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96 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Who is responsible for carrying out the requirements of command damage control training?
A. Commanding officer B. Executive officer C. Operations officer D. Fire marshal |
Answer: B Executive officer
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The Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshop is conducted by which of the following groups?
A. Command Training Team (CTT) B. Command Assessment Team (CAT) C. Command Rights and Responsibilities Team D. Striker Board |
Answer: A Command Training Team (CTT)
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After a compartment has been flooded with CO2, what minimum length of time should you wait before opening the compartment?
A. 1 hour B. 30 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 10 minutes |
Answer: C 15 minutes
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On ships having a Marine detachment, brow and pier sentries report to which of the following individuals?
A. Officer of the deck B. Sergeant of the guard C. Petty officer of the watch D. Junior officer of the deck |
Answer: B Sergeant of the guard
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Who is responsible to the commanding officer for carrying out the policies of the Navy Drug and Alcohol Abuse Program (NADAP)?
A. DAPA B. CAAC C. ARD D. NAVALREHCEN |
Answer: A DAPA
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Assigning your junior petty officers challenging jobs will increase which of the following skills?
A. Management B. Leadership C. Organizational D. Administrative |
Answer: B Leadership
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The number of tag-out logs that each ship class must maintain is specified by which of the following individuals?
A. Chief of Naval Operations B. Commanding officer C. Squadron commander D. Force commander |
Answer: D Force commander
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One definition of a problem drinker is one who must drink to function or to cope with life. How does the Navy define "alcoholism"?
A. Complying with ordinary social drinking customs B. Drinking alcohol even though under the state-approved age for purchasing alcoholic beverages C. Depending on alcohol psychologically and/or physiologically D. Doing something under the influence of alcohol that would not normally be done |
Answer: C. Depending on alcohol psychologically and/or physiologically
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Each personnel qualification standard is divided into which of the following subdivision (s)?
A. Systems B. Fundamentals C. Watchstations/Maintenance actions D. All of the above |
Answer: D. All of the above
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Personnel should be entered in a hearing testing program if they are required to work in a designated noise hazard area with sound levels that average more than what maximum decibel (dB) level?
A. 25 dB B. 56 dB C. 78 dB D. 84 dB |
Answer: D . 84 dB
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If authority is given to a subordinate to sign official correspondence for the commanding officer, which of the following lines usually appears below the subordinate's signature?
A. By direction B. By authority of C. For the commander D. For the commanding officer |
Answer: A. By direction
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Which of the following terms is used to describe an unplanned event that interrupts work and produces damage and/or injury?
A. Mishap B. Mistake C. Misconduct D. Mismanagement |
Answer: A. Mishap
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Which of the following logs is used by your division or department to maintain its supply inventory?
A. EDL B. JSN C. OPTAR D. POA&M |
Answer: C. OPTAR
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The Navy's enlisted performance evaluation system provides an opportunity for individuals to submit information they feel should be included in their performance evaluation. Which of the following methods is used by an individual to provide this information?
A. Writing a rough evaluation for the supervisor B. Submitting an Individual Input Form to the supervisor C. Submitting a letter through the chain of command D. Indicating on the signature block of the report form that a statement is desired |
Answer: B . Submitting an Individual Input Form to the supervisor
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Commanding officers may delegate certain personnel to sign performance evaluations. Which, if any, of the following performance evaluations may be signed by someone who has been delegated this authority?
A. Evaluations that contain a recommendation for advancement to paygrade E-8 B. Evaluations the contain a recommendation for promotion to officer status C. Evaluations that withdrew a member's recommendation for advancement after authorization has been received D. None of the above |
Answer: D. None of the above
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Which of the following terms describes the Navy's recognition that drug and alcohol abuse is incompatible with the Navy's effort to instill pride and professionalism?
A. Zero defects B. Zero tolerance C. Screening with meaning D. Self-referrals preferable |
Answer: B. Zero tolerance
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The command's enlisted safety committee should convene according to what schedule?
A. Weekly B. Monthly C. Bimonthly D. Biannually |
Answer: B. Monthly
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Which of the following odors may indicate the presence of blood agents?
