave on Convex

Front 13

Concave-Convex Rule:

Ulna on Humerus

Back 13

Concave on Convex

Front 14

Concave-Convex Rule:

Humerus on Glenoid

Back 14

Convex on Concave

Front 15

Concave-Convex Rule:

Clavicle on Sternum (Elevation/Depression)

Back 15

Convex on Concave

Front 16

Concave-Convex Rule:

Clavicle on Sternum (Protraction/Retraction)

Back 16

Concave on Convex

Front 17

Concave-Convex Rule:

Scapula on Clavicle

Back 17

Concave on Convex

Front 18

Concave-Convex Rule:

Distal Phalanx on Proximal Phalanx

Back 18

Concave on Convex

Front 19

Concave-Convex Rule:

Proximal Phalanx on Metatarsal

Back 19

Concave on Convex

Front 20

Concave-Convex Rule:

Navicular / Cuneiform on Subtalar

Back 20

Concave on Convex

Front 21

Concave-Convex Rule:

Cuboid / Calcaneus on Subtalar (Inversion/Eversion)

Back 21

Convex on Concave

Front 22

Concave-Convex Rule:

Talus on Tibia

Back 22

Convex on Concave

Front 23

Concave-Convex Rule:

Fibular Head on Tibia

Back 23

Concave on Convex

Front 24

Concave-Convex Rule:

Tibia on Femur

Back 24

Concave on Convex

Front 25

Concave-Convex Rule:

Femur on Pelvis

Back 25

Convex on Concave

Front 26

Concave-Convex Rule:

Mandible on skull

Back 26

Convex on Concave

Front 27

Open Pack Position: Vertebral

Back 27

Midway between Flexion and Extension

Front 28

Closed Pack Position: Vertebral

Back 28

Full Extension

Front 29

Open Pack Position: TMJ

Back 29

Jaw slightly open

Front 30

Close Pack Position: TMJ

Back 30

Maximal Retrusion

Front 31

Open Pack Position: Sternoclavicular

Back 31

Arm resting by side

Front 32

Close Pack Position: Sternoclavicular

Back 32

Arm Maximally Elevated

Front 33

Open Packed Position: Acromioclavicular

Back 33

Arm resting by side

Front 34

Close Packed Position: Acromioclavicular

Back 34

Arm abducted 90 degrees

Front 35

Open Packed Position: Glenohumeral

Back 35

55-70 abduction, 30 horizontal adduction, neutral rotation

Front 36

Closed Pack Position: Glenohumeral

Back 36

Maximum abduction and external rotation

Front 37

Open Pack Position: Humeroulnar

Back 37

70 flexion and 10 supination

Front 38

Closed Pack Position: Humeroulnar

Back 38

Full extension and supination

Front 39

Open Pack Position: Humeroradial

Back 39

Full extension and supination

Front 40

Closed Pack Position: Humeroradial

Back 40

90 Flexion and 5 supination

Front 41

Open Pack Position: Proximal Radio-Ulnar

Back 41

70 flexion and 35 supination

Front 42

Closed pack position: Proximal Radioulnar

Back 42

5 supination and full extension

Front 43

Open Pack position: Distal radioulnar

Back 43

10 supination

Front 44

Closed Pack position: distal radioulnar

Back 44

5 supination

Front 45

Open Pack Position: Radioulnocarpal

Back 45

Neutral w/ slight ulnar deviation

Front 46

Closed pack position: Radioulnarcarpal

Back 46

Full extension w/ radial deviation

Front 47

Open Pack position: Midcarpal

Back 47

Neutral with slight flexion and ulnar deviation

Front 48

Closed pack position: Midcarpal

Back 48

Full extension

Front 49

open pack position: carpometacarpal

Back 49

Neutral w/ slight flexion and ulnar deviation

Front 50

Closed pack position: carpometacarpal

Back 50

Full opposition

Front 51

Open Pack Position: Trapeziometacarpal

Back 51

Midway between flexion/extension, mid flexion, and mid extension

Front 52

Closed pack position: Trapeziometacarpal

Back 52

Full Opposition

Front 53

Open pack position: Metacarpophalangeal

Back 53

slight flexion

Front 54

Closed pack position: Metacarpophalangeal

Back 54

Full extension

Front 55

Open pack position: Interphalangeal

Back 55

10 flexion

Front 56

Closed pack position: Interphalangeal

Back 56

Full Extension

Front 57

Open pack position: Hip

Back 57

30 flexion, 30 abduction, slight ER

Front 58

Closed Pack position: Hip

Back 58

full extension, full abduction, full internal rotation

Front 59

Open Pack position: Knee

Back 59

25 flexion

Front 60

Closed pack position: Knee

Back 60

Full extension and ER

Front 61

Open pack position: talocrural

Back 61

Mid inversion/eversion and 10 plantarflexion

Front 62

Closed pack position: talocrural

Back 62

full dorsiflexion

Front 63

Open pack position: Subtalar

Back 63

Midway between extremes in ROM and 10 plantarflexion

Front 64

Closed pack position: Subtalar

Back 64

Full inversion

Front 65

Open pack position: Midtarsal

Back 65

Midway between extremes in ROM and 10 plantarflexion

Front 66

Closed pack position: Midtarsal

Back 66

Full supination

Front 67

Open pack position: tarsometatarsal

Back 67

midway between pronation and supination

Front 68

Closed pack position: tarsometatarsal

Back 68

full supination

Front 69

Open pack position: metatarsophalangeal

Back 69

Neutral

Front 70

Closed pack position: metatarsophalangeal

Back 70

full extension

Front 71

Open pack position: interphalangeal

Back 71

slight flexion

Front 72

Closed pack position: interphalangeal

Back 72

full extension

Front 73

Capsular Pattern: TMJ

Back 73

Limited mouth opening

Front 74

Capsular Pattern: OA Joint

Back 74

Forward flexion > Extension

Front 75

Capsular Pattern: AA Joint

Back 75

Rotation

Front 76

Capsular Pattern: Lower Cervical Spine

Back 76

SB and Rot > Extension > Flexion

Front 77

Capsular Pattern: Glenohumeral

Back 77

ER > Abd > IR

Front 78

Capsular Pattern: Sternoclavicular

Back 78

Elevation

Front 79

Capsular Pattern: Acromioclavicular

Back 79

Elevation

Front 80

Capsular Pattern: Humeroulnar

Back 80

Flexion > Extension

Front 81

Capsular Pattern: Humeroradial

Back 81

Flexion > Extension

Front 82

Capsular Pattern: Proximal Radioulnar

Back 82

Pronation = supination

Front 83

Capsular Pattern: Distal Radioulnar

Back 83

Pronation = Supination

Front 84

Capsular Pattern: Wrist

Back 84

Flexion = Extension

Front 85

Capsular Pattern: Midcarpal

Back 85

Equal in all planes

Front 86

Capsular Pattern: Trapeziometacarpal

Back 86

Adduction > Extension

Front 87

Capsular Pattern: Carpometacarpals

Back 87

Equal in all planes

Front 88

Capsular Pattern: Upper Extremity Digits

Back 88

Flexion > Extension

Front 89

Capsular Pattern: Thoracic Spine

Back 89

Flexion > Extension

Front 90

Capsular Pattern: Lumbar Spine

Back 90

Side Bending = Rotation > Extension > Flexion

Front 91

Capsular Pattern: Sacroiliac, Symphisis pubis, sacrococcygeal

Back 91

Pain when joints are stressed

Front 92

Capsular Pattern: Hip

Back 92

Flexion and IR > Abd > Add and ER

Front 93

Capsular Pattern: Knee

Back 93

Flexion > Extension

Front 94

Capsular Pattern: Tibiofibular

Back 94

Pain when joint is stressed

Front 95

Capsular Pattern: Talocrural

Back 95

Plantarflexion > Dorsiflexion

Front 96

Capsular Pattern: Subtalar

Back 96

Inverstion > Eversion

Front 97

Capsular Pattern: Midtarsal

Back 97

Supination > Pronation

Front 98

Capsular Pattern: Metatarsophalangeal

Back 98

Extension > Flexion

Front 99

Capsular Pattern: Interphalangeal

Back 99

Extension Restrictions

Front 100

What are the 7 grades of movement?

Back 100

0 - Ankylosing

1 - Considerable hypomobility

2 - Slight hypomobility

3 - Normal

4 - Slight hypermobility

5 - Considerable hypermobility

6 - Unstable

Front 101

What is a common muscle substitute for weakened shoulder abductors?

Back 101

Use of scapular stabilizers

Front 102

What is a common muscle substitute for weakened hip abductors?

Back 102

Lateral trunk muscles or TFL

Front 103

What is a common muscle substitute for weakened finger flexors?

Back 103

Use of passive finger flexion by contraction of wrist extensors

Front 104

What is a common muscle substitute for weakened pectoralis major?

Back 104

Use of long head of biceps, corachobrachialis and anterior deltoid

Front 105

Which muscle is responsible for neck flexion?

Back 105

Sternocleidomastoid and other deep neck flexors

Front 106

Which muscle is responsible for neck extension?

Back 106

Trapezius

Front 107

Which muscle is responsible for neck rotation?

Back 107

Sternocleidomastoid

Front 108

Which muscle is responsible for neck side bending?

Back 108

Trapezius

Front 109

Which muscle is responsible for shoulder shrug and scapular upward rotation?

Back 109

Upper trapezius

Front 110

Which muscle is responsible for Shoulder horizontal adduction?

Back 110

Pec major and pec minor

Front 111

What muscle is responsible for Scapular downward rotation?

Back 111

Pectoralis minor

Front 112

What muscle is responsible for Shoulder protraction and scapular upward rotation?

Back 112

Serratus Anterior

Front 113

Which muscle is responsible for scapular elevation and scapular downward rotation?

Back 113

Levator Scapula

Front 114

Which muscle is responsible for scapular adduction, scapular elevation and scapular downward rotation?

Back 114

Rhomboids

Front 115

Which muscle is responsible for shoulder abduction?

Back 115

Supraspinatus

Front 116

Which muscle is responsible for shoulder external rotation?

Back 116

Infrapinatus and teres minor

Front 117

Which muscle is responsible for shoulder internal rotation and shoulder adduction?

Back 117

Latissimus dorsi, teres major and subscapularis

Front 118

Which muscle is responsible for shoulder abduction, flexion and extension?

Back 118

deltoid

Front 119

Which muscle is responsible for elbow flexion and forearm supination?

Back 119

Biceps Brachii

Front 120

Which muscle is responsible for shoulder flexion and adduction?

Back 120

coracobrachialis

Front 121

Which muscle is responsible for elbow flexion?

Back 121

Brachialis, brachioradialis

Front 122

Which muscle is responsible for 4th and 5th digit DIP flexion?

Back 122

Flexor digitorum

Front 123

Which muscle is responsible for wrist ulnar deviation?

Back 123

Flexor carpi ulnaris

Front 124

Which muscle is responsible for thumb adduction?

Back 124

Adductor Pollicis

Front 125

Which muscle is responsible for 5th digit abduction?

Back 125

abductor digiti minimi

Front 126

Which muscle is responsible for 5th digit opposition?

Back 126

Opponens digiti minimi

Front 127

Which muscle is responsible for 5th digit MCP flexion?

Back 127

Flexor digiti quinti

Front 128

Which muscle is responsible for 2nd - 5th digit MCP flexion adduction and abduction?

Back 128

Interossei

Front 129

Which muscle is responsible for forearm pronation?

Back 129

Pronator teres and pronator quadratus

Front 130

Which muscle is responsible for wrist radial deviation?

Back 130

Flexor carpi radialis

Front 131

Which muscle is responsible for wrist flexion?

Back 131

Palmaris longus

Front 132

Which muscle is responsible for 2nd - 5th digit PIP flexion?

Back 132

Flexor digitorum sublimis

Front 133

Which muscle is responsible for Thumb IP flexion?

Back 133

Flexor Pollicis Longus

Front 134

Which muscle is responsible for 2nd - 3rd digit DIP flexion?

Back 134

Flexor digitorum

Front 135

Which muscle is responsible for thumb abduction?

Back 135

Abductor pollicis brevis

Front 136

Which muscle is responsible for thumb MCP flexion?

Back 136

Flexor pollicis brevis

Front 137

Which muscle is responsible for thumb opposition?

Back 137

Opponens pollicis

Front 138

Which muscle is responsible for 2nd - 5th digit MCP flexion, IP extension?

Back 138

Lumbricals

Front 139

Which muscle is responsible for elbow extension?

Back 139

Triceps brachii, anconeus

Front 140

Which muscle is responsible for wrist radial extension?

Back 140

Extensor carpi radialis

Front 141

Which muscle is responsible for 2nd - 5th digit MCP, and IP extension?

Back 141

Extensor digitorum communis, extensor digiti quinti proprius

Front 142

Which muscle is responsible for wrist ulnar extension?

Back 142

Extensor carpi ulnaris

Front 143

Which muscle is responsible for forearm supination?

Back 143

Supinator

Front 144

What is a common muscle substitute with hip extensor weakness

Back 144

Use of lower back extensors, adductor magnus and quadratus lumborum

Front 145

What is a common muscle substitute with hip flexor weakness?

Back 145

Use of lower abs, lower obliques, hip adductors and latissimus dorsi

Front 146

How much is the humeral head retroverted?

Back 146

20-30 degrees

Front 147

What is the angle of the head to the anatomical neck of the humerus?

Back 147

135 degrees

Front 148

Which ribs does the scapula sit over?

Back 148

2-7

Front 149

Which way does the glenoid fossa face?

Back 149

anterior, lateral, superior

Front 150

The pear shape of the glenoid fossa allows for what more free movement in which directions?

Back 150

Abduction and Flexion

Front 151

Angle of the glenoid fossa causes true abduction to be in which plane?

Back 151

30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane

Front 152

Which bone connects the shoulder complex to the axial skeleton?

Back 152

Clavicle

Front 153

Which structures does the shoulder capsule attach to medially?

Back 153

glenoid margin, glenoid labrum and coracoid process

Front 154

Which structures does the shoulder capsule attach to laterally?

Back 154

humeral anatomical neck, and down shaft approx 1 cm.

Front 155

Which structures help to support the shoulder capsule?

Back 155

Tendons of supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis and long head of triceps.

Front 156

Which part of the shoulder capsule is most lax?

Back 156

Inferior

Front 157

What are the attachments of the coracohumeral ligament?

Back 157

base of coracoid process to greater and lesser tubercle of humerus

Front 158

What is the primary function of the coracohumeral ligament?

Back 158

Reinforce biceps tendon, superior capsule and prevent caudal dislocation of humerus.

Front 159

When is the coracohumeral ligament taut?

Back 159

External Rotation

Front 160

Where does the coracoacromial ligament attach?

Back 160

Coracoid process to acromion

Front 161

How many bands make up the glenohumeral ligament?

Back 161

3 (superior, middle, inferior)

Front 162

Where is the glenohumeral ligament?

Back 162

located on the anterior glenohumeral joint

Front 163

What is the function of the glenohumeral ligament?

Back 163

Reinforce anterior glenohumeral capsule

Front 164

Where is the transverse humeral ligament?

Back 164

Passes over bicipital groove

Front 165

What is the purpose of the transverse humeral ligament?

Back 165

Serve as a retinaculum for the long biceps tendon

Front 166

Which structures are attached to the glenoid labrum?

Back 166

Capsule superiorly and inferiorly and biceps long tendon superiorly

Front 167

What is the usual bursa involved with shoulder pathology?

Back 167

Subacromial bursa

Front 168

What happens at approximately 75 degrees of flexion at the shoulder?

Back 168

ER occurs to keep the greater tubercle from compressing against the acromion

Front 169

What is the ratio of glenohumeral to scapulothoracic movement in 180 degrees of abduction?

Back 169

2:1

Front 170

The first 30-60 degrees of shoulder flexion occurs in glenohumeral or scapulothoracic?

Back 170

glenohumeral

Front 171

What are 4 things required to get full shoulder elevation?

Back 171

- Scapular stabilization

- Inferior glide of the humerus

- external rotation of the humerus

- rotation of the clavicle at sternoclavicular joint

- Scapular abduction and lateral rotation of AC joint

- Straightening of thoracic kyphosis

Front 172

Which part of the humerus articulates with the ulna at the elbow?

Back 172

Trochlea

Front 173

Which part of the humerus articulates with the radius at the elbow?

Back 173

Capitulum

Front 174

What part of the ulna does the radial head articulate with?

Back 174

Radial Notch

Front 175

Which 2 structures are continuous with the elbow capsule?

Back 175

Radial collateral ligament and Ulnar collateral ligament

Front 176

How many parts make up the Ulnar Collateral ligament?

Back 176

3

Front 177

Which structures is the Radial Collateral ligament attached to?

Back 177

Lateral epicondyle to the annular ligament

Front 178

Which ligament is stronger, radial collateral or ulnar collateral?

Back 178

Radial Collateral

Front 179

Where is the annular ligament attached?

Back 179

To the Ulna medially and surrounds the radial head

Front 180

When is the annular ligament taut?

Back 180

extreme pronation and supination

Front 181

Where does the quadrate ligament attach?

Back 181

From the radial notch to the neck of radius

Front 182

What is the function of the quadrate ligament?

Back 182

Reinforces inferior joint capsule, maintains radial head in opposition to ulna and limits amount of spin in supination and pronation

Front 183

What is the function of the anterior and posterior radioulnar ligament?

Back 183

Strengthen capsule

Front 184

What 5 arteries supply blood to the elbow?

Back 184

- Brachial Artery

- Anterior Ulnar Recurrent Artery

- Posterior Ulnar Recurrent Artery

- Radial Recurrent Artery

- Middle Collateral Branch of the Deep Brachial Artery

Front 185

Why is the radial collateral ligament not as strong as the ulnar collateral ligament?

Back 185

Functional activities place tensile forces medially and compressive forces laterally

Front 186

Does the ulna pronate or supinate slightly in extension?

Back 186

pronates

Front 187

Does the ulna pronate or supinate slightly in flexion?

Back 187

supinates

Front 188

Does the proximal ulna glide medially or laterally during extension?

Back 188

Medially

Front 189

Does the proximal ulna glide medially or laterally during flexion?

Back 189

Laterally

Front 190

Where does the collateral ligaments of the fingers attach?

Back 190

Lateral condyle to distal phalanx and lateral volar plate

Front 191

When are the fibers of the collateral ligaments of the fingers taut?

Back 191

All fibers = flexion

Volar Fibers = Extension

Front 192

Where does the accessory ligament attach in the fingers?

Back 192

Condylar head to volar plate

Front 193

What is the function of the transverse ligament of the fingers?

Back 193

Provide stability linking MCP joints and reinforcing the anterior capsule

Front 194

What is the function of the palmar ulnocarpal ligament?

Back 194

Limits extension and supination

Front 195

What is the function of the palmar radiocarpal ligament?

Back 195

Limits extension and supination

Front 196

What is the extensor hood of the finger?

Back 196

Fibrous mechanism on the dorsum of each finger that is a fibrous expansion of the extensor digitorum tendon

Front 197

What is the function of the extensor hood of the finger?

Back 197

Assist with extension of the PIP and DIP joints

Front 198

What are the volar plates of the finger?

Back 198

Thickening of the joint capsule found on the palmar aspect of the MCP, PIP and DIP joints.

Front 199

What is the function of the volar plates?

Back 199

Increase articular surface during extension and protect joint volarly.

Front 200

What areas of the hand does the ulnar nerve innervate?

Back 200

Hypothenar region, fifth digit and medial half of fourth digit

Front 201

What areas of the hand does the median nerve innervate?

Back 201

Palmar surface not innervated by ulnar nerve, dorsal surface of second, third and lateral half of fourth digit from DIP to tip of finger.

Front 202

What areas of the hand does the radial nerve innervate?

Back 202

Dorsum of hand no innervated by ulnar or median nerve

Front 203

Which arteries merge to supply blood to the hand?

Back 203

Ulnar and Radial Arteries

Front 204

When the Ulnar and Radial Arteries merge at the hand, what do they form?

Back 204

Palmar Arch

Front 205

Which structure runs up each finger both medially and laterally to supply blood?

Back 205

Digital Branches of the Palmar Arch

Front 206

How do the fingers help to enhance grip and opposition during finger flexion?

Back 206

They rotate radially

Front 207

Describe the femoral head

Back 207

A two thirds sphere with a depression at its center called the fovea capitis femoris

Front 208

Which direction is the femoral head oriented?

Back 208

Superiorly, anteriorly and medially

Front 209

What is the normal angle of inclination of the femoral head?

Back 209

115-125 degrees

Front 210

What is coxa valga?

Back 210

An angle of inclination of the femoral head greater than >125 degrees

Front 211

What is coxa vara?

Back 211

An angle of inclination of the femoral head less than 125 degrees

Front 212

What is the normal anterior angle of the femoral head?

Back 212

10-15 degrees

Front 213

What is anteversion of the femoral head?

Back 213

If anterior angle is > 25-30 degrees

Front 214

What is retroversion of the femoral head?

Back 214

If anterior angle is < 10 degrees

Front 215

Which direction does the acetabulum face?

Back 215

Laterally, Inferiorly and anteriorly

Front 216

What three bones make up the acetabulum?

Back 216

Ischium, Ilium and Pubis

Front 217

What is the acetabular fossa?

Back 217

The center of the acetabulum which is nonarticulating and filled with fat pad for shock absorption

Front 218

Where is articular cartilage found in the acetabulum?

Back 218

Everywhere except inferiorly, called the acetabular notch

Front 219

Where does the iliofemoral ligament attach?

Back 219

Medial band from AIIS to distal intertrochanteric line. Lateral band from AIIS proximal aspect of intertrochanteric line

Front 220

When are both bands of the iliofemoral ligament taut?

Back 220

Extension and External Rotation

Front 221

When is just the lateral band of the iliofemoral ligament taut?

Back 221

Adduction

Front 222

Where does the pubofemoral ligament attach?

Back 222

Iliopectineal eminence, superior rami of pubis, obturator crest and obturator membrane to the lateral capsule and into the distal intertrochanteric line

Front 223

When is the pubofemoral ligament taut?

Back 223

Extension, External Rotation, and abduction

Front 224

Where does the ischiofemoral ligament attach?

Back 224

Ischium and posterior acetabulum to greater trochanter

Front 225

Which muscle is responsible for hip flexion?

Back 225

Iliopsoas

Front 226

Which muscle is responsible for hip flexion, abduction and external rotation?

Back 226

Sartorius

Front 227

Which muscle is responsible for knee extension?

Back 227

Quadriceps Femoris

Front 228

Which muscle is responsible for hip adduction?

Back 228

Pectineus, adductor longus, adductor brevis and Gracilis

Front 229

Which muscle is responsible for hip abduction, flexion and internal rotation?

Back 229

Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus and Tensor fascia latae

Front 230

Which muscle is responsible for hip external rotation?

Back 230

Piriformis

Front 231

Which muscle is responsible for hip extension and external rotation?

Back 231

Gluteus Maximus, obturator internus, gemelli and quadratus femoris

Front 232

Which muscle is responsible for hip extension, knee flexion, and external rotation?

Back 232

Biceps femoris

Front 233

Which muscle is responsible for hip extension and knee flexion?

Back 233

Semitendinosus

Front 234

Which muscle is responsible for hip internal rotation?

Back 234

Semimembranosus

Front 235

Which muscle is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion?

Back 235

Tibialis Anterior

Front 236

Which muscle is responsible for 2nd-5th MTP extension?

Back 236

Extensor digitorum longus

Front 237

Which muscle is responsible for 1st MTP extension?

Back 237

Extensor Hallucis Longus

Front 238

Which muscle is responsible for foot eversion?

Back 238

Fibularis longus and fibularis brevis

Front 239

Which muscle is responsible for foot inversion?

Back 239

Tibialis posterior

Front 240

Which muscle is responsible for plantarflexion?

Back 240

Gastrocnemius and Soleus

Front 241

Which muscle is responsible for 2nd - 5th DIP flexion?

Back 241

Flexor digitorum longus

Front 242

Which muscle is responsible for 1st toe flexion?

Back 242

Flexor hallucis longus

Front 243

Which muscle is responsible for 2nd-5th toe PIP flexion?

Back 243

Flexor digitorum brevis

Front 244

Which muscle is responsible for great to MTP flexion?

Back 244

Flexor hallucis brevis

Front 245

Which muscle is responsible for toe adduction/abduction?

Back 245

Dorsal and plantar interossei

Front 246

Which muscle is responsible for pelvic floor control?

Back 246

Perineals and sphincters

Front 247

Which muscle is responsible for Thumb MCP abduction?

Back 247

Abductor pollicis longus

Front 248

Which muscle is responsible for Thumb extension?

Back 248

Extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis

Front 249

Which muscle is responsible for 2nd digit extension?

Back 249

extensor indicis proprius

Front 250

When is the ischiofemoral ligament taut?

Back 250

Internal rotation, abduction and extension of the hip

Front 251

What is the Zona Orbicularis?

Back 251

Ligament that runs in a circular pattern around femoral neck

Front 252

What is the purpose of the Zona Orbicularis?

Back 252

Hold head of the femur in the acetabulum

Front 253

Where does the inguinal ligament attached to?

Back 253

ASIS to pubic tubercle

Front 254

What is the function of the inguinal ligament?

Back 254

Forms a tunnel for muscles, arteries, veins and nerves

Front 255

Where is the subtendinous iliac bursae located?

Back 255

Between hip and os pubis

Front 256

Where is the iliopectineal bursae located?

Back 256

Between the psoas major tendon and iliacus tendon. It lies close to the femoral nerve.

Front 257

Where is the ischiofemoral bursa located?

Back 257

Between the ischial tuberosity and gluteus maximus.

Front 258

Where can bursitis of the ischiofemoral bursa cause pain?

Back 258

In a sciatic distribution

Front 259

Where is the deep trochanteric bursa located?

Back 259

Between gluteus maximus and posterior lateral greater trochanter.

Front 260

What movements can impinge the deep trochanteric bursa?

Back 260

Hip flexion and internal rotation due to compression of gluteus maximus

Front 261

Where is the superficial trochanteric bursa located?

Back 261

Over the greater trochanter

Front 262

Which nerves innervate the hip joint?

Back 262

Femoral, Obturator, Sciatic and Superior Gluteal

Front 263

What arteries supply the proximal femur?

Back 263

Medial and Lateral Femoral Circumflex Arteries

Front 264

What arteries supply the femoral head?

Back 264

Small branch of Obturator artery

Front 265

What arteries supplly the acetabulum?

Back 265

Branches from superior and inferior gluteal arteries

Front 266

Which femoral condyle descends further inferiorly?

Back 266

Medial

Front 267

Which tibial condyle is larger and less mobile?

Back 267

Medial

Front 268

Where does the medial collateral ligament of the knee attach?

Back 268

Medial aspect of medial femoral condyle to upper end of tibia.

Front 269

What structure do the posterior fibers medial collateral ligament of the knee blend with?

Back 269

Capsule

Front 270

When is the Medical Collateral Ligament of the knee taut?

Back 270

Extension

Front 271

What is the function does the medial collateral ligament of the knee?

Back 271

Prevents External rotation of the knee and prevents against valgus forces.

Front 272

Where does the Lateral Collateral Ligament of the knee attach?

Back 272

Lateral femoral condyle to head of fibula.

Front 273

When is the Lateral Collateral Ligament of the knee taut?

Back 273

Extension

Front 274

What is the function of the Lateral Collateral Ligament of the knee?

Back 274

Prevents external rotation and protects against varus forces.

Front 275

Where does the Anterior Cruciate Ligament attach?

Back 275

Anterior intercondylar fossa of tibia to medial aspect of lateral condyle of femur.

Front 276

What is the function of the Anterior Cruciate Ligament?

Back 276

Prevents forward gliding of tibia on femur and limits internal rotation of tibia during flexion.

Front 277

Where does the Posterior Cruciate Ligament attach?

Back 277

Posterior intercondylar fossa of tibia and on lateral surface of femoral medial condyle.W

Front 278

What is the function of the Posterior Cruciate Ligament?

Back 278

Prevents posterior displacement of tibia on femur

Front 279

Where does the meniscofemoral ligament attach?

Back 279

It runs along the Posterior Cruciate Ligament

Front 280

Where does the Oblique Popliteal Ligament attach?

Back 280

Into the expansion from tendon of semimembranosus.

Front 281

What structures do the Oblique Popliteal Ligament help make?

Back 281

Floor of the popliteal fossa and capsule.

Front 282

Which artery does the Oblique Popliteal Ligament come in contact with?

Back 282

Popliteal Anterior Artery

Front 283

What is the function of the Oblique Popliteal Ligament?

Back 283

Strengthens posteromedial capsule

Front 284

Where does the Arcuate Popliteal Ligament attach?

Back 284

From the fibular head to the posterior border of intercondylar area of tibia (medial band) and to the lateral epicondyle of femur (lateral band).

Front 285

What is the function of the Arcuate Popliteal Ligament?

Back 285

Strengthens posterolateral capsule

Front 286

Where does the Transverse Ligament of the knee attach?

Back 286

Connects lateral and medial meniscus anteriorly

Front 287

Where does the meniscopatellar ligament attach?

Back 287

Inferolateral edges of patella to lateral border of each meniscus.

Front 288

What is the function of the meniscopatellar ligament?

Back 288

Pulls menisci forward with extension

Front 289

Where does the alar fold attach?

Back 289

Lateral borders of patella to medial and lateral aspects of femoral condyles

Front 290

What is the function of the alar fold?

Back 290

Keeps patella in contact with femur

Front 291

What is the function of the infrapatellar fold?

Back 291

Is a stop gap as it is compressed by patella tendon in full flexion

Front 292

What is the function of the Anterior tibiofibular ligament?

Back 292

Reinforce the capsule anteriorly

Front 293

What is the function of the Posterior tibiofibular ligament?

Back 293

Reinforce the capsule posteriorly

Front 294

Describe the medial meniscus

Back 294

Large, C shaped and fairly stable

Front 295

Which structures attach to the medial meniscus?

Back 295

MCL and fibrous capsule, semimembranosus and medial meniscopatellar ligament

Front 296

What structures attach to the lateral meniscus?

Back 296

popliteus muscle, lateral meniscopatellar ligament and meniscofemoral ligament

Front 297

What are the 6 functions of the menisci?

Back 297

- Deepens fossa of tibia

- Increases congruency of tibia and femur

- Provides stability to tibiofemoral joint

- Provides shock absorption and lubrication to knee

- Reduces friction during movement

- Improves weight distribution

Front 298

Which directions do the menisci move with certain movements?

Back 298

Move with tibia in flexion/extension and with femoral condyles with internal/external rotation

Front 299

How much does each meniscus move total?

Back 299

Medial 6 mm, lateral 12 mm

Front 300

Which structures have influence on the movement of the medial meniscus?

Back 300

Semimembranosus and ACL pull posteriorly during flexion, medial meniscopatellar ligament pulls anteriorly during extension and MCL and fibrous capsule hold the meniscus firm.

Front 301

Which structures have influence on the movement of the lateral meniscus?

Back 301

Popliteus pulls posteriorly during flexion, lateral meniscopatellar ligament and meniscofemoral ligament pull anteriorly during extension

Front 302

Where is the prepatellar bursa located?

Back 302

between skin and anterior distal patella

Front 303

Where is the superficial infrapatellar bursa located?

Back 303

Anterior to ligamentum patella

Front 304

Where is the deep infrapatellar bursa located?

Back 304

Between posterior ligamentum patella and anterior tibial tuberosity

Front 305

Where is the suprapatellar bursa located?

Back 305

Between the patella and tibia femoral joint

Front 306

Where is the popliteal bursa located?

Back 306

Posterior knee often connected to synovial cavity

Front 307

Where is the semimembranosus bursa located?

Back 307

Between the semimembranosus muscle and the femoral condyle

Front 308

Where is the pes anserine bursa located?

Back 308

Between the pes anserine and the MCL

Front 309

What arteries supply blood to the knee?

Back 309

Descending branch and lateral circumflex femoral branch of the deep femoral artery. Genicular branches of the popliteal artery and recurrent branches of anterior tibial artery

Front 310

What nerves innervate the knee?

Back 310

Obturator, femoral, tibial and common fibular

Front 311

When does the "screw home" mechanism occur in the knee?

Back 311

During terminal knee extension

Front 312

What is the "screw home" mechanism?

Back 312

Closed chain femoral internal rotation or open chain tibial external rotation of 5 degrees

Front 313

Which muscle is responsible for "unlocking" the "screw home" mechanism?

Back 313

Popliteus

Front 314

What are the 5 causes of the "screw home" mechanism?

Back 314

- Lateral femoral condyle glides more freely on lateral convex face of tibia

- Medial femoral condyle has longer articulate surface

- Medial meniscus is attached to MCL which allows Lateral movement more

- Twisted cruciate ligaments

- Lateral angle of pull of quadriceps

Front 315

In which direction does the fibular head move during dorsiflexion?

Back 315

Superiorly, posteriorly and externally rotates

Front 316

In which direction does the fibular head move during plantarflexion?

Back 316

Inferiorly, anteriorly and internally rotates

Front 317

What 4 structures make up the ankle mortise?

Back 317

Distal end of tibia and its medial malleoulus, lateral malleolus of fibula, inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament and trochlear surface of talus

Front 318

What are the three articulations that make up the talocrural joint?

Back 318

- tibiofibular, tibiotalar and fibulotalar

Front 319

Describe the capsule of the talocrural joint.

Back 319

Strengthened by collateral, anterior and posterior ligaments. It is thin anteriorly and posteriorly and thickened laterally.

Front 320

Where does the plantar fascia attach?

Back 320

Medial Calcaneus to phalanges

Front 321

What creates a rigid lever for push off in the foot?

Back 321

Tightening of plantar fascia with flexion of MTP joints which causes supination of calcaneus and inversion of subtalar joint.

Front 322

What arteries supply blood to the ankle?

Back 322

Malleolar rami of Anterior tibial and fibular arteries.

Front 323

What nerves innervate the ankle?

Back 323

Deep fibular and tibial nerves

Front 324

What are the movements of the talus from plantarflexion to dorsiflexion?

Back 324

Rotates medially 30 degrees.

Front 325

Describe the movement of the calcaneus during open chain inversion.

Back 325

Adduction, Supination and plantarflexion

Front 326

Describe the movement of the navicular during open chain inversion.

Back 326

Adduction, external rotation

Front 327

What movement do the uncinate joints limit?

Back 327

Lateral cervical movement

Front 328

What is the Rules of 3 for thoracic spinous processes?

Back 328

T1 - T3: Spinous processes level with transverse process on same level

T4 - T6: spinous processes one half level below transverse processes on same level

T7 - T9: Spinous processes one full level below transverse proccesses

T10 - Fulll level below

T11 - One half level below

T12 - Same level

Front 329

What structures make up the Apophyseal joints?

Back 329

The supreior and inferior articulatory processes of adjacent vertebrae.

Front 330

What type of fibers are intervertebral discs made of?

Back 330

Type II collagen and fibrocartilage

Front 331

What percent of intervertebral discs are made of water?

Back 331

65%

Front 332

Which part of the intervertebral disc is innervated by nerves?

Back 332

Outer one-third

Front 333

Which nerve innervates the intervertebral discs?

Back 333

Sinovertebral nerve

Front 334

What is the nucleus pulposus made up of?

Back 334

water, proteoglycans, a minimal amount of type I collagen and 70-90% water

Front 335

What percent of vertebral column height is made up of the nucleus pulposus?

Back 335

20-33%

Front 336

Which muscles are responsible for inspiration?

Back 336

Diaphragm, Levator costarum, External intercostals, anterior internal intercostals

Front 337

Which muscles are responsible for forced expiration?

Back 337

Internal obliques, transverse abdominus, external obliques, posterior internal intercostals, rectus abdominus

Front 338

Which muscles are responsible for spine extension?

Back 338

Erector spinae, transverospinalis, interspinales, toatores intertransversarii

Front 339

Which muscles are responsible for spine flexion?

Back 339

Rectus abdominus, external obliques, internal obliques and psoas minor

Front 340

Which muscles are responsible for Spine lateral flexion?

Back 340

Quadratus Lumborum

Front 341

Which muscles are responsible for spine rotation?

Back 341

Rotatores, internal obliques, external obliques, intertransversarii, transverseospinalis

Front 342

What is the function of the facet joints?

Back 342

Assist ligaments in providing limitation of motion and stability of the spine.

Front 343

What part of the spine are the facet joints strongest?

Back 343

Thoracolumbar and cervicothoracic

Front 344

Which nerve roots send sensory information to the spinal cord?

Back 344

Dorsal Roots

Front 345

Which nerve roots send motor inputs to the muscles?

Back 345

Ventral roots

Front 346

Which structures do the dorsal rami innervate?

Back 346

Structures on the posterior trunk

Front 347

Do cervical spine nerves exit above or below their associated vertebra?

Back 347

Above

Front 348

Do thoracic and lumbar spine nerves exit above or below their associated vertebra?

Back 348

Below

Front 349

At what level does the spinal cord terminate?

Back 349

L1-L2

Front 350

Are side bending and rotation in the same or opposite directions in C2-C7?

Back 350

Same

Front 351

When the lumbar or thoracic spine is in neutral or extension, does side bending and rotation in the same or opposite directions?

Back 351

Opposite

Front 352

When the lumbar or thoracic spine is in flexion, does side bending and rotation occur in the same or opposite directions?

Back 352

Same

Front 353

What is the lumbopelvic rhythm?

Back 353

When flexing lumbar spine flexes first, then pelvis anteriorly rotates, then hips flex. Extension is just the opposite.

Front 354

What is nutation?

Back 354

Flexion of sacrum and posterior rotation of ilium

Front 355

What is counternutation?

Back 355

Extension of the sacrum and anterior rotation of ilium

Front 356

What is the functional ROM for the temperomandibular joint?

Back 356

opening 40 mm

Rotation 25 mm

Translation 15 mm

Front 357

What are the 4 components of the systems review?

Back 357

- Musculoskeletal

- Neuromuscular

- Cardiopulmonary

- Integumentary

Front 358

What are 5 symptoms of DJD or osteoarthritis?

Back 358

- Pain and stiffness upon rising

- Pain eases through the morning

- Pain increases with repetitive bending activities

- Constant awareness of discomfort with episodes of exacerbation

- Describes pain as more soreness and nagging

Front 359

What are 5 symptoms of facet joint dysfunction?

