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340 Cards in this Set
- Front
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- 3rd side (hint)
First recorded blood transfusion |
Pope innocent VIi |
|
|
Discovery of circulatory system |
William Harvey |
|
|
Animal to animal transfusion |
Richard Lower |
Dog to dog |
|
Animal to human transfusion |
Jean Baptist Denis |
Sheep to human |
|
First successful human blood transfusion |
James Blundle |
Performed on a woman suffering from postpartum hemorrhage |
|
First to work on blood transfusion and blood preservation techniques |
Dr Charles Drew |
Director of first American red cross blood bank at Presbyterian hospital |
|
Sodium Phosphate as anticoagulant |
Braxton Hicks |
|
|
Sodium Citrate |
Albert Hustin |
|
|
Determined minimum non-toxic amount of citrate |
Richard Lewison |
|
|
Citrate Dextose |
Rous and Turner |
1916 |
|
Acid citrate dextrose |
Loutit and Mollison |
1943 |
|
Utilized glycerol to extend RBC life by 10 years |
Audrey smith |
1950 |
|
Citrate phosphate dextrose (CPD) as standard preservative |
Gibson |
1957 |
|
Vein to vein transfusion |
Edward Lindemman |
1913 |
|
Syringe valve apparatus |
Lester Unger |
1915 |
|
ABO group discovered by |
Karl Landsteiner |
1901 |
|
Defined 4th blood group :AB |
Alfred Von decastello Adriano sturlii |
1902 |
|
MN and P Discovered |
Karl Landsteiner Philip Levine |
|
|
RH Discovered |
Karl Landsteiner Alexander wiener |
1940 |
|
World first blood bank in chicago |
Cook county Hospital |
Leadership of Dr. Bernard Fantus in 1937 |
|
First community based blood center |
Irwin memorial blood bank |
1941 |
|
ISBT 001 |
ABO blood group system |
|
|
Leading cause of death in hemolytic transfusion reaction fatalities |
Transfusion of wrong ABO group |
Severe intravascular hemolysis |
|
In 2009, it was the frequent cause of death |
Transfusion related acute lung injury |
TRALI |
|
Genes codes for specific glycosyl transferase that add sugar to a precursor substance |
Paragloboside and glycan |
Determines blood group |
|
Amorphic blood type, does NOT code for any enzyme |
O group |
Absence of A and B antigen |
|
810,000 to 1,170,000 antigen sites |
Group A |
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|
610,000 to 830,000 antigen |
B group |
|
|
B enzyme compete more efficiently for the H substance than A enzyme |
A+B gene |
A - 600,000 B - 720,000 |
|
Described the theory for the inheritance of the ABO group |
Bernstein |
1924 |
|
ABO gene is |
Autosomal(somatic chromosome) |
|
|
A group and B group genes are ? |
Co-dominant |
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A blood group and B blood group are ? |
Dominant |
|
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Considered amorph |
O gene |
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Group O phenotype |
Autosomal recessive |
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Two identical allel |
Homozygous |
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Produced by the genotype to control blood group antigen |
Phenotype |
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Gene needed for ABO to be expressed |
H gene |
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Gene needed to be expressed in secretion |
Se gene |
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Basic precursor material for formation of ABH antigens |
Paragloboside or glycan |
|
|
ABO antigens forms as early as |
37th day of fetal life |
|
|
Full expression of ABO gene in what age? |
2-4 years old |
|
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ABO antigen on RBC are synthesized on type ? And give it's beta # linkage |
Type 2, 1-4 |
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ABO antigen on SECRETION are synthesized on type ? And give it's beta # linkage |
Type 1, 1-3 |
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ABH substance can be found in DUBSTAMP give each one |
Digestive juices Urine Bile Saliva Tears Ammiotic fluid Milk Pleural fluid |
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Excessive ABH substance in secretion can be observed in ??? |
PIC Pseudomocinus ovarian cyst Intestinal obstruction Carcinoma of pancreas and stomach |
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Assay to determine secretor status |
Heme agglutination inhibition assay |
DUMPSTAMP |
|
Forms of antigen |
Unbranched straight complex H1 H2 Branched complex H3 H4 |
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Reactivity to anti-H greatest to least |
O>A²>B>A²B>A¹>A¹B |
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Subgroup? anti-A¹ and anti A, anti AB |
A¹ subgroup |
