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340 Cards in this Set

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First recorded blood transfusion

Pope innocent VIi

Discovery of circulatory system

William Harvey

Animal to animal transfusion

Richard Lower

Dog to dog

Animal to human transfusion

Jean Baptist Denis

Sheep to human

First successful human blood transfusion

James Blundle

Performed on a woman suffering from postpartum hemorrhage

First to work on blood transfusion and blood preservation techniques

Dr Charles Drew

Director of first American red cross blood bank at Presbyterian hospital

Sodium Phosphate as anticoagulant

Braxton Hicks

Sodium Citrate

Albert Hustin

Determined minimum non-toxic amount of citrate

Richard Lewison

Citrate Dextose

Rous and Turner

1916

Acid citrate dextrose

Loutit and Mollison

1943

Utilized glycerol to extend RBC life by 10 years

Audrey smith

1950

Citrate phosphate dextrose (CPD) as standard preservative

Gibson

1957

Vein to vein transfusion

Edward Lindemman

1913

Syringe valve apparatus

Lester Unger

1915

ABO group discovered by

Karl Landsteiner

1901

Defined 4th blood group :AB


Alfred Von decastello


Adriano sturlii

1902

MN and P Discovered

Karl Landsteiner


Philip Levine

RH Discovered

Karl Landsteiner


Alexander wiener

1940

World first blood bank in chicago

Cook county Hospital

Leadership of Dr. Bernard Fantus in 1937

First community based blood center

Irwin memorial blood bank

1941

ISBT 001

ABO blood group system

Leading cause of death in hemolytic transfusion reaction fatalities

Transfusion of wrong ABO group

Severe intravascular hemolysis

In 2009, it was the frequent cause of death

Transfusion related acute lung injury

TRALI

Genes codes for specific glycosyl transferase that add sugar to a precursor substance

Paragloboside and glycan

Determines blood group

Amorphic blood type, does NOT code for any enzyme

O group

Absence of A and B antigen

810,000 to 1,170,000 antigen sites

Group A

610,000 to 830,000 antigen

B group

B enzyme compete more efficiently for the H substance than A enzyme

A+B gene

A - 600,000


B - 720,000

Described the theory for the inheritance of the ABO group

Bernstein

1924

ABO gene is

Autosomal(somatic chromosome)

A group and B group genes are ?

Co-dominant

A blood group and B blood group are ?

Dominant

Considered amorph

O gene

Group O phenotype

Autosomal recessive

Two identical allel

Homozygous

Produced by the genotype to control blood group antigen

Phenotype

Gene needed for ABO to be expressed

H gene

Gene needed to be expressed in secretion

Se gene

Basic precursor material for formation of ABH antigens

Paragloboside or glycan

ABO antigens forms as early as

37th day of fetal life

Full expression of ABO gene in what age?

2-4 years old

ABO antigen on RBC are synthesized on type ? And give it's beta # linkage

Type 2, 1-4

ABO antigen on SECRETION are synthesized on type ? And give it's beta # linkage

Type 1, 1-3

ABH substance can be found in DUBSTAMP give each one

Digestive juices


Urine


Bile


Saliva


Tears


Ammiotic fluid


Milk


Pleural fluid

Excessive ABH substance in secretion can be observed in ???

PIC



Pseudomocinus ovarian cyst


Intestinal obstruction


Carcinoma of pancreas and stomach

Assay to determine secretor status

Heme agglutination inhibition assay

DUMPSTAMP

Forms of antigen

Unbranched straight complex


H1 H2


Branched complex


H3 H4

Reactivity to anti-H greatest to least

O>A²>B>A²B>A¹>A¹B

Subgroup? anti-A¹ and anti A, anti AB

A¹ subgroup

Subgroup? Anti A, and anti AB

MF reaction with Anti A, anti AB

A3

Reacts w/ anti AB, no reaction to anti A

Ax

Removal of antibody from serum

Adsorption

Removal of antibody from surface of RBC

Elution

Contains A1 and A antigen

A1

Contains A antigen only

A2

Bm is converted to B if incubated with

uracil diphosphate

in bombay phenotype Autosomal recessive is caused by mutation in?

FUT 1 gene and FUT 2

FUT 1 gene

silenced H gene

FUT gene

silenced Se gene

T/F




Bombay phenotype can donate to any blood group but can only be transfused with blood from another bombay?

True

Trace / Absent amount of A,B and H antigen on RBC with normal expression in secretions and bodily fluids

Para Bombay

Para-bombay is caused by

Mutation in FUT 1 gene


Silence FUT 1 gene with an active FUT 2 gene

ABO antibodies react at what temp?