Back 359

-Stiff upon rising; pain eases within an hour

- Loss of motion accompanied by pain

- Patient will describe pain as sharp with certain movements

- Movement in pain-free range usually reduces symptoms

- Stationary positions increase symptoms

Front 360

What disease is characterized by a progressive inflammatory disorder of unknown etiology that initially affects axial skeleton?

Back 360

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Front 361

What is the usual initial presentation of Ankylosing Spondylitis?

Back 361

Usually mid and low back pain for 3 months or greater before 4th decade of life, morning stiffness and sacroiliitis.

Front 362

What does Ankylosing Spondylitis do to the spine?

Back 362

Kyphotic deformity of cervical and thoracic spine and increased lumbar lordosis.

Front 363

The advanced stages of Ankylosing Spondylitis may include which symptoms?

Back 363

Degeneration of peipheral and costovertebral joints

Front 364

Does Ankylosing Spondylitis affect men or women more?

Back 364

Men three times as much

Front 365

Which medications are used for Ankylosing Sondylitis?

Back 365

NSAIDS for inflmmation and pain. Corticosteroids to suppress immune system. Cytotoxic drugs may be used to those who do not respond to corticosteroids. Tumor necrosis Factor inhibitors may improve symptoms.

Front 366

Which diatgnostic tests are used to diagnose Ankylosing Spondylitis?

Back 366

HLA-B27 may be used, but is not diagnostic by itself

Front 367

What are some of the goals of intervention for Ankylosing Spondilitis?

Back 367

Flexibility Exercises for trunk, especially extension

Front 368

What are some of the goals of intervention for Ankylosing Spondilitis?

Back 368

Flexibility Exercises for trunk, especially extension

Front 369

What disease is characterized as a genetic disorder of purine metabolism, elevated serum uric acid, uric acid crystal deposits into peripheral joints?

Back 369

Gout

Front 370

What two joints are most commonly affected by gout?

Back 370

knee and great toe

Front 371

Which medications can be used to treat gout?

Back 371

NSAIDS, COX-2 inhibitors, colchicine, corticosteroids, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), allopurinol, probenecid, sulfinpyrazone

Front 372

Which diagnostic tests can be used to diagnose gout?

Back 372

Lab tests looking for monosodium urate crystals in synovial fluid and/or connective tissue

Front 373

What disease is characterized by chroinc erosive inflammatory disorder of unknown etiology associated with psoriasis?

Back 373

Psoriatic Arthritis

Front 374

Where does psoriatic arthritis usually affect?

Back 374

Joints of digits and axial skeleton

Front 375

Are men or women affected by psoriatic arthritis more?

Back 375

Same

Front 376

What medications are used with psoriatic arthritis?

Back 376

Acetaminophen, NSAIDS, coritosteroids, disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs, biological response modifies such as Enbrel

Front 377

What tests can be used to diagnose psoriatic arthritis?

Back 377

Only tests useful are those that can rule out rheumatoid arthritis

Front 378

What disease is characterized by a chronic systemic disorder or unknown etiology, usually involving a symmetrical pattern of dysfunction in synovial tissues and articular cartilage.

Back 378

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Front 379

What are the typical presentations of RA?

Back 379

MCP and PIP joints are usually affected with characteristic pannus formation, ulnar drift, and volar subluxation of MCP joints; ulnar drift observed at PIPs in sever forms. DIP joints are usually spared. Other deformities include swan-neck, boutonniere deformities and Bouchards nodes

Front 380

Are women or men at greater risk of developing RA?

Back 380

Women are 2-3 times greater risk

Front 381

When does juvenile RA usually set in?

Back 381

Before the age of 16

Front 382

What percent of Juvenile RA will go into remission?

Back 382

75%

Front 383

What medications can be used to treat RA?

Back 383

DMARDs, NSAIDS, Immunosuppressive Agents and Corticosteroids

Front 384

What diagnostic tests can be used to diagnose RA?

Back 384

Plain film may demonstrate symmetrical involvement within joints. Increased WBC count and ESR. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit will show anemia and rheumatoid factor will be increased

Front 385

What disease is characterized by a metabolic disorder that depletes bone mineral density and predisposes an individual to fracture

Back 385

Osteoporosis

Front 386

Does osteoporosis affect men or women more?

Back 386

Women 10 times as much

Front 387

What are the common sites of fracture with osteoporosis?

Back 387

Thoracic and lumbar spine, femoral neck, promxial humerus, proximal tibia, pelvis and distal radius

Front 388

Which type of osteoporosis is directly related to a decrease in estrogen production?

Back 388

Primary or postmenopausal

Front 389

Which type of osteoporosis is due to a decrease in bone cell activity secondary to genetics or acquired abnormalities?

Back 389

Senile Osteoporosis

Front 390

Which medications can be used to treat osteoporosis?

Back 390

Calcium, Vitamin D, Estrogen, Calcitonin and biophosphonates

Front 391

Which diagnostic tests can be used to diagnose osteoporosis?

Back 391

CT scan for bone density, single and double absoprtionometry can be used, but is expensive

Front 392

What disease is characterized by decalcification of bones due to vitimin D deficiency?

Back 392

Osteomalacia

Front 393

What are the presenting symptoms of Osteomalacia?

Back 393

Severe pain, fractures, weakness and deformities

Front 394

What medications may be used to treat Osteomalacia?

Back 394

Calcium, Vitamin D, Calciferol

Front 395

What tests can be used to diagnose Osteomalacia?

Back 395

Plain films, urinalysis, blood tests, bone scan and bone biopsy

Front 396

What disease is characterized by an inflammatory response within bone caused by an infection?

Back 396

Osteomyelitis

Front 397

What organism is the usual cause of Osteomyelitis?

Back 397

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 398

What population is Osteomyelitis most prevalant in?

Back 398

children, immunoppressed and males

Front 399

How is Osteomyelitis treated medically?

Back 399

Antibiotics, Proper nutrition, surgery is possible especially if infection spreads to joints

Front 400

What tests can be used to diagnose Osteomyelitis?

Back 400

Lab tests and bone biopsy

Front 401

What disease is characterized by a congenital deformity of skeleton and soft tissues and limitation in joint motion and a "sausage-like" appearance of limbs?

Back 401

Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita

Front 402

What is the intelligence level of those with Arthrogryposis Multiplex Congenita?

Back 402

Normal

Front 403

What tests can be used to diagnose Arthrogryposis Multiplex Congenita?

Back 403

Plain Films

Front 404

What disease is characterized by an inherited disorder transmitted by an autosomal dominant gene, and results in abnormal collagen synthesis, leading to an imbalance between bone deposition and reabsorption and cortical and cancelous bones become very thin, leading to fractures and deformity of weight bearing bones

Back 404

Osteogensis imperfecta

Front 405

Which medications can be used to help treat Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

Back 405

Calcium, Vitamin D, Estrogen, Calcitonin and biophosphonates

Front 406

Which tests can be used to diagnose Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

Back 406

Bone scan and plain films will show old fractures and deformities. Serological testing is indicated

Front 407

What disease is characterized by a seperation of articular cartilage from underlying bone, usually involving medial femoral condyle near intercondylar notch; observed less frequently at femoral head and talar dome. Also effecting the humeral cpitellum

Back 407

Osteochondritis Dissecans

Front 408

When is surgery indicated for Osteochondritis Dissecans?

Back 408

When fracture is displaced

Front 409

What tests can be used to diagnose Osteochondritis Dissecans?

Back 409

Plain Film, CT scan

Front 410

What disease is characterized by a focal point of irritability found within a muscle?

Back 410

Myofascial Pain Syndrome

Front 411

What causes "Trigger points"?

Back 411

Sudden Overload, Overstretching, repetitive/sustained muscle activities

Front 412

What are some medical interventions for Myofascial Pain Syndrome?

Back 412

Dry needling, and injection of analgesic and possibly corticosteroids

Front 413

What condition is characterized by hypercellularity, hypervascularity, no inflammatory infiltrates, poor organization and loosening of collagen fibers?

Back 413

tendonosis/tendonopathy

Front 414

What medications can be used to treat tendinosis/tendinopathy?

Back 414

Acetominophen, NSAIDS, steorid injection

Front 415

What tests can be used to diagnose Tendinosis/Tendonopathy?

Back 415

MRI

Front 416

What condition is characterized by inflammation of bursa secondary to overuse, trauma, gout or infection

Back 416

Bursitis

Front 417

What are the signs and symptoms of Bursitis?

Back 417

Pain with rest, limited ROM not in a capsular pattern

Front 418

What medications can be used to treat bursitis?

Back 418

Acetominophen, NSAIDS, steorid injection

Front 419

What condition is characterized by an inflammatory response within a muscle following a traumatic event that caused mirotearing of the musculotendinous fibers.

Back 419

Muscle Strain

Front 420

What are the signs and symptoms of Muscle Strain?

Back 420

Pain and tenderness within muscle,

Front 421

What medications can be used to treat muscle strain?

Back 421

Acetominophen and/or NSAIDS

Front 422

What tests can be used to diagnose a muscle strain?

Back 422

MRI

Front 423

What condition is characterized by by a painful condition of abnormal calficication within a muscle belly?

Back 423

myositis ossificans

Front 424

What is a usual cause of myositis ossificans?

Back 424

Direct trauma that results in hematoma and calcification of the muscle, or aggressive physical therapy and mobilization following muscle trauma

Front 425

What are the most frequen locations for myositis ossificans?

Back 425

quadriceps, brachialis and biceps brachii

Front 426

What medications can be used to treat myositis ossificans?

Back 426

Acetominophen and/or NSAIDS

Front 427

When is surgical intervention of myositis ossificans indicated?

Back 427

When condition is nonhereditary and after maturation of lesion (6-24 months) and if lesion is mechanically limiting movement or impinging nerves

Front 428

What diagnostic tests can be used to diagnose myositis ossificans?

Back 428

Plain film, CT scan and/or MRI

Front 429

What was Complex Regional Pain Syndrome formerly known as?

Back 429

Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy (RSD)

Front 430

Which condition results in dysfunction of sympathetic nervous system to include pain, circulation and vasomotor disturbances?

Back 430

Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy (RSD)

Front 431

What is the difference between CRPS I and CRPS II?

Back 431

CRPS does not involve nerve injury

Front 432

What are some possible medical interventions for CRPS?

Back 432

Nerve block, sympathectomy, spinal cord stimulation, intrathecal drug pumps

Front 433

What medications can be used to treat CRPS?

Back 433

Topical analgesics, antiseizure drugs, antidepressants, corticosteroids and opioids

Front 434

What are some long-term changes associated with CRPS?

Back 434

Muscle wasting, trophic skin changes, decreased bone density, decreased proprioception, loss of muscle strength and joint contractures

Front 435

What is another name for Paget's Disease?

Back 435

Osteitis Deformans

Front 436

What is the etiology of Paget's Disease?

Back 436

Largely unknown, but thought to be linked to a type of viral infection along with environmental factors

Front 437

What disease is characterized by a metabolic bone disease involving abnormal osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity?

Back 437

Osteitis Deformans

Front 438

What other conditions can Paget's disease lead to?

Back 438

Spinal stenosis, facet arthropathy, possible spinal fracture

Front 439

What medications can be used to treat Paget's Disease?

Back 439

Acetominophen, calcitonin, etidronate disodium to limit osteoclast activity

Front 440

What tests can be used to diagnose Paget's Disease?

Back 440

Plain film images and lab tests for increased serum alkaline phosphatase and urinary hydroxiproline

Front 441

What are the two types of idiopathic scoliosis?

Back 441

Structural and non-structural

Front 442

What type of scoliosis is an irreversible lateral curvature of spine with a rotational component?

Back 442

Structural Scoliosis

Front 443

What type of scoliosis is a reversible lateral curvature of the spine without a rotational component, which straightens as the individual flexes the spine?

Back 443

Nonstructural scoliosis

Front 444

What are the possible interventions for structural scoliosis of < 25 degrees?

Back 444

Conservative PT

Front 445

What are the possible interventions for structural scoliosis of 25 - 45 degrees?

Back 445

Spinal orthoses

Front 446

What are the possible interventions for structural scoliosis of >45 degrees?

Back 446

Surgery

Front 447

What tests can be used to diagnose scoliosis?

Back 447

Plain film using full-length Cobb's method. CT scan and/or MRI to rule out associated conditions

Front 448

What condition is characterized as a spasm and/or tightness of SCM?

Back 448

Torticollis

Front 449

What dysfunction is seen with torticollis?

Back 449

Side bending toward and rotation away from affected side

Front 450

What medications may be used to treat torticollis?

Back 450

Acetaminophen, muscle relaxants and/or NSAIDS

Front 451

In which direction do most shoulder dislocations occur?

Back 451

95% occur anterior

Front 452

How does an anterior-inferior glenohumeral dislocation occur?

Back 452

When abducted UE is forcefully ER, causing tearing of inferior glonohumeral ligament, anterior capsule and glenoid labrum

Front 453

What condition presents as intermittent mild pain with overheade activities?

Back 453

External Primary Impingement (Stage I)

Front 454

What condition presents as mild to moderate pain with overhead activities or strenuous activities?

Back 454

External Primary Impingement (Stage II)

Front 455

What condition presents as pain at rest or with activities, possible night pain, scapular or rotator cuff weakness?

Back 455

External Primary Impingement (Stage III)

Front 456

What condition presents as pain shoulder at night, weakness predominantly in abduction and ER and loss of shoulder ROM?

Back 456

Full thickness RCT

Front 457

What condition presents as inability to perform ADLs owing to lack of ROM

Back 457

Adhesive Capsulitis

Front 458

What condition presents as apprehension to mechanical shifting, slipping, popping or sliding, apprehension with horizontal abduction and ER, anterior or posterior pain and weak scapular stabilizers?

Back 458

Anterior shoulder instability

Front 459

What condition presents as slipping or popping of the humerus posterior, possibly associated with forward flexion and medial rotation while under a compression load

Back 459

Posterior instability

Front 460

What condition presents as looseness of shoulder in all direction, usually most pronounced while carrying an item or turning over in bed. Pain may or may not be present

Back 460

Multidirectional shoulder instability

Front 461

Nerve damage to what nerve can present with inability to abduct arm beyond 90 degrees and pain in should on abduction?

Back 461

Spinal Accessory

Front 462

Nerve damage to what nerve can present with pain on flexing fully extended arm, inability to flex full extended arm and winging starts at 90 degrees forward flexion?

Back 462

Long Thoracic Nerve

Front 463

Nerve damage to what nerve can present with increase pain on forward shoulder flexion, shoulder weakness, pain with scapular abduction and pain with contralateral cervical rotation?

Back 463

Suprascapular Nerve

Front 464

Nerve damage to what nerve can present with inability to abduct arm with neutral rotation?

Back 464

Axillary Nerve

Front 465

When does posterior shoulder dislocation most commonly occur?

Back 465

Horizontal adduction and IR

Front 466

What are some possible complications with posterior dislocation?

Back 466

Humeral head compression fracture, SLAP tear, avulsion of anteroinferior capsule and ligaments and bruising of axillary nerve

Front 467

What tests can be done to diagnose shoulder dislocation?

Back 467

Plain film, CT and/or MRI and apprehension tests

Front 468

What medications can be used to treat shoulder dislocation?

Back 468

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 469

What are the two types of shoulder instability?

Back 469

Traumatic and Atraumatic

Front 470

How do you characterize shoulder instability?

Back 470

popping/clicking and repeated dislocation

Front 471

Unstable shoulder injuries require what type of surgery?

Back 471

Reattach the labrum to the glenoid.

Front 472

What test can be used to diagnose shoulder instability?

Back 472

MRI to look for labral tears

Front 473

What medications can be used to treat shoulder instability?

Back 473

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 474

What is the typical protocol following shoulder instability surgery?

Back 474

SHoulder in sling for 3-4 weeks. After 6 weeks sport-specific training, but full recovery not until 3-4 months

Front 475

What are the two types of Glenoid Labrum injuries?

Back 475

Superior and Inferior

Front 476

What is a SLAP lesion?

Back 476

Tear of the Glenoid Labrum above the middle of the socket

Front 477

What is a Bankhart lesion?

Back 477

Tear of the Glenoid Labrum below the middle of the socket

Front 478

What structure other than the labrum is usually affected in a Bankhart lesion?

Back 478

Inferior Glenohumeral ligament

Front 479

What are the presenting symptoms of a labral tear?

Back 479

General shoulder pain with no localized points. Pain worse w/ overhead activities or arm behind back. Weakness, Shoulder instability. Pain with resisted flexion of biceps. Tenderness over anterior portion of shoulder

Front 480

What type of Gelnoid labrum tears require surgery?

Back 480

Unstable, and bankhart always requires surgery

Front 481

What tests can be used to diagnose glenoid labrum tears?

Back 481

MRI. Arthroscopic surgery is gold standard

Front 482

What medications can be used to treat glenoid labrum tears?

Back 482

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 483

What is the typical protocol following glenoid labral tear surgery?

Back 483

SHoulder in sling for 3-4 weeks. After 6 weeks sport-specific training, but full recovery not until 3-4 months

Front 484

What are the 4 common areas for Thoracic Outlet Syndrome to occur?

Back 484

Superior thoacic outlet, scalene triangle, Between clavicle and first rib, Between pectoralis minor and thoracic wall

Front 485

What are some possible surgeries to treat Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?

Back 485

Removing a cervical rib or release of anterior and/or middle scalene muscle

Front 486

What tests can be utilized to diagnose Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?

Back 486

plain film imaging to look for abnormal bony anatomy, MRI to look for abnormal soft tissue anatomy and electrodiagnostic to look for nerve dystunction

Front 487

What special tests can be used to diagnose Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?

Back 487

Adson's Test, Roos Test, Wright Test, Costoclavicular Test

Front 488

What medications can be used to treat Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

Back 488

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 489

What is the usual mechanism of injury for AC or SC joint seperation?

Back 489

Fall onto shoulder with UE adducted

Front 490

What is the usual protocol for AC or SC joint seperation post-surgery?

Back 490

UE in neutral with sling and no shoulder elevation during acute phase

Front 491

What tests can be used to diagnose an AC or SC joint seperation?

Back 491

Plain Film

Front 492

Which special test can be used to diagnose AC or SC joint seperation?

Back 492

Shear Test

Front 493

Why is surgical repair following an AC or SC joint seperation rare?

Back 493

Due to tendency of AC joint to degenerate

Front 494

What medications can be used to treat AC or SC joint seperation?

Back 494

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 495

Why are rotator cuff muscles susceptible to tendonitis?

Back 495

Poor blodd supply to insertion of muscles

Front 496

What tests can be used to diagnose Rotator Cuff Tendonopathy?

Back 496

MRI, but sometimes is not accurate enough

Front 497

What special tests can be used to diagnose Rotator Cuff Tendonopathy?

Back 497

Supraspinatus Test, Neer's Impingement Test

Front 498

What medications can be used to treat Rotator Cuff Tendonopathy?

Back 498

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 499

What tests can be used to diagnose Impingement Syndrome?

Back 499

Arthrogram or MRI

Front 500

What special tests can be used to diagnose Impingement Syndrome?

Back 500

Neer's Impingement Test, Supraspinatus Test, Drop Arm Test

Front 501

What should the patient avoid after surgical repair of shoulder impingement?

Back 501

Elevation greater than 90 degrees

Front 502

What medications can be used to treat Impingement Syndrome?

Back 502

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 503

What condition is characterized by an irritaqtion between the rotator cuff and greater tuberosity or posterior glenoid and labrum?

Back 503

Internal (Posterior) Impingement

Front 504

What special test can be used to diagnose Internal (Posterior) Impingement?

Back 504

Posterior Internal Impingement Test

Front 505

What medications can be used to treat Internal (Posterior) Impingement?

Back 505

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 506

What tests can be used to treat Bicipital Tendonsis/Tendonopathy

Back 506

MRI, but sometimes is not accurate enough

Front 507

What special test can be used to diagnose Bicipital Tendonosis/Tendonopathy?

Back 507

Speed's Test

Front 508

What medications can be used to treat Bicipital Tendonosis/Tendonopathy?

Back 508

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 509

What condition is characterized as a fracture that typically occurs through FOOSH, to osteoporotic women and generally does not require immobilization or surgical repair?

Back 509

Proximal Humeral Fracture

Front 510

What condition is characterized as a fracture that typically occurs middle aged and older adults, usually resulting from a fall on the shoulder and does not require immobilization?

Back 510

Greater Tuberosity Fracture

Front 511

What test can be used to diagnose proximal humeral fracture?

Back 511

Plain Film Imaging

Front 512

What medications can be used to treat proximal humeral fracture?

Back 512

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 513

What condition is characterized by a restriction in shoulder motion as a result of inflammation and fibrosis of the shoulder capsule due to disuse following injury or repetitive microtrauma?

Back 513

Adhesive Capsulitis

Front 514

What is the order of limitations in ROM with Adhesive Capsulitis?

Back 514

ER > Abd, Flex > IR

Front 515

What disease is commonly seen in association with adhesive capsulitis>

Back 515

Diabetes Mellitus

Front 516

What medication can be used to treat adhesive capsulities?

Back 516

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 517

What condition is characterized by a loss of motion in a capsular pattern (flexion > extension) in the elbow?

Back 517

Elbow Contracture

Front 518

What medications can be used to treat elbow contractures?

Back 518

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 519

What treatments can be used to correct the biomechanical faults of elbow contracture?

Back 519

Joint mobilization to the specific restriction

Front 520

What is an alternative to Physical Therapy for elbow contractures?

Back 520

Splinting

Front 521

What special test can be used to diagnose Internal (Posterior) Impingement?

Back 521

Posterior Internal Impingement Test

Front 522

What medications can be used to treat Internal (Posterior) Impingement?

Back 522

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 523

What tests can be used to treat Bicipital Tendonsis/Tendonopathy

Back 523

MRI, but sometimes is not accurate enough

Front 524

What special test can be used to diagnose Bicipital Tendonosis/Tendonopathy?

Back 524

Speed's Test

Front 525

What medications can be used to treat Bicipital Tendonosis/Tendonopathy?

Back 525

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 526

What condition is characterized as a fracture that typically occurs through FOOSH, to osteoporotic women and generally does not require immobilization or surgical repair?

Back 526

Proximal Humeral Fracture

Front 527

What condition is characterized as a fracture that typically occurs middle aged and older adults, usually resulting from a fall on the shoulder and does not require immobilization?

Back 527

Greater Tuberosity Fracture

Front 528

What test can be used to diagnose proximal humeral fracture?

Back 528

Plain Film Imaging

Front 529

What medications can be used to treat proximal humeral fracture?

Back 529

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 530

What condition is characterized by a restriction in shoulder motion as a result of inflammation and fibrosis of the shoulder capsule due to disuse following injury or repetitive microtrauma?

Back 530

Adhesive Capsulitis

Front 531

What is the order of limitations in ROM with Adhesive Capsulitis?

Back 531

ER > Abd, Flex > IR

Front 532

What disease is commonly seen in association with adhesive capsulitis>

Back 532

Diabetes Mellitus

Front 533

What medication can be used to treat adhesive capsulities?

Back 533

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 534

What condition is characterized by a loss of motion in a capsular pattern (flexion > extension) in the elbow?

Back 534

Elbow Contracture

Front 535

What medications can be used to treat elbow contractures?

Back 535

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 536

What treatments can be used to correct the biomechanical faults of elbow contracture?

Back 536

Joint mobilization to the specific restriction

Front 537

What is an alternative to Physical Therapy for elbow contractures?

Back 537

Splinting

Front 538

What condition is characterized by a chronic degeneration of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon at its proximal attachment to the lateral epidonyle of the humerus?

Back 538

Lateral Epicondylitis

Front 539

What must be ruled out when dealing with Lateral Epicondylitis?

Back 539

Cervical Spine condition

Front 540

What medications can be used to treat lateral epicondylitis?

Back 540

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 541

What type of bracing can be used to treat lateral epidonylitis?

Back 541

Counterforce Bracing

Front 542

What condition is characterized by a degeneration of the pronator teres and flesor carpi radialis tendons at their attachment to the medial epicondyle of the humerus

Back 542

Medial Epicondylitis

Front 543

What are complications that can be seen with a distal humerus fracture?

Back 543

Loss of motion, myositis ossificans, malalignment, neurovascular compromise, ligamentous injury and CRPS

Front 544

What are some factors to consider when dealing with supracondylar humeral fractures?

Back 544

Neurovascular compromise (Volkmann's Ischemia), growth plates, malunion

Front 545

Are older/younger people more prone to lateral epicondyle fractures?

Back 545

Younger

Front 546

True/False: Lateral epicondyle fractures commonly must have an ORIF to ensure proper alignment?

Back 546

TRUE

Front 547

What medications can be used to treat distal humerus fractures?

Back 547

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 548

What condition is characterized by the osteochondral bone fragment becoming detached from articular surface and forming a loose body in the joint?

Back 548

Osteochondrosis Dessicans of Humeral Capitellum

Front 549

What causes Osteochondrosis Dessicans of the Humeral Capitellum?

Back 549

Repetitive compressive forces between radial head and humeral capitellum

Front 550

Which age group is most likely to get Osteochondrosis Dessicans of the Humeral Capitellum?

Back 550

Adolescents between 12 and 15

Front 551

Which condition is characterized by a localized avascular necrosis of capitellum leading to loss of subchondral bone, with fissuring and softening of articular sufraces of radiocapitellar joint.

Back 551

Panner's Disease

Front 552

What is the etiology of Panner's Disease?

Back 552

Unknown

Front 553

What medications can be used to treat Osteochondrosis Dessicans of the Humeral Capitellum?

Back 553

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 554

While treating Osteochondrosis Dessicans of the Humeral Capitellum, when is it appropriate to being flexibility and strengthening exercises?

Back 554

When the patient is pain free

Front 555

What condition is characterized by a chronic degeneration of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon at its proximal attachment to the lateral epidonyle of the humerus?

Back 555

Lateral Epicondylitis

Front 556

When are flexibility exercises started after surgical repair of Osteochondrosis Dessicans of the Humeral Capitellum?

Back 556

Immediately following surgery

Front 557

What medications can be used to treat Ulnar Collateral Ligament Injuries?

Back 557

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 558

What are some causes of ulnar nerve entrapment?

Back 558

Direct trauma, traction due to laxity at medial aspect of elbow, compression due to thickened retinaculum or hypertrophy of flexor carpi ulnaris, recurrent subluxation or dislocation, DJD

Front 559

What are some potential clinical findings with ulnar nerve entrapment?

Back 559

Medial elbow pain, parasthesias in ulnar nerve distribution, positive tinel's sign

Front 560

Where are the two spots that median nerve entrapment occur?

Back 560

Within pronator teres muscle and under flexor digitorum superficialis

Front 561

What are some clinical signs of median nerve entrapment?

Back 561

aching pain with weakness of forearm muscles, positive tinel's sign, parasthesias in median nerve distribution

Front 562

Where does Radial nerve entrapment occur?

Back 562

Radial tunnel

Front 563

What are some clinical signs of radial nerve entrapment?

Back 563

Lateral elbow pain sometimes confused with Lateral Epicondylitis, pain over supinator muscle, parasthesias in radial nerve distribution, positive tinel's sign

Front 564

What medications can be used to treat Nerve Entrapments?

Back 564

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation, neurontin for nerve pain

Front 565

What direction do most elbow dislocations occur?

Back 565

Posterior

Front 566

What other injury usually occurs with posterior elbow dislocation?

Back 566

Medial Epicondyle Fracture from pull on medial collateral ligament

Front 567

What other structures may be injured with a complete elbow dislocation?

Back 567

Ulnar Collateral Ligament, anterior capsule, lateral collateral ligament, brachialis muscle, wrist flexor/extensor muscles

Front 568

What medications can be used to treat Elbow dislocation?

Back 568

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 569

What are 3 other things that need to be ruled out if you think you may be seeing carpel tunnel syndrome?

Back 569

Cervical Spine Dysfunction, thoracic outlet syndrome, peripheral nerve entrapment

Front 570

What medications can be used to treat carpel tunnel syndrome?

Back 570

Acetominophen for pain, NSAIDS for pain and/or inflammation

Front 571

What condition is characterized by inflammation of extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons at first dorsal compartment?

Back 571

De Quervain's Tenosynovitis

Front 572

What are 2 possible causes of De Quervain's Tenosynovitis?

Back 572

Repetitive microtrauma or swelling from pregnancy

Front 573

What are some clinical signs of De Quervain's Tenosynovitis?

Back 573

Pain at anatomical snuff box, swelling, decreased grip and pinch strength, positive finkelstein's test

Front 574

When are flexibility exercises started after surgical repair of Osteochondrosis Dessicans of the Humeral Capitellum?

Back 574

Immediately following surgery

Front 575

How long are Colles' fractures immobilized?

Back 575

5-8 weeks

Front 576

What is a common complication after edema associated with a Colles' fracture?

Back 576

Median Nerve compression

Front 577

What defomity is common with Colles' fractures?

Back 577

Dinner fork, resulting from posterior displacement of distal fragment of radius with a radial shift of wrist and hand

Front 578

What are some comon complications after a Colles Fracture?

Back 578

Loss of motion, decreased grip strength, CRPS, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Front 579

What condition is characterized by the fracturing and volar displacement of the distal radius?

Back 579

Smith's fracture

Front 580

What is the most common way to suffer a scaphoid fracture?

Back 580

FOOSH

Front 581

True/False: Scaphoid fractures are most common in older adults?

Back 581

FALSE

Front 582

What is the most commonly fractured carpal?

Back 582

Scaphoid

Front 583

What is a common complication with a scaphoid fracture?

Back 583

Avascular necrosis of the proximal fragment

Front 584

How long are the carpals immobilizaed following a scaphoid fracture?

Back 584

5-8 weeks

Front 585

What condition is characterized by banding on palms and digit flexion resulting from contracture of palmar fascia that adheres to skin

Back 585

Depuytren's Contracture

Front 586

Does Depuytren's Contracture affect men or women more?

Back 586

Men

Front 587

What structures does a Depuytren's Contracture usually affect?

Back 587

MCP, PIP of 4th and 5h digit in non-diabetic, 3rd and 4th in diabetic

Front 588

What condition is characterized by the rupturing of the central tendinous slip of the extensor hood and results in extension of the MCP and DIP and flexion of the PIP?

Back 588

Boutonniere Deformity

Front 589

What are the two most common causes of a boutonniere deformity?

Back 589

trauma or degeneration from rheumatoid arthritis

Front 590

What condition is a result of contracture of intrinsic hand muscles with dorsal subluxation of lateral extensor tendons

Back 590

Swan Neck Deformity

Front 591

What condition is characterized by flexion of the MCP and DIP and extension of the PIP?

Back 591

Swan Neck Deformity

Front 592

What are two likely causes for a swan neck deformity?

Back 592

trauma or degeneration from rheumatoid arthritis

Front 593

What is an ape hand deformity?

Back 593

Thenar muscle wasting, with first digit moving dorsally until it is in line with the second digit

Front 594

How long are Colles' fractures immobilized?

Back 594

5-8 weeks

Front 595

What condition is characterized by a rupture or avulsion of extensor tendon at its insertion in to distal phalanx of digit

Back 595

Mallet finger

Front 596

What deformity is associated with mallet finger?

Back 596

Flexion of DIP

Front 597

What usually causes mallet finger?

Back 597

Trauma involving forced flexion of distal phalanx

Front 598

What is a sprain/rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament of the MCP joint of the first finger called?

Back 598

Gamekeeper's Thumb

Front 599

What instability is common with Gamekeeper's thumb?

Back 599

Medial instability of the thumb

Front 600

What is a common mechanism of injury for Gamekeeper's Thumb?

Back 600

Falling on to ski pole while skiing

Front 601

How long is a gamekeeper's thumb immoblized after injury?

Back 601

6 weeks

Front 602

What is a fracture of the fifth metacarpal called?

Back 602

Boxer's Fracture

Front 603

What is the medical intervention commonly used for a boxer's fracture?

Back 603

Casting for 2-4 weeks

Front 604

What is avascular necrosis of the hip?

Back 604

Impaired blood supply to the femoral head from multiple possible etiologies

Front 605

How does avascular necrosis affect hip ROM?

Back 605

Decreases flexion, IR and abduction

Front 606

What are symptoms associated with Avascular Necrosis of the Hip?

Back 606

Pain in the grown and/or thigh and tenderness with palpation at the hip joint

Front 607

What medication is contraindicated with Avascular Necrosis and why?

Back 607

Corticosteroids because they may be a causative factor

Front 608

What is the average age of onset for Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

Back 608

2-13 years, average 6

Front 609

True/False: Legg-Calve-Perthes is 4 times more likely in males than females?

Back 609

TRUE

Front 610

What is a common gait dysfunction with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

Back 610

Psoatic Limp from weak psoas major, LE moves in ER, flexion and adduction

Front 611

Which AROM is limited with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

Back 611

Abduction and extension

Front 612

What finding on an MRI can indicate Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

Back 612

Positive Bony Crescent Sign (collapse of subchondral bone at femoral neck/head)

Front 613

What is the most common hip disorder in adolescents?

Back 613

Slipped Capital Epiphysis

Front 614

What is the usual onset age of Slipped Capital Epiphysis in males?

Back 614

10-17, average 13

Front 615

What condition is characterized by a rupture or avulsion of extensor tendon at its insertion in to distal phalanx of digit

Back 615

Mallet finger

Front 616

True/False: Females are twice as likely to be diagnosed with Slipped Capital Epiphysis?

Back 616

False (Males)

Front 617

How is the AROM at the hip effected with a slipped capital epiphysis?

Back 617

Abduction, Flexion and IR are limited

Front 618

What will show on an MRI with a slipped capital epiphysis?

Back 618

Positive displacement of upper femoral epiphysis

Front 619

What is excessive femoral anteversion?

Back 619

Anteversion of greater than 25-30 degrees

Front 620

What dysfunctions can excessive femoral anteversion lead to?

Back 620

Squinting patellae and toeing in

Front 621

What is femoreal retroversion?

Back 621

anterior angle of femoral head less than 0 degrees

Front 622

What special test can help to identify excessive femoral anteversion?

Back 622

Craig's Test

Front 623

What is the term for an angle of the femoral neck with shaft of femur <115?

Back 623

Coxa Vara

Front 624

What is the term for an angle of the femoral neck with shaft of femur >125?

Back 624

Coxa Valga

Front 625

What is one possible cause of coxa vara?

Back 625

Defect in ossification of the head of the femur

Front 626

What is a possible cause of coxa vara or valga?

Back 626

Necrosis of femoral head occuring with septic arthritis

Front 627

What are 3 possible causes of trochanteric bursitis?

Back 627

Direct trauma, irritation by IT band and biomechanical/gait abnormalities causing repetitive microtrauma

Front 628

Trochanteric Bursitis is common in patient with what comorbidity?

Back 628

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Front 629

What are 2 possible causes of IT band syndrome?

Back 629

Tight IT Band, Gait abnormalities

Front 630

What foot gait abnormality can affect the piriformis?

Back 630

Excessive pronation of the foot which causes abnormal femoral IR

Front 631

Compression of the sciatic nerve and/or SI joint dysfunction can be caused by tightness of which muscle?

Back 631

Piriformis

Front 632

What are 5 possible signs/symptoms of piriformis dysfunction?

Back 632

Restriction in IR, Pain with palpation of piriformis, referral of pain to posterior thigh, weakness in ER, uneven sacral base

Front 633

What is the "unhappy triad"?

Back 633

MCL, ACL, Medial Meniscus tear

Front 634

What is the MOI for the "unhappy triad"?

Back 634

Valgum, Flexion, ER

Front 635

What is the trouble with using MRI to diagnose ACL or MCL tear?

Back 635

It is hard to visualize the entire ligament, so even if they are intact they can be mistaken for being torn

Front 636

What is the MOI for a meniscal tear?

Back 636

A combination of tibiofemoral flexion, compression and rotation

Front 637

True/False: Females are twice as likely to be diagnosed with Slipped Capital Epiphysis?

Back 637

False (Males)

Front 638

What two special tests are useful in diagnosing a meniscal tear?

Back 638

McMurray's and Apley's

Front 639

What could patella alta possibly lead to?

Back 639

Chronic patella subluxation

Front 640

What is a positive camel back sign?

Back 640

Two bumps over anterior patella instead of one is a sign of patella alta. One bump superior between femoral condyles and second bump is tibial tuberosity

Front 641

What can patella baja lead to?

Back 641

Restricted knee extension with abnormal cartilaginous wearing

Front 642

What condition is characterized by a mechanical dysfunction resulting in traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle at the patellar tendon insertion?

Back 642

Osgood-Schlatter disease

Front 643

What tests can be used to diagnose Osgood-Schlatter disease?

Back 643

Plain film imaging will show irregularities of the epiphyseal line

Front 644

What is the normal tibial shaft angle?

Back 644

6 degrees of valgum

Front 645

What is the common term for excessive medial tibial torsion or genu varum?

Back 645

Bowlegged

Front 646

What dysfunctions does genu varum cause?

Back 646

Medial patellar positioning and pigeon-toed orientation of the feet

Front 647

What is the common term for excessive lateral tibial torsion or genu valgum?

Back 647

Knock kneed

Front 648

What dysfunction does genu valgum cause?

Back 648

Lateral patellar positioning

Front 649

Which femoral condyle is most often fractured?

Back 649

Medial due to its anatomical design

Front 650

What is the most common MOI for femoral condyle fracture?

Back 650

Fall on to knee

Front 651

What is the most common MOI for tibial plateau fracture?

Back 651

Combination of valgum and compression forces to knee when knee is flexed

Front 652

What injury is usually concurrent with a tibial plateau fracture?

Back 652

MCL tear

Front 653

What is a common MOI for an epiphyseal plate fracture?

Back 653

Weight bearing with torsional stress

Front 654

An adolescent is most likely to injure their epiphyseal plate during weight bearing with torsional stress, which structure are adults more likely to injure in the same circumstance?

Back 654

ACL

Front 655

What is the most common MOI for a patella fracture?

Back 655

Fall directly onto patella

Front 656

When might a CT scan be beneficial to use with a fracture?

Back 656

When it is a complex fracture

Front 657

What condition is characterized by increased anterior compartmental pressure resulting in a local ischmic condition?