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Subgroup? Anti A, and anti AB |
A² |
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MF reaction with Anti A, anti AB |
A3 |
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Reacts w/ anti AB, no reaction to anti A |
Ax |
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Removal of antibody from serum |
Adsorption |
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Removal of antibody from surface of RBC |
Elution |
|
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Contains A1 and A antigen |
A1 |
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Contains A antigen only |
A2 |
|
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Bm is converted to B if incubated with |
uracil diphosphate |
|
|
in bombay phenotype Autosomal recessive is caused by mutation in? |
FUT 1 gene and FUT 2 |
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FUT 1 gene |
silenced H gene |
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FUT gene |
silenced Se gene |
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T/F Bombay phenotype can donate to any blood group but can only be transfused with blood from another bombay? |
True |
|
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Trace / Absent amount of A,B and H antigen on RBC with normal expression in secretions and bodily fluids |
Para Bombay |
|
|
Para-bombay is caused by |
Mutation in FUT 1 gene Silence FUT 1 gene with an active FUT 2 gene |
|
|
ABO antibodies react at what temp? |
RT(20-24) |
|
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Anti A and Anti B are what immunoglobulin? how about Anti-A,B |
IgM IgG |
|
|
Lectin of Anti-A1 |
Dolichos biflorus |
|
|
Lectin of Anti-B |
Bandeiraea simplicifolia |
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Lectin of Anti-H |
Ulex europaeus |
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Lectin of Anti-N |
Vicia gramiNea |
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Lectin of Anti-M |
Iberes aMara |
|
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Anti-T, Th |
Arachis hypogaea |
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Anti-Tn |
Salcia sclarea |
|
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Type of antisera used in forward typing |
Monoclonal antibodies |
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Anti sera A color |
Tryphan blue |
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Anti sera B color |
Acriflavin yellow |
|
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Ensures the specificity of antisera in QC |
Negative control |
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|
ensures the reactivity of anti sera |
positive control |
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T/F THE POSITIVE CONTROL SHOULD BE STRONGLY REACTIVE |
FALSE |
|
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Universal RBC donor |
O |
|
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Universal Plasma donor |
AB |
|
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Universal RBC recipient |
AB |
|
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Universal Plasma recipient |
O |
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Grading |
4+ |
|
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Roleaux pseudoagglutination can cause false (+) or False (-) |
False (+) |
|
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Acquired A phenomenon, give the organism that causes this |
P. mirabilis |
|
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Acquired B phenomenon, give the organisms/disease that causes this |
E. coli |
EPICC |
|
Acquired B cells will not react with pH |
<6 or >8.5 |
|
|
This is treated to RBC to reacetylate surface molecule and thus decreasing reactivity with Anti-B |
Acetic anhydride |
|
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This detects true B in resolution of acquired B phenomenon |
Monoclonal Anti-B |
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Detects Pseudo B by not reacting in resolution of acquired phenomenon |
Acidified Anti-B |
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In emergency situations, this blood bag group and unit is issued |
Group O rh(-) Prbc |
|
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Discrepancies problem in reverse typing only |
Group 1 |
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Discrepancies problem in forward typing only |
Group 2 |
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Leukemias and Hodgkin's disease are diseases that causes what type of discrepancies |
Group 2 |