RT(20-24)

Anti A and Anti B are what immunoglobulin? how about Anti-A,B

IgM




IgG



Lectin of Anti-A1

Dolichos biflorus

Lectin of Anti-B

Bandeiraea simplicifolia

Lectin of Anti-H

Ulex europaeus

Lectin of Anti-N

Vicia gramiNea

Lectin of Anti-M

Iberes aMara

Anti-T, Th

Arachis hypogaea

Anti-Tn

Salcia sclarea

Type of antisera used in forward typing

Monoclonal antibodies

Anti sera A color

Tryphan blue

Anti sera B color

Acriflavin yellow

Ensures the specificity of antisera in QC

Negative control

ensures the reactivity of anti sera

positive control

T/F




THE POSITIVE CONTROL SHOULD BE STRONGLY REACTIVE

FALSE

Universal RBC donor

O

Universal Plasma donor

AB

Universal RBC recipient

AB

Universal Plasma recipient

O

Grading

one solid agglutinate

4+

Roleaux pseudoagglutination can cause false (+) or False (-)

False (+)

Acquired A phenomenon, give the organism that causes this

P. mirabilis

Acquired B phenomenon, give the organisms/disease that causes this

E. coli
P. vulgaris
Intestinal obstruction
Carcinoma of colon/stomach
C. tettani

EPICC

Acquired B cells will not react with pH

<6 or >8.5

This is treated to RBC to reacetylate surface molecule and thus decreasing reactivity with Anti-B

Acetic anhydride

This detects true B in resolution of acquired B phenomenon

Monoclonal Anti-B

Detects Pseudo B by not reacting in resolution of acquired phenomenon

Acidified Anti-B

In emergency situations, this blood bag group and unit is issued

Group O rh(-) Prbc

Discrepancies problem in reverse typing only

Group 1

Discrepancies problem in forward typing only

Group 2

Leukemias and Hodgkin's disease are diseases that causes what type of discrepancies

Group 2

Agammaglobulinemia, Malignant lymphoma, immunosupressive drugs are diseases that causes what type of discrepancies

Group 2

Newborn and elderly age,what type of discrepancies do they belong

Group 2

Enzyme treatment in which RBC's are pretreated w/ enzyme and retested w/ an anti sera what group of discrepancies is this resolution

Group 2

Protein and plasma problem in discrepancies

Group 3

Multiple myeloma, Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia are diseases that causes what type of discrepancies

Group 3

Resolution in Group 3 discrepancies

Saline Replacement techniques

Cold reactive autoantibodies, Unexpected ABO isoagglutinins, what group of discrepancies

Group 4

RHD and RHCE is proposed by

Tippet Patricia

RHD and RHCE are located on chromosome

chrosome 1

RHAG located in chrosome

chrosome 6

The first 3 letters in RH represent the

system/collection/series

The last 3 letters represent the

antigenic specificity

Rh phenotype that is caused by abnormalities in Transmembrane protein

Rh null

Rh phenotype that is caused by an allele carryying RHD is in trans position to the allele that is carrying C

C in trans / Positional D

Rh phenotype that is caused by weak expression of D

weak D

Rh phenotype that is caused by 1 or more epitope within D protein is missing/altered

Partial D

A compound antigen; expressed 'c' and 'e' are in cis position

F antigen

Warm reacting antibodies and react best at 37

IgG

Strong D expression because of no Cc/Ee expression

Exalted D

All IgG can fix/bind complement except

IgG4

IgG that cannot cross the placenta

IgG2

HTR due to Rh incompatibilities usually result

Extravascular hemolysis

Exposure to less than ____ can stimulate antibody production in an Rh(-) person

0.1 ml

Warm autoantibodies often appear to have

anti-e like specificity

LW blood group system antigen is carried by

ICAM 4

Was originally thought to be the same as the Rh family; now recognized as distinct from

D antigen

To differentiate D Ag from LW, treat cells with

DTT

Check cells are

RBC coated with IgG antibodies


Rh (+) coated with anti-D antibody

Inadequate washing in weak D typing can cause false?