Back 657

Anterior Compartment syndrome

Front 658

What can cause Anterior Compartment Syndrome?

Back 658

Direct trauma, fracture, overuse and/or muscle atrophy

Front 659

What are the signs/symptoms of Anterior Compartment Syndrome?

Back 659

Deep cramping pain following exercise or exertion

Front 660

What two special tests are useful in diagnosing a meniscal tear?

Back 660

McMurray's and Apley's

Front 661

What are 3 common etiologies of Anterior Tibial Periostitis?

Back 661

Abnormal biomechanical alignment, poor conditioning, improper training methods

Front 662

What 2 muscles are involved in Anterior Compartment Syndrome?

Back 662

Tibialis Anterior and extensor hallucis longus

Front 663

What is a main clinical sign of Anterior Compartment Syndrome?

Back 663

Palpation of lateral tibia and anterior compartment is painful

Front 664

What condition is characterized as an overuse injury of the posterior tibialis and/or the medial soleus resulting in periosteal inflammation at the muscular attachment?

Back 664

Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome

Front 665

What is the etiology of posterior tibial stress syndrome?

Back 665

Excessive pronation

Front 666

What is the clinical sign of Posterior Tibial Stress Syndrome?

Back 666

Pain elicited with palpation of the distal posteromedial border of the tibia

Front 667

What condition is characterized as an overuse injury resulting most often in microfracture of the tibia or the fibula?

Back 667

Stress Fracture

Front 668

What percent of stress fractures involve the tibia?

Back 668

49%

Front 669

What percent of stress fractures involve the fibula?

Back 669

10%

Front 670

What are 3 common etiologies of a stress fracture?

Back 670

Abnormal biomechanics, poor conditioning and improper training methods

Front 671

95% of all ankle sprain affect the medial or lateral side?

Back 671

Lateral

Front 672

What grade of ankle sprain is characterized by no loss of function, minimal tearing of ATFL?

Back 672

Grade I

Front 673

What grade of ankle sprain is characterized by some loss of function, and partial disruption of the ATFL and calcaneofibular ligaments

Back 673

Grade II

Front 674

What grade of ankle sprain is characterized by complete loss of function, completee tearing of ATFL and calcaneofigular ligament and partial teear of the posterior talofibular ligament?

Back 674

Grade III

Front 675

What two tests can be used to look for ankle instability?

Back 675

Anterior Drawer and talar tilt

Front 676

What clinical test can be used to test for Achilles tendonosis/tendonopathy?

Back 676

Thompson's Test

Front 677

What is the difference between the fundamental position and anatomical position?

Back 677

Fundamental position palms face toward the sides of the body

Front 678

When is the fundamental position used?

Back 678

When discussing rotation of the UE

Front 679

What structures are involved in a trimalleolar fracture?

Back 679

Medial malleolus, lateral malleolus and posterior tubercle of the distal tibia

Front 680

What 3 types of foot/ankle fractures can be of particular concern?

Back 680

Growth plate fractures, Salter-Harris type III and type IV fractures

Front 681

Which bone connects the upper limb to the axial skeleton and is also the first bone in the body to ossify?

Back 681

Clavicle

Front 682

What are the three functions of the clavicle?

Back 682

Acts as a structure for holding the upper limb free from the trunk to allow freedom of movement, provides attachments for muscles, transmits forces from the upper limb to the axial skeleton

Front 683

Where does the clavicle usually fracture?

Back 683

At the junction of the medial two-thirds and its lateral one third, medial to the attachment of the coracoclavicular ligament

Front 684

What are 3 common etiologies of Anterior Tibial Periostitis?

Back 684

Abnormal biomechanical alignment, poor conditioning, improper training methods

Front 685

Which ribs does the scapula cover?

Back 685

2nd - 7th

Front 686

What two bones does the scapula connect?

Back 686

Clavicle to humerus

Front 687

What is the etiology of tarsal tunnel syndrome?

Back 687

Over/excessive pronation, resulting in tendonitis of the long flexor and posterior tibialis tendon

Front 688

What are the signs/symptoms of tarsal tunnel syndrome?

Back 688

Pain, numbness, parasthesias along the medial ankle to the plantar surface of the foot

Front 689

What is a clinical test that can be used to test for tarsal tunnel syndrome?

Back 689

Tinel's test at tarsal tunnel

Front 690

What condition of the foot is commonly seen with ballet performers?

Back 690

Flexor Hallucis Tendonopathy

Front 691

What joint is a saddle-shped synovial joint that has an intra-articular disc and sternoclavicular ligament?

Back 691

SC Joint

Front 692

True/False: The SC joint is usually injured before the AC joint and clavicle?

Back 692

FALSE

Front 693

Which joint is a plane synovial joint between the acromion process of the scapula and lateral end of the clavicle?

Back 693

Acromioclavicular joint

Front 694

Which ligament stabilizes the AC joint and prevents upward displacement of the humeral head?

Back 694

Coracoclavicular Ligament

Front 695

Which muscle is covered by the coracoclavicular ligament?

Back 695

Supraspinatus

Front 696

What does Pes Cavus mean?

Back 696

Hollow Foot

Front 697

What are the etiologies of Pes Cavus?

Back 697

Genetic dispositiion, neurological disorders which lead to muscle inbalance, contracture of soft tissue

Front 698

What common UE condition can the Coracoclavicular ligament be involved with?

Back 698

Impingement Syndrome

Front 699

What ligaments make up the coracoclavicular ligament?

Back 699

Trapezoid and conoid ligaments

Front 700

What is the purpose of the coracoclavicular ligament?

Back 700

Prevents seperation of the scapula from the clavicle

Front 701

What structure does the acromioclavicular ligament cover?

Back 701

Superior aspect of the AC joint

Front 702

What is a Salter-Harris Type I fracture?

Back 702

Entire epiphysis

Front 703

What is the common cause of a Salter-Harris type I fracture?

Back 703

Shearing, torsion or avulsion

Front 704

What is the prognosis for a Satler-Harris type I fracture?

Back 704

Good, with very few complications to growth of the bone

Front 705

What is the proper medical management of a Salter-Harris type I fracture?

Back 705

Relocated if necessary and immobilized with a cast

Front 706

What is a Salter-Harris Type II fracture?

Back 706

Entire epiphysis and portion of the metaphysis

Front 707

What is the common cause of a Salter-Harris type II fracture?

Back 707

Shearing, avulsion with angular force

Front 708

What is the prognosis for a Satler-Harris type II fracture?

Back 708

May cause decreased bone growth, but typically minimal

Front 709

Which ribs does the scapula cover?

Back 709

2nd - 7th

Front 710

What is a Salter-Harris Type III fracture?

Back 710

Portion of the epiphysis

Front 711

What is the common cause of a Salter-Harris type III fracture?

Back 711

Typically when growth plate is partially fused

Front 712

What is the prognosis for a Satler-Harris type III fracture?

Back 712

May lead to long term problems, but rarely result in long term signficant deformity

Front 713

What is the proper medical management of a Salter-Harris type III fracture?

Back 713

Relocated and immobilized, rarely need surgical intervention

Front 714

What is a Salter-Harris Type IV fracture?

Back 714

Portion of the epiphysis and portion of the metaphysis

Front 715

What is the common cause of a Salter-Harris type IV fracture?

Back 715

Typically occurs when growth plate is partially fused

Front 716

What is the prognosis for a Satler-Harris type IV fracture?

Back 716

Since this fracture interferes with the cartilage growth, it may lead to premature focal fusion of the involved bone causing deformity of the joint

Front 717

What is the proper medical management of a Salter-Harris type IV fracture?

Back 717

Generally surgery is necessary to restore alignment

Front 718

What is a Salter-Harris Type V fracture?

Back 718

Compression injury of the epiphyseal plate

Front 719

What is the common cause of a Salter-Harris type V fracture?

Back 719

Compressing or crush injury

Front 720

What is the prognosis for a Satler-Harris type V fracture?

Back 720

Growth disturbances and generally have poor functional prognosis

Front 721

What is the proper medical management of a Salter-Harris type V fracture?

Back 721

Usually not discovered until after the fact, if it is identified acutely, patient is put on NWB protocols

Front 722

What deformities are associated with Pes Cavus?

Back 722

Increased height of longitudinal arches, dropping of anterior arch, metatarsal heads lower than hindfoot, plantar flexion and splaying of forefoot and claw toes

Front 723

What structures help to stabilize the glenohumeral joint?

Back 723

atnerior capsule, posterior capsule, glenoid labrum, long head of biceps

Front 724

How does pes cavus limit function?

Back 724

Altered arthrokinematics, reducing ability to absorb forces through the foot

Front 725

What 3 structures helpto prevent anterior translation of the glenohumeral joint?

Back 725

Superior glenohumeral ligament, middle glenohumeral ligament and inferior glenohumeral ligament

Front 726

What are 3 possible interventions for pes cavus?

Back 726

Avoidance of high impact sports, proper footwear, fitting for orthoses

Front 727

What does pes planus mean?

Back 727

flat foot

Front 728

What are 7 possible etiologies for pes planus?

Back 728

Genetic predisposition, muscle weakness, ligamentous laxity, paralysis, excessive pronation, trauma, disease

Front 729

True/False: Pes Planus is normal in infant feet?

Back 729

TRUE

Front 730

What deformity is noticed in pes planus?

Back 730

A reduction in the height of medial longitudinal arch

Front 731

What is one functional limitation caused by pes planus?

Back 731

Decreased ability of foot to provide a rigid lever for push-off during gait

Front 732

What does talipes equinovarus?

Back 732

Clubfoot

Front 733

What are the two types of clubfoot?

Back 733

Postural and talipes equinovarus?

Front 734

During the first 90 degrees of shoulder abduction, how much does the clavicle elevate at the SC joint?

Back 734

35-45 degrees

Front 735

What is a Salter-Harris Type III fracture?

Back 735

Portion of the epiphysis

Front 736

What causes the talipes equinovarus type of clubfoot?

Back 736

Abnormal development of the head and neck of the talus

Front 737

How much backward rotation of the clavicle to achieve full scapular upward rotation?

Back 737

45-50 degrees

Front 738

What general deformities are observed with clubfoot?

Back 738

Plantar flexed, adducted and inverted foot

Front 739

What specific deformities are seen at the talocrural joint with clubfoot?

Back 739

Plantar flexion

Front 740

What specific deformity is seen at the subtalar talocalcaneal, talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints?

Back 740

inversion

Front 741

What specific deformity is seen at the midtarsal joints?

Back 741

Supination

Front 742

True/False: Talipes Equinovarus requires surgical correctment?

Back 742

TRUE

Front 743

What structures guard the shoulder joint superiorly?

Back 743

Supraspinatus and coracoacromial arch

Front 744

What structures stabilize the shoulder posteriorly?

Back 744

Infraspinatus and tere minor

Front 745

What are 5 possible etiologies of equinus?

Back 745

Congenital Bone Deformity, neurological disorders, contracture of gastrocnemius/soleus, trauma or inflammatory disease

Front 746

What deformity is observed in equinus?

Back 746

Plantar flexed foot

Front 747

What structure protects the shoulder anteriorly?

Back 747

Subscapularis

Front 748

What compensations are secondary to limited dorsiflexion in equinus?

Back 748

Subtalar and midtarsal pronation

Front 749

Which muscles cause upward rotation of the scapula during arm elevation?

Back 749

Trapezius and serratus anterior

Front 750

What are 5 etiologies of Hallux Valgus?

Back 750

Biomechanical malalignment, ligamentous laxity, heredity, weak muscles and footwear that is too tight

Front 751

Which muscles cause downward rotation during shoulder extension?

Back 751

Rhomboids, levator scapulae, pectoralis minor

Front 752

Which muscles cause scapular protraction?

Back 752

Serratur Anterior and pectoralis minor

Front 753

What is the deformity observed in Hallux Valgus?

Back 753

Medial deviation of head of first metatarsal, metatarsal and base of proximal first phalanx move medially while distal phalanx moves laterally

Front 754

What is the normal metatarsalphalangeal angle?

Back 754

8-20 degrees

Front 755

Which muscles cause scapular retraction?

Back 755

Rhomboids, middle and lower trapezius

Front 756

Which muscles cause elevation of the scapula?

Back 756

Upper trapezius and levator scapulae

Front 757

Which muscles cause depression of the scapula?

Back 757

pectoralis minor and latissimus dorsi

Front 758

When are the subacromial and subdeltoid bursae palpable?

Back 758

When the humerus is extended

Front 759

What are 4 possible etiologies of metatarsalgia?

Back 759

Tight triceps surae and/or achilles tendon, collapse of transverse arch, short first ray, pronation of forefoot

Front 760

What is the most common complaint with metatarsalgia?

Back 760

Pain at first and second metatarsal heads after long periods of weight bearing

Front 761

Where can the axillary artery be palpated?

Back 761

In the lateral wall on the inferior part of the axilla

Front 762

What causes the talipes equinovarus type of clubfoot?

Back 762

Abnormal development of the head and neck of the talus

Front 763

What 2 nerves branch off before the trunk of the brachial plexus is formed?

Back 763

Long thoracic and Dorsal Scapular

Front 764

When do the Superior, Middle, and Inferior trunks form?

Back 764

As they pass over the first rib

Front 765

Where is the first rib located in relation to the spinal column?

Back 765

Between C8 and T1 nerve roots

Front 766

What is the path of the Suprascapular nerve?

Back 766

Arises from superior trunk, passes beneath the trapezius through the suprascapular notch to innervate the supraspinatus and infraspinatus

Front 767

Which structure can impinge the suprascapular nerve?

Back 767

Superior Transverse Scapular Ligament

Front 768

Where does the trunk divide into divisions?

Back 768

Beneath the clavicle

Front 769

Where are the lateral, posterior and medial cords formed?

Back 769

beneath pectoralis minor

Front 770

What are 3 possible etiologies of Metatarsus Adductus?

Back 770

Congenital, muscle imbalance, neuromuscular diseases

Front 771

What are the 2 types of Metatarsus Adductus?

Back 771

Rigid and flexible

Front 772

What are the deformities seen in the ridig form of Metatarsus Adductus?

Back 772

Medial subuluxation of tarsometatarsal joints, hindfoot is slightly in valgus with navicular lateral to head of talus

Front 773

What are the deformities seen in the flexible form of Metatarsus Adductus?

Back 773

Adduction of all five metatarsals at the tarsometatarsal joints

Front 774

What condition is characterized as a peroneal muscular atrophy that affects motor and sensory nerves

Back 774

Charot-Marie-Tooth Disease

Front 775

Where is the most frequently fractured area of the humerus?

Back 775

Surgical Neck

Front 776

What is the normal progession of Charcto-Marie-tooth disease?

Back 776

Initially affects muscles in the lower leg and foot, but eventually progresses to muscles of hands and forearm

Front 777

What is the carrying angle of the elbow for men and women?

Back 777

10-15 in men, 20-25 in women

Front 778

What is the most common clinical sign of plantar fasciitis?

Back 778

Limited ROM of first MTP and talocrural joint

Front 779

What ligament provides stability for the proximal radioulnar joint?

Back 779

Annular ligament

Front 780

What are 3 possible etiologies of rearfoot varus?

Back 780

Abnormal mechanical alignment of tibia, shortened rearfoot soft tissues, malunion of calcaneus

Front 781

What deformities are observed in rearfoot varus?

Back 781

rigid inversion of calcaneus when subtalar joint is in neutral position

Front 782

When does the biceps brachii perform supination?

Back 782

When the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees

Front 783

What are 2 possible etiologies for rearfoot valgus?

Back 783

Genu Valgum or tibial valgus

Front 784

What deformity is observed with rearfoot valgus?

Back 784

Eversion of calcaneus with a neutral subtalar joint

Front 785

Fewer problems develop with rearfoot varus than with rearfoot valgus?

Back 785

FALSE

Front 786

Where is the subcutaneous olectranon burse located?

Back 786

In the tissue over the olecranon

Front 787

Where is the subtendinous olecranon bursa located?

Back 787

between the tendon of the triceps and the olecranon

Front 788

What is the etiology of forefoot varus?

Back 788

Congenital abnormal deviation of head and neck of talus

Front 789

What deformity is observed with forefoot varus?

Back 789

Inversion of forefoot when subtalar join is in neutral

Front 790

What 2 nerves branch off before the trunk of the brachial plexus is formed?

Back 790

Long thoracic and Dorsal Scapular

Front 791

Where can the brachial artery be palpated?

Back 791

Anterior region of the cubital fossa

Front 792

What is a common effect of brachial artery injury?

Back 792

Volkmann's Ischemic contracture, which is a permanent shortening of the deep flexors of the forearm

Front 793

What is a Colle's Fracture?

Back 793

Fracture of the distal radius

Front 794

What is the MOI for a Colle's fracture?

Back 794

FOOSH

Front 795

What is the etiology of forefoot valgus?

Back 795

Congenital abnormal deviation of head and neck of talus

Front 796

What deformity is observed with forefoot valgus?

Back 796

Eversion of forefoot when the subtalar joint is in neutral

Front 797

Where is the Ulnar Nerve located in the elbow?

Back 797

Posterior to the medial epicondyle

Front 798

Name the proximal row of carpal bones from lateral to medial

Back 798

Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum pisiform

Front 799

Name the distal row of carpal bones from lateral to medial

Back 799

Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

Front 800

Which bones is the flexor retinaculum attached to?

Back 800

Scaphoid and trapezium

Front 801

What is the most frequently fractured carpal bone?

Back 801

Scaphoid

Front 802

Are the metatarsal heads proximal or distal?

Back 802

distal

Front 803

What are the 3 arches of the hand?

Back 803

Longitudinal, metacarpophalangeal transverse and carpal transverse

Front 804

What is the etiology of Spondylolysis/spondylolisthesis?

Back 804

Congenitally defective pars interarticularis

Front 805

What is spondylolysis?

Back 805

Fracture of the pars interarticularis with positive " on oblique radiographic view of spine

Front 806

What is spondylolisthesis?

Back 806

The actual anterior or posterior slippage of one vertebra on another, following bilateral fracture of pars interarticularis

Front 807

What is a uniaxial pivot t in supination/pronation?

Back 807

Distal radioulnar joint

Front 808

What is a biaxial ellipsoid joint between the radius and the scaphoid and lunate bones?

Back 808

Radiocarpal joint

Front 809

How is spondylolisthesis graded?

Back 809

By the amount of slippage 1 = 25%, 4 = 100%

Front 810

What is one clinical test that can help test for spondylolisthesis?

Back 810

Stork test

Front 811

What is the load bearing ratio between radius and ulna?

Back 811

60:40 radius

Front 812

What 3 ligaments help to stabilize the intercarpal joints?

Back 812

Dorsal, palmar and interosseous

Front 813

What are 6 PT interventions for Spondylolysis/Spondylolisthesis?

Back 813

Joint mobilization, Dynamica stabilization of the trunk, Avoidanc of extension, postural reeducation, braces, no spinal manipulation

Front 814

What condition is characterized by a congenital narrowing of the spinal canal coupled with hypertrophy of the spinal lamina and ligamentum flaum as the result of age related degenerative processes?

Back 814

Spinal Stenosis

Front 815

Anterior dislocation of the lunate can cause what?

Back 815

Compression of the median nerve against the flexor retinaculum

Front 816

What are 4 signs/symptoms of spinal stenosis?

Back 816

Bilateral pain and parasthesia in back, buttocks, thighs, calves and feet; pain decreases with flexion increases with extension, pain increases with walking, pain relieved with prolonged rest

Front 817

True/False: Wrist extension is predominantly at radiocarpal joint and wrist flexion is primarily at the midcarpal joint?

Back 817

TRUE

Front 818

Is the hand normally in flexion or extension?

Back 818

Extension

Front 819

Where can the brachial artery be palpated?

Back 819

Anterior region of the cubital fossa

Front 820

Where can the brachial artery be palpated?

Back 820

Anterior region of the cubital fossa

Front 821

What is a common effect of brachial artery injury?

Back 821

Volkmann's Ischemic contracture, which is a permanent shortening of the deep flexors of the forearm

Front 822

What is a Colle's Fracture?

Back 822

Fracture of the distal radius

Front 823

What is the MOI for a Colle's fracture?

Back 823

FOOSH

Front 824

What is the etiology of forefoot valgus?

Back 824

Congenital abnormal deviation of head and neck of talus

Front 825

What deformity is observed with forefoot valgus?

Back 825

Eversion of forefoot when the subtalar joint is in neutral

Front 826

Where is the Ulnar Nerve located in the elbow?

Back 826

Posterior to the medial epicondyle

Front 827

Name the proximal row of carpal bones from lateral to medial

Back 827

Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum pisiform

Front 828

Name the distal row of carpal bones from lateral to medial

Back 828

Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

Front 829

Which bones is the flexor retinaculum attached to?

Back 829

Scaphoid and trapezium

Front 830

What is the most frequently fractured carpal bone?

Back 830

Scaphoid

Front 831

Are the metatarsal heads proximal or distal?

Back 831

distal

Front 832

What are the 3 arches of the hand?

Back 832

Longitudinal, metacarpophalangeal transverse and carpal transverse

Front 833

What is the etiology of Spondylolysis/spondylolisthesis?

Back 833

Congenitally defective pars interarticularis

Front 834

What is spondylolysis?

Back 834

Fracture of the pars interarticularis with positive " on oblique radiographic view of spine

Front 835

What is spondylolisthesis?

Back 835

The actual anterior or posterior slippage of one vertebra on another, following bilateral fracture of pars interarticularis

Front 836

What is a uniaxial pivot t in supination/pronation?

Back 836

Distal radioulnar joint

Front 837

What is a biaxial ellipsoid joint between the radius and the scaphoid and lunate bones?

Back 837

Radiocarpal joint

Front 838

How is spondylolisthesis graded?

Back 838

By the amount of slippage 1 = 25%, 4 = 100%

Front 839

What is one clinical test that can help test for spondylolisthesis?

Back 839

Stork test

Front 840

What is the load bearing ratio between radius and ulna?

Back 840

60:40 radius

Front 841

What 3 ligaments help to stabilize the intercarpal joints?

Back 841

Dorsal, palmar and interosseous

Front 842

What are 6 PT interventions for Spondylolysis/Spondylolisthesis?

Back 842

Joint mobilization, Dynamica stabilization of the trunk, Avoidanc of extension, postural reeducation, braces, no spinal manipulation

Front 843

What condition is characterized by a congenital narrowing of the spinal canal coupled with hypertrophy of the spinal lamina and ligamentum flaum as the result of age related degenerative processes?

Back 843

Spinal Stenosis

Front 844

Anterior dislocation of the lunate can cause what?

Back 844

Compression of the median nerve against the flexor retinaculum

Front 845

What are 4 signs/symptoms of spinal stenosis?

Back 845

Bilateral pain and parasthesia in back, buttocks, thighs, calves and feet; pain decreases with flexion increases with extension, pain increases with walking, pain relieved with prolonged rest

Front 846

True/False: Wrist extension is predominantly at radiocarpal joint and wrist flexion is primarily at the midcarpal joint?

Back 846

TRUE

Front 847

Is the hand normally in flexion or extension?

Back 847

Extension

Front 848

Where can the brachial artery be palpated?

Back 848

Anterior region of the cubital fossa

Front 849

Where can the brachial artery be palpated?

Back 849

Anterior region of the cubital fossa

Front 850

What 3 muscles provide dynamic wrist stability in both flexion and extension?

Back 850

Extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus

Front 851

What are the two major wrist flexors?

Back 851

Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi radialis

Front 852

Between the flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi radialis, which is the more effective wrist flexor?

Back 852

Flexor carpi radialis

Front 853

What are the 3 main radial deviators?

Back 853

Extensor carpi radialis longus, Extensor carpi radialis brevis, flexor carpi radialis

Front 854

What are the 2 main ulnar deviators?

Back 854

Flexor carpi unlarnis and extensor carpi ulnaris

Front 855

What are 4 PT interventions for Spinal Stenosis?

Back 855

Joint mobilization, flexion based exercises, postural education traction

Front 856

What position should the cervical spine be in to promote the best intervertebral foramina opening?

Back 856

15 degrees of flexion

Front 857

How many muscles are in the anterior forearm>?

Back 857

8

Front 858

What two muscles pronate the forearm

Back 858

pronator teres and quadratus

Front 859

What 3 muscles flex the hand?

Back 859

Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris and palmaris longus

Front 860

What 3 muscles flex the digits?

Back 860

Flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus

Front 861

What are 5 contraindications to cervical traction?

Back 861

Joint hypermobility, pregnancy, rheumatoid arthritis, down syndrome or any other systemic disease which affects ligamentous integrity

Front 862

What are the signs/symptoms of n internal disc disruption?

Back 862

Constant deep achy pain, increased pain with movment, no objective neurological symptoms

Front 863

How many muscles are in the posterior forearm?

Back 863

11

Front 864

What 3 muscles extend the hand?

Back 864

Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris

Front 865

What 3 muscles extend the fingers?

Back 865

Extensor digitorum, extensor indicis and extensor digiti minimi

Front 866

What 3 muscles extend the thumb?

Back 866

Abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor pollicis longus

Front 867

Where does the radial artery enter the hand?

Back 867

Near the radial styloid process

Front 868

A supracondylar fracture of the elbow can possibly cause which injury?

Back 868

Damage to the radial artery

Front 869

What are 2 PT interventions for internal disc disruptions?

Back 869

Joint mobilizations, postural education

Front 870

What is contraindicated for a patient with internal disc disruptions?

Back 870

Spinal manipulation

Front 871

What are 2 reasons that disc herniations usually occur posteriorly?

Back 871

Posterior longitudinal ligament is not as strong and only centrally located in lumbar spine, posterior lamellae of annulus are thinner.

Front 872

What are the signs/symptoms of posterior disc herniation?

Back 872

Loss of strength, radicular pain, parasthesias and inability to perform ADLs

Front 873

Which ligaments help support the MCP joints?

Back 873

Palmar, transverse and collateral

Front 874

When do the collateral ligaments become tight in MCP joints?

Back 874

During flexion

Front 875

What are 4 PT interventions for posterior disc herniation?

Back 875

Dyanamic stability and positional gapping, posture education, traction

Front 876

What is a general rule regarding the role of intrinsic and extrinsic hand muscles?

Back 876

Extrinsic provide functional power, intrinsic provide fine control

Front 877

How would you do positional gapping for a left posterolateral lumbar herniation?

Back 877

Have patient side-lying on right side, with pillow under right trunk, flex both hips and knees, rotate trunk to left

Front 878

True/False: Spinal manipulation is contraindicated for a dis herniation

Back 878

TRUE

Front 879

What is the optimal amount of wrist extension for functional use?

Back 879

20-30 degrees

Front 880

What 3 muscles provide dynamic wrist stability in both flexion and extension?

Back 880

Extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus

Front 881

How many muscles control the thumb? How many are intrinsic, extrinsic?

Back 881

8,4,4

Front 882

Radial nerve damage will do what to hand function?

Back 882

Affect the ability to maintain the functional wrist position and to release an object

Front 883

Median nerve damage will do what to hand function?

Back 883

Affects flexion of the digits on the radial side of the hand and precision grip

Front 884

Ulnar nerve damage will do what to hand function?

Back 884

Affects flexion of the ulnar side digits and power grip

Front 885

What are the signs/symptoms of DJD of the spine>?

Back 885

Reduction in mobility, pain, possible impingement of associated nerve root

Front 886

What is a clinical test that can be used for DJD of the spine?

Back 886

Lumbar quadrant test

Front 887

A fracture of the neck of the femur may disrupt blood to what artery and cause what?

Back 887

Obturator artery, aseptic necrosis

Front 888

What is the etiology of facet entrapment?

Back 888

Abnormal movement of fibroadipose meniscoid does not properly reenter joint cavity and bunches up, becoming a space occupying lesion, which distends capsule and causes pain

Front 889

Do patients with Facet Entrapment feel better in flexion or extension?

Back 889

Flexion

Front 890

What are the 3 ligaments that blend with the hip capsule?

Back 890

Iliofemoral, Ischiofemoral, pubofemoral

Front 891

What are the 2 prime hip flexors?

Back 891

Iliacus and the Psoas Major

Front 892

What is the name of the Iliacus and Psoas Major combined?

Back 892

Iliopsoas

Front 893

What structures may be injured in "whiplash"

Back 893

Facets/articular processes, facet joint capsules, ligaments, discs, muscles, odontoid process, spinous processes, TMJ, sympathetic chain ganglia, spinal and cranial nerves

Front 894

What are the early signs/symptoms of "whiplash"

Back 894

Headaches, neck pain, limited flexibility, reversal of lower cervical lordosis, decrease in upper cervical kyphosis, vertigo, change in vision and hearing, irritability to noise and light, dyesthesias of face and bilateral UEs, nausea, difficulty swallowing and emotional lability

Front 895

What are the 2 prime hip extensors?

Back 895

Gluteus Maximus and Hamstrings

Front 896

What are the late signs/symptoms of "whiplash"

Back 896

Chronic head/neck pain, limitation in flexibility, TMJ dysfunction, limited tolerance to ADLs, disequilibrium, anxiety and depression

Front 897

What are the common clinical signs of "whiplash"

Back 897

Postural changes, excessive muscle guarding with soft tissue fibrosis, segmental hypermobility, gradual development of restricted segmental motion

Front 898

What are the 2 main hip abductors?

Back 898

Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

Front 899

What are the 3 main hip adductors?

Back 899

Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis

Front 900

What are the 2 main hip IRs?

Back 900

Anterior fibers of gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

Front 901

What are the 2 main hip ERs?

Back 901

Obturator externus and quadratus femoris

Front 902

What nerves does the sciatic nerve branch into halfway down the thigh?

Back 902

Tibial and Common Fibular

Front 903

What other muscle other than the piriformis can be involved in sciatic nerve compression?

Back 903

Hamstrings

Front 904

What is the chief blood supplier to the LE?

Back 904

Femoral Artery

Front 905

What are 5 clinical tests that will look for SI joint dysfunction?

Back 905

Gillets, Ipsilateral anterior rotation, Gaenslen's, Long sitting, Goldthwait's

Front 906

What are 5 PT interventions for SI dysfunction?

Back 906

Manipulation, Strengthening, Mobilization, Postural education, SI belts

Front 907

Which movement locks the knee?

Back 907

Medial rotation of the femur

Front 908

Do the menisci move anteriorly of posteriorly during flexion?

Back 908

Posteriorly

Front 909

Repetitive trauma disorders account for what percent of occupational diseases?

Back 909

48%

Front 910

What percentage of back pain goes undiagnosed?

Back 910

85%

Front 911

Which meniscus is more commonlly injured?

Back 911

Medial

Front 912

How many muscles control the thumb? How many are intrinsic, extrinsic?

Back 912

8,4,5

Front 913

What is the strongest ligament in the knee?

Back 913

PCL

Front 914

When is the PCL taut?

Back 914

Flexion

Front 915

When is the ACL taut?

Back 915

Extension

Front 916

What are signs/symptoms of Esophageal cancer?

Back 916

Pain radiating to the back, pain with swallowing, dysphagia and weight loss

Front 917

What are signs/symptoms of Pancreatic Cancer?

Back 917

Deep gnawing pain that radiates from chest to back

Front 918

What are the signs/symptoms of Acute Pancreatitis?

Back 918

Mid epigastric pain radiating through to the back

Front 919

What are signs/symptoms of Cholecystitis?

Back 919

Abrupt, severe abdominal pain and right upper quadrant tenderness, nausea, vomiting and fever

Front 920

Where can pain from Heart and Lung Disorders refer to?

Back 920

chest, back, neck, jaw, UEs

Front 921

How does an abdominal aortic aneurysm present?

Back 921

Nonspecific lumbar pain

Front 922

Which muscle internally rotates the tibia and retracts the medial meniscus?

Back 922

Semimembranosus

Front 923

Which muscle externally rotates the tibia?

Back 923

Biceps Femoris

Front 924

Where is the suprapatellar bursa?

Back 924

Lies superiorly between the femur and the quadriceps tendon

Front 925

Where is the popliteus bursa?

Back 925

Between the tendon of the popliteus and the lateral condyle of the tibia

Front 926

Where is the anserine bursa?

Back 926

Seperates the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinosus from the proximal part of the medial surface of the tibia

Front 927

Where is the gastrocnemius bursa?

Back 927

Deep to the attachment of the tendon of the medial gastrocnemius muscle

Front 928

What is the path of the popliteal artery?

Back 928

Begins when the femoral artery passes through the adductor hiatus in the adductor magnus tendon and ends when it branches into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries at the inferior borderof the popliteus muscle.

Front 929

What are signs/symptoms of TMJ dysfunction?

Back 929

Joint noise, joint locking, limited flexibility, lateral deviation, decreased strength, tinnitus, headaches, forward head posture, pain with movement of mandible

Front 930

What bones does the calcaneus articulate with?

Back 930

Talus and Cuboid

Front 931

What bone is located between the the head of talus and the 3 cuneiform bones?

Back 931

Navicular

Front 932

True/False: The heads of the metatarsals support some weight bearing?

Back 932

TRUE

Front 933

Violent inversion of the foot can cause what boney injury?

Back 933

Avulsion of the tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal where fibularis brevis inserts

Front 934

What are 4 signs/symptoms of RTC tear?

Back 934

Significant reduction in AROM into abduction, No reduction in PROM, Positive Drop Arm Test, Poor scapulothoracic and glenohumeral rhythm

Front 935

What ligaments support the distal tibiofibular joint?

Back 935

Inferior transverse ligament, interosseus ligament, anterior tibiofibular ligament and the posterior tibiofibular ligament

Front 936

What movement does the fibula make during dorsiflexion?

Back 936

The fibular rotates laterally to accomdate the sider portion of the talus

Front 937

What is a normal recovery from a flexor tendon repair?

Back 937

3-4 weeks distal extremity immobilized, wrist and digits flexed, resisted extension, passive flexion. 4 weeks AROM as tolerated.

Front 938

What ligament gives the talocrural joint medial support?

Back 938

Deltoid Ligament

Front 939

What ligament gives the talocrural joint lateral support?

Back 939

Calcaneofibular, anterior talofibular and posterior talofibular ligaments

Front 940

What is the normal recovery from an extensor tendon repair?

Back 940

Distal IP joints are in neutral for 6-8 weeks. AROM initiated at 5 weeks.

Front 941

What is the normal recovery from an ORIF fracture repair?

Back 941

Non-Weightbearing for 1-2 weeks, after WBAT

Front 942

During gait, what is the function of the Subtalar joint?

Back 942

In pronation, the subtalar joint allows the foot to conform to irregular surfaces, in supination the subtalar joint acts as a rigid lever that allows propulsion

Front 943

Supination of the subtalar joint causes what motion in the tibia?

Back 943

External Rotation

Front 944

Pronation of the subtalar joint cuases what motion in the tibia?

Back 944

Internal Rotation

Front 945

What is the strongest ligament in the knee?

Back 945

PCL

Front 946

With a cemented THA how long should the patient be PWB?

Back 946

3 weeks

Front 947

With a cementless THA how long until the patient is WBAT?

Back 947

Immediately

Front 948

How long after a THA until the patient is allowed to do isometric exercises?

Back 948

Immediately

Front 949

How long after a THA until the patient is allowed to do active exercises?

Back 949

1-4 weeks

Front 950

With a TKA what ROM is ok during the first 2 weeks?

Back 950

0-90 degrees

Front 951

With a TKA what ROM is ok after 3-4 weeks?

Back 951

0-120 degrees

Front 952

With a cemented TKA what is the WB status immediately after surgery?

Back 952

WBAT

Front 953

With a TKA when are isometric exercises permitted?

Back 953

Immediately

Front 954

With a TKA when are resisted exercises permitted?

Back 954

2-3 weeks

Front 955

What are 3 pros of the Hamstring graft for ACL surgery?

Back 955

Typically fewer symptoms post-op, Greater return to prior level of function, Earlier rehab

Front 956

What are 3 pros of the Patellar Tendon graft for ACL surgery?

Back 956

Better graft tension post-op, less expensive, faster healing

Front 957

What are 3 cons of the Hamstring graft for ACL surgery?

Back 957

More expensive, technically more difficult, rehab more difficult

Front 958

What are 3 cons of the Patellar Tendon graft for ACL surgery?

Back 958

Greater potential for anterior knee pain and patellafemoral OA, increase potential for knee extension deficit, delay in rehab secondary to more sever atrophy of quads

Front 959

What should the CPM be set at immediately following ACL repair?

Back 959

0-70 degrees

Front 960

What should the CPM be set at after six weeks following ACL repair?

Back 960

0-120 degrees

Front 961

What is AROM limited to immediately after ACL repair?

Back 961

20-70 degrees by a brace

Front 962

How long is the patient NWB following ACL repair?

Back 962

one week

Front 963

When is the patient weened from the brace following ACL repair?

Back 963

between 2nd and 4th weeks

Front 964

What is the brace set at for ambulation for a PCL repair immediately following surgery?

Back 964

0 degrees

Front 965

Soft tissue massage to quadriceps after ACL or PCL repair is designed to do what?

Back 965

Reduce muscle gaurding

Front 966

Joint oscillations following ACL or PCL repair is designed to do what?

Back 966

Decrease pain and reduce muscle guarding

Front 967

What are the 3 arches of the foot?

Back 967

Medial, Longitudinal and Transverse

Front 968

Where is the longitudinal arch of the foot located?

Back 968

From the calcaneus to the metatarsal heads

Front 969

What structures give dynamic stability to the medial arch of the foot?

Back 969

Fibularis longus, posterior tibialis and intrinsic muscles

Front 970

What structures give static stability to the medial arch of the foot?

Back 970

Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament

Front 971

What structure gives support to the lateral longitudinal arch?

Back 971

Long plantar ligament

Front 972

What makes up the transverse arch of the foot?

Back 972

Cuneiform and cuboid bones

Front 973

What supports the transverse arch of the foot?

Back 973

Metatarsal heads and musculoligamentous complex

Front 974

What are 2 major interventions after Lateral Retinacular release?

Back 974

Closed kinetic chain exercises to strengthen quads and regain dynamic balance of structures, normalize flexibility of the hamstrings, triceps surae and ITB.

Front 975

Why is a lateral retinacular release usually performed?

Back 975

To improve patellar tracking to reduce patellafemoral pain

Front 976

Where is the dorsalis pedis artery found?