A. Garlic B. New-mown hay C. Bitter almonds D. Fruity camphor |
Answer: C. Bitter almonds
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Which of the following characteristics or symptoms identifies a person suffering from alcoholism?
A. Physical dependence B. Psychological dependence C. Both A and B above D. Infrequent consumption |
Answer: C. Both A and B above
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Each urinalysis sample is tested how many minimum number of times by one of the Navy's drug screening laboratories?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 |
Answer: C. 3
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The authority which is granted to all officers and petty officers to fulfill their duties and responsibilities is known as what type of authority?
A. General B. Unlimited C. Meritorious D. Organizational |
Answer: A. General
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Which of the following tools does a supervisor use to identify and develop solutions to eliminate hazards?
A. Job inventory B. Job safety analysis C. Incidental observation D. Deliberate observation |
Answer: D. Deliberate observation
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Sign-off authority for final PQS qualification may be delegated to what minimum level of authority?
A. Division CPO B. Department head C. Division Officer D. Work center supervisor |
Answer: B. Department head
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The security classification you assign to naval correspondence is determined by which of the following factors?
A. The number of information addressees B. The information contained in the correspondence C. The security classification of related documents D. The security classification of references contained in the correspondence |
Answer: B. The information contained in the correspondence
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In the absence of the commanding officer in port, who is primarily responsible for the safety and proper operation of the unit?
A. Safety officer B. MAA safety force C. Officer of the deck D. Command master chief |
Answer: C. Officer of the deck
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At-sea, which of the following indications may be a symptom of a dangerous condition?
A. Wisp of smoke B. Minor loss of power C. Excessive warmth of a bulkhead D. Each of the above |
Answer: D. Each of the above
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In evaluating the performance of an E-3, when, if ever, should you assign a grade in block 36, Directing?
A. During each evaluation period B. When the E-3 requests to be evaluated in this area C. When the E-3 has clearly demonstrated abilities in this area D. Never |
Answer: C. When the E-3 has clearly demonstrated abilities in this area
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If you make a mistake in the ship's deck log, which of the following procedures would you use to correct the mistake?
A. Draw a single line through the error, insert the correct entry, and initial B. Print the word "error" after the mistake and insert the correct entry C. Erase the error and insert the correct entry D. Black out the error, insert the correct entry, and initial |
Answer: A . Draw a single line through the error, insert the correct entry, and initial
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CMEO is an equal opportunity management system controlled primarily at which of the following levels?
A. Command B. Secretary of Defense C. Secretary of the Navy D. Chief of Naval Operations |
Answer: A . Command
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When the term "TRIDENT" is used, it is understood to include which of the following elements?
A. The base B. The missile C. The submarine D. All of the above |
Answer: D. All of the above
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The primary mission of our submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships?
A. Submarines B. Destroyers C. Carriers D. Cargo |
Answer: A. Submarines
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Which of the following types of task forces is/are organized primarily for strike force operations?
1. Carrier 2. Surface 3. Submarine 4 . All of the above |
Answer: Task forces organized primarily for striking force operationsn are carrier, surface, and submarine strike forces.
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Depressant overdoses, when taken with alcohol, may result in which of the following conditions?
A. Death B. Articulate speech C. Mellow disposition D. Keen sense of humor |
Answer: A. Death
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Who should approve changes to the division's watch, quarter, and station bill?
A. Executive officer B. Commanding officer C. Officer of the deck D. Command duty officer |
Answer: A. Executive officer
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Which of the following personnel are subject to participation in the urinalysis testing program?
A. Officer personnel under the age of 25 only B. Enlisted personnel in paygrades E-4 and below only C. Enlisted personnel only, regardless of rank or age D. All enlisted and officer personnel, regardless of the rank or age |
Answer: D. All enlisted and officer personnel, regardless of the rank or age
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The ship's deck log may be used in which of the following ways?
A. As a chronological record of ship's events B. As legal evidence in fact finding proceedings C. Both A and B above D. As a record of the proceedings of a safety committee meeting |
Answer: C. Both A and B above
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What is the highest precedence normally authorized for administrative messages?