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Agammaglobulinemia, Malignant lymphoma, immunosupressive drugs are diseases that causes what type of discrepancies |
Group 2 |
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Newborn and elderly age,what type of discrepancies do they belong |
Group 2 |
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Enzyme treatment in which RBC's are pretreated w/ enzyme and retested w/ an anti sera what group of discrepancies is this resolution |
Group 2 |
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Protein and plasma problem in discrepancies |
Group 3 |
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Multiple myeloma, Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia are diseases that causes what type of discrepancies |
Group 3 |
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Resolution in Group 3 discrepancies |
Saline Replacement techniques |
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Cold reactive autoantibodies, Unexpected ABO isoagglutinins, what group of discrepancies |
Group 4 |
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RHD and RHCE is proposed by |
Tippet Patricia |
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RHD and RHCE are located on chromosome |
chrosome 1 |
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RHAG located in chrosome |
chrosome 6 |
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The first 3 letters in RH represent the |
system/collection/series |
|
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The last 3 letters represent the |
antigenic specificity |
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Rh phenotype that is caused by abnormalities in Transmembrane protein |
Rh null |
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Rh phenotype that is caused by an allele carryying RHD is in trans position to the allele that is carrying C |
C in trans / Positional D |
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Rh phenotype that is caused by weak expression of D |
weak D |
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Rh phenotype that is caused by 1 or more epitope within D protein is missing/altered |
Partial D |
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A compound antigen; expressed 'c' and 'e' are in cis position |
F antigen |
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Warm reacting antibodies and react best at 37 |
IgG |
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Strong D expression because of no Cc/Ee expression |
Exalted D |
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All IgG can fix/bind complement except |
IgG4 |
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IgG that cannot cross the placenta |
IgG2 |
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HTR due to Rh incompatibilities usually result |
Extravascular hemolysis |
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Exposure to less than ____ can stimulate antibody production in an Rh(-) person |
0.1 ml |
|
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Warm autoantibodies often appear to have |
anti-e like specificity |
|
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LW blood group system antigen is carried by |
ICAM 4 |
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Was originally thought to be the same as the Rh family; now recognized as distinct from |
D antigen |
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To differentiate D Ag from LW, treat cells with |
DTT |
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Check cells are |
RBC coated with IgG antibodies Rh (+) coated with anti-D antibody |
|
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Inadequate washing in weak D typing can cause false? |
False Negative due to neutralization of AHG |
|
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THE ONLY MAJOR SYSTEM NOT PRODUCED BY RBCS |
LEWIS SYSTEM |
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FUT 3 is called |
Lewis gene |
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Le antigens in secretion are |
glycoproteins |
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Le cell bound antigens absorbed onto RBC's from plasma are |
glycolipids |
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Lewis antigen at birth |
Le(a-b-) |
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Lewis antigen after 10 days |
Le(a+b-) to Le(a+b+) |
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Lewis antigen after 6 years |
Le(a-b+) |
|
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Lewis antigen non-secretor after 10 days |
Le(a+b-) |
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Le(a-b+) / Leb is associated with |