Back 976

Dorsum of the foot passing over the navicular and cuneiform bones just lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon

Front 977

After a partial meniscectomy when is PWB allowed?

Back 977

As soon as full extension is achieved

Front 978

When is AROM encouraged after a partial meniscectomy?

Back 978

Immediately

Front 979

With a cemented THA how long should the patient be PWB?

Back 979

4 weeks

Front 980

What is one recommendation for jogging following partial meniscectomy?

Back 980

Running on the balls of the feet to decrease loading on the knee joint

Front 981

How long is a Pt NWB following a meniscus repair?

Back 981

3-6 weeks

Front 982

When should rehab following a meniscus repair start?

Back 982

7-10 days post op

Front 983

What two parts of the vertebrae make up the vertebral arch?

Back 983

Laminae and pedicles

Front 984

What part of the vertebrae meet to form the spinous process?

Back 984

Laminae

Front 985

How long should patients avoid prolonged sitting, heavy lifting after spinal repair?

Back 985

3 months

Front 986

How long should an immobilizing brace be worn after a multilevel spinal fusion?

Back 986

6 weeks

Front 987

Which spinal fusion approach reduces the need for bracing?

Back 987

Combined anterior/posterior

Front 988

After a Harrington Rod placement surgery for idiopathic scoliosis, when can ambulation begin?

Back 988

4-7 days post op

Front 989

After Harrington Rod placement surgery for idiopathic scoliosis, what are the 2 early rehab goals?

Back 989

Early bed mobility and effective coughing

Front 990

How does a wedge fracture of the vertebrae occur?

Back 990

Forced flexion of the thoracic and lumbar spine

Front 991

What is the inner gelatinous layer of the intervertebral disc called?

Back 991

Nucleus Pulposus

Front 992

What is the recommended amount of exercise during the acute stage of an injury?

Back 992

40-60% of one rep max which stimulates regeneration of tissue and revascularization

Front 993

What is the outer ring layer of the intervertebral disc called?

Back 993

Annular Rings

Front 994

What structures does the ligamentum flavum connect?

Back 994

Laminae of adjacent vertebrae

Front 995

Dysfunction of the SI joint may cause dysfunction in what other area?

Back 995

L4 and L5

Front 996

What are 2 possible causes for chronic conditions?

Back 996

Abnormal remodeling of injured tissues and chronic low-grade inflammation due to repetitive stresses of tissues

Front 997

The splenius capitis and splenius cervicis cause what motion?

Back 997

laterally flex and rotate the head ipsilaterally (alone), extend the head and neck (together)

Front 998

Which group of the erector spinae is most lateral?

Back 998

Iliocostalis

Front 999

Which group of the erector spinae is in the middle?

Back 999

longissimus

Front 1000

Which group of the erector spinae is the most medial?

Back 1000

Spinalis

Front 1001

What is the function of the erector spinae muscles?

Back 1001

Unilaterally - Laterally flex the head and vertebrae, Bilaterally - extend the head and vertebral column

Front 1002

Which muscles make up the transversospinal muscle group?

Back 1002

Semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores

Front 1003

What is the function of the transversospinal muscle group?

Back 1003

Bilaterally - extend and stabilize the spine, Unilaterally - Laterally flex ipsillaterally and rotate the trunk contralaterally

Front 1004

What is the purpose of soft tissue/myofascial techniques?

Back 1004

Aid in reduction of metabolites from muscle, reactivating a muscle that has not been functioning secondary to guarding and ischemia, revascularization and decrease in guarding

Front 1005

How does soft tissue/myofascial techniques affect the autonomic system?

Back 1005

Stimulation of skin and superficial fascia facilitate a decrease in muscle tension

Front 1006

What is the function of the Quadratus Lumborum

Back 1006

Stabilize the lumbar spine, unilaterally elevates the ilium, bilaterally assists in forved exhalation and extends the back

Front 1007

What is the purpose of mechanical stimluation techniques?

Back 1007

Causes histological and mechanical changes in soft tissues to produce improved mobility and function

Front 1008

Where is the thyroid cartilage located?

Back 1008

C4 and C5

Front 1009

Where is the hyoid bone located?

Back 1009

C3

Front 1010

True/False: Soft tissue massage without motion should is perpendicular to muscle fibers?

Back 1010

FALSE

Front 1011

What is the function of the platysma?

Back 1011

Tenses the skin of the neck and assists in depressing the mandible.

Front 1012

What is the function of the trapezius?

Back 1012

Unilaterally - Moves the neck ipsilaterally, Bilaterally - shrugs the shoulders

Front 1013

What is the path of the vertebral arteries?

Back 1013

Branch off subclavian artery and ascend vertically through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae into the brain at the foramen magnum

Front 1014

What is one recommendation for jogging following partial meniscectomy?

Back 1014

Running on the balls of the feet to decrease loading on the knee joint

Front 1015

How long is a transverse friction massage?

Back 1015

5-10 minutes

Front 1016

What forms the roof of TMJ?

Back 1016

Temporal bones

Front 1017

What are Feldenkreis movements?

Back 1017

Practitioner gently introduces new passive movements to help patient get a sense of movement

Front 1018

What are 4 purposes of joint oscillations?

Back 1018

Inhibit pain and/or muscle guarding, lubricate joint surfaces, provide nutrition to the joint structures, stretch tight connective tissus

Front 1019

How does the articular disc divide the TMJ cavity?

Back 1019

Superior/Inferior

Front 1020

Is the TMJ articular disc more firmly attached to the mandible or the temporal bone?

Back 1020

Mandible

Front 1021

What are the contraindications for Joint mobilization?

Back 1021

Joint ankylosis, malignancy involving bone, ligament affecting diseases, arterial insufficiency, active inflammatory process

Front 1022

How much does the temporomandibular ligament allow the jaw to open before it tightens?

Back 1022

20-25 mm

Front 1023

When does the TMJ usually dislocate?

Back 1023

Yawning or taking a large bit

Front 1024

Which direction does the TMJ usually dislocate?

Back 1024

Anteriorly

Front 1025

What is a clinical sign of TMJ dislocation?

Back 1025

Inability to close mouth

Front 1026

What are the absolute contraindications of traction?

Back 1026

Joint ankylosis, malignancy involving bone, ligament affecting diseases, arterial insufficiency, active inflammatory process

Front 1027

What are the relative contraindications of tractions?

Back 1027

DJD, metabolic bone disease, hypermobility, total joint replacement, pregnancy, spondylolisthesis, use of steroids, radicular symptoms

Front 1028

What is the function of the of the temporalis, masseter and medial pterygoid muscles?

Back 1028

Elevation of the mandible

Front 1029

What muscles are resposible for protrusion of the mandible?

Back 1029

Lateral and medial pterygoid

Front 1030

What muscle is responsible for retrusion of the mandible?

Back 1030

Posterior fibers of the temporalis

Front 1031

At what segment(s) does the musculocutaneous nerve originate?

Back 1031

C5, C6

Front 1032

Which muscles does the musculocutaneous nerve innervate?

Back 1032

Coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, brachialis

Front 1033

What is the sensory distribution of the musculocutaneous nerve?

Back 1033

Anterolateral surface of the forearm

Front 1034

What muscular dysfunction is seen with musculocutaneous nerve palsy?

Back 1034

Loss of forearm flexion when supinated, weakened supination

Front 1035

At what segment(s) does the Axillary nerve originate?

Back 1035

C5, C6

Front 1036

Which muscles does the axillary nerve innervate?

Back 1036

deltoid, teres minor

Front 1037

What is the sensory distribution of the axillary nerve?

Back 1037

Lateral arm over lower portion of deltoid

Front 1038

What muscular dysfunction is seen with axillary nerve palsy?

Back 1038

Loss of shoulder abduction, weakened ER

Front 1039

At what segment(s) does the Radial nerve originate?

Back 1039

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

Front 1040

Which muscles does the Radial nerve innervate?

Back 1040

Triceps, anconeus, brachiradialis, supinator, wrist extensors, finger extensors, thumb extensors

Front 1041

What is the sensory distribution of the Radial nerve?

Back 1041

Posterior arm, posterior forearm, radial side of posterior hand

Front 1042

What muscular dysfunction is seen with Radial nerve palsy?

Back 1042

Loss of elbow, wrist and finger extension

Front 1043

At what segment(s) does the Median nerve originate?

Back 1043

C6, C7, C8, T1

Front 1044

Which muscles does the Median nerve innervate?

Back 1044

Pronators, wrist flexors, finger flexors on radial side, most thumb muscles

Front 1045

What is the sensory distribution of the Median nerve?

Back 1045

Palmar aspects of thumb, second third and fourth (radial half) fingers

Front 1046

What muscular dysfunction is seen with Median nerve palsy?

Back 1046

Loss of pronation, thumb opposition, flexion and abduction

Front 1047

At what segment(s) does the Ulnar nerve originate?

Back 1047

C7, C8, T1

Front 1048

Which muscles does the Ulnar nerve innervate?

Back 1048

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris, flexor digitorum profundus (medial half), interossei, fourth and fifth lumbricals

Front 1049

What is the sensory distribution of the Ulnar nerve?

Back 1049

Fourth finger (medial portion) fifth finger

Front 1050

How long is a transverse friction massage?

Back 1050

5-10 minutes

Front 1051

At what segment(s) does the sciatic nerve originate?

Back 1051

L4 - S3

Front 1052

Which muscles does the Sciatic nerve innervate?

Back 1052

Hamstrings and adductor magnus

Front 1053

What is the sensory distribution of the Sciatic nerve?

Back 1053

Tibial nerve, superficial fibular, deep fibular distributions

Front 1054

What muscular dysfunction is seen with Sciatic nerve palsy?

Back 1054

Loss of knee flexion, weak hip adduction, loss of all muscle function below the knee

Front 1055

At what segment(s) does the femoral nerve originate?

Back 1055

L2, L3, L4

Front 1056

Which muscles does the femoral nerve innervate?

Back 1056

Sartorius, quadriceps, iliacus, pectineus

Front 1057

What is the sensory distribution of the femoral nerve?

Back 1057

Middle anterior thigh, medial thigh proximal to the knee

Front 1058

What muscular dysfunction is seen with femoral nerve palsy?

Back 1058

Loss of hip flexion and knee extension

Front 1059

At what segment(s) does the tibial nerve originate?

Back 1059

L4 - S3

Front 1060

Which muscles does the tibial nerve innervate?

Back 1060

Gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, popliteus, and tibialis posterior

Front 1061

What is the sensory distribution of the tibial nerve?

Back 1061

posterolateral calf, ankle and heel

Front 1062

What muscular dysfunction is seen with tibial nerve palsy?

Back 1062

loss of plantarflexion and supination

Front 1063

At what segment(s) does the Superfical fibular nerve originate?

Back 1063

L5 - S2

Front 1064

Which muscles does the superficial fibular nerve innervate?

Back 1064

Fibularis longus and brevis

Front 1065

What is the sensory distribution of the superficial fibular nerve?

Back 1065

Anterolateral distal lower leg and ankle, most of the dorsum of the foot

Front 1066

What muscular dysfunction is seen with superficial fibular nerve palsy?

Back 1066

Loss of eversion

Front 1067

At what segment(s) does the Deep fibular nerve originate?

Back 1067

L4 - S2

Front 1068

Which muscles does the deep fibular nerve innervate?

Back 1068

Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, fibularis tertius, first and second dorsal interossei, extensor digitorum brevis, extensor hallucis brevis

Front 1069

What is the sensory distribution of the deep fibular nerve?

Back 1069

Web space between the first and second toes on the dorsum of the foot

Front 1070

What muscular dysfunction is seen with deepfibular nerve palsy?

Back 1070

Loss of dorsiflexion and weakness in the foot intrinsics

Front 1071

What is Cranial Nerve I?

Back 1071

Olfactory

Front 1072

What is the function of the olfactory nerve?

Back 1072

Smell

Front 1073

What is Cranial Nerve II?

Back 1073

Optic

Front 1074

What is the function optic nerve

Back 1074

Sight, pupillary reflexes

Front 1075

What does damage to the optic nerve cause?

Back 1075

monocular blindness, loss of pupillary constriction, absense of eye blink

Front 1076

What is Cranial Nerve III?

Back 1076

Oculomotor

Front 1077

What is the function of the oculomotor nerve?

Back 1077

Moves the eye and elevates the upper eyelid

Front 1078

What does damage to the oculomotor nerve cause?

Back 1078

Ptosis, dilation of pupil, loss of acommodation of the light reflex

Front 1079

What is Cranial Nerve IV?

Back 1079

Trochlear

Front 1080

What is the function of the trochlear nerve?

Back 1080

Superior oblique muscle

Front 1081

What does damage to the trochlear nerve cause?

Back 1081

Diplopia, failure to rotate the eye up and out

Front 1082

What is cranial nerve V?

Back 1082

Trigeminal

Front 1083

What is the function of the trigeminal nerve

Back 1083

Mastication and sensory nerve for the head

Front 1084

What does damage to the trigeminal nerve do?

Back 1084

Loss of facial sensation, weakness of the muscles of mastication, deviation of opened jaw to ipsilateral side

Front 1085

What is cranial nerve VI?

Back 1085

Abducens

Front 1086

What is the function of the abducens nerve?

Back 1086

Abducts the eye via nerve supply to the lateral rectus muscle

Front 1087

At what segment(s) does the sciatic nerve originate?

Back 1087

L4 - S4

Front 1088

What is cranial nerve VII?

Back 1088

Facial

Front 1089

What is the function of the facial nerve?

Back 1089

Facial expression, speech articulation, winking, ingestion of food and drink, taste, salivary and nasal secretions

Front 1090

What does damage to the facial nerve do?

Back 1090

Ipsilateral facial paralysis, dry mouth, loss of taste anterior third of the tongue (Bell's Palsy)

Front 1091

What is cranial nerve VIII?

Back 1091

Vestibulocochlear

Front 1092

What is the function of the vestibulocochlear nerve?

Back 1092

Maintenance of equilibrium, hearing

Front 1093

What does damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve cause?

Back 1093

vertigo, nystagmus, dysequilibrium, tinnitus, loss of hearing

Front 1094

What is cranial nerve IX?

Back 1094

Glossopharyngeal

Front 1095

What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

Back 1095

Elevates pharynx, salivary secretion, taste

Front 1096

What does damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve cause?

Back 1096

Slight dysphagia, partial dry mouth, loss of taste posterior third of tongue

Front 1097

What are 4 examples of NSAIDs?

Back 1097

Ibuprofen (motrin), naproxen (aleve), salsalate (discalced) and indomethacin (Indocin)

Front 1098

What are the side effects of NSAIDs?

Back 1098

GI irritation, fluid retention, renal or liver problems, and prolonged bleeding

Front 1099

What is cranial nerve X?

Back 1099

Vagus

Front 1100

What is the function of the vagus nerve?

Back 1100

Phonation, visceral sensations and reflexes, cardiac depressor, bronchoconstrictor, GI tract peristalsis and secretion

Front 1101

What does damage to the vagus nerve cause?

Back 1101

Palpitation, tachycardia, vomiting, slowing of respiration, ipsilateral paralysis of soft palate and larynx, hoarseness, anesthesia of the larynx

Front 1102

What is cranial nerve XI?

Back 1102

Accessory

Front 1103

What is the function of the accessory nerve?

Back 1103

Deglutition and phonation, movements of head and shoulders

Front 1104

What does damage to the accessory nerve cause?

Back 1104

Weakness in shrugging ipsilateral shoulder, turning head to the opposite side

Front 1105

What are 3 examples of muscle relaxers?

Back 1105

Cyclobenzaprine HCl (Flexeril), methocarbamol (Robaxin) and carsoprodol (Soma)

Front 1106

What are adverse affects of muscle relaxers?

Back 1106

drowsiness, lethargy, ataxia and decreased alertness

Front 1107

What is cranial nerve XII?

Back 1107

Hypoglossal

Front 1108

What is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?

Back 1108

Movements of the tongue

Front 1109

What does damage to the hypoglossal nerve cause?

Back 1109

Unilateral paralysis of the tongue, deviation to the ipsilateral side with protrusion

Front 1110

What is an example of a nonnarcotic analgesic?

Back 1110

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Front 1111

When are nonnarcotic analgesics prescribed?

Back 1111

When NSAIDs are contraindicated

Front 1112

What are adverse side effets of nonnarcotic analgesics?

Back 1112

Excessive amounts may lead to liver disease or acute liver shutdown

Front 1113

What is Hoover's Test?

Back 1113

Malingering Test: Therapists examination of the amount of pressure the patient's heels place on the the therapist's hand when the patient is asked to raise one lower extremity in a supine position

Front 1114

What is Burn's Test?

Back 1114

Malingering Test: Patient kneels and bends over a chair to touch the floor

Front 1115

What is Waddell's Test?

Back 1115

Malingering Test: Evaluates tenderness, simulation, distraction, regional disturbances and overreaction

Front 1116

Where is the fulcrum in a first class lever?

Back 1116

Between the force and resistance

Front 1117

What is one example of a first class lever in the human body?

Back 1117

Head sitting on first cervical vertebrae flexing/extending

Front 1118

Where is the fulcrum in a second class lever?

Back 1118

Axis at one end, then resistance then force

Front 1119

What is one example of a second class lever in the human body?

Back 1119

Closed chain plantarflexion

Front 1120

Where is the fulcrum on a third class lever?

Back 1120

Fulcrum at one end, then force, then resistance

Front 1121

What is the advantage of a third class lever?

Back 1121

ROM

Front 1122

What is the most common lever type in the human body?

Back 1122

Third Class

Front 1123

What is an example of a third class lever in the human body?

Back 1123

Knee flexion

Front 1124

What spinal level coincides with the Superior Angle of the Scapula?

Back 1124

T2

Front 1125

What is cranial nerve VII?

Back 1125

Facial

Front 1126

What spinal level coincides with the inferior angle of the scapula?

Back 1126

T7

Front 1127

What spinal level coincides with the xiphoid process of the sternum?

Back 1127

T7

Front 1128

What spinal level coincides with the Naval?

Back 1128

T10

Front 1129

What spinal level coincides with the iliac crest?

Back 1129

L4

Front 1130

What spinal level coincides with the PSIS?

Back 1130

S2

Front 1131

Where should a plumb line fall through in normal posture?

Back 1131

External meatus, acromion process, hip joint, posterior to patella, anterior to lateral malleolus

Front 1132

What is the glenohumeral capsular pattern?

Back 1132

ER > Abd. > Flex > IR

Front 1133

What is the elbow capsular pattern?

Back 1133

Flexion > Extension

Front 1134

What is the radioulnar capsular pattern?

Back 1134

Pronation = Supination

Front 1135

What is the wrist capsular pattern?

Back 1135

Flexion = Extension

Front 1136

What is the interphalangeal capsular pattern?

Back 1136

Flexion > Extension

Front 1137

What is the Hip Capsular Pattern?

Back 1137

Flexion > IR > Abd

Front 1138

What is the knee capsular pattern?

Back 1138

Flexion > Extension

Front 1139

What is the ankle capsular pattern?

Back 1139

PF > DF

Front 1140

What is the toe capsular pattern?

Back 1140

Ext > Flex

Front 1141

What is type I muscle fibers?

Back 1141

Slow twitch

Front 1142

Are type I muscle fibers red or white?

Back 1142

Red

Front 1143

What is type II muscle fibers?

Back 1143

Fast Twitch

Front 1144

Are type II muscle fibers red or white?

Back 1144

White

Front 1145

What is the action of the anconeus?

Back 1145

Elbow Extension

Front 1146

What is the nerve supply for the anconeus?

Back 1146

Radial

Front 1147

What is the spinal segment for the anconeus?

Back 1147

C7, C8, (T1)

Front 1148

What is the action of the Biceps Brachii

Back 1148

Elbow Flexion/supination

Front 1149

What is the nerve supply for the biceps brachii?

Back 1149

Musculocutaneous

Front 1150

What is the spinal segment for the iceps brachii?

Back 1150

C5, C6

Front 1151

What is the action of the brachialis

Back 1151

Elbow Flexion

Front 1152

What is the nerve supply for the brachialis?

Back 1152

Musculocutaneous

Front 1153

What is the spinal segment for the brachialis?

Back 1153

C5, C6, (C7)

Front 1154

What is the action of the brachioradialis?

Back 1154

Elbow Flexion

Front 1155

What is the nerve supply for the brachioradialis?

Back 1155

Radial

Front 1156

What is the spinal segment for the brachioradialis?

Back 1156

C5, C6, (C7)

Front 1157

What is the action of the Corachobrachialis?

Back 1157

Shoulder Flexion

Front 1158

What is the nerve supply for the Corachobrachialis?

Back 1158

Musculocutaneous

Front 1159

What is the spinal segment for the Corachobrachialis?

Back 1159

C5, C6, C7

Front 1160

What is the action of the Deltoid?

Back 1160

Abduction, SHoulder flexion, horizontal adduction, IR, Extension, horizontal abduction, ER

Front 1161

What is the nerve supply for the Deltoid?

Back 1161

Axillary

Front 1162

What is the spinal segment for the Deltoid?

Back 1162

C5, C6

Front 1163

What is the action of the Flexor Carpi Radialis?

Back 1163

Pronation/Wrist Flexion/Radial Deviation

Front 1164

What spinal level coincides with the inferior angle of the scapula?

Back 1164

T7

Front 1165

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor Carpi RAdialis?

Back 1165

C6, C7

Front 1166

What is the action of the Flexor Carpi Ulnaris?

Back 1166

Elbow flexion, wrist flexion, ulnar deviation

Front 1167

What is the nerve supply for the Flexor Carpi Ulnaris?

Back 1167

Ulnar

Front 1168

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor Carpi Ulnaris?

Back 1168

C7, C8

Front 1169

What is the action of the infraspinatus?

Back 1169

Horizontal abduction, abduction, ER

Front 1170

What is the nerve supply for the infraspinatus?

Back 1170

Suprascapular

Front 1171

What is the spinal segment for the infraspinatus?

Back 1171

C5, C6

Front 1172

What is the action of the Latissimus Dorsi?

Back 1172

Extension, Adduction, IR, Scapular depression, scapular protraction

Front 1173

What is the nerve supply for the latissimus dorsi?

Back 1173

Thoracodorsal

Front 1174

What is the spinal segment for the latissimus dorsi?

Back 1174

C6, C7, C8

Front 1175

What is the action of the Levator Scapulae?

Back 1175

Scapular elevation, scapular downward rotation

Front 1176

What is the nerve supply for the levator scapulae?

Back 1176

Dorsal scapular and C3 and C4 nerve roots

Front 1177

What is the spinal segment for the levator scapulae?

Back 1177

C3, C4

Front 1178

What is the action of the Pectoralis Major?

Back 1178

Horizontal adduction, adduction, IR, Scapular depression and scapular protraction

Front 1179

What is the nerve supply for the pectoralis major?

Back 1179

Lateral Pectoral

Front 1180

What is the spinal segment for the pectoralis major?

Back 1180

C5, C6

Front 1181

What is the action of the Pectoralis Minor?

Back 1181

Scapular depression, protraction, downard rotation

Front 1182

What is the nerve supply for the pectoralis minor?

Back 1182

Medial Pectoral

Front 1183

What is the spinal segment for the pectoralis minor?

Back 1183

C8, T1

Front 1184

What is the action of the pronator teres?

Back 1184

Elbow flexion, pronation

Front 1185

What is the nerve supply for the pronator teres?

Back 1185

Median

Front 1186

What is the spinal segment for the pronator teres?

Back 1186

C6, C7

Front 1187

What is the action of the pronator quadratus?

Back 1187

Pronation

Front 1188

What is the nerve supply for the pronator quadratus?

Back 1188

Median

Front 1189

What is the spinal segment for the pronator quadratus?

Back 1189

C8, (T1)

Front 1190

What is the action of the rhomboid major?

Back 1190

Elevation, scapular retraction, scapular downard rotation

Front 1191

What is the nerve supply for the rhomboid major?

Back 1191

Dorsal Scapular

Front 1192

What is the spinal segment for the rhomboid major?

Back 1192

(C4), C5

Front 1193

What is the action of the rhomboid minor?

Back 1193

Elevation, scapular retraction, scapular downard rotation

Front 1194

What is the nerve supply for the rhomboid major?

Back 1194

Dorsal Scapular

Front 1195

What is the spinal segment for the rhomboid major?

Back 1195

(C4), C5

Front 1196

What is the action of the serratus anterior?

Back 1196

Depression, upward rotation, protraction

Front 1197

What is the nerve supply for the serratus anterior?

Back 1197

Long Thoracic

Front 1198

What is the spinal segment for the serratus anterior?

Back 1198

C5, C6, (C7)

Front 1199

What is the action of the subscapularis?

Back 1199

Abduction/Adduction/IR

Front 1200

What is the nerve supply for the subscapularis?

Back 1200

Subscapular

Front 1201

What is the spinal segment for the subscapularis?

Back 1201

C5, C6

Front 1202

What is the action of the supinator?

Back 1202

Supination

Front 1203

What is the nerve supply for the supinator?

Back 1203

Radial

Front 1204

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor Carpi RAdialis?

Back 1204

C6, C8

Front 1205

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor Carpi RAdialis?

Back 1205

C6, C7

Front 1206

What is the action of the Flexor Carpi Ulnaris?

Back 1206

Elbow flexion, wrist flexion, ulnar deviation

Front 1207

What is the nerve supply for the Flexor Carpi Ulnaris?

Back 1207

Ulnar

Front 1208

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor Carpi Ulnaris?

Back 1208

C7, C8

Front 1209

What is the action of the infraspinatus?

Back 1209

Horizontal abduction, abduction, ER

Front 1210

What is the nerve supply for the infraspinatus?

Back 1210

Suprascapular

Front 1211

What is the spinal segment for the infraspinatus?

Back 1211

C5, C6

Front 1212

What is the action of the Latissimus Dorsi?

Back 1212

Extension, Adduction, IR, Scapular depression, scapular protraction

Front 1213

What is the nerve supply for the latissimus dorsi?

Back 1213

Thoracodorsal

Front 1214

What is the spinal segment for the latissimus dorsi?

Back 1214

C6, C7, C8

Front 1215

What is the action of the Levator Scapulae?

Back 1215

Scapular elevation, scapular downward rotation

Front 1216

What is the nerve supply for the levator scapulae?

Back 1216

Dorsal scapular and C3 and C4 nerve roots

Front 1217

What is the spinal segment for the levator scapulae?

Back 1217

C3, C4

Front 1218

What is the action of the Pectoralis Major?

Back 1218

Horizontal adduction, adduction, IR, Scapular depression and scapular protraction

Front 1219

What is the nerve supply for the pectoralis major?

Back 1219

Lateral Pectoral

Front 1220

What is the spinal segment for the pectoralis major?

Back 1220

C5, C6

Front 1221

What is the action of the Pectoralis Minor?

Back 1221

Scapular depression, protraction, downard rotation

Front 1222

What is the nerve supply for the pectoralis minor?

Back 1222

Medial Pectoral

Front 1223

What is the spinal segment for the pectoralis minor?

Back 1223

C8, T1

Front 1224

What is the action of the pronator teres?

Back 1224

Elbow flexion, pronation

Front 1225

What is the nerve supply for the pronator teres?

Back 1225

Median

Front 1226

What is the spinal segment for the pronator teres?

Back 1226

C6, C7

Front 1227

What is the action of the pronator quadratus?

Back 1227

Pronation

Front 1228

What is the nerve supply for the pronator quadratus?

Back 1228

Median

Front 1229

What is the spinal segment for the pronator quadratus?

Back 1229

C8, (T1)

Front 1230

What is the action of the rhomboid major?

Back 1230

Elevation, scapular retraction, scapular downard rotation

Front 1231

What is the nerve supply for the rhomboid major?

Back 1231

Dorsal Scapular

Front 1232

What is the spinal segment for the rhomboid major?

Back 1232

(C4), C5

Front 1233

What is the action of the rhomboid minor?

Back 1233

Elevation, scapular retraction, scapular downard rotation

Front 1234

What is the nerve supply for the rhomboid major?

Back 1234

Dorsal Scapular

Front 1235

What is the spinal segment for the rhomboid major?

Back 1235

(C4), C5

Front 1236

What is the action of the serratus anterior?

Back 1236

Depression, upward rotation, protraction

Front 1237

What is the nerve supply for the serratus anterior?

Back 1237

Long Thoracic

Front 1238

What is the spinal segment for the serratus anterior?

Back 1238

C5, C6, (C7)

Front 1239

What is the action of the subscapularis?

Back 1239

Abduction/Adduction/IR

Front 1240

What is the nerve supply for the subscapularis?

Back 1240

Subscapular

Front 1241

What is the spinal segment for the subscapularis?

Back 1241

C5, C6

Front 1242

What is the action of the supinator?

Back 1242

Supination

Front 1243

What is the nerve supply for the supinator?

Back 1243

Radial

Front 1244

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor Carpi RAdialis?

Back 1244

C6, C8

Front 1245

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor Carpi RAdialis?

Back 1245

C6, C8

Front 1246

What is the nerve supply for the supraspinatus?

Back 1246

Suprascapular

Front 1247

What is the spinal segment for the supraspinatus?

Back 1247

C5, C6

Front 1248

What is the action of the teres major?

Back 1248

Extension/Horizontal Abd, Adduction, IR

Front 1249

What is the nerve supply for the teres major?

Back 1249

Subscapular

Front 1250

What is the spinal segment for the teres major?

Back 1250

C5, C6

Front 1251

What is the action of the teres minor?

Back 1251

Extension/Horizontal Abd, Adduction, ER

Front 1252

What is the nerve supply for the teres minor?

Back 1252

Axillary

Front 1253

What is the spinal segment for the teres minor?

Back 1253

C5, C6

Front 1254

What is the action of the trapezius?

Back 1254

Retraction/elevation/depression/upward rotation

Front 1255

What is the nerve supply for the trapezius?

Back 1255

Accessory, C3 and C4 nerve roots

Front 1256

What is the spinal segment for the trapezius?

Back 1256

Cranial nerve XI, C3, C4

Front 1257

What is the action of the triceps?

Back 1257

Elbow extension

Front 1258

What is the nerve supply for the triceps?

Back 1258

Radial

Front 1259

What is the spinal segment for the triceps?

Back 1259

C6, C7, C8

Front 1260

What is the action of the extensor carpi radialis longus?

Back 1260

Wrist extension/radial deviation

Front 1261

What is the nerve supply for the extensor carpi radialis longus?

Back 1261

Radial

Front 1262

What is the spinal segment for the extensor carpi radialis longus?

Back 1262

C6, C7

Front 1263

What is the action of the extensor carpi radialis brevis?

Back 1263

Wrist extension

Front 1264

What is the nerve supply for the extensor carpi radialis brevis?

Back 1264

Posterior interosseus

Front 1265

What is the spinal segment for the extensor carpi radialis brevis?

Back 1265

C7, C8

Front 1266

What is the action of the extensor carpi ulnaris?

Back 1266

Wrist extension/ ulnar deviation

Front 1267

What is the nerve supply for the extensor carpi ulnaris?

Back 1267

Posterior interosseus

Front 1268

What is the spinal segment for the extensor carpi ulnaris?

Back 1268

C7, C8

Front 1269

What is the action of the abductor pollicis longus?

Back 1269

Radial deviation / Thumb abduction

Front 1270

What is the nerve supply for the abductor pollicus longus?

Back 1270

Posterior interosseus

Front 1271

What is the spinal segment for the abductor pollicus longus?

Back 1271

C7, C8

Front 1272

What is the action of the extensor pollicis longus?

Back 1272

Thumb extension / retroposition

Front 1273

What is the nerve supply for the extensor pollicus longus?

Back 1273

Posterior interosseus

Front 1274

What is the spinal segment for the extensor pollicus longus?

Back 1274

C7, C8

Front 1275

What is the action of the extensor pollicis brevis?

Back 1275

Radial deviation / thumb abduction / Extension / Retroposition

Front 1276

What is the nerve supply for the extensor pollicus brevis?

Back 1276

Posterior interosseus

Front 1277

What is the spinal segment for the extensor pollicus brevis?

Back 1277

C7, C8

Front 1278

What is the action of the extensor digitorum?

Back 1278

Finger extension

Front 1279

What is the nerve supply for the extensor digitorum?

Back 1279

Posterior interosseus

Front 1280

What is the spinal segment for the extensor digitorum?

Back 1280

C7, C8

Front 1281

What is the action of the extensor indicis?

Back 1281

Index finger extension

Front 1282

What is the nerve supply for the extensor indicis?

Back 1282

Posterior interosseus

Front 1283

What is the spinal segment for the extensor indicis?

Back 1283

C7, C8

Front 1284

What is the action of the extensor digiti minimi?

Back 1284

Fifth finger extension

Front 1285

What is the nerve supply for the extensor digiti minimi?

Back 1285

Posterior interosseus

Front 1286

What is the spinal segment for the extensor digiti minimi?

Back 1286

C7, C8

Front 1287

What is the nerve supply for the supraspinatus?

Back 1287

Suprascapular

Front 1288

What is the nerve supply for the flexor digitorum profundus?

Back 1288

Anterior Interosseus

Front 1289

What is the spinal segment for the flexor digitorum profundus?

Back 1289

C8, T1

Front 1290

What is the action of the flexor digitorum superficialis?

Back 1290

Finger flexion

Front 1291

What is the nerve supply for the flexor digitorum superficialis?

Back 1291

Median

Front 1292

What is the spinal segment for the flexor digitorum superficialis?

Back 1292

C8, T1

Front 1293

What is the action of the lumbricals?

Back 1293

Finger flexion

Front 1294

What is the nerve supply for the lumbricals?

Back 1294

First second (median), third fourth (ulnar)

Front 1295

What is the spinal segment for the lumbricals?

Back 1295

C8, T1

Front 1296

What is the action of the dorsal interossei?

Back 1296

Finger flexion / abduction

Front 1297

What is the nerve supply for the dorsal interossei?

Back 1297

Ulnar

Front 1298

What is the spinal segment for the dorsal interossei?

Back 1298

C8, T1

Front 1299

What is the action of the flexor digiti minimi?

Back 1299

Fifth finger flexion

Front 1300

What is the nerve supply for the flexor digiti minimi?

Back 1300

Ulnar

Front 1301

What is the spinal segment for the flexor digiti minimi?

Back 1301

C8, T1

Front 1302

What is the action of the palmar interossei?

Back 1302

Finger flexion / adduction

Front 1303

What is the nerve supply for the palmar interossei?

Back 1303

Ulnar

Front 1304

What is the spinal segment for the palmar interossei?

Back 1304

C8, T1

Front 1305

What is the action of the abductor digiti minimi?

Back 1305

Fifth finger abduction

Front 1306

What is the nerve supply for the abductor digiti minimi?

Back 1306

Ulnar

Front 1307

What is the spinal segment for the abductor digiti minimi?

Back 1307

C8, T1

Front 1308

What is the action of the abductor pollicis longus?

Back 1308

Thumb abduction

Front 1309

What is the nerve supply for the abductor pollicis longus?

Back 1309

Posterior interosseus

Front 1310

What is the spinal segment for the abductor pollicis longus?

Back 1310

C7, C8

Front 1311

What is the action of the abductor pollicis brevis?

Back 1311

Thumb palmar abduction / Opposition

Front 1312

What is the nerve supply for the abductor pollicis brevis?

Back 1312

Median

Front 1313

What is the spinal segment for the abductor pollicis brevis?

Back 1313

C8, T1

Front 1314

What is the action of the flexor pollicis brevis?

Back 1314

Thumb flexion / opposition

Front 1315

What is the nerve supply for the flexor pollicis brevis?

Back 1315

Median / Ulnar

Front 1316

What is the spinal segment for the flexor pollicis brevis?

Back 1316

C8, T1

Front 1317

What is the action of the flexor pollicis longus?

Back 1317

Thumb flexion

Front 1318

What is the nerve supply for the flexor pollicis longus?

Back 1318

Anterior Interosseus

Front 1319

What is the spinal segment for the flexor pollicis longus?

Back 1319

C8, T1

Front 1320

What is the action of the opponens pollicis?

Back 1320

Thumb flexion / opposition

Front 1321

What is the nerve supply for the opponsens pollicis?

Back 1321

Median

Front 1322

What is the spinal segment for the opponens pollicis?

Back 1322

C8, T1

Front 1323

What is the action of the abductor pollicis?

Back 1323

Thumb palmar abduction / radial abduction

Front 1324

What is the nerve supply for the abductor pollicis?

Back 1324

Ulnar

Front 1325

What is the spinal segment for the abductor pollicis?

Back 1325

C8, T1

Front 1326

What is the action of the opponens digiti minimi?

Back 1326

Fifth finger opposition

Front 1327

What is the nerve supply for the opponens digiti minimi?

Back 1327

Ulnar

Front 1328

What is the spinal segment for the opponens digiti minimi?

Back 1328

C8, T1

Front 1329

What is normal shoulder Flexion ROM

Back 1329

0-180

Front 1330

What is the nerve supply for the flexor digitorum profundus?

Back 1330

Anterior Interosseus

Front 1331

What is normal shoulder extension ROM

Back 1331

0-45

Front 1332

What are the prime shoulder extensors?

Back 1332

Latissimus Dorsi, Posterior deltoid

Front 1333

What is normal shoulder adduction ROM?

Back 1333

0-40

Front 1334

What are the prime shoulder adductors?

Back 1334

Pectoralis Major, Latissimus Dorsi

Front 1335

What is normal shoulder abduction ROM?

Back 1335

0-180

Front 1336

What are the prime shoulder abductors?

Back 1336

Middle deltoid, supraspinatus

Front 1337

What is normal shoulder IR?

Back 1337

0-90

Front 1338

What are the prime shoulder IRs?

Back 1338

Latissimus Dorsi, Pectoralis major

Front 1339

What is normal Shoulder ER rom?

Back 1339

0-90

Front 1340

What are the prime shoulder ERs?

Back 1340

Infraspinatus, teres minor

Front 1341

What are the prime scapular elevators?

Back 1341

Trapezius, levator scapulae

Front 1342

What are the prime scapular retractors?

Back 1342

Rhomboid Major, Rhomboid Minor

Front 1343

What are the prime scapular protractors?

Back 1343

Serratus anterior

Front 1344

What is normal elbow flexion ROM?