A. Immediate B. Priority C. Routine D. Flash |
Answer: B. Priority
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Which of the following officer programs does/do not require a college education?
A. Officer Candidate School Program B. Chief Warrant Officer Program C. Limited Duty Officer Program D. Both B and C above |
Answer: D. Both B and C above
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The damage control administrative organization is contained within what department?
A. Engineering B. Operations C. Weapons D. Deck |
Answer: A. Engineering
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A drug abuser who suffers long periods of time without sleeping or eating is probably abusing which of the following types of drugs?
A. Alcohol B. Narcotics C. Stimulants D. Depressants |
Answer: C. Stimulants
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As the reporting supervisor evaluating a member who services on a general court-martial during the reporting period, which of the following comments would be appropriate for the Evaluation Comments section?
A. Served as a member of a general court-martial B. Served as a member of a general court-martial; finding of guilty on all counts C. Served as a member of a general court-martial; performance of duty in keeping with the member's military performance trait grade D. All of the above |
Answer: A. Served as a member of a general court-martial
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Which of the following officers is responsible for the administration of the CBR defense bill?
A. Safety officer B. Division officer C. CBR defense officer D. Damage control assistant |
Answer: D. Damage control assistant
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The number one drug problem in the United States is the abuse of which of the following substances?
A. Alcohol B. Cocaine C. Marijuana D. Barbiturates |
Answer: A. Alcohol
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Who trains safety petty officers and damage control petty officers in selecting, fit-testing, and maintaining respirators?
A. Fire marshall B. Division officer C. Damage control assistant D. Gas-free engineering officer |
Answer: D. Gas-free engineering officer
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If a nerve agent is in the atmosphere in your location, you should don your protective mask. The mask may be removed under which of the following circumstances?
A. One hour has elapsed since the attack B. Two hours have elapsed since the attack C. The all clear signal is given D. The agent can no longer be seen in the atmosphere |
Answer: C. The all clear signal is given
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When EMI is assigned to correct a military deficiency, which of the following limitations normally is observed?
A. EMI is assigned in favor of awarding extra duty B. EMI is assigned in periods not to exceed 2 hours daily C. EMI is assigned only during normal working hours D. EMI is assigned, where possible, as a substitute for punitive measures covered under the UCMJ |
Answer: B . EMI is assigned in periods not to exceed 2 hours daily
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An element that enables a seadependent nation to project its political, economic, and military strengths seaward is known as
1. sea power 2. naval power 3. global strategy 4. national strategy |
sea power
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The true strength of sea power can only be measured in terms of a nation’s ability to use the sea to further its
1 . nation alobjectives 2. naval power 3. aggression 4. population |
nation alobjectives
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It is more feasible to send naval forces, in comparison to other military forces , into crisis areas for which of the following reasons?
1. The cost is low 2 . Naval forces can stay on station indefinitely 3. Naval forces leave behind no physical reminders of their presence 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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To continue to exist as we know it today, the United States must have a policy that recognizes its
1. economy 2. naval strengths 3. national security 4. worldwide commitments |
worldwide commitments
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What are the three fundamental pillars on which United States military strategy rests?
1.Maritime superiority, deterrence, and alliance solidarity 2. Control of the seas, deterrence, and forward defense 3. Deterrence, forward defense, and alliance solidarity 4. Forward defense, control of the seas, and alliance solidarity |
Deterrence, forward defense, and alliance solidarity
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Which of the following responses could the United States take in the event of aggression by a potential enemy?
1. Meet force with force 2. Control the duration of the fighting 3. Increase the intensity of the conflict 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
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The Navy has the ability to outlast
any aggressor with 1. a great number of personnel and materials 2. secure sea-lanes 3. a large fleet 4. flexibility |
secure sea-lanes
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In time of emergency the Navy must able to venture into harm’s way.
True or False |
True
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Which of the following is NOT a component of the TRIAD of strategic nuclear forces?
1. Intercontinental ballistic missiles 2. Sea-launched ballistic missiles 3. Aircraft carrier battle groups 4. Long-range bombers |
Aircraft carrier battle groups
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What is the most flexible element of the TRIAD?