H. pylori |
|
|
On glycophorin A |
1 & 5 |
M: __serine, __glycine |
|
On glycophorin B |
29 |
Methoinine |
|
Formed when individual is S+s+ |
U phenotype |
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MN antibody that is enhanced at 6.5(acidic) and seen in multiparous women |
Anti M |
|
|
MN antibody that is enhanced at alkaline ph and seen in renal dialysis patients |
Anti-N |
|
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MNS system is associated with GPA, a receptor for |
E.coli |
|
|
MNS system is associated with GPA and GPB, a receptor for |
P. falciparum |
|
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Anti-P1 is neutralized by |
Hydatid cyst from E. granulosus |
|
|
This antibody is found in patients with fascioliasis |
Anti-P1 |
|
|
She suffered from adenocarcinoma of the stomach and Anti-Pp1pk was described on her serum |
Mrs. Jay |
|
|
Produced in patients with Paroxymal cold hemoglobinuria |
Autoanti-P or Donath landsteiner |
|
|
____ receptor for Parvovirus B19
|
P antigen |
|
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_____ receptor for Shiga toxin which cause HUS |
pK antigen |
|
|
receptors for P-fimbriated uropathogenic E.coli |
P system antigens |
|
|
This disease is associated with individuals whose i antigen didn't convert to I antigen |
HEMPAS |
|
|
Associated with Primary atypical pneumoniae/walking pneumoniae |
Anti-I / Pathogenic Autoanti-I |
|
|
Associated with infectious mononucleosis by EBV, also acoholic cirrhosis |
Anti-i |
|
|
First blood group to be discovered after antiglobulin testing |
Kell system |
|
|
Come from the precursor substance ___ on RBC |
Kx |
|
|
Infection from S. faecium |
Acquired K |
|
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Associated with E. coli O215 B15 infection |
Anti-K |
|
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Absence of Kx on WBC |
CGD| Chronic granulomatous disease |
|
|
Absence of Kx on RBC |
Mcleod phenotype |
|
|
Duffy phenotype on white |
Fy(a+b+) Fy(a-b+) |
|
|
Duffy phenotype on blacks |
Fy(a-b-) |
|
|
Duffy phenotype on Asians |
Fy(a+b-) |
|
|
Duffy blood group system is associated with resistance to |
P. vivax and P. knowlesi |
|
|
Duffy antigen that is related to susceptibility of P. vivax but not P.knowlesi |
Fy6 |
|
|
Notorious in the blood bank, can cause |
delayed severe and fatal HTR |
|
|
Lutheran anti-Lu9 is found in patient with |
LE |
|
|
Anti Di^a and anti Di^b have caused HTR and HDFN and finding of characteristics of rbc's are |
Acanthocyte|spheroctye|Ovalocyte |
|
|
Expressed on RBC adhesion protein called ERMAP |
|
|
|
____ in northern europeans is 1% but is higher in mennonite population |
SC2 |
|
|
Colton system antigens are located on an integral membrane protein called |
Aqua porin 1 |
|
|
Antigens are not intrinsic to RBC membrane and FOUND IN C4 COMLEMENT |
Chido/rodgers system |
|
|
Chido/rodgers antibodies are neutralized by ?? |
Plasma |
|
|
Knops system antigens are located on |
CR1|CD35 receptor |
|
|
Knops system antigens are decreased in |
SLE and CAD |
|
|
The RAPH system only antigen is |
MER-2 |
|
|
Gill system antigen is found on the glycerol transporter ____ |
aquaphorin 3 |
|
|
Sd^a soluble antigen form is |
Tam-horsefall protein |
|
|
Anti-Sd^a is neutralized by ??? |
urine |
|
|
Human leukocyte antigens AKA ____ |
Bennett goodspeed antigens |
|
|
Bg a |
HLA B7 |
|
|
Bg b |
HLA B17 |
|
|
Bg c |
A28 |
|
|
IgM antibodies |
Lewis I P1 M ABH N |
LIPMĀN |
|
IgG antibodies |
DCEce SsU Fy Kell Jk Lub |
|
|
Mixed field antibodies reaction |
Lutheran Sda |
|
|
Absent in PNH III |
JMH Cromer Cartwright Dombrock |
JC cartrock |
|
Well developed at birth |
Duffy MNSs Kell Kids |
Doflamingo, Keller, Kidd, and MNS can kill baby - well developed at birth |
|
In vitro hemolysis antibodies |
Anti Le a,/Anti Le b Anti Tka Anti Vel |
|
|
Antibodies that have dosage effect |
RH Duffy MNS Kids Lutheran |
High dosage red horse gi inom ni doflamingo, ki, Luther and MNS |
|
Decreased antibody in pregnancy |
Lewis |
|
|
Antibodies destroyed by enzymes |
Doffy, MNS, Xg^a |
|
|
Enhanced by enzymes |
Kidd |
|
|
Hydatid cyst fluid, turtledove's egg whites, pigeon dropping can neutralize |
Anti-Pi |
|
|
Serum/Plasma can neutralize antibody ____ |
Anti-Lewis |
|
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Serum/Plasma (w/ complement) can neutralize____ |
Anti-chido/roger |
|
|
Guinea Pig urine can neutralize |
Anti-Sd^a |
|
|
Human breast milk can neutralize ______ |
Anti-I |
|
|
Increase of antibody than antigen |
PROZONE |
|
|
Increase of antigen than antibody |
POSTZONE |
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|