Back 1344

0-145

Front 1345

What are the prime elbow flexors?

Back 1345

Brachialis, biceps brachii

Front 1346

What is normal elbow extension ROM?

Back 1346

0-(5)

Front 1347

What are the prime elbow extensors?

Back 1347

Triceps brachii

Front 1348

What is normal pronation ROM?

Back 1348

0-90

Front 1349

What are the prime pronators?

Back 1349

Pronator teres, pronator quadratus

Front 1350

What is normal supination ROM?

Back 1350

0-90

Front 1351

What are the prime supinators?

Back 1351

Biceps brachii, supinator

Front 1352

What is normal wrist flexion ROM?

Back 1352

0-80

Front 1353

What are the prime wrist flexors?

Back 1353

Flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor carpi radialis

Front 1354

What is normal wrist extension ROM?

Back 1354

0-70

Front 1355

What are the prime wrist extensor?

Back 1355

Extensor carpi ulnaris longus / Extensor carpi ulnaris brevis

Front 1356

What is normal wrist abduction ROM?

Back 1356

0-20

Front 1357

What are the prime wrist abductors?

Back 1357

Extensor carpi radialis longus, Extensor carpi radialis brevis

Front 1358

What is normal wrist adduction ROM?

Back 1358

0-45

Front 1359

What are the prime wrist adductors?

Back 1359

Flexor carpi ulnaris, extensor carpi ulnaris

Front 1360

What is the action of the abductor digiti minimi?

Back 1360

Toe abduction

Front 1361

What is the nerve supply for the abductor digiti minimi?

Back 1361

Tibial

Front 1362

What is the spinal segment for the abductor digiti minimi?

Back 1362

S2 - S3

Front 1363

What is the action of the abductor hallucis?

Back 1363

Toe abduction / Toe flexion

Front 1364

What is the nerve supply for the abductor hallucis?

Back 1364

Tibial

Front 1365

What is the spinal segment for the abductor hallucis?

Back 1365

S2 - S3

Front 1366

What is the action of the adductor brevis?

Back 1366

Flexion /Adduction / IR

Front 1367

What is the nerve supply for the adductor brevis?

Back 1367

Obturator

Front 1368

What is the spinal segment for the adductor brevis?

Back 1368

L2 - L3, L4 / L2- L4

Front 1369

What is the action of the adductor longus?

Back 1369

Flexion / Adduction / IR

Front 1370

What is the nerve supply for the adductor longus?

Back 1370

Obturator

Front 1371

What is the spinal segment for the adductor longus?

Back 1371

L2 - L4

Front 1372

What is the action of the adductor Magnus?

Back 1372

Adduction / IR / Extension

Front 1373

What is the nerve supply for the adductor magnus?

Back 1373

Obturato / Sciatic

Front 1374

What is normal shoulder extension ROM

Back 1374

0-46

Front 1375

What is normal shoulder extension ROM

Back 1375

0-45

Front 1376

What are the prime shoulder extensors?

Back 1376

Latissimus Dorsi, Posterior deltoid

Front 1377

What is normal shoulder adduction ROM?

Back 1377

0-40

Front 1378

What are the prime shoulder adductors?

Back 1378

Pectoralis Major, Latissimus Dorsi

Front 1379

What is normal shoulder abduction ROM?

Back 1379

0-180

Front 1380

What are the prime shoulder abductors?

Back 1380

Middle deltoid, supraspinatus

Front 1381

What is normal shoulder IR?

Back 1381

0-90

Front 1382

What are the prime shoulder IRs?

Back 1382

Latissimus Dorsi, Pectoralis major

Front 1383

What is normal Shoulder ER rom?

Back 1383

0-90

Front 1384

What are the prime shoulder ERs?

Back 1384

Infraspinatus, teres minor

Front 1385

What are the prime scapular elevators?

Back 1385

Trapezius, levator scapulae

Front 1386

What are the prime scapular retractors?

Back 1386

Rhomboid Major, Rhomboid Minor

Front 1387

What are the prime scapular protractors?

Back 1387

Serratus anterior

Front 1388

What is normal elbow flexion ROM?

Back 1388

0-145

Front 1389

What are the prime elbow flexors?

Back 1389

Brachialis, biceps brachii

Front 1390

What is normal elbow extension ROM?

Back 1390

0-(5)

Front 1391

What are the prime elbow extensors?

Back 1391

Triceps brachii

Front 1392

What is normal pronation ROM?

Back 1392

0-90

Front 1393

What are the prime pronators?

Back 1393

Pronator teres, pronator quadratus

Front 1394

What is normal supination ROM?

Back 1394

0-90

Front 1395

What are the prime supinators?

Back 1395

Biceps brachii, supinator

Front 1396

What is normal wrist flexion ROM?

Back 1396

0-80

Front 1397

What are the prime wrist flexors?

Back 1397

Flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor carpi radialis

Front 1398

What is normal wrist extension ROM?

Back 1398

0-70

Front 1399

What are the prime wrist extensor?

Back 1399

Extensor carpi ulnaris longus / Extensor carpi ulnaris brevis

Front 1400

What is normal wrist abduction ROM?

Back 1400

0-20

Front 1401

What are the prime wrist abductors?

Back 1401

Extensor carpi radialis longus, Extensor carpi radialis brevis

Front 1402

What is normal wrist adduction ROM?

Back 1402

0-45

Front 1403

What are the prime wrist adductors?

Back 1403

Flexor carpi ulnaris, extensor carpi ulnaris

Front 1404

What is the action of the abductor digiti minimi?

Back 1404

Toe abduction

Front 1405

What is the nerve supply for the abductor digiti minimi?

Back 1405

Tibial

Front 1406

What is the spinal segment for the abductor digiti minimi?

Back 1406

S2 - S3

Front 1407

What is the action of the abductor hallucis?

Back 1407

Toe abduction / Toe flexion

Front 1408

What is the nerve supply for the abductor hallucis?

Back 1408

Tibial

Front 1409

What is the spinal segment for the abductor hallucis?

Back 1409

S2 - S3

Front 1410

What is the action of the adductor brevis?

Back 1410

Flexion /Adduction / IR

Front 1411

What is the nerve supply for the adductor brevis?

Back 1411

Obturator

Front 1412

What is the spinal segment for the adductor brevis?

Back 1412

L2 - L3, L4 / L2- L4

Front 1413

What is the action of the adductor longus?

Back 1413

Flexion / Adduction / IR

Front 1414

What is the nerve supply for the adductor longus?

Back 1414

Obturator

Front 1415

What is the spinal segment for the adductor longus?

Back 1415

L2 - L4

Front 1416

What is the action of the adductor Magnus?

Back 1416

Adduction / IR / Extension

Front 1417

What is the nerve supply for the adductor magnus?

Back 1417

Obturato / Sciatic

Front 1418

What is normal shoulder extension ROM

Back 1418

0-46

Front 1419

What is the action of the biceps femoris?

Back 1419

Hip extension / leg flexion / ER

Front 1420

What is the nerve supply for the biceps femoris?

Back 1420

Sciatic

Front 1421

What is the spinal segment for the biceps femoris?

Back 1421

L2 - L4

Front 1422

What is the action of the dorsal interossei?

Back 1422

Toe abduction / Toe flexion

Front 1423

What is the nerve supply for the dorsal interossei?

Back 1423

Tibial

Front 1424

What is the spinal segment for the dorsal interossei?

Back 1424

L5, S1-S2

Front 1425

What is the action of the Extensor digitorum brevis?

Back 1425

Toe extension

Front 1426

What is the nerve supply for the Extensor digitorum brevis?

Back 1426

Deep Fibular

Front 1427

What is the spinal segment for the extensor digitorum brevis?

Back 1427

S2 - S3

Front 1428

What is the action of the Extensor digitorum longus?

Back 1428

Dorsiflexion / Eversion / Toe Extension

Front 1429

What is the nerve supply for the Extensor digitorum longus?

Back 1429

Deep Fibular

Front 1430

What is the spinal segment for the extensor digitorum longus?

Back 1430

S1 - S2

Front 1431

What is the action of the Extensor hallucis longus?

Back 1431

Dorsiflexion / Inversion / Toe Extension

Front 1432

What is the nerve supply for the Extensor hallucis longus?

Back 1432

Deep Fibular

Front 1433

What is the spinal segment for the extensor hallucis longus?

Back 1433

L5, S1

Front 1434

What is the action of the flexor digiti minimi brevis?

Back 1434

Toe flexion

Front 1435

What is the nerve supply for the flexor digiti minimi brevis?

Back 1435

Tibial

Front 1436

What is the spinal segment for the flexor digiti minimi brevis?

Back 1436

L5, S1

Front 1437

What is the action of the Flexor digitorum brevis?

Back 1437

Toe Flexion

Front 1438

What is the nerve supply for the Flexor digitorum brevis?

Back 1438

Tibial

Front 1439

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor digitorum brevis?

Back 1439

S2 - S3

Front 1440

What is the action of the Flexor digitorum longus?

Back 1440

Plantarflexion / inversion / toe flexion

Front 1441

What is the nerve supply for the Flexor digitorum longus?

Back 1441

Tibial

Front 1442

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor digitorum longus?

Back 1442

S2 - S3

Front 1443

What is the action of the Flexor hallucis brevis?

Back 1443

Toe Flexion

Front 1444

What is the nerve supply for the Flexor hallucis brevis?

Back 1444

Tibial

Front 1445

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor halluscis brevis?

Back 1445

S2 - S3

Front 1446

What is the action of the Flexor hallucis longus?

Back 1446

Plantarflexion / inversion / toe flexion

Front 1447

What is the nerve supply for the Flexor hallucis longus?

Back 1447

Tibial

Front 1448

What is the spinal segment for the Flexor halluscis longus?

Back 1448

S2 - S3

Front 1449

What is the action of the gastrocnemius?

Back 1449

Plantarflexion / Knee flexion

Front 1450

What is the nerve supply for the gastrocnemius?

Back 1450

Tibial

Front 1451

What is the spinal segment for the gastrocnemius?

Back 1451

S1 - S2

Front 1452

What is the action of the gemellus inferior?

Back 1452

External Rotation

Front 1453

What is the nerve supply for the gemellus inferior?

Back 1453

Nerve to obturator internus

Front 1454

What is the spinal segment for the gemellus inferior?

Back 1454

L5, S1

Front 1455

What is the action of the gemellus superior?

Back 1455

External Rotation

Front 1456

What is the nerve supply for the gemellus superior?

Back 1456

Nerve to quadratus femoris

Front 1457

What is the spinal segment for the gemellus superior?

Back 1457

L5, S1

Front 1458

What is the action of the gluteus maximus?

Back 1458

Hip Extension / Abduction / ER

Front 1459

What is the nerve supply for the gluteus maximus?

Back 1459

Inferior gluteal

Front 1460

What is the spinal segment for the gluteus maximus?

Back 1460

L5, S1-S2

Front 1461

What is the action of the gluteus medius?

Back 1461

Abduction / IR

Front 1462

What is the nerve supply for the gluteus medius?

Back 1462

Superior Gluteal

Front 1463

What is the spinal segment for the gluteus medius?

Back 1463

L5, S1

Front 1464

What is the action of the gluteus minimus?

Back 1464

Abduction / IR

Front 1465

What is the nerve supply for the biceps femoris?

Back 1465

Sciatic

Front 1466

What is the spinal segment for the gluteus minimus?

Back 1466

L5, S1

Front 1467

What is the action of the gracilis?

Back 1467

Adduction / Flexion / IR

Front 1468

What is the nerve supply for the gracilis?

Back 1468

Oturator

Front 1469

What is the spinal segment for the gracilis?

Back 1469

L2 - L3

Front 1470

What is the action of the Iliacus?

Back 1470

Flexion

Front 1471

What is the nerve supply for the iliacus?

Back 1471

Femoral

Front 1472

What is the spinal segment for the iliacus?

Back 1472

L2 - L3

Front 1473

What is the action of the Obturator Externus?

Back 1473

External Rotation

Front 1474

What is the nerve supply for the obturator externus?

Back 1474

Obturator

Front 1475

What is the spinal segment for the obturator externus?

Back 1475

L3 - L4

Front 1476

What is the action of the Obturator Internus?

Back 1476

External Rotation

Front 1477

What is the nerve supply for the obturator internus?

Back 1477

Nerve to obturator internus

Front 1478

What is the spinal segment for the obturator internus?

Back 1478

L5, S1

Front 1479

What is the action of the pectineus?

Back 1479

Flexion / Adduction / IR

Front 1480

What is the nerve supply for the pectineus?

Back 1480

Femoral

Front 1481

What is the spinal segment for the pectineus?

Back 1481

L2 - L3

Front 1482

What is the action of Fibularis Brevis?

Back 1482

Plantarflexion / Eversion

Front 1483

What is the nerve supply for the fibularis brevis?

Back 1483

Superficial Fibular

Front 1484

What is the spinal segment for the fibularis brevis?

Back 1484

L5, S1 - S2

Front 1485

What is the action of Fibularis Longus?

Back 1485

Plantarflexion / Eversion

Front 1486

What is the nerve supply for the fibularis longus?

Back 1486

Superficial Fibular

Front 1487

What is the spinal segment for the fibularis longus?

Back 1487

L5, S1 - S2

Front 1488

What is the action of Fibularis Tertius?

Back 1488

Dorsiflexion / Eversion

Front 1489

What is the nerve supply for the fibularis tertius?

Back 1489

Deep Fibular

Front 1490

What is the spinal segment for the fibularis tertius?

Back 1490

L5, S1

Front 1491

What is the action of Piriformis?

Back 1491

External Rotation

Front 1492

What is the nerve supply for the piriformis?

Back 1492

Anterior Rami of S1 and S2

Front 1493

What is the spinal segment for the piriformis?

Back 1493

L5, S1 - S2

Front 1494

What is the action of plantaris?

Back 1494

Plantarflexion / knee flexion

Front 1495

What is the nerve supply for the plantaris?

Back 1495

Tibial

Front 1496

What is the spinal segment for the plantaris?

Back 1496

S1 - S2

Front 1497

What is the action of popliteus?

Back 1497

Knee flexion / Unlocks knee joint

Front 1498

What is the nerve supply for the popliteus?

Back 1498

Tibial

Front 1499

What is the spinal segment for the popliteus?

Back 1499

L4, L5, S1

Front 1500

What is the action of Psoas?

Back 1500

Flexion

Front 1501

What is the nerve supply for the psoas?

Back 1501

Anterior Rami of Lumbar nerves

Front 1502

What is the spinal segment for the psoas?

Back 1502

L1 - L3

Front 1503

What is the action of Quadratus Femoris?

Back 1503

External Rotation

Front 1504

What is the nerve supply for the quadratus femoris?

Back 1504

Nerve to the Quadratus femoris

Front 1505

What is the spinal segment for the quadratus femoris?

Back 1505

L5, S1

Front 1506

What is the action of RectusFemoris?

Back 1506

Hip Flexion / Knee Extension

Front 1507

What is the nerve supply for the rectus femoris?

Back 1507

Femoral

Front 1508

What is the spinal segment for the rectus femoris?

Back 1508

L2 - L4

Front 1509

What is the action of Sartorius?

Back 1509

Flexion / Abduction / ER

Front 1510

What is the nerve supply for the sartorius?

Back 1510

Femoral

Front 1511

What is the spinal segment for the sartorius?

Back 1511

L2 - L3

Front 1512

What is the spinal segment for the gluteus minimus?

Back 1512

L5, S2

Front 1513

What is the nerve supply for the semimembranosus?

Back 1513

Sciatic

Front 1514

What is the spinal segment for the semimembranosus?

Back 1514

L5, S1 - S2

Front 1515

What is the action of semitendinosus?

Back 1515

Hip Extension / Leg Flexion / IR

Front 1516

What is the nerve supply for the semitendinosus?

Back 1516

Sciatic

Front 1517

What is the spinal segment for the semitendinosus?

Back 1517

L5, S1 - S2

Front 1518

What is the action of soleus?

Back 1518

Plantarflexion

Front 1519

What is the nerve supply for the soleus?

Back 1519

Tibial

Front 1520

What is the spinal segment for the soleus?

Back 1520

S1 - S2

Front 1521

What is the action of Tensor Fascia Latae?

Back 1521

Abduction / IR / Knee Extension / Knee Flexion

Front 1522

What is the nerve supply for the Tensor Fascia Latae?

Back 1522

Superior Gluteal

Front 1523

What is the spinal segment for the Tensor Fascia Latae?

Back 1523

L4 - L5

Front 1524

What is the action of Tibialis anterior?

Back 1524

Dorsiflexion / Inversion

Front 1525

What is the nerve supply for the tibialis anterior?

Back 1525

Deep Fibular

Front 1526

What is the spinal segment for the tibialis anterior?

Back 1526

L4 - L5

Front 1527

What is the action of Tibialis posterior?

Back 1527

Plantarflexion / Inversion

Front 1528

What is the nerve supply for the tibialis posterior?

Back 1528

Tibial

Front 1529

What is the spinal segment for the tibialis posterior?

Back 1529

L4 - L5

Front 1530

What is the action of vastus intermedius?

Back 1530

Knee Extension

Front 1531

What is the nerve supply for the vastus intermedius?

Back 1531

Femoral

Front 1532

What is the spinal segment for the vastus intermedius?

Back 1532

L2, L3, L4

Front 1533

What is the action of vastus lateralis?

Back 1533

Knee Extension

Front 1534

What is the nerve supply for the vastus lateralis?

Back 1534

Femoral

Front 1535

What is the spinal segment for the vastus lateralis?

Back 1535

L2, L3, L4

Front 1536

What is the action of vastus medialis?

Back 1536

Knee Extension

Front 1537

What is the nerve supply for the vastus medialis?

Back 1537

Femoral

Front 1538

What is the spinal segment for the vastus medialis?

Back 1538

L2, L3, L4

Front 1539

What are the prime hip flexors?

Back 1539

Iliacus, psoas major, tensor fasia latae

Front 1540

What is normal hip flexion ROM?

Back 1540

110-120

Front 1541

What are the prime hip extensors?

Back 1541

Gluteus maximus, hamstrings

Front 1542

What is normal hip extension ROM?

Back 1542

10/15/2015

Front 1543

What are the prime hip abductors?

Back 1543

Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus

Front 1544

What is normal hip abduction ROM?

Back 1544

30-50

Front 1545

What are the prime hip adductors?

Back 1545

Adductor longus, adductor magnus, adductor brevis

Front 1546

What is normal hip adduction ROM?

Back 1546

30

Front 1547

What are the prime hip IRs?

Back 1547

TFL, Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus

Front 1548

What is normal hip IR ROM?

Back 1548

30-40

Front 1549

What are the prime hip ERs?

Back 1549

Obturator internus, gemelli, quadratus femoris

Front 1550

What is normal hip ER ROM?

Back 1550

40-60

Front 1551

What are the prime knee flexors?

Back 1551

Semimembranosus, Semitendinosus, Biceps Femoris

Front 1552

What is normal knee flexion ROM?

Back 1552

125-135

Front 1553

What are the prime knee extensors?

Back 1553

Quadriceps femoris

Front 1554

What is normal knee extension ROM?

Back 1554

5/10/2015

Front 1555

What are the prime Tibial IRs?

Back 1555

Popliteus, semimembranosus, semitendinosus

Front 1556

What is normal tibial IR ROM?

Back 1556

20-30

Front 1557

What are the prime Tibial ERs?

Back 1557

Biceps Femoris

Front 1558

What is normal tibial ER ROM?

Back 1558

30-40

Front 1559

What are the prime ankle plantarflexors?

Back 1559

Gastrocnemius, soleus

Front 1560

What is the nerve supply for the semimembranosus?

Back 1560

Sciatic

Front 1561

What are the prime ankle dorsiflexors?

Back 1561

Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus

Front 1562

What is normal ankle dorsiflexion ROM?

Back 1562

20

Front 1563

What are the prime ankle Evertors?

Back 1563

Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis

Front 1564

What is normal ankle eversion ROM?

Back 1564

10

Front 1565

What are the prime forefoot Evertors?

Back 1565

Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis

Front 1566

What is normal forefoot eversion ROM?

Back 1566

25

Front 1567

What are the prime ankle invertors?

Back 1567

Tibials anterior, tibialis posterior

Front 1568

What is normal ankle inversion ROM?

Back 1568

20

Front 1569

T1 MRI is better used in defining anatomy or pathology?

Back 1569

Anatomy

Front 1570

T2 MRI is better used in defining anatomy or pathology?

Back 1570

Pathology

Front 1571

What are function MRIs used for?

Back 1571

Metabolic changes in the brain

Front 1572

What are the prime forefoot invertors?

Back 1572

Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior

Front 1573

What is normal forefoot inversion ROM?

Back 1573

25

Front 1574

What are the prime forefoot abductors?

Back 1574

Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, fibularis tertius

Front 1575

What is normal forefoot abduction ROM?

Back 1575

15

Front 1576

What are the prime forefoot adductors?

Back 1576

Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior, extensor hallucis

Front 1577

What is normal forefoot adduction?

Back 1577

30

Front 1578

What muscle is tested at C4?

Back 1578

Upper Trapezius

Front 1579

What motor function is tested at C4?

Back 1579

Shoulder shrug

Front 1580

What sensory function is tested at C4?

Back 1580

Upper trap, lower neck

Front 1581

What muscle is tested at C5?

Back 1581

Deltoid, Biceps

Front 1582

What motor function is tested at C5?

Back 1582

Shoulder abduction, elbow flexion

Front 1583

What reflex is tested at C5?

Back 1583

Biceps Tendon

Front 1584

What sensory function is tested at C5?

Back 1584

Deltoid area

Front 1585

What muscle is tested at C6?

Back 1585

Wrist extension, biceps

Front 1586

What motor function is tested at C6?

Back 1586

Wrist extension, elbow flexion

Front 1587

What reflex is tested at C6?

Back 1587

Brachioradialis tendon

Front 1588

What sensory function is tested at C6?

Back 1588

Radial border of the hand

Front 1589

What muscle is tested at C7?

Back 1589

Wrist flexors, triceps

Front 1590

What motor function is tested at C7?

Back 1590

Wrist flexion, elbow extension

Front 1591

What reflex is tested at C7?

Back 1591

Triceps tendon

Front 1592

What sensory function is tested at C7?

Back 1592

Index, middle and ring finger

Front 1593

What are the advantages of CT scans?

Back 1593

Fast, high quality imaging of bone, soft tissue and blood vessels simulataneously

Front 1594

What is a disadvantage of CT scans?

Back 1594

Large amounts of ionizing radiation

Front 1595

What muscle is tested at C8?

Back 1595

Thenar muscles

Front 1596

What motor function is tested at C8?

Back 1596

Thumb extension

Front 1597

What sensory function is tested at C8?

Back 1597

Ulnar border of the hand

Front 1598

What muscle is tested at T1?

Back 1598

Interossei

Front 1599

What motor function is tested at T1?

Back 1599

Abduction and adduction of the fingers

Front 1600

What sensory function is tested at T1?

Back 1600

Medial arm

Front 1601

What muscle is tested at L2?

Back 1601

Ilipsoas

Front 1602

What motor function is tested at L2?

Back 1602

Hip flexion

Front 1603

What sensory function is tested at L2?

Back 1603

Anterolateral thigh

Front 1604

What muscle is tested at L3?

Back 1604

Ilipsoas, quadriceps

Front 1605

What motor function is tested at L3?

Back 1605

Hip flexion, knee extension

Front 1606

What reflex is tested at L3?

Back 1606

Patellar Tendon

Front 1607

What sensory function is tested at L3?

Back 1607

Anteromedial and distal thigh

Front 1608

What muscle is tested at L4?

Back 1608

Tibialis anterior

Front 1609

What are the prime ankle dorsiflexors?

Back 1609

Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus

Front 1610

What reflex is tested at L4?

Back 1610

Patellar Tendon

Front 1611

What sensory function is tested at L4?

Back 1611

Medial calf and ankle

Front 1612

What muscle is tested at L5?

Back 1612

Extensor hallucis longus

Front 1613

What motor function is tested at L5?

Back 1613

Toe extension

Front 1614

What sensory function is tested at L5?

Back 1614

Lateral leg, anterior shin, foot

Front 1615

What muscles is tested at S1?

Back 1615

Fibularis longus / fibularis brevis

Front 1616

What motor function is tested at S1?

Back 1616

Plantar flexion / eversion

Front 1617

What reflex is tested at S1?

Back 1617

Achilles Tendon

Front 1618

What sensory function is tested at S1?

Back 1618

Lateral ankle and foot

Front 1619

What muscle is tested at S2?

Back 1619

Hamstrings

Front 1620

What motor function is tested at S2?

Back 1620

Knee flexion

Front 1621

What sensory function is tested at S2?

Back 1621

Medial posterior thigh

Front 1622

How much of the gait cycle is stance phase?

Back 1622

60%

Front 1623

What is another name for Initial Contact in the gait cycle?

Back 1623

Heel strike

Front 1624

What is another name for Loading Response in the gait cycle?

Back 1624

Foot Flat

Front 1625

What is another name for Terminal Stance in the gait cycle?

Back 1625

Heel Off

Front 1626

What is another name for Preswing in the gait cycle?

Back 1626

Toe off

Front 1627

What is another name for Initial Swing in the gait cycle?

Back 1627

Acceleration

Front 1628

What is another name for Midswing in the gait cycle?

Back 1628

Midswing

Front 1629

What is another name for terminal swing in the gait cycle?

Back 1629

Decleration

Front 1630

How is step length measured?

Back 1630

Heel strike to heel strike

Front 1631

How is stride length measured?

Back 1631

Heel strike to heel strike of same extremity

Front 1632

What structure seperates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes?

Back 1632

Lateral central fissure

Front 1633

What structure seperates the two cerebral hemispheres?

Back 1633

Longitudinal Fissure

Front 1634

What structure seperates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe?

Back 1634

Central sulcus

Front 1635

What are the 6 cerebral lobes?

Back 1635

Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insular, limbic

Front 1636

What lobe is the precentral gyrus located in?

Back 1636

Frontal

Front 1637

What is located in the precentral gyrus?

Back 1637

Primary motor cortex for voluntary muscle activation

Front 1638

What lobe is the prefrontal cortex located in?

Back 1638

Frontal

Front 1639

What is the function of the prefrontal cortex?

Back 1639

Controls emotions and judgements

Front 1640

What lobe is Broca's area located in?

Back 1640

Frontal

Front 1641

What is the function of Broca's Area>

Back 1641

Controls motor aspects of speech

Front 1642

What muscles position the foot for loading response?

Back 1642

Tibialis anterior and long toe extensors

Front 1643

What muscles make up the pretibial muscles?

Back 1643

Tibialis anterior and long toe extensors

Front 1644

What muscle contracts in preparation for loading response?

Back 1644

Quadriceps

Front 1645

What lobe is the postcentral gyrus located in?

Back 1645

Parietal

Front 1646

What is the function of the postcentral gyrus?

Back 1646

Primary sensory cortex

Front 1647

What lobe is the primary auditory cortex located in?

Back 1647

Temporal

Front 1648

What lobe is Wernicke's Area located in?

Back 1648

Temporal

Front 1649

What is the function of Wernicke's Area?

Back 1649

Language Comprehension

Front 1650

What is the role of the hamstrings during intial contact?

Back 1650

Counteract the brief extension torque

Front 1651

What is the role of the pretibial muscles during loading response?

Back 1651

Contract eccentrically to control plantarflexion torque

Front 1652

What is the role of the quadriceps during loading response?

Back 1652

Contract eccentrically to meet torque demands and absorb shock

Front 1653

What lobe is the primary visual cortex located in?

Back 1653

Occipital

Front 1654

What lobe is the visual association cortex located in?

Back 1654

Occipital

Front 1655

Where is the insula located?

Back 1655

Deep within lateral sulcus

Front 1656

What is the function of the insula?

Back 1656

Associated with visceral functions

Front 1657

What structures make up the limbic system?

Back 1657

Cingulate gyrus, parahippocampal gyurs, subcallosal gyrus, hippocampal formation, amygdaloid nucleus, hypothalamus and anterior nucleus of thalamus

Front 1658

Which structures help to counteract the flexion torque during loading response?

Back 1658

Lower fibers of gluteus maximus, adductor magnus and hamstrings

Front 1659

What reflex is tested at L4?

Back 1659

Patellar Tendon

Front 1660

What function do the soleus and gastrocnemius have during midstance?

Back 1660

They contract to control forward progression of the tibia

Front 1661

What is the function of the limbic system?

Back 1661

Concerned with instincts and emotions contributing to preservation of the individual

Front 1662

What is the function of the transverse fibers in the brain?

Back 1662

Connecting the two hemispheres

Front 1663

What are 3 structures that make up the transverse fibers in the brain?

Back 1663

Corpus callosum, anterior commissure, hippocampal commissure

Front 1664

What is the function of the projection fibers in the brain?

Back 1664

connect cerebral hemisphers with other portions of the brain and spinal cord

Front 1665

What muscle group helps to stabilize the pelvis during midstance?

Back 1665

Hip abductor group

Front 1666

What is the function of the calf muscles during terminal stance?

Back 1666

Prevent forward tibial collapse and allow the heel to rise

Front 1667

What is the function of the rectus femoris during preswing?

Back 1667

Restrains rapid passive knee flexion

Front 1668

What is the function of association fibers in the brain?

Back 1668

connect different portions of the cerebral hemisphere allowing cortex to function as an integrated whole

Front 1669

What structures make up the Basal Ganglia?

Back 1669

Caudate Nucleus, nucleus accumbens, putamen, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus and substantia nigra

Front 1670

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

Back 1670

Forms an associated motor system with other nuclei in the subthalamus and midbrain

Front 1671

What is the path of the Oculomotor circuit?

Back 1671

Originates in the frtonal and supplementary motor eye fields and projects to caudate

Front 1672

What is the function of the oculomotor circuit?

Back 1672

Saccadic eye movements

Front 1673

What is the path of the Motor Loop?

Back 1673

Originates in precentral motor and postcentral somatosensory areas, projects to putamen neurons

Front 1674

What is the function of the motor loop?

Back 1674

Scale amplitude and velocity of movements, reinforces slected pattern and suppresses conflicting patterns

Front 1675

What allows the femur to fall forward during Preswing?

Back 1675

Momentum along with adductor longus and rectur femoris

Front 1676

What is the function of the pretibial muscles during intial swing?

Back 1676

Initiate dorsiflexion

Front 1677

What is the path of the limbic circuit?

Back 1677

Originates in prefrontal and limbic areas or cortex to basal ganglia to prefrontal cortex

Front 1678

What is the function of the limbic circuit?

Back 1678

Functions to organize behaviors and for procedural learning

Front 1679

What is the function of the sensory nuclei of the thalamus?

Back 1679

Integrate and relay sensory information from body, face, retina, cochlea, and taste receptors to cerebral cortex and subcortical regions, except for smell

Front 1680

What is the function of the motor nuclei of the thalamus?

Back 1680

Relay motor information from cerebellum and globus pallidus to precentral motor cortex

Front 1681

What is the function of the subthalamus?

Back 1681

Involved in control of several functional pathways for sensory, motor and reticular function

Front 1682

What is the function of the short head of biceps femoris during midswing?

Back 1682

Control rate of knee extension

Front 1683

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

Back 1683

Integrates and controls the functions of the autonomic nervous system and neuroendocrine system

Front 1684

What is the function of the habenular nuclei in the epithalamus?

Back 1684

Integrate olfactory, visceral and somatic afferent pathways

Front 1685

What is the function of the pineal gland?

Back 1685

Secretes hormones that influence the pituitary gland and several other organs and influences circadian rhythm?

Front 1686

What is the function of the quadriceps during terminal swing?

Back 1686

Contracts to ensure full knee extension

Front 1687

What is the function of the hamstrings during terminal swing?

Back 1687

Contract eccentrically to decelerate leg

Front 1688

What is the function of the back extensors and abdominals during gait?

Back 1688

Stabilize the trunk in the saggital, horizontal and frontal planes

Front 1689

What causes arm swing during gait?

Back 1689

The trunk rotates approximately 5 degrees

Front 1690

What is another name for the midbrain?

Back 1690

Mesencephalon

Front 1691

What structures travel through the red nucleus?

Back 1691

Fibers from the cerebellum

Front 1692

What function does the substantia nigra perform?

Back 1692

Motor control and muscle tone

Front 1693

What is the function of the superior colliculus?

Back 1693

Relay station for vision and vision reflexes

Front 1694

What is the function of the inferior colliculus?

Back 1694

Relay station for hearing and auditory reflexes

Front 1695

What is the function of the periaqueductul gray?

Back 1695

Produce endorphins and contains descending autonomic tracts

Front 1696

What is the function of the trunk extensors and rotators during foot flat?

Back 1696

Counteract flexion torque

Front 1697

What structures does the pons connet?

Back 1697

Medulla oblangata to the midbrain

Front 1698

What function does the Midline Raphe Nuclei perform?

Back 1698

Important for modulating pain and controlling arousal

Front 1699

What Cranial nerve nuclei are found in the Tegmentum?

Back 1699

Abducens, trigeminal, facial, vestibulochochlear

Front 1700

What structures does the medulla oblangata connet?

Back 1700

Spinal cord with the pons

Front 1701

How much does the pelvis rotate during gait?

Back 1701

4 degrees

Front 1702

When does the high point of pelvic tilt occur?

Back 1702

Midstance

Front 1703

When does the low point of pelvic tilt occur?

Back 1703

Early stance

Front 1704

What spinal column tracts cross in the medulla oblangata to form medial lemniscus?

Back 1704

Gracilis and cuneatus

Front 1705

In which part of the medulla oblangata do the corticospinal tracts decussate?

Back 1705

Pyramids

Front 1706

Which cranial nerve nuclei are found in the medulla oblangata?

Back 1706

Hypoglossal, dorsal nucleus of vagus and vestibulocochlear

Front 1707

How is the cerebellum attached to the brainstem?

Back 1707

By three peduncles (superior, middle, inferior)

Front 1708

What is another name for the archicerebellum?

Back 1708

Flocculonodular lobe

Front 1709

What is the function of the archicerebellum?

Back 1709

Connects with vestibular system and is concerned with equilibrium and regulation of muscle tone, also helps coordinate the vestibuloocular reflex

Front 1710

What function do the soleus and gastrocnemius have during midstance?

Back 1710

They contract to control forward progression of the tibia

Front 1711

What is the function of the Neocerebellum?

Back 1711

Smooth coordination of voluntary movements ensures accurate force, direction and extent of movement. Important for motor learning, sequencing of movements and visually triggered movements. May have a roll in cognitive functioning and mental imagery

Front 1712

What do the anterior horns of the spinal cord contain>

Back 1712

Cell bodies that give rise to efferent (motor) neurons

Front 1713

What do the posterior horns of the spinal cord contain?

Back 1713

Cell bodies that give rise to afferent (sensory) neurons

Front 1714

What sections of the spinal cord have lateral horns?

Back 1714

Thoracic and upper lumbar

Front 1715

What are the two sections of white matter in the spinal cord?

Back 1715

Anterior and Posterior Columns

Front 1716

What fibers does the dorsal column/medial lemniscal column convey?

Back 1716

Proprioception, vibration, tactile discrimination

Front 1717

What tracts does the fasciculus cuneatus convey?

Back 1717

UE tracts

Front 1718

What tracts does the fasciculus gracilis convey?

Back 1718

LE tracts

Front 1719

Is the fasciculus cuneatus medial or lateral?

Back 1719

lateral

Front 1720

Is the fasciculus gracilis medial or lateral?

Back 1720

Medial

Front 1721

What is the path of the dorsal column?

Back 1721

Up the spinal cord to the medulla where they decussate to form medial lemniscus and ascend to the thalamus and then to the somatosensory cortex

Front 1722

What fibers does the spinothalamic tract convey?

Back 1722

Pain and temperature (lateral spinothalamic) and crude touch (anterior spinothalamic)

Front 1723

How many spinal cord segments does the spinothalamic move up before crossing over?

Back 1723

1/2/2015

Front 1724

What fibers does the spinocerebellar tract convey?

Back 1724

Proprioception, golgi tendon organs, pressure

Front 1725

What is the normal ankle motion from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1725

0-15 degrees PF

Front 1726

What muscle groups are working from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1726

Pretibial eccentrically to control PF

Front 1727

Muscle weakness in the pretibial muscles during heel strike to foot flat would cause what?

Back 1727

Foot slap

Front 1728

What is a possible compensation for foot slap during heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1728

Foot placed flat or with toes at initial contact

Front 1729

What is the normal ankle motion from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1729

15 PF to 10 DF

Front 1730

What muscle groups are working from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1730

Gastroc / Soleus eccentrically to conrol DF

Front 1731

What would weakness in the gastro/soleus from foot flat through midstance cause?

Back 1731

Uncontrolled tibial advance

Front 1732

What is a possible compensation for uncontrolled tibial advance from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1732

Ankle may be maintained in PF

Front 1733

What is the path of the corticospinal tract?

Back 1733

Arise from primary motor cortex, descends in brainstem, decussates in the medulla to the ventral gray matter in the anterior horn

Front 1734

What is the path of the vestibulopsinal tract?

Back 1734

Arise from vestibular nucleus and descend to spinal cord

Front 1735

What function does the vestibulospinal tract do?

Back 1735

Important for control of muscle tone, antigravity muscles and postural reflexes

Front 1736

What is the path of the rubrospinal tract?

Back 1736

Arise in contrlateral red nucleus and descend in lateral white columns to spinal gray

Front 1737

What function does the rubrospinal tract have?

Back 1737

Assist in motor function

Front 1738

What is the normal ankle motion from midstance through heel off?

Back 1738

10-15 DF

Front 1739

What muscle groups are active from midstance through heel off?

Back 1739

Gastroc / Soleus eccentrically to conrol DF

Front 1740

What is the result of gastroc / soleus weakenss from midstance through heel off?

Back 1740

Uncontrolled tibial advance

Front 1741

What is a possible compensation for uncontrolled tibial advance from midstance through heel off?

Back 1741

Ankle may be maintained in PF

Front 1742

What is the normal ankle motion from heel off to toe off?

Back 1742

15 DF to 20 PF

Front 1743

What muscle groups are active from heel off to toe off?