1. Intercontinental ballistic missiles 2. Sea-launched ballistic missiles 3. Long-range bombers 4. Cruise missiles |
Long-range bombers
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What is the sole mission and fundamental reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine?
1. To deter war 2. To seek out and destroy enemy submarines 3. To provide a backup for the Strategic Air Command 4. To provide the United States with a first strike capability |
Deterrence of war has been the sole mission and basic reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine since its inception in 1960.
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The TRIAD has been developed and maintained for which of the following purposes?
1. To deter nuclear attack 2. To provide a first strike capability 3. To maintain nuclear equality with the U.S.S.R. 4. To act as an instrument of political leverage or coercion |
The TRIAD has been developed and maintained to deter nuclear attack.
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Ships of the Second Fleet patrol some of the world’s most important trade routes. In what area of the world does the Second Fleet normally patrol?
1. Mediterranean Sea 2. Western Atlantic 3. Eastern Atlantic 4. Eastern Pacific |
It patrols the western Atlantic across some of the world’s most important trade routes. Ships and personnel of the Second Fleet rotate with those of the Sixth Fleet.
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Which of the following fleets would you find in the Western Pacific and Indian Ocean regions?
1 . First 2. Second 3 . Third 4. Seventh |
The Seventh Fleet operates in the western Pacific and Indian Ocean regions.
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Which of the following terms describes an attack that is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective?
1. Strike 2. Threat 3. Assault 4. Aggression |
A strike is an attack intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective. A striking force is a force composed of appropriate units necessary to conduct strike, attack, or assault operations.
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Which of the following characteristics of a strike force is one of its greatest assets?
1. Size 2. Mobility 3. Strength 4. Weaponry |
Mobility is one of the striking forces’ greater assets. It increases the prospect for surprise attacks from any point bordering enemy land areas surrounded by navigable waters.
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Which of the following types of
task forces is/are organized primarily for strike force operations? 1. Carrier 2. Surface 3. Submarine 4 . All of the above |
Task forces organized primarily for striking force operations are carrier, surface, and submarine strike forces. These forces operate independently or together as needed.
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The primary mission of our submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships?
1 . Submarines 2. Destroyers 3. Carriers 4. Cargo |
Historically, the mission of a submarine has been to seek and destroy both combatant and noncombatant enemy surface ships. Now the primary mission of the submarines is to seek and destroy enemy submarines.
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The first fleet ballistic missile submarine was launched in what year?
1. 1955 2. 1959 3. 1960 4. 1961 |
The United States launched its first fleet ballistic missile (FBM) submarine, George Washington, SSBN-598, in June 1959.
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When the term “TRIDENT” is used, it is understood to include which of the following elements?
1 . The base 2. The missile 3. The submarine 4. All of the above |
Trident is the name of the entire weapons system, including submarines, missiles, and base.
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Trident I missiles have a multiple warhead capability and a maximum range of how many nautical miles?
1. 1,200 2. 2,500 3. 3,500 4. 4,000 |
In addition, the Trident I missile has been adapted for use with our present Poseidon submarines. This has increased the missile range to 4,000 nautical miles.
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The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons
A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special |
STRIKE WARFARE. Strike warfare is the use of conventional or nuclear weapons in the destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore.
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The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.
A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special |
ANTISURFACE SHIP WARFARE (ASUW). ASUW is the destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.
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Naval operations generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature.
A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special |
SPECIAL WARFARE. Special warfare involves naval operations generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature and, in many cases, conducted with secrecy.
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This type of warfare prevents the effective use of cargo-carrying vessels by the enemy.
A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special |
ANTISURFACE SHIP WARFARE (ASUW). ASUW is the destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.
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List the security classifications.
a. b. c. |
The three levels of security are—
a. Top Secret b. Secret c. Confidential |
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What does FOUO stand for?
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FOUO means For Official Use Only
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Who is authorized to initiate a request for a security clearance and background investigation?
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Commanding officers are authorized to initiate a request for a security clearance and background investigation.
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Abackground investigation is required for what levels of security clearances?