Monoclonal AHG is produced through hybridoma technology using ____ |
MICE |
|
|
Polyclonal AHG is produced through conventional method using ___ |
Rabbit/Sheep/Goat |
|
|
In factors affecting AHG testing the serum cell ratio of Minimum ratio for routine tests is achieved by |
2 drops of serum and 1 drop of 5% rcs |
|
|
In factors affecting AHG testing the serum cell ratio of Minimum ratio for detecting weak antibodies is achieved by |
4 drops of serum and 1 drop of 3% rcs |
|
|
This potentiators allows antibody coated cells to come into closer contact with each other, reducing zeta potential, incubation time is 30-60 minutes |
Albumin(22%) |
|
|
Potentiators that enhance antibody uptake and decrease incubation time to 10-15 minutes |
LiSS (0.2% NaCl) |
|
|
Potentiator that increase antibody uptake by removing water molecules surrounding rbcs. Not for patients with high protein serum |
PEG |
|
|
RCF for AHG testing |
1000 rcf /20 sec |
|
|
Specimen for AHG testing |
EDTA |
|
|
It often serves as the replacement to minor crossmatching |
Antibody screening |
|
|
Allows easier detection of underlying igG alloantibodies |
Use for Sulfhydryl agents or Dithiothreitol (DTT) |
|
|
Prevents complement activation in antibody screens |
Complement |
|
|
Done to remove rouleaux or prevent it |
Saline replacement |
|
|
Aids in identification of HTLA antibodies |
Antibody Titer determination |
|
|
Used to measure the production of IgG antibodies during pregnancy |
Antibody titer determination |
|
|
Create RBCs negative for all antigens of the Kell blood group system |
AET/DDT |
|
|
Destroy disulfide bonds on IgM, does not affect ___ |
IgG |
|
|
ZZAP comprised of |
cysteine -activated papain (ficin) +DDT |
|
|
Removes antibodies attached to RBCS |
ZZAP |
|
|
Dissociates IgG from patient cells with DAT (+) |
Chloroquine diphosphate |
|
|
Only ____ should be sued as the AHG reagent as complement proteins are not dissociated with chloroquine |
Anti-IgG |
|
|
Removal of antibody from surfaces of RBC |
Elution |
|
|
Washed pRBC are treated with subsequent rapid freezing and thawing to cause lysis of the red blood cells, resulting in the freeing of cell bound antibodies |
Lui freeze method |
|
|
tubes in major crossmatching |
Donors red cell |
|
|
tubes in minor crossmatching |
Patient red cell donors serum |
|
|
Age limit of those who can donate |
18 and above but below 60 |
|
|
60 years old and above can donate if |
there's discretion of the BB physician |
|
|
Refers to removal and storage of blood from a donor-patient before an elective procedure for reinfustion during or after the procedure |
Pre-operative collection |
|
|
Blood is collected after administration of anesthesia and before a surgical procedure. |
Acute normovolemic hemodilution |
|
|
Collection and reinfusion of blood lost by a patient during the surgery |
intraoperative collection |
|
|
Most commonly used anticoagulant in aoheresis |
ACD/ ACD- A formula |
|
|
75% of plateletpheresis products should contain a minimum of |
3.0X10 platelets |
|
|
Used to collect immune plasma from donors with increased concentrations of certain plasma immunoglobulin for immunocompremised patients |
Plasmapheresis |
|
|
For patients who are severely neutropenic and unresponsive to antibiotics |
Leukapheresis |
|
|
Positive test for HBsAg |
Indefinite deferral |
|
|
men to men sexual contact since 1977 |
permanent deferral |
|
|
Prostitution |
permanent deferral |
|
|
Positive Hepatitis C |
permanent deferral |
|
|
Received human derived growth hormone |
permanent deferral |
|
|
Have leukemia |
Indefinite deferral |
|
|
Deferral: received bovine insulin |
indefinitely deferral |
|
|
Imprisonment for 72 hours |
1 year deferral |
|
|
History of syphilis or Gonorrhea |
1 year deferral |
|
|
Tattoo, skin piercing, dental |
1 year deferral |
|
|
Tooth extraction |
3 days |
|
|
Malaria confirmed diagnosis |
3 years after asymptomatic |
|
|
Travel to endemic area (prior resident of endemic country <3 years after leaving) |
3 years after asymptomatic |
|
|
Travel to endemic area (prior resident of endemic country >3 years after leaving) |
1 year if asymptomatic |
|
|
Tegison |
Permanent deferral |
|
|
Soriatane |
3 years deferral |
|
|
Aspirin |
Plt: 3 days |
|
|
Rabies vaccine |
12 months |
|
|
Rubella and Varicella zoster virus |
4 weeks |
|
|
Measles (robeola) |
2 weeks |
|
|
Cholera |
No deferral |
|
|
Fainting and vasovagal reactions management *donor should respond by coughing |
Administer aromatic spirit of ammonia |
|
|
Ratio of ACD|CPD |
9:1 |
|
|
If patient is allergic to iodine, use ____ for antiseptic |
chlorhexidine gluconate |
|
|
Apply tourniquet or BP cuffs |