Back 1743

Gastroc / Soleus / Fibularis Longus / Fibularis Brevis / Flexor Hallucis Longus for PF

Front 1744

What is the result of weak gastroc / soleus mucles from heel off to toe off?

Back 1744

No off off, decreased contralateral step

Front 1745

What is a possible compensation for No roll off from heel off to toe off?

Back 1745

Whole foot is lifted from the ground

Front 1746

What is the normal ankle motion from Acceleration to midswing?

Back 1746

Dorsiflexion to neutral

Front 1747

What muscle groups are active from acceleration to midswing?

Back 1747

Dorsiflexors bring foot back to neutral and prevent toe drag

Front 1748

What is the result of weak dorsiflexors from acceleration midswing?

Back 1748

Foot drop / Toe drag

Front 1749

What is a possible compensation for foot drop / Toe drag from acceleration through midswing?

Back 1749

Increased hip and/or knee flexion, hip hike on the contralateral side, or hip circumduction

Front 1750

What is the normal knee motion from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1750

Flexion 0-15

Front 1751

What muscles are active in the knee from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1751

Quads contract to hold knee in extension, then eccentric to control flexion

Front 1752

What is the result of weak quads from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1752

Excessive knee flexion

Front 1753

What is a possible compensation for excessive knee flexion from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1753

Plantarflexion at ankle so that foot flat occurs instead of heel strike

Front 1754

What is the normal knee motion from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1754

Extension 15-5

Front 1755

What muscles are active in the knee from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1755

Quads contract in early part

Front 1756

What is the result of weak quads from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1756

Excessive knee flexion

Front 1757

What is a possible compensation for excessive knee flexion from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1757

Plantarflexion at ankle

Front 1758

What is the normal knee motion from Midstance to heel off?

Back 1758

5 flexion to neutral

Front 1759

What muscles are active in the knee from midstance to heel off?

Back 1759

None

Front 1760

What section of the spinal cord houses the sympathetic nervous system?

Back 1760

T1-L2

Front 1761

What reactions to stimulus does the sympathetic nervous system produce?

Back 1761

Fight or flight, Increase HR, increase BP, Constricts peipheral blood vessels and redistributes blood, inhibits peristalsis

Front 1762

What is the function of the Neocerebellum?

Back 1762

Smooth coordination of voluntary movements ensures accurate force, direction and extent of movement. Important for motor learning, sequencing of movements and visually triggered movements. May have a roll in cognitive functioning and mental imagery

Front 1763

What muscles are active in the knee from heel off to toe off?

Back 1763

Quads to control knee flexion

Front 1764

What is the normal knee motion from acceleration through midswing?

Back 1764

40-60 flexion

Front 1765

What muscles are active in the knee from acceleration through midswing?

Back 1765

Hamstrings create flexion

Front 1766

What is the result of hamstring weakness from acceleration through midswing?

Back 1766

Inadequate knee flexion

Front 1767

What is a possible compensation for inadequate knee flexion from acceleration through midswing?

Back 1767

Increased hip flexion, circumduction or hiking

Front 1768

What is normal knee motion from midswing through deceleration?

Back 1768

60 flexion to 0 flexion

Front 1769

What muscles are active in the knee from midswing through deceleration?

Back 1769

Quads contract to stabilize knee

Front 1770

What is the result of quad weakness from midswing through deceleration?

Back 1770

Inadequate knee extension

Front 1771

What is the normal hip motion from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1771

30 flexion

Front 1772

What muscles are active in the hip from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1772

Erector spinae, gluteus maximus, hamstrings

Front 1773

What is the result of Erector spinae, glut max or HS weakness from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1773

Excessive hip flexion and anterior pelvic tilt

Front 1774

What is the possible compensation for excessive hip flexion and anterior pelvic tilt from heel strike through foot flat?

Back 1774

Trunk leans backward to prevent hip flexion

Front 1775

What is normal hip motion from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1775

30 flexion to neutral

Front 1776

What muscles in the hip are active from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1776

Gluteus maximus opposes flexion of femur

Front 1777

What is the result of weak glut max from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1777

Excessive hip flexion and anterior pelvic tilt

Front 1778

What is a possible compensation for excessive hip flexion and anterior pelvic tilt from foot flat through midstance?

Back 1778

Trunk leans backward to prevent hip flexion

Front 1779

What is the normal hip motion from heel off to toe off?

Back 1779

10 hyperextension to neutral

Front 1780

What muscles in the hip are active from heel off to toe off?

Back 1780

Iliopsoas, adductor magnus, adductor longus

Front 1781

What part of the spinal cord is the parasympathetic nervous system found?

Back 1781

Cranial and pelvic nerves

Front 1782

What is the purpose of the parasympathetic nervous system?

Back 1782

Rest and digest, decrease HR, decrease BP, increase peristalsis

Front 1783

What are the 5 parasympathetic plexuses?

Back 1783

Cardiac, pulmonary, celiac, hypogastric, pelvic

Front 1784

What is the normal hip motion from acceleration through midswing?

Back 1784

20 - 30 flexion

Front 1785

What muscles in the hip are active from acceleration through midswing?

Back 1785

Hip flexors initiate swing

Front 1786

What is the result of weak hip flexors from acceleration through midswing?

Back 1786

Diminished hip flexion, can't initiate forward movement

Front 1787

What is a possible compensation for inadequate hip flexion from acceleration through midswing?

Back 1787

Circumduction and/or hip hiking to move leg forward

Front 1788

What is normal hip motion from midswing through deceleration?

Back 1788

30 flexion to neutral

Front 1789

What muscles in the hip are active from midswing through deceleration?

Back 1789

Hamstrings

Front 1790

What is the result of weak hamstrings from midswing through deceleration?

Back 1790

Lack of control of swinging leg

Front 1791

What is a possible cause of foot slap?

Back 1791

Flaccid or weak dorsiflexors

Front 1792

What should you look for if you notice foot slap?

Back 1792

low muscle tone at ankle, steppage gait in swing phase

Front 1793

What is a possible cause of foes first during initial contact?

Back 1793

Leg length discrepancy, contracted achilles, flaccidity of dorsiflexors, painful heel

Front 1794

What should you look for if you notice toes first during initial contact?

Back 1794

Leg length discrepancy, hip and/or knee flexion contracture, muscle tone of plantarflexors, pain in heel

Front 1795

What is a possible cause of foot flat during initial contact?

Back 1795

Excessive dorsiflexion, proprioceptive walking

Front 1796

What should you look for if you notice foot flat during intial contact?

Back 1796

ROM at ankle, hyperextension of knee

Front 1797

What is a possible cause of excessive positional plantarflexion during midstance?

Back 1797

No eccentric PF, rupture or contracture of achilles tendon

Front 1798

What should you look for if you notice excessive positional plantarflexion during midstance?

Back 1798

spasitc or weak quads, hyperextension of knee or hip, backward or forward leaning trunk, weakness or rupture of achilles tendon

Front 1799

What is a possible cause of heel lift in midstance?

Back 1799

Spasticity of PF

Front 1800

What should you look for if you notice heel lift in midstance?

Back 1800

Spasticity of PF, quadriceps, hip flexors and adductors

Front 1801

What is the order of the meningeal layers?

Back 1801

Dura Mater - Arachnoid - Subarachnoid Space - Pia mater

Front 1802

Where is CSF found?

Back 1802

Subarachnoid space

Front 1803

How many ventricles in the brain are there?

Back 1803

4

Front 1804

What is a possible cause of Excessive positional dorsiflexion during midstance?

Back 1804

Inability of PF to control tibia, knee or hip flexion contractures

Front 1805

What should you look for if you notice excessive positional DF during midstance?

Back 1805

Test ankle muscles, knee and hip flexors and trunk position

Front 1806

What is a possible cause of toe clawing?

Back 1806

Plantar grasp reflex not full integrated, positive supporting reflex, spastic toe flexors

Front 1807

What should you look for if you notice toe clawing during midstance?

Back 1807

Check plantar grasp reflex, positive supporting reflex and ROM of toes

Front 1808

What is a possible cause of no roll off during push off?

Back 1808

Mechanical fixation of ankle, flaccidity of PF/invertors/toe flexors, rigidity of PF and DF, pain in forefoot

Front 1809

What should you look for if you notice no roll of during push off?

Back 1809

ROM at ankle and foot, muscle function at ankle

Front 1810

What is a possible cause of toe drag during swing?

Back 1810

Weakness of DF and/or toe extensors, spasticity of PF, inadequate knee or hip flexion

Front 1811

What should you look for if you notice toe drag during swing?

Back 1811

Ankle, hip, knee ROM, strength at hip, knee and ankle

Front 1812

What is a possible cause of varus during swing?

Back 1812

Spasticity of invertors, weakness of DF / evertors

Front 1813

What should you look for if you notice varus during swing?

Back 1813

Muscle tone of invertors and PF, DF and evertor strength

Front 1814

What is a possible cause of Excessive knee flexion during intitial contact?

Back 1814

Painful knee, spasticity of knee flexors, weak quads, short leg on contralateral side

Front 1815

What muscles are active in the knee from heel off to toe off?

Back 1815

Quads to control knee flexion

Front 1816

What is a possible cause of knee hyperextension during midstance?

Back 1816

Weak quads, spasticity of quads, accomodation to a fixed PF deformity

Front 1817

What is a possible cause of excessive knee flexion during push off?

Back 1817

Pelvis COG too far forward, rigid trunk, knee/hip flexion contraction, flexion withdrawal reflex,

Front 1818

What is a possible cause of excessive knee flexion during acceleration through midswing?

Back 1818

Diminished preswing knee flexion, reflex issues

Front 1819

What is a possible cause of limited knee flexion during acceleration through midswing?

Back 1819

Pain in knee, diminished ROM of knee, extensor spasticity

Front 1820

What is a possible cause of excessive hip flexion from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1820

Hip and/or knee flexion contracture, knee flexion caused by weak soleus and quads, hypertonicity of hip flexors

Front 1821

What is a possible cause of limited hip flexion from heel strike to foot flat?

Back 1821

Weakness of hip flexors, limited ROM of hip, glut max weakness

Front 1822

What is a possible cause of limited hip extension from foot flat to midstance?

Back 1822

Hip flexion contracture/spasticity

Front 1823

What do the common carotid arteries branch into?

Back 1823

Internal carotid - anterior and middle cerebral arteries

Front 1824

What is the pathway of the vertebrobasilar artery system?

Back 1824

Subclavian arteries - vertebral arteries - unite to form basilar artery - bifurcates into posterior cerebral arteries

Front 1825

What parts of the brain does the vertebrobasilar system supply?

Back 1825

Brainstem, cerebellum, occipital lobe and parts of the thalamus

Front 1826

What is the circle of willis composed of?

Back 1826

Anterior communicating artery connecting two anterior cerebral arteries and the posterior communicating artery and also connects the posterior and middle cerebral artery

Front 1827

What is apossible cause of hip IR during from foot flat to midstance?

Back 1827

Spasticity of IRs, weakness of ERs, excessive forward rotation of pelvis

Front 1828

What is a possible cause of hip ER from foot flat to midstance?

Back 1828

Excessive backard rotation of opposite pelvis

Front 1829

What is a possible cause of hip abduction from foot flat to midstance?

Back 1829

Contracture of glut med, trunk lateral lean over the ipsilateral hip

Front 1830

What is a possible cause of hip circumduction during swing?

Back 1830

Compensation for weak hip flexors or knee flexors

Front 1831

What is a possible cause of hip hiking during swing?

Back 1831

Lack of knee flexion and/or ankle DF,

Front 1832

What is a possible cause of excessive hip flexion during swing?

Back 1832

Presence of foot drop

Front 1833

What is a possible cause of Lateral trunk lean during stance?

Back 1833

Weak glut med, painful hip

Front 1834

What is a possible cause of Backward trunk lean during stance?

Back 1834

Weak glut max, anteriorly rotated pelvis

Front 1835

What is a possible cause of Forward trunk lean during stance?

Back 1835

Weak quads, hip and knee flexion contracture

Front 1836

What precaution must a PT have in dealing with a patient on Dialysis?

Back 1836

Hemhorraging from anticoagulant medication

Front 1837

When is the best time to treat a patient on dialysis?

Back 1837

On non-dialysis days, or right before dialysis treatment

Front 1838

What is the resting membrane potential inside a neuron?

Back 1838

-70 mV

Front 1839

Which ion comes into the cell during an action potential?

Back 1839

Na+

Front 1840

Which ion leaves the cell during an action potential?

Back 1840

K+

Front 1841

What is the description of type A nerve fibers?

Back 1841

Large, Myelinated, fast-conducting

Front 1842

What are the 4 types of A nerve fibers?

Back 1842

Alpha, Beta, Gamma, Delta

Front 1843

What are Alpha nerve fibers responsible for?

Back 1843

Proprioception, Somatic Motor

Front 1844

What are Beta nerve fibers responsible for?

Back 1844

Touch, Pressure

Front 1845

What are Gamma nerve fibers responsible for?

Back 1845

motor to muscle spindles

Front 1846

What are Delta nerve fibers responsible for?

Back 1846

Pain, temperature, touch

Front 1847

What is the description of type B nerve fibers?

Back 1847

Small, myelinated, conduct less rapidly

Front 1848

What are B fibers responsible for?

Back 1848

Preganglionic autonomic

Front 1849

What is the description of type C nerve fibers?

Back 1849

Smallest, unmyelinated, slowest conducting

Front 1850

C fibers in the dorsal root are responsible for what?

Back 1850

Pain, reflex responses

Front 1851

C fibers in the sympathetic nervous system are responsible for what?

Back 1851

Postganglionic sympathetics

Front 1852

Where do cranial motor nerves originate?

Back 1852

Motor Nuclei

Front 1853

Where do spinal motor nerves originate?

Back 1853

Anterior Horn Cells

Front 1854

Where do cranial nerve sensory nerves originate?

Back 1854

Sensory ganglia

Front 1855

Where do spinal nerve sensory nerves originate?

Back 1855

Dorsal root ganglia

Front 1856

What are 2 examples of common airborn pathogens?

Back 1856

TB and Measles

Front 1857

What type of nerve fibers are located in the ventral nerve root?

Back 1857

Motor fibers to voluntary muscles and to viscera, glands and smooth muscle

Front 1858

What type of nerve fibers are located in the dorsal nerve root?

Back 1858

Afferet fibers from sensory receptors in skin, joints and muscles

Front 1859

What are 2 examples of common contact spread pathogens?

Back 1859

HIV and Hep B

Front 1860

What structures does the anterior ramus supply innervation to?

Back 1860

Muscles and skin of the anterolateral body wall and limbs

Front 1861

What structures does the posterior ramus supply innervation to?

Back 1861

Muscles and skin of the back

Front 1862

The anterior rami merge at various locations to form what structures?

Back 1862

Plexuses

Front 1863

What spinal sections merge to form the cervical plexus?

Back 1863

C1 - C4

Front 1864

What spinal sections merge to form the brachial plexus?

Back 1864

C5 - T1

Front 1865

What is the general makeup of the brachial plexus?

Back 1865

Nerve roots - Anterior/posterior divisions - Lateral/Posterior/Medial Cords - Peripheral Nerves

Front 1866

What is the major treatment for AIDS?

Back 1866

Use of Protease inhibitors in combination with other drugs

Front 1867

What spinal sections merge to form the lumbar plexus?

Back 1867

T12 - L4

Front 1868

What spinal sections merge to form the sacral plexus?

Back 1868

L4 - S3

Front 1869

What is a possible cause of knee hyperextension during midstance?

Back 1869

Weak quads, spasticity of quads, accomodation to a fixed PF deformity

Front 1870

How do you test sense of smell?

Back 1870

Non-irritating odors

Front 1871

What cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

Back 1871

Optic (II)

Front 1872

What cranial nerve is responsible for pupilarry reflexes?

Back 1872

Optic and Occulomotor (II and III)

Front 1873

How do you test pupillary reflexes?

Back 1873

Shine light into eyes and look for pupil constriction

Front 1874

What cranial nerves are responsible for extraocular movements?

Back 1874

Oculomotor, Trochlear and Abducens (I, IV, VI)

Front 1875

What cranial nerve is responsible for turning the eye up, down and in?

Back 1875

Trochlear (IV)

Front 1876

What cranial nerve is responsible for elevating the eyelids?

Back 1876

Trochlear (IV)

Front 1877

What cranial nerve is responsible for turning the adducted eye down?

Back 1877

Trochlear (IV)

Front 1878

What cranial nerve is responsible for turning the eyes out?

Back 1878

Abducens (VI)

Front 1879

What cranial nerve is responsible for sensation of the face?

Back 1879

Trigeminal (V)

Front 1880

What cranial nerve is responsible for corneal sensation?

Back 1880

Trigeminal (V)

Front 1881

What cranial nerve is responsible for temporal and masseter muscle innervation?

Back 1881

Trigeminal (V)

Front 1882

What cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression?

Back 1882

Facial (VII)

Front 1883

What cranial nerve is responsible for Vestibular function?

Back 1883

Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

Front 1884

What cranial nerve is responsible for Vestibular Ocular Reflex?

Back 1884

Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

Front 1885

What cranial nerve is responsible for cochlear function?

Back 1885

Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

Front 1886

What does the Homan's Sign test for>

Back 1886

DVT

Front 1887

What is the normal treatment for DVT?

Back 1887

Hospitilization, foot elevated 6 inches, anticoagulant therapy

Front 1888

What cranial nerve is responsible for phonation?

Back 1888

Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X)

Front 1889

What cranial nerves are responsible for swallowing?

Back 1889

Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X)

Front 1890

What cranial nerves are responsible for palatal and pharynx control?

Back 1890

Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X)

Front 1891

What cranial nerves are responsible for the gag reflex?

Back 1891

Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X)

Front 1892

What cranial nerve is responsible for innervation of the trapezius?

Back 1892

Spinal Accessory (XI)

Front 1893

What cranial nerve is responsible for innervation of the SCM?

Back 1893

Spinal Accessory (XI)

Front 1894

What cranial nerve is responsible for tongue movements?

Back 1894

Hypoglossal (XII)

Front 1895

What are common symptoms or complications of Hemophilia?

Back 1895

Hemarthrosis, joint contractures, muscle weakness, decreased aerobic-fitness, posture scoliosis and gait deviations

Front 1896

What are common treatments for hemophilia?

Back 1896

Blood transfusions, medications for pain, rest, ice and elevation during acute bleeding episodes. Exercise and conditioning during subacute and chronic stages.

Front 1897

What is the differential diagnose for hepatitis?

Back 1897

Elevated values of hepatic transaminases and bilirubin

Front 1898

What is the common treatment for hepatitis?

Back 1898

IV fluids, analgesics, interferon and vaccines

Front 1899

What is the path of the stretch reflex?

Back 1899

Afferent Ia fiber from muscle spindle to alpha motor neurons projecting back to muscle of origin (monosynaptic)

Front 1900

What is the function of the stretch reflex?

Back 1900

Maintenance of muscle tone, support aganoist muscle contraction and provide feedback about muscle length

Front 1901

What is reciprocal inhibition?

Back 1901

The stretch reflex inhibits the antagonist muscle from contracting

Front 1902

What area of the body does Herpes zoster affect?

Back 1902

Dorsal root ganglia

Front 1903

What is a common treatment for Herpes Zoster?

Back 1903

Corticosteroids

Front 1904

What is the path of the Inverse stretch reflex?

Back 1904

Afferent Ib fiber from golgi tendon organ via inhibitory interneuron to muscle of origin (polysynaptic)

Front 1905

What is the function of the inverse stretch reflex?

Back 1905

Provide agonist inhibition, diminution of force of agonist contraction, stretch-protection reflex

Front 1906

What is the function of the Gamma reflex loop?

Back 1906

Allows muscle tension to come under control of descending pathways

Front 1907

What is the pathway of the Gamma reflex loop?

Back 1907

Descending pathways excite gamma motor neurons, causing contraction of muscle spindle, and in turn increase stretch sensitivity and increased rate of firing from spindle afferentss; impulses are then conveyed to alpha motor neurons

Front 1908

What is the pathway of the Flexor (withdrawal) reflex?

Back 1908

Cutaneous receptors via interneurons to largely flexor muscles

Front 1909

What is the function of the flexor (withdrawal) reflex?

Back 1909

Protective reflex, withdrawing the body from potential harmful stimuli

Front 1910

What is the pathway of the Crossed extension reflex?

Back 1910

cutaneous and muscle receptors diverging to many spinal cord motor neurons on same and opposite side

Front 1911

What is the function of the Crossed extension reflex?

Back 1911

Coordinates reciprocal limb activities such as gait

Front 1912

What is the differential diagnose for lyme disease?

Back 1912

Early: Bulls eye round rash and flu like symptoms. Later: arthritis, neuritis, ataxia or meningitis

Front 1913

What is a common treatment for psoriasis?

Back 1913

UV light

Front 1914

What condition is characterized by a chronic, diffuse disease of connective tissues causing fibrosis of the skin, joints, blood vessels, and internal organs

Back 1914

Scleroderma

Front 1915

What type of patient should possiblty avoid isometric contractions and why?

Back 1915

Cardiac, due to sharp rise in blood pressure possibility

Front 1916

What is an isotonic contraction?

Back 1916

Same resistance throughout ROM, but at different speeds

Front 1917

A score of 1-8 on the glasgow coma scale indicates what?

Back 1917

Severe brain injury

Front 1918

A score of 9-12 on the glasgow coma scale indicates what?

Back 1918

Moderate brain injury

Front 1919

A score of 13-15 on the glasgow coma scale indicates what?

Back 1919

Minor brain injury

Front 1920

What is the target heart rate?

Back 1920

220-age x 70%

Front 1921

What is Karvonene's Formula?

Back 1921

THR = (Max HR - RHR) x % of desired intensity + RHR

Front 1922

Intense aquatic exercise should occur in what temperature of water?

Back 1922

81-83 degrees

Front 1923

Rehab type exercises in the water should occur at what temperautre?

Back 1923

91-93 degrees

Front 1924

How do you test sense of smell?

Back 1924

Non-irritating odors

Front 1925

What condition is characterized by a central language disorder in which speech is typically awkward, restricted, interuppted and produced with effort

Back 1925

Nonfluent Aphasia

Front 1926

What heart vital signs will change during aquatic exercise>

Back 1926

Stroke Volume and Cardiac Output will increase, HR will remain the same or slightly decrease

Front 1927

What condition is characterized as an impairment of speech production resulting from damage to the central or peripheral nervous system; causes weakness, paralysis or incoordination of the motor-speech psystem?

Back 1927

Dysarthria

Front 1928

What are 2 types of fluent aphasia?

Back 1928

Wernicke's aphasia and receptive aphasia

Front 1929

What condition is characterized as a central language disorder in which spontaneous speech is preserved and flows smoothly, while auditory comprehension is impaired?

Back 1929

Fluent Aphasia

Front 1930

What condition is a result of a lesion in the posterior first temporal gyrus of the left hemisphere?

Back 1930

Fluent Aphasia

Front 1931

How many sessions per week of aerobic exercise is needed to effect change?

Back 1931

3-5, at least 3

Front 1932

What is the recommended amount of aerobic exercise in an aquatic area?

Back 1932

At least 20 minutes

Front 1933

What is a Cheyne-Stokes respiration?

Back 1933

A period of apnea lasting 10-60 seconds followed by gradually increasing depth and frequency of respirations

Front 1934

What injuries will usually produce Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

Back 1934

Depression of frontal lobe or diencephalong dysfunction

Front 1935

What will dysfunction of lower midbrain and pons produce?

Back 1935

Hyperventilation

Front 1936

What is apneustic breathing?

Back 1936

Abnormal respiration marked by prolonged inspiration

Front 1937

What injury will usually produce apneustic breathing?

Back 1937

Damage to hypothalamus or brainstem

Front 1938

What are the signs that an obese individual is exercising at the correct intensity?

Back 1938

They are able to talk while they exercise and do not have muscle ache following

Front 1939

What is the Kernig's Test?

Back 1939

Patient is positioned in supine, flexed hip and knee fully to chest and then extend knee

Front 1940

What is a positive Kernig's Test?

Back 1940

Causes pain and increased resistance to extending the knee due to spasm of hamstring bilaterally

Front 1941

What does a positive Kernig's Test indicate?

Back 1941

Meningeal irritation

Front 1942

What is Brudzinski's Test?

Back 1942

Patient is positioned in supine, flex neck to chest

Front 1943

What is a positive Brudzinski's Sign?

Back 1943

Causes flexion of hips and knees

Front 1944

What does a positive Brudzinki's Sign indicate?

Back 1944

Meningeal irritation

Front 1945

An increase of creatinine in blood and urine indicates what?

Back 1945

Kidney Disease

Front 1946

What is protein in the urine called?

Back 1946

Proteinuria

Front 1947

What can proteinuria indicate?

Back 1947

Renal Disorder

Front 1948

True/False: Sometimes proteinuria is found in marathon or heavy joggers and is usually bening?

Back 1948

TRUE

Front 1949

What is one blood tracer that is elevated in MS patients?

Back 1949

Gamma Globulin

Front 1950

What is normal values for hematocrit?

Back 1950

35-55%

Front 1951

Vomiting can be secondary to irritation of which cranial nerve?

Back 1951

Vagus (X)

Front 1952

What is bioavailability?

Back 1952

The percentage of the medicaiton that reaches the systemic circulation

Front 1953

What property of a drug makes it easier to absorb in the GI tract?

Back 1953

Lipid Soluble

Front 1954

What is anosognosia?

Back 1954

Severe denial of severity of condition

Front 1955

What is a prodrug?

Back 1955

A drug that is inactive when delivered, until it is altered into its active form in the liver

Front 1956

What is agnosia?

Back 1956

Inability to recognize familiar objects

Front 1957

What is apraxia?

Back 1957

Inability to perform learned movements in the absence of loss of sensation, strength, coordination, attention or comprehension

Front 1958

What is ideomotor apraxia?

Back 1958

Patient cannot perform the task on command, but can do the task when left on own

Front 1959

What is ideational apraxia?

Back 1959

Patient cannot perform the task at all, either on command or on own

Front 1960

What is a 0 on the Modified Ashworth scale indicative of?

Back 1960

No increase in muscle tone

Front 1961

What is a 1 on the Modified Ashworth scale indicative of?

Back 1961

slight increase in muscle tone, minimal resistance at end of ROM

Front 1962

What is a 1+ on the Modified Ashworth scale indicative of?

Back 1962

Slight increase in muscle tone, minimal resistance through less than half of ROM

Front 1963

What is a 2 on the Modified Ashworth scale indicative of?

Back 1963

More marked increase in muscle tone, through most of ROM, affected part easily moved

Front 1964

What is a 3 on the Modified Ashworth scale indicative of>

Back 1964

Considerable increase in muscle tone, passive movement difficult

Front 1965

What is a 4 on the Modified Ashworth scale indicative of?

Back 1965

Affected part rigid in flexion or extension

Front 1966

What is the difference between spasticity and rigidity?

Back 1966

Spasticity is velocity dependent, rigidity is not

Front 1967

A lesion in the cerebral cortex will affect muscle tone how?

Back 1967

Hypertonia/Spasticity

Front 1968

A lesion in the basal ganglia will affect muscle tone how?

Back 1968

Leadpipe rigidity

Front 1969

A lesion in the cerebellum will affect muscle tone how?

Back 1969

May decrease it, but otherwise normal

Front 1970

A lesion in the spinal cord will affect muscle tone how?

Back 1970

Hyperotnia/Spasticity

Front 1971

A lesion in the cerebral cortex will affect reflexes how?

Back 1971

Hyperreflexia

Front 1972

A lesion in the basal ganglia will affect refelexes how?

Back 1972

May decreae, but otherwise normal

Front 1973

A lesion in the cerebellum will affect reflexes how?

Back 1973

May decrease, but otherwise normal

Front 1974

A lesion in the spinal cord will affect reflexes how?

Back 1974

Hyperreflexia

Front 1975

A lesion in the cerebral cortex will affect strength how?

Back 1975

Contralateral weakness

Front 1976

A lesion in the basal ganglia will affect strength how?

Back 1976

Slow movement

Front 1977

A lesion in the cerebellum will affect strength how?

Back 1977

May be weak, but otherwise normal

Front 1978

A lesion in the spinal cord will affect strength how?

Back 1978

Weak or absent

Front 1979

A lesion in the cerebral cortex will affect bulk how?

Back 1979

Normal acute, atrophy chronic

Front 1980

What condition is characterized by a central language disorder in which speech is typically awkward, restricted, interuppted and produced with effort

Back 1980

Nonfluent Aphasia

Front 1981

A lesion in the cerebellum will affect bulk how?

Back 1981

Normal

Front 1982

A lesion in the spinal cord will affect bulk how?

Back 1982

Atrophy

Front 1983

A lesion in the cerebral cortex will affect involuntary movements how?

Back 1983

Spasms

Front 1984

A lesion in the basal ganglia will affect involuntary movements how?

Back 1984

Resting tremor

Front 1985

A lesion in the cerebellum will affect involuntary movements how?

Back 1985

None

Front 1986

A lesion in the spinal cord will affect involuntary movements how?

Back 1986

Spasms

Front 1987

A lesion in the cerebral cortex will affect voluntary movements how?

Back 1987

Dyssenergic

Front 1988

A lesion in the basal ganglia will affect voluntary movements how?

Back 1988

Bradykinesia

Front 1989

A lesion in the cerebellum will affect voluntary movements how?

Back 1989

Ataxia

Front 1990

A lesion in the spinal cord will affect voluntary movements how?

Back 1990

normal above lesion, absent below lesion

Front 1991

A lesion in the cerebral cortex will affect postural how?

Back 1991

Impaired/absent

Front 1992

A lesion in the basal ganglia will affect postural how?

Back 1992

Impaired, stooped

Front 1993

A lesion in the cerebellum will affect postural how?

Back 1993

Impaired, truncal ataxia, dysequilibrium

Front 1994

A lesion in the spinal cord will affect postural how?

Back 1994

Imparied below lesion

Front 1995

A lesion in the cerebral cortex will affect gait how?

Back 1995

Impaired, gait deficits

Front 1996

A lesion in the basal ganglia will affect gait how?

Back 1996

Imparired, shuffling festinating

Front 1997

A lesion in the cerebellum will affect gait how?

Back 1997

Imparied, ataxic

Front 1998

A lesion in the spinal cord will affect gait how?

Back 1998

Impaired or absent depending on level

Front 1999

How does aspirin work?

Back 1999

Inhibits COX enzyme and thus inhibits prostaglandin synthesis

Front 2000

When is decerebrate posturing seen?

Back 2000

Brainstem lesion between superior colliculus and the vestibular necleus

Front 2001

When is decorticate posturing seen?

Back 2001

Brainstem lesion above the superior colliculus

Front 2002

What is decorticate posturing?

Back 2002

Flexion in UE, Extension in LE

Front 2003

What is Opisthotonos

Back 2003

Prolonged, severe spasm of muscles, causing the head, back and heels to arch backward, arms and hands are held rigidly in flexion

Front 2004

When is Opisthotonos seen?

Back 2004

Severe meningitis, tetanus, epilepsy and strychnine poisoning

Front 2005

How does Ibuprofen work?

Back 2005

Inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, COX-1 is responsible for "good" prostaglandins, so it is non-specific

Front 2006

What type of drug is Methotrexate?

Back 2006

DMARD

Front 2007

What does DMARD stand for?

Back 2007

Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug

Front 2008

How does Methotrexate work?

Back 2008

Enzyme inhibition

Front 2009

What is another use for Methotrexate other than DMARD?

Back 2009

Anti-Cancer Drug

Front 2010

What are 3 possible side effects of Methotrexate?

Back 2010

Hepatic dysfunction, GI disturbances, Blood complications including thrombocytopenia

Front 2011

When is one time Methotrexate is a contraindication?

Back 2011

With renal dysfunction patients

Front 2012

What supplement can help to possibly deter side effects of Methotrexate?

Back 2012

Folic Acid

Front 2013

What kind of a drug is Anticytokines?

Back 2013

DMARD

Front 2014

How do anticytokines work?

Back 2014

Bind with Tumor Necrosis Factor and inactivate it

Front 2015

What is one trade name for anticytokines?

Back 2015

Embrel

Front 2016

What type of drug is Lefunomide?

Back 2016

DMARD

Front 2017

How does Lefunomide work?

Back 2017

Inhibits T and B cell activity

Front 2018

What type of drug is infliximab?

Back 2018

DMARD

Front 2019

What kind of drug is Anakinra?

Back 2019

DMARD

Front 2020

How does Anakinra work?

Back 2020

Blocks inerleukin receptors which diminish bone erosion and cartilage destruction

Front 2021

What type of drug is Diazapam?

Back 2021

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2022

What is another name for Diazapam?

Back 2022

Valium

Front 2023

Where does Diazapam have its effect?

Back 2023

Supraspinal centers and spinal interneurons

Front 2024

What type of drug is Tizanidine?

Back 2024

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2025

What is another name for Tizanidine?

Back 2025

Zanaflex

Front 2026

Where does Tizanadine have its effects?

Back 2026

Spinal cord as an adrengergic agnoist

Front 2027

What is the flexion synergy in UEs?

Back 2027

Scapular retraction/elevation, shoulder abduction, ER, elbow flexion forearm supination, wrist and finger flexion

Front 2028

What is the extension synergy in UEs?

Back 2028

Scapular protraction, shoulder adduction, IR, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist and finger flexion

Front 2029

What is the flexion synergy in LEs?

Back 2029

Hip flexion, abduction, external rotation, knee flexion, ankle DF/inversion

Front 2030

What type of drug is Chlorzoxaone?

Back 2030

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2031

What is another name for chlorzoxaone?

Back 2031

Parafon Forte

Front 2032

What type of drug is Cyclobenzaprine?

Back 2032

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2033

What is another name for cyclobenzapine?

Back 2033

Flexiril

Front 2034

What type of drug is carisoprodol?

Back 2034

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2035

What is another name for carisoprodol?

Back 2035

Soma

Front 2036

What type of drug is methocarbamol?

Back 2036

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2037

A lesion in the cerebellum will affect bulk how?

Back 2037

Normal

Front 2038

What type of drug is orphenadrine?

Back 2038

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2039

What is another name for orphenadrine?

Back 2039

Norflex

Front 2040

What kind of drug is Baclofen?

Back 2040

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2041

What is another name for baclofen?

Back 2041

Lioresal

Front 2042

What is the extension synergy in the LEs?

Back 2042

Hip extension, adduction, RI, knee extension, ankle PF/inversion

Front 2043

What type of drug is Dantrolene?

Back 2043

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2044

What is another name for Dantrolene?

Back 2044

Dantrium

Front 2045

When doing the Sensory Organization Test, patients dependent on vision will become unstable on which conditions?

Back 2045

2,3,5,6

Front 2046

When doing the Sensory Organization Test, patients dependent on surface/somatosensory will become unstable on which conditions?

Back 2046

4,5,6

Front 2047

When doing the Sensory Organization Test, patients with vestibular loss will become unstable on which conditions?

Back 2047

5 and 6

Front 2048

When doing the Sensory Organization Test, patients with sensory selection problems will become unstable on which conditions?

Back 2048

3,4,5,6

Front 2049

How do diuretics work?

Back 2049

Decrease fluid reabsorption in kidneys, ultimately leading to greater urine production

Front 2050

What is the maximum score on Tinetti's?

Back 2050

28

Front 2051

A score < 19 on Tinetti's indicates what?

Back 2051

High fall risk

Front 2052

A score between 19 and 24 on Tinetti's indicates what?

Back 2052

Moderate fall risk

Front 2053

What is the maximum score on Berg's

Back 2053

56

Front 2054

A score <45 on Berg's indicates what?

Back 2054

High fall risk

Front 2055

How fast do non-dysfunctional adults finish the TUG test in?

Back 2055

<10 seconds

Front 2056

How fast do normal frail ederly or disable patients finish the TUG test?

Back 2056

11-20 seconds

Front 2057

A TUG test of 20-30 seconds indicates what?

Back 2057

A moderate fall risk

Front 2058

A TUG test of >30 seconds indicates what?

Back 2058

High fall risk

Front 2059

A reach of >12.2 inches on the Functional Reach Test indicates what?

Back 2059

Above Average

Front 2060

A reach of <5.6 inches on the Functional Reach Test indicates what?

Back 2060

Below Average

Front 2061

A reach of <10 inches on the Functional REach Test indicates what?

Back 2061

High fall risk

Front 2062

Which imaging technique is best used shortly after acute stroke?

Back 2062

MRI

Front 2063

What is normal CSF pressure in an adult?

Back 2063

90-180

Front 2064

What is normal CSF pressure in a child?

Back 2064

10-100

Front 2065

Insertional activity is increased or decreased with dennervation?

Back 2065

Increased

Front 2066

MUP is increased or decreased with LMN injury?

Back 2066

Decreased

Front 2067

At what time frame are fibrillations common with dennervation?

Back 2067

for 1-3 weeks after losing nerve

Front 2068

What are 3 major symptoms of AIDS?

Back 2068

Dementia, motor deficits and peripheral neuropathy

Front 2069

What is stage 1 of the recovery from a CVA?

Back 2069

Initial Flaccidity, no voluntary movements

Front 2070

What is stage 2 of the recovery from a CVA?

Back 2070

Spasticity, hyperreflexia, synergies

Front 2071

What is stage 3 of the recovery from a CVA?

Back 2071

Voluntary movement possible, but only in synergies, strong spasticity

Front 2072

What is stage 4 of the recovery from a CVA?

Back 2072

Voluntary control in isolated joint movements emerging, corresponding decline of spasticity and synergies

Front 2073

What is stage 5 of the recovery from a CVA?

Back 2073

Increasing voluntary control out of synergies, coordination defecits present

Front 2074

What is stage 6 of the recovery from a CVA?

Back 2074

Control and coordination are near normal

Front 2075

CVA patients that are slow, cautious, hesitant and insecure likely had a stroke on which side?

Back 2075

Left

Front 2076

CVA patients that are impulsive, quick, indifferent, poor judgement, overestimating abilities, underestimating problems likely had a stroke on what side?

Back 2076

Right

Front 2077

A stroke in the premotor area would have what symptoms?

Back 2077

Apraxia or motor planning difficulties

Front 2078

A stroke in the supplementary motor area would have what symptoms?

Back 2078

Loss of bilateral control of posture

Front 2079

A stroke in the middle frontal gyrus would have what symptoms?