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A background investigation is required for Top Secret and Secret clearances.
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What does a letter in parentheses, such as (S), after a publication title tell you about the publication?
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A letter in parentheses, such as (S), after a publication title tells you the classification of that publication.
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How are classified material such as videotapes, cassettes, and computer disks marked?
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Classified material, such as videotapes, cassettes, and computer disks, are marked by tags, stickers, decals, and so on.
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A publication contains Confidential material, except for one paragraph that contains Top Secret material.How is this publication marked?
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Publications carry the security marking of the highest level of material contained in the publication; therefore, this publication is marked Top Secret.
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What type of area is used to keep classified material?
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Security areas are used to keep classified material.
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What type of material is safeguarded through ADP Security?
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ADP security is used to safeguard data processing equipment (computers) including hardware, software, administrative and operating procedures, communications, and personnel and spaces.
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You are making your rounds as a roving security patrol and discover that the door to the radio roomis unlocked and the roomunattended. What action should you take?
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If you find an unattended room with an open and unlocked security container, you should contact the senior duty officer to report a security violation. Then, stand guard over the space until the duty officer arrives.
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The least secure system of communication should never be used to discuss classified material. What is the least secure communications means and why should it never be used to discuss classified material?
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The least secure communications means is the telephone. Never use telephones to discuss classified material because they can be physically and electronically wiretapped.
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You are on leave away from your command. You meet someone who starts asking questions about your command and its mission. What should you
do? |
If you meet someone who starts asking questions about your command and its mission, you should report the incident to the nearest military activity.
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What are the two most publicized methods of terrorism?
a. b. |
The two most publicized forms of terrorism are—
a. Taking hostages b. Bombing |
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Where is the likely spot for a terrorist bombing to occur?
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Terrorists are likely to bomb places of business that serve a high volume of people such as airports, nightclubs, and restaurants.
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What form is used to record bomb threats received over the phone?
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To report a bomb threat made over the telephone, use Telephonic Threat Complaint, OPNAV Form 5527/8.
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Pollution can result when which of the following types of agents is/are introduced into the air, water, or soil?
1. Biological 2. Chemical 3. Physical 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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Which of the following operations causes the most pollution?
1. Industrial 2. Municipal 3. Transportation 4. All of the above |
Transportation
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Which of the following materials is the primary municipal pollutant?
1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage 2. Radioactive waste 3. Petroleum products 4. Acids |
The primary municipal pollutants are raw or inadequately treated sewage.
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Which of the following modes of transportation creates most air pollutants?
1. Trains 2. Waterborne vessels 3. Motor vehicles 4. Aircraft |
Motor vehicles create most of our air pollutants through their release of unburned fuel vapors
(hydrocarbons). |
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Which, if any, of the following effects of pollution is the most serious?
1. Psychological 2. Biological 3. Physical 4. None of the above |
Pollution produces physical and biological effects that vary from mildly irritating to lethal. The more serious of the two are the biological effects.
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Steel erodes faster than normal when exposed to which of the following air pollutants?
1. Pesticides 2. Herbicides 3. Zinc oxides 4. Sulfur oxides |
Burning oil and coal produce sulfur oxides, which cause steel to erode two to four times faster than normal.
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Most pesticides fall into which of the following categories?
1. Selective 2. Nonselective 3. Preselective 4. Control selective |
Most pesticides are nonselective; they kill or damage life forms other than those intended.
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What is the primary pollution concern of Navy personnel?
1. Noise pollution 2. Shore command wastes 3. Shipboard wastes |
The primary pollution concern of Navy personnel involves pollution produced by shipboard wastes.
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Which of the following terms identifies abatement?
1. Maintaining 2. Raising 3. Lowering 4. Containing |
Those instructions cover the abatement (lowering) of air, water, and noise pollution.
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Under the Clean Air Act, what government body has the primary responsibility for assuring air quality?
1. Federal government 2. Each state 3. Local municipalities 4. Department of Transportation |
Under the Clean Air Act, each state has the primary responsibility for assuring air quality. All naval activities must meet both federal and state standards for preventing air pollution
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