1.5 inch above the site,| 40-60 mm/hg |
|
|
If collection exceeds 8 minutes; unit may not be suitable for _____ |
Platelet |
|
|
Blood must be processed within____ hours of collection |
6-8 hours |
|
|
Most common disease transmitted by blood transfustion |
Hepatitis C |
|
|
______ is used for screening and _____ for confirmatory for blood bag testing for HIV |
ELISA |
|
|
Causative agent of adult T cell leukemia |
HTLV I |
|
|
New confirmatory test for HIV |
rHIVda |
|
|
Platelets are the only unit that is capable of transmitting _____ because this organism cannot live in blood stored for 3-4 days at 1-6 |
Syphillis |
|
|
_________ serve as the confirmatory test for syphillis |
FTA-ABS |
|
|
Purpose is to maintain pH during storage |
Phosphate |
|
|
Improve viability of RBC for 21-35 days |
adenine |
|
|
decrease HCT from 70-80% to 50-60% |
Additive solutions |
|
|
HCT should not exceed |
80% |
|
|
Additive solutions composed of |
Saline |
SAGM |
|
Component of additive solution that acts as a stabilizing agent
|
Mannitol |
|
|
________ are solutions that used to restore ATP and 2,3-DPG levels. |
Rejuvenating solutions |
|
|
Rejuvenating solutions are composed of |
Phosphate |
PIPA |
|
RBC's can be rejuvenated at up to _____ after outdate |
3 days |
|
|
Rejuvenating solutions are done by placing RBC unit w/ ____ ml RS, for ____ hour at ____ C |
50 ml |
|
|
Purpose of rejuvenating solution |
Saving O type and rare blood |
|
|
molecules that enter the cell to prevent dehydration |
cryoprotective agents |
|
|
Example of penetrating cryoprotective agents |
Glycerol, DSMO |
|
|
Example of non-penetrating cryoprotective agents |
HES, PVP glucose |
|
|
RBC to be frozen should be less than _____ old |
6 days old |
|
|
Lifespan of glacierized RBC before and after thawing |
10 years , 24 hours |
|
|
Initial concentration Glycerol 40% w/v |
-80% |
|
|
Low concentration Glycerol 20% w/v |
-196% |
|
|
Deglycerolization is achieved by replacing glycerol with _____ amount of _____ |
Decreasing, Saline |
|
|
Decrease in storage lesions |
2-3 DPG |
2PGAS |
|
Increase in storage lesions |
Hemoglobin |
HALP |
|
_____% is the minimum amount of RBC's must remain viable at the end of the permitted storage period |
70 |
|
|
______ C is the transport storage temperature |
1-10 |
|
|
Light spin _____ RPM or ____ g for _____minutes |
3200 RPM, 2000g, 3 minutes |
|
|
Hard spin _____ RPM or ____ g for _____minutes |
3500 RPM, 5000g, 5-8 minutes |
|
|
Blood product for Rapid blood loss |
Whole blood |
|
|
Blood product for anemia with large volume deficit |
Whole blood |
|
|
Blood product for neonatal exchange transfusion |
Whole Blood |
|
|
Whole blood unit should increase HCT by ____ and HGB for ______ |
HCT: 3-5%
HGB: 1-15% |
|
|
Blood product for patients with symptomatic anemia and unable to tolerate sudden increase in blood volume |
Packed RBC's |
|
|
Blood product for neonates suffering from anemia due to FMH |
RBC aliquot |
|
|
Blood product for symptomatic anemia on patients with severe allergies/anaphylactic reaction |
Washed RBC's |
|
|
Blood product for patients who have anti-IgA antibody because of IgA deficiency |
Washed RBC's |
|
|
Blood product for prevention of non-hemolytic febrile transfusion reactions and exposure to CMV |
Frozen & deglycerolized RBC's |
|
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Blood product for extension of time between transfusions in periodically transfused individuals (THALASSEMIA) |
Neocyte-enriched RBC's |
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Blood product for prevention of HLA alloimmunization, TRALI and GVHP |
Leukoreduced RBC"s |
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Blood product to replenish plasma proteins and coagulation factors |
Fresh frozen plasma |
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Blood product for minimization of exposure to donor WBC, prevent febrile transfusion reaction caused by antibodies againts WBC's |
Leukoreduced rbc |
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Fresh frozen plasma is procced for 6-8 hours, if 24 hours its called |
PF 24 |
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Blood product for inactive replicative machinery of the donor leukocyte |
Irradiated RBC |
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Blood product for prevention of GVHD |
Irradiated RBC |
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Most prone blood product to contamination |
Random donor platelet |
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Minimum number of PLT in 1 unit in single donor platelet |
3x10^11 PLT |