Back 2079

Loss of conjugate eyes movements

Front 2080

A stroke in the dorsolateral part of the prefrontal area would have what symptoms

Back 2080

Impaired ability to concentrate

Front 2081

A stroke in the orbitofrontal area would have what symptoms>

Back 2081

Unstable emotions, unpredictable behavior

Front 2082

A stroke in the obrbital gyrus would have what symptoms?

Back 2082

Inability to discriminate odors

Front 2083

A stroke in the postcentral gyrus would have what symptoms>

Back 2083

Parasthesia

Front 2084

A stroke in the secondary somatosensory area would have what symptoms?

Back 2084

Tactile agnosia

Front 2085

A stroke in the gustatory area would have what symptoms?

Back 2085

Impairment of taste

Front 2086

A stroke in the parietal lobe of the right hemisphere would have what symptoms?

Back 2086

apraxia, tactile and auditory perceptual disorders

Front 2087

What is a strong and painful finding on a strength test indicative of?

Back 2087

Minor structural lesion of the muscle-tendon unit

Front 2088

What is a weak and painless finding on a strength test indicative of?

Back 2088

Complete rupture of muscle-tendon unit or neurological deficit present

Front 2089

What is a weak and painful finding on a strength test indicative of?

Back 2089

Partial disruption of muscle-tendon A

Front 2090

A stroke in the temporal cortex would have what symptoms?

Back 2090

Impairment of learning and memory

Front 2091

A stroke in the parahippocampal region would have what symptoms?

Back 2091

Profound memory loss of recent events and no new learning

Front 2092

A stroke in the visual association cortex would have what symptoms?

Back 2092

Visual agnosia

Front 2093

A stroke in the posterior multimodal area would have what symptoms?

Back 2093

Perceptual impairment

Front 2094

How long can the LOC be to qualify as a mild TBI?

Back 2094

0-30 minutes

Front 2095

What type of drug is orphenadrine?

Back 2095

Muscle Relaxer

Front 2096

How long can the LOC be to qualify as a severe TBI?

Back 2096

> 24 hours

Front 2097

How long can the post-traumatic amnesia be to qualify as a mild TBI?

Back 2097

<1 day

Front 2098

How long can the post-traumatic amnesia be to qualify as a moderate TBI?

Back 2098

>1day but >7 days

Front 2099

How long can the post-traumatic amnesia be to qualify as a severe TBI?

Back 2099

> 7 days

Front 2100

How do you bias the tibial nerve during a SLR test?

Back 2100

Dorsiflex and evert the foot

Front 2101

How do you bias the fibular nerve during a SLR test?

Back 2101

Plantarflexion and inversion of the foot

Front 2102

How do you bias the sural nerve during a SLR test?

Back 2102

Dorsiflex and invert the foot

Front 2103

How do you perform a neural tension test on the femoral nerve?

Back 2103

Prone knee bend

Front 2104

What spinal sections are most commonly injured?

Back 2104

C5, C7, T12, L1

Front 2105

When performing the standing flexion test, how do you know which PSIS is dysfunctional?

Back 2105

The one that moves cranially first or farthest

Front 2106

What is type A in the ASIA scale?

Back 2106

Complete impairment

Front 2107

What is type B in the ASIA scale

Back 2107

Incomplete sensory intact and includes sacral regions S4 and S5

Front 2108

What is type C in the ASIA scale?

Back 2108

Incomplete motor intact most key muscles below lesion are less than 3

Front 2109

What is type D in the ASIA scale?

Back 2109

Incomplete motor intact most key muscles below lesion are more than 3

Front 2110

What is type E in the ASIA scale?

Back 2110

Normal

Front 2111

What is the typical cause of central spinal cord injury?

Back 2111

Hyperextension

Front 2112

What is a Brown-Sequard injury?

Back 2112

Hemi injury of spinal cord usually caused by a gun shot

Front 2113

What is Gillet's Test used to look for?

Back 2113

SI joint dysfunction

Front 2114

How do you perform Gillet's Test?

Back 2114

Patient stands on one foot and brings the other knee to the chest

Front 2115

What is a positive Gillet Test?

Back 2115

PSIS will not move, other PSIS will move inferiorly

Front 2116

What is anterior cord syndrome?

Back 2116

Loss of motor function, pain and temperature, preservation of light touch, proprioception

Front 2117

What is posterior cord syndrome?

Back 2117

Preservation of motor, sense of pain and light touch

Front 2118

What is Cauda Equina Syndrome?

Back 2118

Sensory loss and paralysis, some capacity for regeneration, autonomous or nonreflex bladder

Front 2119

What is sacral sparing?

Back 2119

Sparings of tracts to sacral region, preservation of perianal sensation, rectal sphincter tone or active toe flexion

Front 2120

How do you perform the sitting flexion test?

Back 2120

Pt sits in a chair, crosses arms, leans forward until elbows are past knees, PSIS are palpated by therapist

Front 2121

What is a positive sitting flexion test?

Back 2121

PSIS that moves first or more cranially is dysfunctional

Front 2122

What is the distraction test for the SI joint?

Back 2122

Therapist puts cross arm pressure on both ASIS while pt is supine

Front 2123

What is a positive SI joint distractio test?

Back 2123

Pain is reproduced

Front 2124

How is Gaenslen's Test Performed?

Back 2124

Patient near edge of bed, hangs one leg off table, other leg pulls to chest, PT adds pressure on both legs

Front 2125

How do you perform The SI joint compression test?

Back 2125

Patient Side lying, hips flexed to 45, knees to 90. PT puts pressure downard on Iliac Crests

Front 2126

What does Neer's test for?

Back 2126

Impingement

Front 2127

What does Hawkins-Kennedy test for?

Back 2127

Impingement

Front 2128

What does Painful Arc test for?

Back 2128

Impingement

Front 2129

What does the Supraspinatus muscle test test for?

Back 2129

RTC

Front 2130

What does the infraspinatus muscle test test for?

Back 2130

RTC

Front 2131

What does the drop arm test for?

Back 2131

RTC

Front 2132

What is the External Rotation Lag Sign indicate?

Back 2132

RTC tear

Front 2133

What is the Internal Rotation Lag Sign indicate?

Back 2133

RTC tear

Front 2134

What is the lift off test for?

Back 2134

RTC tear

Front 2135

What is the belly press test for?

Back 2135

RTC tear

Front 2136

What is the sulcus sign indicative of?

Back 2136

Instability

Front 2137

What is the anterior apprehension test for?

Back 2137

Instability

Front 2138

What is the relocatino test for?

Back 2138

Instability

Front 2139

What is the anterior drawer shoulder test for?

Back 2139

Instability

Front 2140

What is the jerk shoulder test for?

Back 2140

Instability

Front 2141

What is the Horizontal Adduction test for?

Back 2141

AC Joint

Front 2142

What is the resisted Horizontal extension test for?

Back 2142

AC Joint

Front 2143

What is O'Brien's test for?

Back 2143

AC Joint

Front 2144

What is Paxinos Sign for?

Back 2144

AC Joint

Front 2145

What is the Crank test for?

Back 2145

Labrum

Front 2146

What is the Biceps Load tests for?

Back 2146

Labrum

Front 2147

Where are lesions common to be found in MS?

Back 2147

Pyramidal Tract, Dorsal Columns, Periventricular areas of cerebrum, cerebellar peduncles

Front 2148

Does myasthenia gravis affect proximal or distal muscles more?

Back 2148

Proximal

Front 2149

What is Osteochondritis Dissecans?

Back 2149

A seperation of the articular cartilage from the underlying bone

Front 2150

Where is Osteochonritis usually seen?

Back 2150

Medial femoral condyle

Front 2151

What is another name of a tonic-clonic seizure?

Back 2151

Grand mal

Front 2152

How long does it take to recover from a grand mal seizure?

Back 2152

several hours

Front 2153

What is another name for Absence seizures?

Back 2153

Petite Mal

Front 2154

How long can the LOC be to qualify as a severe TBI?

Back 2154

> 24 hours

Front 2155

What condition is characterized as a slowly progressive metabolic bone disease?

Back 2155

Paget's Disease

Front 2156

True/False: Cerebellar lesions tend to lead to contralateral signs and symtpoms?

Back 2156

FALSE

Front 2157

With patellafemoral pain, in which ROM of the knee does pain most likely occur?

Back 2157

first 30 degrees of knee flexion

Front 2158

A Q angle greater than what indicates the possibility for patellafemoral pain?

Back 2158

18 degrees

Front 2159

What condition is characterized by a chronic disorder with fibrosis and changes in the internal organs and skin?

Back 2159

Scleroderma

Front 2160

What is another name for scleroderma?

Back 2160

Progressive Systemic Sclerosis

Front 2161

How do you perform the pronator teres muscle test to test for median nerve entrapment?

Back 2161

PT strongly resists pronation of the elbow as the patient's elbow is extended from 90 degrees of flexion toward full extension

Front 2162

At what age is peak onset for RA?

Back 2162

30-40 years

Front 2163

How can you determine if a scoliosis is functional or structural?

Back 2163

Have them bend over in front of you and see if there is rotation of the ribs. If there is, it is structural

Front 2164

What condition is characterized by a rheumatoid-like disorder characterized by dryness of the mucous membranes, joint inflammation, and anemia?

Back 2164

Sjogren's Disease

Front 2165

What is wallerian degeneration?

Back 2165

Distal degeneration of axon following transection

Front 2166

What is neurapraxia?

Back 2166

Injury to nerve that causes a transient loss of function

Front 2167

How long is recovery from class I nerve injury?

Back 2167

Immediately to a few weeks

Front 2168

What is another name for a class I nerve injury?

Back 2168

Neurapraxia

Front 2169

What is axonotmesis?

Back 2169

Injury to nerve interuppting the axon and causing loss of function and wallerian degeneration, no disruption of the endoneurium. Regeneration is possible

Front 2170

What is another name for a class II nerve injury?

Back 2170

Axonotmesis

Front 2171

What is neurotmesis?

Back 2171

Cutting of the nerve with severance of all structures and complete loss of function. Regeneration usually does not occur without surgical intervention

Front 2172

What is another name for a class III nerve injury?

Back 2172

Neurotmesis

Front 2173

What is a normal rehabilitation process for a ligament repair?

Back 2173

5-6 months

Front 2174

What is bulbar palsy?

Back 2174

Weakness or paralysis of the muscles innervated by the motor nuclei of the lower brainstem, affecting the muscles of the face, tongue, larynx and pharynx

Front 2175

What are the two cranial nerves affected in bulbar palsy?

Back 2175

Glossophayngeal and Vagal

Front 2176

Are reflexes decreased with Guillan Barre?

Back 2176

Yes

Front 2177

True/False: ALS usually does not involve sensory deficits?

Back 2177

TRUE

Front 2178

What is stage I of ALS?

Back 2178

Early disease, mild focal weakness, asymmetrical distribution; symptoms of hand cramping and fasciculations

Front 2179

What is stage II of ALS?

Back 2179

Moderate weakness in groups of muscles, some wasting of muscles; modified independence with assistive devices

Front 2180

What is stage III of ALS?

Back 2180

Severe weakness of specific muscles, increasing fatigue; mild to moderate functional limitations, ambulatory

Front 2181

What is stage IV of ALS?

Back 2181

Sever weakness and wasting of LEs, mild weakness of UEs; moderate assistance and assistive devices required; wheelchair user

Front 2182

What is stage V of ALS?

Back 2182

Progressive weakness with deterioration of mobility and endurance, increased fatigue, moderate to severe weakness of whole limbs and trunk, spasticity, hyperreflexia; loss of head control; maximal assist

Front 2183

What is stage VI of ALS?

Back 2183

Bedridden, dependent ADLs, progressive respiratory distress

Front 2184

What is the maximum score on the ALS Functional Rating Scale?

Back 2184

40

Front 2185

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Glenohumeral Abduction?

Back 2185

Inferior

Front 2186

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Glenohumeral early flexion (0-45)?

Back 2186

Posterior

Front 2187

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Glenohumeral Internal Rotation?

Back 2187

Posterior

Front 2188

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Glenohumeral Horizontal Adduction?

Back 2188

Posterior

Front 2189

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Glenohumeral Extension?

Back 2189

Anterior

Front 2190

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Glenohumeral External Rotation?

Back 2190

Anterior

Front 2191

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Glenohumeral Horizontal Abduction?

Back 2191

Anterior

Front 2192

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Glenohumeral Late Flexion (120-180)?

Back 2192

Anterior

Front 2193

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Radiohumeral flexion?

Back 2193

Anterior

Front 2194

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Radiohumeral extension?

Back 2194

Posterior

Front 2195

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Proximal Radioulnar pronation?

Back 2195

Posterior

Front 2196

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Proximal Radioulnar supination?

Back 2196

Anterior

Front 2197

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase DistalRadioulnar supination?

Back 2197

Posterior

Front 2198

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Distal Radioulnar supination?

Back 2198

Anterior

Front 2199

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Radiocarpal extension?

Back 2199

Anterior

Front 2200

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Radiocarpal flexion?

Back 2200

Posterior

Front 2201

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Radiocarpal Ulnar Deviation?

Back 2201

Lateral

Front 2202

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Radiocarpal Radial Deviation?

Back 2202

Medial

Front 2203

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Midcarpal extension?

Back 2203

Anterior

Front 2204

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase Midcarpal flexion?

Back 2204

Posterior

Front 2205

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase metacarpophalangeal flexion?

Back 2205

Anterior

Front 2206

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase interphalngeal extension?

Back 2206

Posterior

Front 2207

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase hip abduction?

Back 2207

Inferior

Front 2208

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase hip External Rotation?

Back 2208

Anterior

Front 2209

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase hip extension?

Back 2209

Anterior

Front 2210

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase hip Internal rotation?

Back 2210

Posterior

Front 2211

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase hip flexion?

Back 2211

Posterior

Front 2212

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase tibiofemoral extension?

Back 2212

Anterior/Medial/Lateral

Front 2213

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase tibiofemoral flexion?

Back 2213

Posterior

Front 2214

What condition is characterized as a slowly progressive metabolic bone disease?

Back 2214

Paget's Disease

Front 2215

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase patellafemoral Knee flexion?

Back 2215

Inferior

Front 2216

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase talocrural plantarflexion?

Back 2216

Anterior

Front 2217

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase talocrural dorsiflexion?

Back 2217

Posterior

Front 2218

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase subtalar inversion?

Back 2218

Lateral

Front 2219

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase subtalar eversion?

Back 2219

Medial

Front 2220

If Lumbar or thoracic segments are in neutral without locking the facets, is rotation in the same or opposite direction as sidebending?

Back 2220

Opposite

Front 2221

In the cervical region when the segments are neutral without locking the facets, is rotation the same or opposite as sidebending?

Back 2221

Same

Front 2222

In the cervical, thoracic and lumbar regions, if the segments are in full flexion or extension with the facets locked does rotation occur in the same or opposite direction as sidebending?

Back 2222

Same

Front 2223

What is the what is the fast pain pathway?

Back 2223

Sensory stimulation - A fibers - Spinal cord dorsal horn lamina, crosses to lateral spinothalamic tract - thalamus - Cortex

Front 2224

What is the slow pain pathway?

Back 2224

Sensory stimulation - C fibers - spinal cord lamina, corrses to anterior spinothalamic tract - reticular formation - RAS - Cortex

Front 2225

What is a special test for Biceps Tendonitis?

Back 2225

Yergason's Test

Front 2226

What is block practice?

Back 2226

Practice of a single motor skill repeatedly

Front 2227

What is variable practice?

Back 2227

Practice of varied motor skills in which the performer is required to make rapid modifications of the skill in order to match the demands of the task

Front 2228

What is random practice?

Back 2228

Practice of a group or class of motor skills in random order

Front 2229

What is serial practice?

Back 2229

Practice of a group or class of motor skills in serial or predictable order

Front 2230

What is massed practice?

Back 2230

relatively continuous practice in which the amount of rest time is small

Front 2231

What is distributed practice?

Back 2231

Practice in which the rest time is relatively large

Front 2232

What is mental practice?

Back 2232

Cognitive rehearsel of a motor skill without overt physical performance.

Front 2233

Feedback given after every trial improves what>

Back 2233

Performance

Front 2234

Variable feedback improved what?

Back 2234

Retention

Front 2235

What is Horner's Syndrome?

Back 2235

Ptosis of the eyelid, constriction of the pupil, and lack of sweating of the ipsilateral face, often accompanying stroke involving the the anterior inferior or posterior inferior cerebellar arteries

Front 2236

What are the 3 most common sites for a CVA to occur?

Back 2236

Origin of the common carotid artery, main bifurcation of the middle cerebral artery, junction of the vertebral arteries with the basilar artery

Front 2237

What symptoms would be present with a stroke in the middle cerebral artery?

Back 2237

Contralateral hemiplegia, mostly upper extremity, loss of sensation primarily in the arm and face, homonymous hemianposia is common

Front 2238

An occlusion of the main stem of the middle cerebral artery can cause what?

Back 2238

Global Aphasia

Front 2239

What symptoms would be present with a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery?

Back 2239

LE more affected and sensory loss, mental confusion, aphasia, contralateral neglect

Front 2240

What symptoms would be present with a stroke in the posterior cerebral artery?

Back 2240

Persistant pain syndrome or contralateral pain and temperature sensory loss, homonymous hemianopsia, aphasia, thalamic pain syndrome

Front 2241

What symptoms would be present with a stroke in the vertebral-basilar artery?

Back 2241

May result in quadriparesis and bulbar palsy or a "locked-in" state where they can only communicate by blinking, often results in dath

Front 2242

What symptoms would be present with a stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery?

Back 2242

Unilateral deaness, loss of pain and temperature on the contralateral side, paresis of lateral gaze, unilateral Horner's syndrome, ataxia, vertigo, and nystagmus

Front 2243

What symptoms would be present with a stroke in the Superior cerebellar artery?

Back 2243

Severe ataxia, dysarthria, dysmetria and contralateral loss of pain and temperature

Front 2244

What symptoms would be present with a stroke in the Posterior inferior cerebellar artery?

Back 2244

Nausea, vertigo, hoarseness, dysphagia, ptosis and decreased impairment of sensation in the ipsilateral face and contralateral torso and limbs.

Front 2245

What is D1 Flexion UE

Back 2245

Flexion - Adduction - ER

Front 2246

What is D1 Extension UE

Back 2246

Extension - Abduction - IR

Front 2247

What is D2 Flexion UE

Back 2247

Flexion - Abduction - ER

Front 2248

What is D2 Extension UE

Back 2248

Extension - Adduction - IR

Front 2249

What is D1 Flexion LE

Back 2249

Flexion- Adduction - ER

Front 2250

What is D1 Extension LE

Back 2250

Extension - Abduction - IR

Front 2251

What is D2 Flexion LE

Back 2251

Flexion - Abduction - IR

Front 2252

What is D2 Extension LE

Back 2252

Extension - Adduction - ER

Front 2253

What are some perceptual symptoms with a Right sided stroke?

Back 2253

Spatial relationships and hand-eye coordination, irritability and short attention span, poor memory, difficulty learning, poor judgement regarding safety, Left sided neglect, quick and impulsive

Front 2254

What are some perceptual symtpoms with a left sided stroke?

Back 2254

Apraxia, Difficulty starting and sequencing tasks, perseveration, Easily frustrated, highly anxious, inability to communicate verbally, cautious and slow

Front 2255

What is Rancho Los Amigos Level I?

Back 2255

No response. Completely unresponsive to any stimuli

Front 2256

What is Rancho Los Amigos Level II?

Back 2256

Generalized response. Pt reacts inconsistently and nonspecificially to stimuli

Front 2257

What is Rancho Los Amigos Level III?

Back 2257

Localized response. Pt reacts inconsistently but specifically to stimuli

Front 2258

What is Rancho Los Amigos Level IV?

Back 2258

Confused/Agitated. Pt is in a heightened state of activity. Behavior is bizarre and nonpurposeful relative to immediate environment. Recall and attention span are poor

Front 2259

What is Rancho Los Amigos Level V?

Back 2259

Confused-inappropriate. Pt able to respond to simple commands but no do complex tasks. Memory is impaired. Verbalization is inappropriate

Front 2260

What is Rancho Los Amigos Level VI?

Back 2260

Confused-appropriate. Pt is dependent upon external input but can perform consistently. Memory improved.

Front 2261

What is Rancho Los Amigos Level VII?

Back 2261

Automatic-appropriate. Can perform automatically and appropriately in structured environments. Judgement remains impaired

Front 2262

What is Rancho Los Amigos Level VIII?

Back 2262

Purposeful-Appropriate. Pt acts appropriately though not perfectly. May have some problems in stressful or unusual situations

Front 2263

Where is the tricuspid valve?

Back 2263

Between Right atrium and ventricle

Front 2264

Where is the Bicuspid valve?

Back 2264

Between left atrium and ventricle

Front 2265

Where is the pulmonary valve?

Back 2265

Between pulmonary arteries and right ventricle

Front 2266

Where is the aortic valve?

Back 2266

Between left ventricle and aorta

Front 2267

What structures does the Right Coronary Artery Supply?

Back 2267

Right atrium, most of right ventricle, most of the time the inferior wall of left ventricle, AV node and bundle of His, SA node

Front 2268

What are the two divisions of the Left Coronary Artery?

Back 2268

Left anterior ascending, Circumflex

Front 2269

What structures does the Left anterior descending division of the Left Coronary Artery supply?

Back 2269

Left ventricle, interventricular septum, most of the time inferior areas of the apex

Front 2270

What structures does the circumflex division of the Left Coronary Artery supply?

Back 2270

Lateral and inferior walls of the left ventricle and portions of the left atrium

Front 2271

Where is the SA node located?

Back 2271

Junction of Superior Vena Cava and right atrium

Front 2272

What is the main pacemaker of the heart?

Back 2272

SA node

Front 2273

What is the impulse rate of the SA node?

Back 2273

60-100 BPM

Front 2274

Where is the AV node located?

Back 2274

Junction of the Right Atrium and the Right Ventricle

Front 2275

What is the proper Mobilization direction to increase patellafemoral Knee flexion?

Back 2275

Inferior

Front 2276

What is the normal path of heart conduction?

Back 2276

SA node - Atria - AV node - bundle of His - Purkinje fibers - ventricles

Front 2277

What is the normal stroke volume?

Back 2277

55-100 mL

Front 2278

What is the cardiac output?

Back 2278

The amount of blood discharged per minute

Front 2279

What is the average cardiac output for an adult at rest?

Back 2279

4-5 L

Front 2280

What is cardiac index?

Back 2280

Cardiac Output divided by body surface area

Front 2281

What is the average cardiac index?

Back 2281

2.5 - 3.5 L/min

Front 2282

Thalamic pain is a result of what type of stroke?

Back 2282

Posterior Cerebral Artery

Front 2283

Does the vagus nerve have a sympathetic or parasympathetic affect on the heart?

Back 2283

Parasympathetic

Front 2284

What cord segments provide sympathetic stimulation to the heart?

Back 2284

T1-T4

Front 2285

Where are baroreceptors located?

Back 2285

Aortic arch and carotid sinus

Front 2286

Does in increase in BP increase sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation?

Back 2286

Parasympathetic

Front 2287

Does in decrease in BP increase sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation?

Back 2287

Sympathetic

Front 2288

Where are chemoreceptors in the heart located?

Back 2288

Carotid Sinus

Front 2289

Right subscapular pain is referred from where?

Back 2289

Gallbladder

Front 2290

Medial left arm and jaw pain are referred from where?

Back 2290

Heart

Front 2291

Thoracic or flank pain refer from where?

Back 2291

Kidney

Front 2292

Left upper quadrant and shoulder pain are referred from where?

Back 2292

Spleen

Front 2293

Right upper quadrant pain is referred from where?

Back 2293

Liver

Front 2294

The chemoreceptor in the heart is sensitive to changes in which chemicals?

Back 2294

O2, CO2 and lactic acid

Front 2295

Increased CO2 leads to increased or decreased heart rate?

Back 2295

Increase

Front 2296

Decreased O2 leads to increased or decreased heart rate?

Back 2296

Increase

Front 2297

Decreased pH leads to increased or decreased heart rate?

Back 2297

Increase

Front 2298

Increase in body temperature increases or decreases heart rate?

Back 2298

Increase

Front 2299

How does hyperkalemia affect the heart?

Back 2299

Decreases rate and force of contraction

Front 2300

How does hypercalcemia affect the heart?

Back 2300

Increases heart actions

Front 2301

How does hypermagnemesia affect the heart?

Back 2301

Can lead to arrhythmias or cardiac arrest

Front 2302

What is agonist reversals in PNF?

Back 2302

Slow isotonic shortening contraction through the range followed by eccentric lengthening contraction with the same muscle groups.

Front 2303

When should you use agonist reversals in PNF?

Back 2303

Weak postural muscles, inability to eccentrically control body weight during movement transitions

Front 2304

What is Approximation in PNF?

Back 2304

Joint compression

Front 2305

When is approximation in PNF indicated?

Back 2305

Stimulate afferent nerve endings and facilitate postural extensors promoting stability

Front 2306

What is Contract-Relax in PNF?

Back 2306

Isotonic movement in rotation followed by an isometric hold of the range limiting muscles in the antagonistic pattern against slowly increasing resistance, then passive motion and active contraction of the agonistic pattern.

Front 2307

When is contract-relax indicated in PNF?

Back 2307

Limited ROM caused by muscle tightness or spasticity

Front 2308

What is Hold-Relax in PNF?

Back 2308

Isometric contraction of the antagonistic pattern against slowly increasing resistance, followed by voluntary relaxation and passive movement into the newly gained range of the agonist pattern

Front 2309

When is Hold-Relax indicated in PNF?

Back 2309

Limitations in ROM due to muscle tightness, spasm or pain

Front 2310

What is repeated contractions in PNF?

Back 2310

Repeated isotonic contractions induced by quick stretches and enhanced by resistance performed through the range or part of range at a point of weakness.

Front 2311

When is repeated contractions indicated in PNF?

Back 2311

Weakness, incoordination, muscle inbalances, lack of endurance

Front 2312

What is Rhythmic Initiations in PNF?

Back 2312

Voluntary relaxation followed by passive movement through increasing ROMS, followed by active-assisted contractions progressing to resisted isotonic conractions

Front 2313

When is Rhythmic Initiations indicated in PNF?

Back 2313

Spasticity, rigidity, hypertonicity, inability to initiate a motion, motor learning deficitis, communication deficits

Front 2314

What is Rhythmic stabilization in PNF?

Back 2314

Simulatneous isometric contractions of both agonist and antagonist patterns performed without relaxation using careful grading of resistance. Cocontraction of opposing muscle groups.

Front 2315

When is Rhythmic stabilizations indicated in PNF?

Back 2315

Istability in weight-bearing and holding, poor antigravity control, weakness, ataxia, limited ROM caused by muscle tightness, painful muscle splinting

Front 2316

What is Slow Reversal in PNF?

Back 2316

Alternating isotonic contractions of agonist then antagonist patterns using careful grading of resistance and optimal facilitation.

Front 2317

When is Slow Reversal indicated in PNF?

Back 2317

Inability to reverse directions, muscle weakness or imbalance, incoordination, lack of endurance

Front 2318

What is the average heart rate for normal adults?

Back 2318

60-100

Front 2319

What is the average heart rate for aerobically trained adults?

Back 2319

40-60

Front 2320

What is the average heart rate for normal children?

Back 2320

60-140

Front 2321

What is the average heart rate for normal newborns?

Back 2321

90-164

Front 2322

What is postural tachycardia?

Back 2322

Sustained heart rate increase >30 BPM within 10 minutes of standing

Front 2323

What stimulus elicits the Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex?

Back 2323

Rotation of head to one side

Front 2324

At which point should the Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex disappear?

Back 2324

4-6 months

Front 2325

What stimulus elicits the Crossed Extension Reflex?

Back 2325

Noxious stimulus to the ball of foot of extremity fixed in extension

Front 2326

What is the Crossed Extension Reflex?

Back 2326

Opposite extremity flexes then adducts and extends

Front 2327

At which point should the Crossed Extension Reflex Dissapear?

Back 2327

1-2 months

Front 2328

When does the Equilibrium Reaction appear?

Back 2328

6 months

Front 2329

What stimulus elicits the Grasp reflex?

Back 2329

Maintain pressure to palm of the hand or to ball of the foot

Front 2330

What are some causes of Arrhythmias?

Back 2330

Ischemia, electrolyte imbalance, acidosis, alkalosis, hypoxemia, hypotension, emotional stress, drugs, alcohol, caffeine

Front 2331

When does the grasp reflex dissapear?

Back 2331

4-6 months (palmar), 9 months (plantar)

Front 2332

What stimulus elicits Landau's Reflex?

Back 2332

Lift child under the thorax in a prone position

Front 2333

What is Landau's Reflex?

Back 2333

First the head, then the back and legs will extend.

Front 2334

When does Landau's Reflex Appear?

Back 2334

3 months

Front 2335

When does Landau's Reflex Disappear?

Back 2335

2 years

Front 2336

What stimulus elicits Moro's Reflex?

Back 2336

Sudden change in position of the head in relation to the trunk

Front 2337

What is the normal path of heart conduction?

Back 2337

SA node - Atria - AV node - bundle of His - Purkinje fibers - ventricles

Front 2338

When does Moro's reflex disppear?

Back 2338

5-6 months

Front 2339

What stimulus elicits The optical and Labryinthine Righting Reflex?

Back 2339

alter body position by tipping body in all directions

Front 2340

What is the Optical and Labrynthine Righting Reflex?

Back 2340

Head orients to vertical position and mouth horizontal

Front 2341

When does the Optical and Labryinthine Righting Reflex Appear?

Back 2341

Birth - 2 months

Front 2342

When does the Optical and Labryinthine Righting Reflex disappear?

Back 2342

Persists

Front 2343

What stimulus elicitis the Postive Supporting Reaction Reflex?

Back 2343

Contact to the ball of the foot in an upright standing position

Front 2344

What is the Positive Supporting Reaction?

Back 2344

Rigid extension of the lower extremities with ankle PF and inversion, toes "clawing" and hip IR

Front 2345

When does the Positive Supportin Reaction Reflex appear?

Back 2345

Birth

Front 2346

When does the Positive Supportin Reaction Reflex disappear?

Back 2346

6 months

Front 2347

A drop in ST segment level signifies what?

Back 2347

Coronary ischemia

Front 2348

An ST segment elevation or depression is significant only when it is more than?

Back 2348

1 mm

Front 2349

What stimulus elicits the Protective Extension Reaction?

Back 2349

Displace the center of gravity outside the base of support

Front 2350

What is the Protective Extension Reaction?

Back 2350

Arms or legs exted and abduct to support and to protect the body against falling

Front 2351

When does the Protective Extension Response Appear?

Back 2351

4-9 months

Front 2352

When does the Protective Extension Response disappear?

Back 2352

persists

Front 2353

When does the Rooting reflex disappear?

Back 2353

3 months

Front 2354

What stimulus elicits the Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex?

Back 2354

Flexion or extension of the head

Front 2355

What is the Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex?

Back 2355

Flexion of arms and extension of legs with head flexion, extension of arms and flexion of legs with head extension

Front 2356

When does the Symmetrical Tonick Neck Reflex appear?

Back 2356

4-6 months

Front 2357

When does the Symmetrical Tonick Neck Reflex disappear?

Back 2357

8-12 months

Front 2358

A patient has orhtostatic hypotension if what is seen upon standing?

Back 2358

Systolic drops >20or diastolic drops >10

Front 2359

What stimulus elicits the traction reflex?

Back 2359

Grasp forearm and pull up from supine into sitting

Front 2360

What is the traction reflex?

Back 2360

Grasp and total flexion of the UEs and the head will lag behind

Front 2361

When does the traction reflex appear?

Back 2361

Birth

Front 2362

When does the traction reflex disappear?

Back 2362

2-5 months

Front 2363

What is a normal infant's BP?

Back 2363

106-110/59-63

Front 2364

What is a normal child's BP?

Back 2364

113-116/67-74

Front 2365

What is anormal adul's respiration?

Back 2365

12/20/2015

Front 2366

What is a normal newborns respiration rate?

Back 2366

30-40

Front 2367

When should a child be able to push itself into prone and take weight on supported standing?

Back 2367

3 months

Front 2368

When should a child be able to roll in either direction?

Back 2368

5 months

Front 2369

When should a child be able to sit independently

Back 2369

6 months

Front 2370

When should a child be able to maintain quadriped?

Back 2370

7 months

Front 2371

When should a child be able to creep, pull to stand, has pincer grasp

Back 2371

8-9 months

Front 2372

When should a child be able to stand and walk unassisted, self feed

Back 2372

10-15 months

Front 2373

When should a child be able to walk up/down stairs w/ assistance?

Back 2373

18-20 months

Front 2374

What is a normal child's respiration rate?

Back 2374

20-30

Front 2375

What is tachypnea?

Back 2375

An increase of >22 RPM

Front 2376

What is normal-high BP?

Back 2376

120-139 / 85-89

Front 2377

What is Grade 1 Hypertension?

Back 2377

140-159 / 90-99

Front 2378

What is Grade 2 Hypertension?

Back 2378

160-179 / 100-109

Front 2379

What is Grade 3 Hypertension?

Back 2379

>180 / >110

Front 2380

What is Bradypnea?

Back 2380

A decrease of >10 RPM

Front 2381

When should a child be able to run wel?

Back 2381

2 years

Front 2382

When should a child be able to go upstairs step through, ride tricycle, catch a ball, jump with 2 feet, stand on one foot briefly?

Back 2382

3 years

Front 2383

When should a child be able to hop on one foot and kick a ball?

Back 2383

3.5 years

Front 2384

When should a child be able to throw a ball overhand, stand on tiptoes?

Back 2384

4 years

Front 2385

When should a child be able to skip, get dressed/undressed?

Back 2385

5 years

Front 2386

What nerve roots are involved in Erb's Palsy?

Back 2386

C5 and C6

Front 2387

What nerve roots are involved in Klumpke's Paralysis?

Back 2387

C8 and T1

Front 2388

What is the resulting weakness of Klumpke's Paralysis?

Back 2388

Weak hand and wrist flexors

Front 2389

What appearance is common with Klumpke's Paralysis?

Back 2389

Claw Hand

Front 2390

What is 1+ on the angina scale?

Back 2390

Light, barely noticeable

Front 2391

What is 2+ on the angina scale?

Back 2391

Moderate, bothersome

Front 2392

What is 3+ on the angina scale?

Back 2392

Severe, very uncomfortable

Front 2393

What is 4+ on the angina scale?

Back 2393

Most sever pain ever experienced

Front 2394

What is a 1+ on the Edema Grading scale?

Back 2394

Mild, barely perceptible indentation <1/4" pitting

Front 2395

What is a 2+ on the Edema Grading scale?

Back 2395

Moderate, easily identified dpression; returns to normal within 15 seconds; 1/4-1/2" pitting

Front 2396

What is a 3+ on the Edema Grading scale?

Back 2396

Severe, depression takes 15-30 seconds to rebound; 1/2-1" pitting

Front 2397

What is a 4+ on the Edema Grading scale?

Back 2397

Very severe, depression lasts for 30> seconds, >1 inch pitting

Front 2398

What are the 4 types of CP?

Back 2398

Spastic, Athetoid, Ataxic, Mixed

Front 2399

What structure is damaged in athetoid CP?

Back 2399

Basal Ganglia

Front 2400

When does Moro's reflex disppear?

Back 2400

5-6 months

Front 2401

What structure is damaged in ataxic CP?

Back 2401

Cerebellum

Front 2402

What is seen in ataxic CP?

Back 2402

Weakness, poor coordination, intention tremor, wide-base gait, difficulty with rapid or fine movement

Front 2403

What is the Ankle Brachial Index?

Back 2403

LE BP / UE BP

Front 2404

What does an ABI <90 indicate?

Back 2404

A 2-4 fold increase in risk for cardiovascular events and death

Front 2405

What does an ABI <50 indicate?

Back 2405

Increased risk of progression to severe or critical limb ischemia in 1 year

Front 2406

What does an ABI between .91-.99?

Back 2406

Borderline

Front 2407

What is an ABI from 1 - 1.4?

Back 2407

Normal

Front 2408

What is an ABI >1.4?

Back 2408

Non-compliant arteries

Front 2409

When does Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy present?

Back 2409

3-7 years old

Front 2410

What are the signs of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy?

Back 2410

Waddling gait, toe walking, lordosis, frequent falls, difficulty standing up, problems climbing stairs

Front 2411

What is Grade I of the Pain Associated with Intermittent Claudication scale?

Back 2411

Minimal discomfort or pain

Front 2412

What is Grade II of the Pain Associated with Intermittent Claudication scale?

Back 2412

Moderate discomfort or pain, patient's attention can be diverted

Front 2413

What is Grade III of the Pain Associated with Intermittent Claudication scale?

Back 2413

Intense pain; patient's attention cannot be diverted

Front 2414

What is Grade IV of the Pain Associated with Intermittent Claudication scale?

Back 2414

Excruciating and unbearable pain

Front 2415

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease?

Back 2415

Heriditary disorder of the peroneal and distal leg muscles, presents with foot drop and "stork leg deformity"

Front 2416

What condition is characterized by an idiopathic aseptic necrosis of the femoral capital epiphysis?

Back 2416

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease

Front 2417

What is the main enzyme looked for to look for an MI

Back 2417

Cardiac Troponin

Front 2418

What percentile does the Cardiact Troponin need to be in to identity MI?

Back 2418

>99

Front 2419

What percent of spinal injuries are non-traumatic?

Back 2419

10%

Front 2420

What is the normal Prothrombin Time?

Back 2420

11-15 sec

Front 2421

What is the normal Partial Prothrombin Time?

Back 2421

25-40 sec

Front 2422

What is the normal bleeding time?

Back 2422

2-10 min

Front 2423

What is the normal C-reactive protein number?

Back 2423

<10 mg/L

Front 2424

What is the normal white blood cell count?

Back 2424

4300 - 10800

Front 2425

What is the normal red blood cell count for males?

Back 2425

4.6 - 6.2

Front 2426

What is the normal red blood cell count for females?

Back 2426

4.2 - 5.9

Front 2427

What is the normal ESR rate for males?

Back 2427

<15 mm/hr

Front 2428

What is the normal ESR rate for females?

Back 2428

<20 mm/hr

Front 2429

What is the normal hematorcrit for males?

Back 2429

45-52%

Front 2430

What is the normal hematorcrit for females?

Back 2430

37-48%

Front 2431

What is the normal hemoglobin for males?

Back 2431

13-18

Front 2432

What is the normal hemoglobin for females?

Back 2432

12/16/2015

Front 2433

What is the normal platelet count?

Back 2433

150,000 - 450,000

Front 2434

How occluded does the arterial lumen have to be in order for symptoms to be present?

Back 2434

70%

Front 2435

What are the 3 types of Angina?

Back 2435

Stable, Unstable, Variant

Front 2436

What is stable angina?

Back 2436

Chest pain which occurs with exertion and is relieved with rest and/or nitroglycerin

Front 2437

What is unstable angina?

Back 2437

Chest pain which occurs regardless of exercise, pain is difficult to relieve

Front 2438

What is variant angina?

Back 2438

Spasming of coronary arteries w/o occlusion. Responds well to nitroglycerin or calcium channel blockers

Front 2439

What is the zone of infarction?

Back 2439

Area of necrotic tissue that is unresponsive electrically

Front 2440

What is the zone of injury?

Back 2440

Zone surround the zone of infarction. Tissue is non-contractile, cells undergoing metabolic change, electrically unstable

Front 2441

What is the zone of ischemia?

Back 2441

Zone on the outside of the MI area. Cells are metabolically changing, electrically unstable

Front 2442

What is transmural?

Back 2442

When an MI causes damage through the entire thickiness of the cardiac wall

Front 2443

What is another name for left sided heart failure?

Back 2443

Congestive Heart Failure

Front 2444

What is congestive heart failure?

Back 2444

A backup of blood due to damage to the Left ventricle and inability to circulate adequately

Front 2445

What is right sided heart failure?

Back 2445

increased pressure on Righ ventricle, causes jugular vein distention and peripheral edema

Front 2446

What is biventricular failure?

Back 2446

Severe pathology producing back up into the lungs

Front 2447

What spinal segments innervate the diaphragm?

Back 2447

C3 - C5

Front 2448

What spinal segments when injured will produce bowel and bladder incontinence?

Back 2448

S2, S3 and S4

Front 2449

What is a reflex bladder?

Back 2449

A bladder that will empty once at a certain level

Front 2450

What is a nonreflex bladder?

Back 2450

A bladder that is flaccid, but can be emptied by increasing abdominal pressure

Front 2451

What should activity be kept to after an MI for the first 4-6 weeks?

Back 2451

5 METs or 70% of age predicted HRmax

Front 2452

intermittent Claudication can be symptomatic of what future disorder?

Back 2452

PAD

Front 2453

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a C1, C2 or C3 SCI?

Back 2453

Capable of talking, mastication, sipping, blowing

Front 2454

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a C1, C2 or C3 SCI?

Back 2454

Face and neck muscles

Front 2455

What are some of the assistive devices that a patient with a C1, C2 or C3 SCI needs?

Back 2455

Portable ventilator or phrenic nerve stimulator, power "tilt-in-space" wheelchair with mouth control and seatbelt for trunk control

Front 2456

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a C4 SCI?

Back 2456

Capable of respiration, scapular elevation, limited eating may be accomplished with use of assistive devices

Front 2457

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a C4 SCI?

Back 2457

Diaphragm, Trapezius

Front 2458

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a C5 SCI?

Back 2458

Elbow flexion and supination, shoulder ER, abduction to 90 and limited shoulder flexion, limited assistance to dress LEs, needs slide board for transfers, driving possible with van lift

Front 2459

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a C5 SCI?

Back 2459

Biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, deltoid, infraspinatus, rhomboids and supinator

Front 2460

What is Grade I of the Chronic Venous Stasis Classification?

Back 2460

Mild aching, minimal edema, dilated superficial veins

Front 2461

What is Grade II of the Chronic Venous Stasis Classification?

Back 2461

Increased edema, multiple dilated veins, changes in skin pigmentation

Front 2462

What is Grade III of the Chronic Venous Stasis Classification?

Back 2462

Venous claudication, severe edema, cutaneous ulceration

Front 2463

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a C6 SCI?

Back 2463

Shoulder flexion, extension, IR and adduction, scapular abduction and upward rotation, forearm pronation, wrist extension, can be independent with correct equipment

Front 2464

What structure is damaged in ataxic CP?

Back 2464

Cerebellum

Front 2465

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a C7 SCI?

Back 2465

Extensor pollicis longus and brevis, extrinsic finger extensors, flexor carpi radialis and triceps

Front 2466

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a C8 SCI?

Back 2466

Capable of using all UE muscles except hand intrinsics, live independently, independent as community wheelchair, ability to work in accessible buildings

Front 2467

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a C8 SCI?

Back 2467

Extrinsic finger flexors, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor pollicis longus and brevis

Front 2468

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a T1-T5 SCI?

Back 2468

Capable of full use of UEs, improved trunk control, increased respiratory reserve, able to participate in wheelchair sports

Front 2469

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a T1-T5 SCI?

Back 2469

Top half of intercostals, long muscles of the back, intrinsic finger flexors

Front 2470

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a T6-T8 SCI?

Back 2470

Improved trunk control, increased respiratory reserve, swing-to gait in parallel bars with bilateral KAFOs

Front 2471

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a T6-T8 SCI?

Back 2471

long muscles of the back, sacrospinalis and semispinalis

Front 2472

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a T9-T12 SCI?

Back 2472

Increased endurance, improved trunk control, swing-to or swing-through gait on level surfaces with bilateral KAFOs and a walker or forearm crutches, independent floor to w/c transfers

Front 2473

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a T9-T12 SCI?

Back 2473

Lower Abdominals, all intercostals

Front 2474

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a T12 - L3 SCI?

Back 2474

Hip flexion, adduction, knee extension. Independent swing-to or swing-through with Bilateral KAFOs and forearm crutches, can be community ambulators

Front 2475

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a T12 - L3SCI?

Back 2475

Gracilis, iliopsoas, quadratus lumborum, rectus femoris, sartorius

Front 2476

What are the functional capabilities of a patient with a L4-L5 SCI?

Back 2476

Strong hip flexion and knee extension, weak knee flexion improved trunk control, independent home ambulators and community ambulators

Front 2477

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a TL4-L5 SCI?

Back 2477

Low back muscles, medial hamstring, posterior tibialis, quadriceps and tibialis anterior

Front 2478

What level of injury is the most caudal to be able to produce at least a weak, but functional cough?

Back 2478

T4-T8

Front 2479

What effects will UE ergometry have on cardiac vitals?

Back 2479

Low Vo2 max, HR higher, Stroke volume lower, BP higher

Front 2480

What are 8 absolute indications to stop exercise with a cardiac patient?

Back 2480

Drop in systolic BP >10, Moderate to severe angina, increasing nervous system symptoms, signs of poor perfusion, technical difficulties with ECG, subject's desire to stop, sustained VT, ST elevation of >1.0 mm

Front 2481

What are 6 relative indications to stop exercise with a cardiac patient?

Back 2481

ST or QRS changes, arrhythmias other than sustained VT, fatigue (SOB, wheezing, leg cramps, claudication), development of bundle branch block, increasing chest pain, hypertenxive response (BP >250 sys, >115 dia)

Front 2482

What is tidal volume?

Back 2482

The amount of air that is inhaled and exhaled during normal resting breathing

Front 2483

What is residual volume?

Back 2483

The volume of air remaining in the lungs following a full or maximal expiration

Front 2484

What is expiratory reserve volume?

Back 2484

The volume of air that can be forcefully expelled following a normal expiration

Front 2485

What is inspiratory reserve volume?

Back 2485

The volume of air that can be forcefully breathed in following a normal inspiration

Front 2486

What is forced vital capacity?

Back 2486

The amount of air that is under volitional control (FVC = IRV + TV + ERV)

Front 2487

What is Forced expiratory volume?

Back 2487

The volume of air that can be forcefully expelled in 1 second following a full inspiration

Front 2488

What is the normal percent of air that can be exhaled in one second?

Back 2488

75%

Front 2489

What is total lung capacity?

Back 2489

The sum of the residual volume and forced vital capacity

Front 2490

What is Functional residual capacity?

Back 2490

The volume of air remaining in the lungs following a normal expiration

Front 2491

What is atelectasis?

Back 2491

The shrunken and airless state of part of the lung

Front 2492

How long should lifting, pushing or pulling be avoided after a CABG?

Back 2492

4-6 weeks

Front 2493

When should Phase 1 of cardiac rehab begin?

Back 2493

24 hours after patient stabilization

Front 2494

What are the symptoms of hyperventilation?

Back 2494

Respiratory alkalosis, decreased BP, vasoconstriction, syncope, marked anxiety, wrist crampings

Front 2495

What is orthopnea?

Back 2495

Difficulty breathing except in the sitting or standing position

Front 2496

What are the absolute contraindications for beginning cardiac rehab?

Back 2496

Acute MI, unstable angina, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias, Pulmonary embolism, acute myocarditis or pericarditis, acute aortic dissection

Front 2497

If a patient is having perfusion problems in the lungs on the R side, which side should you have them lay on?

Back 2497

Right

Front 2498

What are the relative contraindications for beginning cardiac rehab?

Back 2498

Left main coronary stenosis, moderate stenosis valvular heart disease, electrolyte abnormalities, severe arterial hypertension, tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, mental or physical impairment, high degree AV block

Front 2499

What does frothy sputum indicate?

Back 2499

Pulmonary Edema

Front 2500

What does thick, clear sputum indicate?

Back 2500

Cystic fibrosis or conditions with chronic cough

Front 2501

What is hemoptysis?

Back 2501

Blood in the sputum

Front 2502

What are rales?

Back 2502

Discontinuous sounds heard primarily during inspiration

Front 2503

The presence of rales can indicate what?

Back 2503

air bubbles in secretions or movement of fibrotic tissue

Front 2504

Basilar rales can indicate what?

Back 2504

Left ventricular congestive heart failure

Front 2505

What are rhonchi?

Back 2505

Continous low-pitched, sonorous breath sounds that are most prominent during expiration

Front 2506

What does the presence of rhonchi indicate?

Back 2506

Asthma or chronic bronchitis

Front 2507

What is stridor?

Back 2507

A continuous adventitious sound of inspiration associated with upper airway obstruction

Front 2508

What are wheezes?

Back 2508

Continuous breath sounds that are high-pitched, sibilant and musical

Front 2509

What condition are wheezes often associated with?

Back 2509

Asthma

Front 2510

What are some of the signs/symptoms of COPD?

Back 2510

Increased resistance to airflow, often a history of smoking, abnormal breath sounds, use of accessory breathing muscles, increased chest size, dry or productive cough

Front 2511

What is the recommended frequency/duration for phase II cardiac rehab?

Back 2511

2-3 / wk, 30-60 minutes each w/ 5-10 minute warm up and cool down

Front 2512

What is the suggested exit point for phase II cardiac rehab?

Back 2512

9 MET functional capacity

Front 2513

When should strength training in phase II cardiac rehab start?

Back 2513

after 3 weeks of cardiac rehab, 5 weeks post MI, or 8 weeks post CABG

Front 2514

What condition is characterized as a genetically inherited disease, with thickening of secretions of ALL exocrine glands, leading to obstruction. It may present as an obstructive, restrictive or mixed disease

Back 2514

Cystic fibrosis

Front 2515

What are some of the signs/symptoms of Cystic Fibrosis?

Back 2515

Frequent respiratory infections, inability to gain weight, positive sweat electrolyte test, rales and wheezing, productive large amounts of mucoid sputum, hemoptysis

Front 2516

What conidtions is characterized as a permanent abnormal enlargement and destruction of air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles.

Back 2516

Emphysema

Front 2517

What are the signs/symptoms of emphysema?

Back 2517

Barreled chest, use of accessory muscle of ventilation, decreased breath sounds with/without wheezing, dyspnea

Front 2518

What is a good breathing technique to aid in respiration with patients who have emphysema?

Back 2518

Pursed lip breathing

Front 2519

Paradoxical motion of a portion of the ribcage during respiration indicates what?

Back 2519

Flail chest

Front 2520

Why would it not be a good idea to exercise Heart Failure patients in Supine or prone?

Back 2520

Can't breathe due to orthopnea

Front 2521

What is class I of the New York Heart Association Heart Failure Stages?

Back 2521

Mild HF, No limitation in physical activity up to 6.5 METs, comfortable at rest

Front 2522

What is class II of the New York Heart Association Heart Failure Stages?

Back 2522

Slight HF, slight limitation in physical activities up to 4.5 METs, ordinary activity results in fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea or anginal pain

Front 2523

How long after a person begins treatment for acute TB before they are considered noninfectious?

Back 2523

2 weeks

Front 2524

What is class III of the New York Heart Association Heart Failure Stages?

Back 2524

Marked limitation of physical activity (up to 3.0 METs), comfortable at rest, less than ordinary physical activity causes fatigue, palpiations, dyspnea or anginal pain

Front 2525

What is class IV of the New York Heart Association Heart Failure Stages?

Back 2525

Severe HF, unable to carry out any activity (1.5 METs) without discomfort, symptoms of ischemia, dyspnea, anginal pain present even at rest

Front 2526

What is Stage A of the American Heart Association Heart Failure Stages?

Back 2526

At high risk for HF but w/o structural heart disease or symptoms

Front 2527

What is Stage B of the American Heart Association Heart Failure Stages?

Back 2527

Structural heart disease but w/o signs or symptoms of HF

Front 2528

What is Stage C of the American Heart Association Heart Failure Stages?

Back 2528

Structural heart disease with prior or current symptoms

Front 2529

What is Stage D of the American Heart Association Heart Failure Stages?

Back 2529

Refractory HF requiring specialized interventions

Front 2530

What are the key muscles that are still functional in a patient with a C7 SCI?

Back 2530

Extensor pollicis longus and brevis, extrinsic finger extensors, flexor carpi radialis and triceps

Front 2531

With lymphadema massage, do you want to begin proximal or distal?

Back 2531

Proximal

Front 2532

What exercise should be avoided with patient who have lymphadema?

Back 2532

Strenuous activities, jogging, ballistic movements

Front 2533

What are the precautions for percussion?

Back 2533

Rib fractures, costal chondritis, hemoptysis, blood coagulation problems, dysarhythmias, pain, severe dyspnea, pneuothorax, increased bronchospasm

Front 2534

What modalities are contraindicated for lymphadema?

Back 2534

Ice, heat, hydrotherapy, sauna, contrast bath, parafiin

Front 2535

Why might compression stockings be contraindicated for lymphadema?

Back 2535

Too much compression could compress surface lymph capillaries

Front 2536

What is the compression rate for CPR?

Back 2536

100 / minute

Front 2537

What is the compression depth for CPR on an adult?

Back 2537

2 inches

Front 2538

What is the compression depth for CPR on a child or infant?

Back 2538

1/3 Chest depth

Front 2539

What is the compression to respiration ratio for CPR on an adult?

Back 2539

30:02:00

Front 2540

What is the compression to respiration ratio for CPR on a child or infant?

Back 2540

30:2 if 1 HCP, 15:2 if 2 HCP

Front 2541

What is the MET equivalent of resting

Back 2541

1 MET

Front 2542

What is the MET equivalent of walking 1 MPH?

Back 2542

2 MET

Front 2543

What is the MET equivalent of biking at 5 MPH?

Back 2543

3 MET

Front 2544

What is the MET of pulling a bag while walking while playing golf?

Back 2544

4 MET

Front 2545

What is the MET equivalent of painting a house?

Back 2545

5 MET

Front 2546

What is the MET equivalent of horse back riding?

Back 2546

6 MET

Front 2547

What is the MET equivalent of shoveling snow?

Back 2547

7 MET

Front 2548

What is the MET equivalent of playing basketball?

Back 2548

8-10+

Front 2549

What condition is characterized by failure or hypertrophy of the right ventricle resulting from disorders of the lungs, pulmonary vessel, or chest wall?

Back 2549

Cor Pulmonale

Front 2550

What ribs are considered true ribs?

Back 2550

1/6/2015

Front 2551

What ribs are considered false ribs?

Back 2551

7/10/2015

Front 2552

What ribs are considered floating ribs?

Back 2552

11 and 12

Front 2553

The parietal pleura covers what area?

Back 2553

Inner surface of thoracic cage

Front 2554

The visceral pleura covers what area?

Back 2554

Surrounds the lungs

Front 2555

How will Ventricular tachycardia show up on an ECG?

Back 2555

No P Waves

Front 2556

What does an inverted T wave suggest?

Back 2556

Ischemia

Front 2557

What does a wide QRS wave suggest?

Back 2557

Bundle Branch Heart Block

Front 2558

When a pt is able to achieve what MET level should they be discharged from Phase II cardiac rehab?

Back 2558

9 METs

Front 2559

How much is normal chest excursion during inspiration?

Back 2559

2-3 inches

Front 2560

What are the signs/symptoms of respiratory alkalosis?

Back 2560

Dizziness, syncope, tingling, numbness, early tetany

Front 2561

What are the signs/symptoms of respiratory acidosis?

Back 2561

Early: Anxiety, restlessness, dyspnea, headache. Late: Confusion, somnolence, coma

Front 2562

What are some causes of metabolic alkalosis?

Back 2562

Bicarbonate ingestion, vomiting, diuretics, steroids, adrenal disease

Front 2563

What are the signs/symptoms of metabolic alkalosis?

Back 2563

Weakness, mental dullness, possibly early tetany

Front 2564

What are some causes of metabolic acidosis?

Back 2564

Diabetic, lactic or uremic acidosis, prolong diarrhea

Front 2565

What are the signs/symptoms of metabolic acidosis?

Back 2565

Secondary hyperventilation, nausea, lethargy, coma

Front 2566

What is Stage I of the Obstructive Lung Disease?

Back 2566

Mild, individual may be unaware that lung function is abnormal

Front 2567

What is Stage II of the Obstructive Lung Disease?

Back 2567

Individuals typically seek medical attention because of chronic respiratory symptoms or an exacerbation of their disease

Front 2568

What is Stage III of the Obstructive Lung Disease?

Back 2568

Individuals experience greater shortness of breath, reduced exercise capacity, fatigue, impact on quality of life

Front 2569

What is Stage IV of the Obstructive Lung Disease?

Back 2569

Quality of life is very appreciably impaired and exacerbations may be life threatening

Front 2570

What is hirsutism?

Back 2570

Increased hair growth

Front 2571

What is the minimum value of Semmes-Weinstein monofilament needed for protective sensation?

Back 2571

5.07

Front 2572

What is stage I of a pressure ulcer?

Back 2572

nonblanchable erythema, Rversible with intervention

Front 2573

What is stage II of a pressure ulcer?

Back 2573

Partial thickness skin loss.

Front 2574

What is stage III of a pressure ulcer?

Back 2574

Full thickness skin defect that extends into the fat layer, but not through the fascia

Front 2575

What is stage IV of a pressure ulcer?

Back 2575

Full thickness skin defect that extends beyond the fascia into the muscle.

Front 2576

Arterial insufficiency ulcers are shallow or deep?

Back 2576

Deep

Front 2577

Arterial insufficiency ulcers are painful or not painful?

Back 2577

Painful

Front 2578

Venous insufficiency ulcers are shallow or deep?

Back 2578

Shallow

Front 2579

Arterial insufficiency ulcers are painful or not painful?

Back 2579

Not painful

Front 2580

What is the zone of coagulation?

Back 2580

Cells are irreversibly damaged and skin death occurs

Front 2581

What is the zone of stasis?

Back 2581

Contains injured cells that may die within 24 to 48 hours without specialized treatment

Front 2582

What is the zone of hyperemia?

Back 2582

Site of minimal cell damage and the tissue should recover within 7 days with no lasting ill effects

Front 2583

What skin layers does a first degree burn damage?

Back 2583

Epidermis only

Front 2584

What skin layer does a superficial second degree burn damage>?

Back 2584

Epidermis and upper layers of dermis

Front 2585

What skin layers does a deep second degree burn damage?

Back 2585

epidermis and most of the dermis including hair follicles, nerve endings and sweat glands

Front 2586

What are the two most common causes of bronchogenic carcinoma?

Back 2586

Smoking and occupation exposures

Front 2587

What skin layers does a third degree burn damage?

Back 2587

Epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous layers, some muscle damage

Front 2588

What skin layers does a fourth degree burn damage?

Back 2588

All skin layers along with muscle and bone damage

Front 2589

An anterior neck burn will usually form what kind of contracture?

Back 2589

Flexion

Front 2590

An anterior neck burn can be prevented from contracture how?

Back 2590

Cervical Hyperextension with a firm cervical brace

Front 2591

A shoulder burn will usually form what kind of contracture?

Back 2591

Adduction and IR

Front 2592

A shoulder burn can be prevented from contracture how?

Back 2592

Abduction and ER using an airplane splint

Front 2593

An elbow burn will usually form what kind of contracture?

Back 2593

Flexion and Pronation

Front 2594

An elbow burn can be prevented from contracture how?

Back 2594

Extenstion and Supination splint

Front 2595

A hand burn will usually form what kind of contracture?

Back 2595

Flexion and adduction

Front 2596

A hand burn can be prevented from contracture how?

Back 2596

Extension and abduction brace

Front 2597

With lymphadema massage, do you want to begin proximal or distal?

Back 2597

Proximal

Front 2598

A knee burn can be prevented from contracture how?

Back 2598

Extension, posterior knee splint

Front 2599

An ankle burn will usually form what kind of contracture?

Back 2599

Plantarflexion

Front 2600

An ankle burn can be prevented from contracture how?

Back 2600

Dorsiflexion or splinted in neutral with AFO

Front 2601

What condition is characterized as an autoimmune process that causes the adrenal glands to underproduce cortisol and aldosterone?

Back 2601

Addison's Disease

Front 2602

What are the signs/symptoms of Addison's Disease?

Back 2602

Hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes, progressive fatigue, GI disturbance, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, tendon calcification, hypoglycemia.

Front 2603

What condition is characterized as an oversecretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex or long-term use of corticosteroids due to inflammatory disorders

Back 2603

Cushing's Disease

Front 2604

What are the signs/symptoms of Cushing's Disease?

Back 2604

Moon face appearance, cervical fat pad, truncal obesity, muscle wasting and weakness, osteoporosis, hypertension, easy bruising, depression, excessive facial hair, ruddy complexion, slow wound healing

Front 2605

What condition is characterized b\as a condition resulting from decreased thyroid hormone, causing generalised depression of metabolism. TSH levels are elevated

Back 2605

Hypothyroidism

Front 2606

What are the signs/symptoms of hypothyroidism?

Back 2606

Cold intolerance, excessive fatigue and lethargy, headaches, weight gain, dry skin, increasing thinness/brittleness of hair and nails, peripheral edema, peripheral neuropathy, proximal weakness

Front 2607

What conditions is characterized as a condition resulting from excess production of the thyroid hormone which results in generalized elevation of metabolism. TSH levels will be low

Back 2607

Hyperthyroidism

Front 2608

What are the signs/symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

Back 2608

Tachycardia, increased sweating, heat intolerance, increased appetite, dyspnea, weight loss, anxiety, goiter, exopthalmia,

Front 2609

What does Hyperparathyroidism cause?

Back 2609

Elevated calcium level and decreased serum phosphate. This causes bone demineralization.

Front 2610

What are the symptoms of hyperparathyroidism?

Back 2610

Proximal weakness, fatigue, drowsiness, arthralgia/myalgia, depression, glove/stocking sensory loss, osteopenia/fractures, confusion/memory loss, pancreatitis, gout, osteitis fibrosa cystica

Front 2611

What is the usual cause of hypoparathyroidism?

Back 2611

Removal of the parathyroid

Front 2612

What are the signs/symptoms of hypoparathyroidism?

Back 2612

Neck stiffness/muscle cramps, seizures, irritability, depression, skeletal muscle twitching, cardiac arrythmias, parasthesias, twitch of facial muscles

Front 2613

What is Type I Diabetes?

Back 2613

Inability of the pancreas to produce insulin

Front 2614

What is the clinical test for Diabetes?

Back 2614

Fasting blood glucose >126 or casual blood glucose >200 plus signs of Diabetes Mellitus

Front 2615

What are the signs/symptoms of hypoglycemia?

Back 2615

Blood glucose <50-60, skin is pale, cool, disoriented or agitated, headache, blurred vision, slurred speech, tachycardia with palpitations, weak/shaky, loss of consciousness

Front 2616

What are the signs/symptoms of hyperglycemia?

Back 2616

Blood glucose >180, skins is dry and flushed, fruity breath odor, frequent urination, unusual thirst, extreme hunger, unusual weight loss, extreme fatigue, iritability, blurred vision, fungal infections, dizziness

Front 2617

What are contraindications to exercise with diabetes patients?

Back 2617

Blood glucose >250 w/ evidence of urinary ketones or blood glucose >300 w/o evidence of urinary ketones, do not exercise during peak insulin times

Front 2618

What is atelectasis?

Back 2618

Collapsed or airless alveolar unit

Front 2619

When is insulin at its peak in the blood?

Back 2619

2-4 hours after injection

Front 2620

What should the patient do about their insulin dose before exercise?

Back 2620

Decrease by 30-35%

Front 2621

What should the patient do about their insulin does post exercise?

Back 2621

Decrease by 30%

Front 2622

How long after a meal is the idea time to exercise a diabetes patient?

Back 2622

1 hour

Front 2623

What should the diabetic patient due regarding carbohydrates before and after exercise?

Back 2623

Increase intake for 24 hours before and after

Front 2624

If blood glucose level is less than 70 before exercise what should be done?

Back 2624

A carbohydrate snack given and wait 15 minutes to retest

Front 2625

If blood glucose level is >250 before exercise what should be done?

Back 2625

Exercise should not be done

Front 2626

If blood glucose level is 70-100 before exercise what should be done?

Back 2626

Snack given if symptoms are present

Front 2627

Should patients with diabetes soak their feet?

Back 2627

No

Front 2628

What is the proper position and percussion to drain upper lobes apical segment?

Back 2628

Sitting back at 30 degrees, percussion between clavicle and scapula

Front 2629

What is the proper position and percussion to drain upper lobes posterior segment?

Back 2629

Sitting, leaning forward 30 degrees, percussion Upper back

Front 2630

What is the proper position and percussion to drain upper lobes anterior segment?

Back 2630

Lieing down with pillow under knees, percussion between clavicle and nipple

Front 2631

What is the proper position and percussion to drain right middle lobe?

Back 2631

Lieing down foot of bed elevated 16 inches, lays on left side and rotates 1/4 turn backward, percussion over the right nipple (or below breast)

Front 2632

What is the proper position and percussion to drain left upper lobe lingular segment?

Back 2632

Lieing down foot of bed elevated 16 inches, lays of right side and rotates 1/4 turn bacward, percussion over left nipple (or below breast)

Front 2633

What is the proper position and percussion to drain lower lobes anterior basal segment?

Back 2633

Lieing down foot of bed elevated 20 inches, lays on side w/ head down, percussion over lower ribs

Front 2634

What is the proper position and percussion to drain lower lobes lateral basal segment?

Back 2634

Lieing down foot of bed elevated 20 inches, lays on abdomen w/ head down, turns 1/4 turn upward, percussion over uppermost portion of lower ribs

Front 2635

What is the proper position and percussion to drain lower lobes posterior basal segment?

Back 2635

Lieing down foot of bed elevated 20 inches, lays on abdomen w/ head down, pillow under hips, percussion over lower ribs close to spine

Front 2636

What condition is characterized as an autosomal recessive hereditary disorder characterized by excessive absorption of iron by the small intestines

Back 2636

Hemochromatosis

Front 2637

What are the sigs/symptoms of hemochromatosis?

Back 2637

Arthropathy, arthralgias, myalgias, progressive weakness, bilateral pitting edema lower extremities, hyperpigmentation of the skin, CHF, loss of body hair, diabetes mellitus

Front 2638

What is the proper position and percussion to drain lower lobes superior segment?

Back 2638

Lieing down on flat table on abdomen, pillow under hips, percussion over middle of back at tip of scapula

Front 2639

What condition is characterized by excessive bone resportion and formation in a haphazard fashion producing bone that is larger, less compact, more vascular and more susceptible to fractures?

Back 2639

Paget's Disease

Front 2640

What nerve is affected with crutch palsy?

Back 2640

Radial

Front 2641

What artery is affected when leaning on a crutch too much?

Back 2641

Axillary

Front 2642

What is a heel insert commonly used for?

Back 2642

Heel spurs and plantar fasciitis

Front 2643

What is a scaphoid pad commonly used for?

Back 2643

Supporting longitudinal arch, pes planus

Front 2644

What is a semirigid plastic rearfoot insert commonly used for>

Back 2644

Rear foot eversion or inversion abnormalities

Front 2645

What is a metatarsal pad commonly used for?

Back 2645

Metatarsalgia

Front 2646

What is a metatarsal bar commonly used for?

Back 2646

Metatarsalgia

Front 2647

What is a Thomas, or medial heel wedge commonly used for?

Back 2647

Pronation abnormality

Front 2648

What is a lateral heel wedge commonly used for?

Back 2648

Supination abnormality

Front 2649

What are medial/lateral sole wedges commonly used for?

Back 2649

Realignment of metatarsals

Front 2650

The head and neck account for what percent according to the rule of 9s?

Back 2650

9%

Front 2651

The anterior trunk accounts for what percent according to the rule of 9s?

Back 2651

18%

Front 2652

The posterior trunk accounts for what percent according to the rule of 9s?

Back 2652

18%

Front 2653

The arm accounts for what percent according to the rule of 9s?

Back 2653

9%

Front 2654

The leg accounts for what percent according to the rule of 9s?

Back 2654

18%

Front 2655

The perineum accounts for what percent according to the rule of 9s?

Back 2655

1%

Front 2656

What are 4 common uses for a corset?

Back 2656

Increases intra-abdominal pressure, assists in respiration for SCI patients, relieves pain in back disorders, acts as SI support

Front 2657

What about a prosthetic for a BKA could cause excessive knee flexion in initial contact ?

Back 2657

High shoe heel, insufficient plantarflexion, stiff heel cusion, socket too far anterior, socket excessively flexed, cuff tabs too posterior

Front 2658

What about a prosthetic for a BKA could cause insufficient knee flexion in initial contact ?

Back 2658

Low shoe heel, excessive plantarflexion, soft heel cusion, socket too far posterior, socket insufficiently flexed

Front 2659

What about a prosthetic for a BKA could cause Exessive lateral thrust in midstance?

Back 2659

Excessive foot inset

Front 2660

What about a prosthetic for a BKA could cause excessive medial thrust in midstance?

Back 2660

Excessive foot outset

Front 2661

What about a prosthetic for a BKA could cause early knee flexion in late stance?

Back 2661

High shoe heel, insufficient plantarflexion, keel too short, dorsiflexion stop too soft, socket too anterior, socket excessively flexed, cuff tabs too posterior

Front 2662

What about a prosthetic for a BKA could cause Delayed knee flexion in late stance?

Back 2662

Low shoe heel, excessive plantarlfexion, keel too long, dorsiflexion stop too stiff, socket too posterior, socket not flexed enough

Front 2663

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause abduction in stance?

Back 2663

Long prosthesis, abducted hip joint, inadequate lateral wall adduction, sharp or high medial wall

Front 2664

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause circumduction in swing?

Back 2664

Long prosthesis, locked knee unit, loose friction, inadequate suspension, small socket, loose socket, foot plantarflexed

Front 2665

A knee burn can be prevented from contracture how?

Back 2665

Extension, posterior knee splint

Front 2666

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause forward flexion in stance?

Back 2666

Unstable knee unit, short walker or crutches

Front 2667

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause lordosis in stance?

Back 2667

Inadequate socket flexion

Front 2668

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause medial/lateral whip in heel off?

Back 2668

Faulty socket contour, knee bolt externally (internally) rotated foot malrotated, prosthesis donned in malrotation

Front 2669

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause foot rotation in heel contact?

Back 2669

Stiff heel cushion, malrotated foot

Front 2670

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause high heel rise in Early swing?

Back 2670

Inadequate friction, slack extension aid

Front 2671

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause terminal impact in late swing?

Back 2671

Inadquate friction, taut extension aid

Front 2672

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause vaulting in swing?

Back 2672

Long prosthesis, locked knee unit, loose friction, inadequate suspension, small socket, loose socket, foot plantarflexed

Front 2673

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause hip hike in swing?

Back 2673

Long prosthesis, locked knee unit, loose friction, inadequate suspension, small socket, loose socket, foot plantarflexed

Front 2674

What about a prosthetic for a AKA could cause Uneven step length in swing?

Back 2674

Uncomfortable socket, insufficient socket flexion

Front 2675

What are the contraindications for parrafin bath?

Back 2675

Allergic rash, open wounds, recent scars and sutures, skin infections

Front 2676

What are the contraindications for cryotherapy?

Back 2676

Impaired circulation, impaired sensation, peripheral vascular disease, prolonged application over superficial nerves

Front 2677

What is a positive CD4 count for HIV?

Back 2677

500-1200

Front 2678

What are the contraindications for general deep thermotherapy?

Back 2678

Acute infections, impaired circulation, malignancy, thoracic area containing pacemaker, very young or very old patients

Front 2679

What is the proper amount of weight for cervical traction?

Back 2679

20-30 pounds

Front 2680

What is the proper amount of weight for lumbar traction?

Back 2680

25-65 pounds

Front 2681

What is the best neck position to effect C1-C4 in traction?

Back 2681

0-5 degrees flexion

Front 2682

What is the best neck position to effect C5-C7 in traction?

Back 2682

20-30 degrees flexion

Front 2683

What is the preferred lumbar traction position for spinal stenosis?

Back 2683

Hips at 90 degrees

Front 2684

What is the preferred lumbar traction position for disc herniation?

Back 2684

Supine

Front 2685

What are contraindications for traction?

Back 2685

impaired cognitive function, spinal tumors and infections, sponylolisthesis, rheumatoid arthritis, osteoporisis, very young or very old, vascular compromise

Front 2686

What are contraindications for intermittent compression?

Back 2686

Acute inflammation or infection, acute deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary edema, arterial insufficiency, cancer, diminished skin sensation, kidney or cardiac insufficiency, hypertension, cognitive dysfunction, obstructed lymph channels, very young and very old

Front 2687

What are contraindications for continuous passive motion?

Back 2687

Thrombophlebitis or DVT, pain/edema/inflammation during use,

Front 2688

What are contraindications for tilt table?

Back 2688

Unstable fractures, confused or anxious

Front 2689

What are contraindications for massage?

Back 2689

Acute inflammation or febrile condition, severe atherosclerosis or varicose veins, phlebitis and thrombophlebitis, areas of recent surgery, cardiac arrhythmia, malignancy, hypersensitivity, severe rheumatoid arthritis, hemorrhage in area, edma secondary to kidney dysfunction, venous insufficiency

Front 2690

What are contraindications for electrotherapy?

Back 2690

healing fractures, areas of active bleeding, malignancies or phlebitis in treatment area, superficial metal implants, pharyngeal or laryngeal muscles, demand-type pace maker, myocardial disease

Front 2691

What are contraindications for iontophoresis?

Back 2691

Impaired skin sensation, allergy or sensitivity to therapeutic agent or direct current, recent scars/cuts/bruises/broken skin, metal in or near area

Front 2692

What are contraindications for TENS?

Back 2692

Demand-type pacemaker, over chest area of patients with cardiac dysfunctions, over eyes etc, application to mucosal membranes

Front 2693

What are the common settings for high rate TENS?

Back 2693

Frequency: 75-120, pulse width: 50-100

Front 2694

What are the common setting for acupuncture-like TENS?

Back 2694

Frequency: 1-4, pulse width:150-300

Front 2695

What are the common settings for brief intense TENS?

Back 2695

Frequency: 150, Pulse width: 300

Front 2696

What is the purpose of brief intense TENS?

Back 2696

To provide pain relief for painful procedures

Front 2697

What is the normal NCV time in an UE nerve?

Back 2697

50m/sec

Front 2698

What is the normal NCV time in a LE nerve?

Back 2698

60m/sec

Front 2699

What is tumor stage 0?

Back 2699

Carcinoma in situ

Front 2700

What is tumor stage I

Back 2700

Tumor is localized, equal to or less than 2 cm, has not spread to lymph nodes

Front 2701

What is tumor stage II?

Back 2701

Tumor is locally advanced; 2-5 cm with or without lymph node involvement

Front 2702

What is tumor stage III?

Back 2702

Tumor is locally more advanced; spread to lymph nodes

Front 2703

What is tumor stage IV?

Back 2703

The tumor has metastacized, or spread to other organs throughout the body

Front 2704

What is cancer grade I?

Back 2704

Cancer cells resemble normal cells and are slow growing

Front 2705

What is cancer grade II?

Back 2705

Cancer cells look more abnormal and are slightly faster growing

Front 2706

What is cancer grade III?

Back 2706

Cancer cells are abnormal grow or spread more aggressively

Front 2707

What is cancer grade IV?

Back 2707

Cancer cells are abnormal

Front 2708

What is the proper wheelchair ramp height to distance ratio?

Back 2708

12:01

Front 2709

With a platelet count of 50,000-150,000 what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2709

Some limitations

Front 2710

With a platelet count of 30,000-50,000 what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2710

Moderate exercise

Front 2711

With a platelet count of 20,000-30,000 what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2711

light exercise

Front 2712

With a platelet count <20,000 what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2712

ROM, ADLs, walking, with physician approval

Front 2713

With a white blood count of >5000 what is the proper exercise prcautions?

Back 2713

Light or regular exercise

Front 2714

With a white blood count of <5000 with fever what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2714

No exercise

Front 2715

With a white blood count of <1000 what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2715

No exercise

Front 2716

With a hemoglobin count of >10 what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2716

Normal exercise

Front 2717

With a hemoglobin count of 8-10 what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2717

Light exercise

Front 2718

With a hemoglobin count of <8 what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2718

No exercise

Front 2719

With a hematocrit count of >25% what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2719

Light or regular exercise

Front 2720

With a hematocrit count of <25% what is the proper exercise precautions?

Back 2720

No exercise