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Single donor platelet can increase PLT by |
30,000 to 60,000 PLT |
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random donor platelet can increase PLT by |
5000-10000 PLT |
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Blood product for von Willebrand disease, Hypofibrinogenemia, Hemophilia basically coagulation diseases |
Cryoprecipitate |
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Blood product given to severely neutropenic patients |
Granulocyte concentrate |
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Blood product for patients who have overwhelming sepsis |
Granulocyte concentrate |
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Blood product for hypovolemic shocks and severe burns |
Single donor plasma |
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Blood product for hemorrhagic shock and burn patients |
Volume expanders: Colloids and Crystaloids |
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Storage temperature for Frozen RBC (Low) |
-120C- |
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Storage temperature of Frozen RBC (High) |
-65C |
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Storage temperature of FFP for 1 year |
-18C |
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Storage temperature of FFP for 7 years |
-65C |
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Transfusion procedure are checked and monitored by ____ nurses |
2 |
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_______ represent main cause of transfusion related deaths and acute HTR |
clerical error |
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Specimen for transfusion must be collected within _____ of scheduled transfusion |
3 days |
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Only ______ or _______ should be used as IV solutions to dilute blood components |
Isotonic saline or 5% albumin |
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Use of _______ is PROHIBITED, since it it hypotonic and will cause RBC lysis |
5% dextrose in water |
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Use of _______ is PROHIBITED, since it contains calcium and will initiate coagulation |
ringer solution |
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First generation filter pore size of _______ um to remove gross clots and cell debris |
170-260 |
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Second generation filter pore size of ______ to remove microaggregates such as degenerated WBC's and call fragments |
20-40 |
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Third generation filters remove WBC leaving less than 5x10^6 |
5x10^6 |
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Blood must NOT be warmed over |
38C |
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ANY transfusion should be done within ____ |
4 hours |
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Blood can be reissued after returning from the ward IF |
the blood must not have been away from the blood bank for more than 30 minutes |
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Filter to remove grass clots and cell debris |
first generation filters |
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Filter to remove microaggregates such as degenerated WBC |
second generation |
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Massive transfusion for adults units is within |
8-10 units, <24 hours |
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Massive transfusion for infants units is within |
more than a half a unit |
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Neonatal RBC transfusion blood needed is less than_____ days to reduce hyperkalemia and maximize 2-3 DPG |
7 days |
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Done on a newborn infant suffering from anemia and hyperbilirubinemia due to HDN |
Exchange transfusion |
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Performed when baby inside the mothers womb is suffering from severe anemia due to HDN |
Intrauterine transfusion |
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Increase fluid in developing fetus |
Hydrops fetalis |
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Intrauterine transfusion method by injecting the rbc into the fetal peroneal cavity |
Intraperitoneally |
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Intrauterine method where RBC is directly injected into fetal umbilical vein |
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Purpose of intrauterine transfusion |
Maintain fetal hemoglobin above 10 g/dl |
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