False Negative due to neutralization of AHG

THE ONLY MAJOR SYSTEM NOT PRODUCED BY RBCS

LEWIS SYSTEM

FUT 3 is called

Lewis gene

Le antigens in secretion are

glycoproteins

Le cell bound antigens absorbed onto RBC's from plasma are

glycolipids

Lewis antigen at birth

Le(a-b-)

Lewis antigen after 10 days

Le(a+b-) to Le(a+b+)

Lewis antigen after 6 years

Le(a-b+)

Lewis antigen non-secretor after 10 days

Le(a+b-)

Le(a-b+) / Leb is associated with

H. pylori

On glycophorin A
MN -differ in amino acids at positions

1 & 5

M: __serine, __glycine
N: __ Leucine, ___glutamic acid

On glycophorin B
Ss differ in amino acid position

29

Methoinine
theonine

Formed when individual is S+s+

U phenotype

MN antibody that is enhanced at 6.5(acidic) and seen in multiparous women

Anti M




MN antibody that is enhanced at alkaline ph and seen in renal dialysis patients

Anti-N

MNS system is associated with GPA, a receptor for

E.coli

MNS system is associated with GPA and GPB, a receptor for

P. falciparum

Anti-P1 is neutralized by

Hydatid cyst from E. granulosus

This antibody is found in patients with fascioliasis

Anti-P1

She suffered from adenocarcinoma of the stomach and Anti-Pp1pk was described on her serum

Mrs. Jay

Produced in patients with Paroxymal cold hemoglobinuria

Autoanti-P or Donath landsteiner

____ receptor for Parvovirus B19

P antigen

_____ receptor for Shiga toxin which cause HUS

pK antigen

receptors for P-fimbriated uropathogenic E.coli

P system antigens

This disease is associated with individuals whose i antigen didn't convert to I antigen

HEMPAS

Associated with Primary atypical pneumoniae/walking pneumoniae

Anti-I / Pathogenic Autoanti-I

Associated with infectious mononucleosis by EBV, also acoholic cirrhosis

Anti-i

First blood group to be discovered after antiglobulin testing

Kell system

Come from the precursor substance ___ on RBC

Kx

Infection from S. faecium

Acquired K

Associated with E. coli O215 B15 infection

Anti-K

Absence of Kx on WBC

CGD| Chronic granulomatous disease

Absence of Kx on RBC

Mcleod phenotype

Duffy phenotype on white

Fy(a+b+)


Fy(a-b+)

Duffy phenotype on blacks

Fy(a-b-)

Duffy phenotype on Asians

Fy(a+b-)

Duffy blood group system is associated with resistance to

P. vivax and P. knowlesi

Duffy antigen that is related to susceptibility of P. vivax but not P.knowlesi

Fy6

Notorious in the blood bank, can cause

delayed severe and fatal HTR

Lutheran anti-Lu9 is found in patient with

LE

Anti Di^a and anti Di^b have caused HTR and HDFN and finding of characteristics of rbc's are

Acanthocyte|spheroctye|Ovalocyte

Expressed on RBC adhesion protein called ERMAP






____ in northern europeans is 1% but is higher in mennonite population

SC2



Colton system antigens are located on an integral membrane protein called

Aqua porin 1

Antigens are not intrinsic to RBC membrane and FOUND IN C4 COMLEMENT

Chido/rodgers system

Chido/rodgers antibodies are neutralized by ??

Plasma

Knops system antigens are located on

CR1|CD35 receptor

Knops system antigens are decreased in

SLE and CAD

The RAPH system only antigen is

MER-2

Gill system antigen is found on the glycerol transporter ____

aquaphorin 3

Sd^a soluble antigen form is

Tam-horsefall protein

Anti-Sd^a is neutralized by ???

urine

Human leukocyte antigens AKA ____

Bennett goodspeed antigens

Bg a

HLA B7

Bg b

HLA B17

Bg c

A28

IgM antibodies

Lewis


I


P1


M


ABH


N

LIPMĀN

IgG antibodies

DCEce


SsU


Fy


Kell


Jk


Lub

Mixed field antibodies reaction

Lutheran


Sda

Absent in PNH III

JMH


Cromer


Cartwright


Dombrock

JC cartrock

Well developed at birth

Duffy


MNSs


Kell


Kids

Doflamingo, Keller, Kidd, and MNS can kill baby - well developed at birth

In vitro hemolysis antibodies


Anti Le a,/Anti Le b


Anti Tka


Anti Vel

Antibodies that have dosage effect

RH


Duffy


MNS


Kids


Lutheran

High dosage red horse gi inom ni doflamingo, ki, Luther and MNS

Decreased antibody in pregnancy

Lewis

Antibodies destroyed by enzymes

Doffy, MNS, Xg^a

Minor: JMH, Chigo/roger, Pr

Enhanced by enzymes

Kidd
ABO
Lewis
I
Pi
R

Hydatid cyst fluid, turtledove's egg whites, pigeon dropping can neutralize

Anti-Pi

Serum/Plasma can neutralize antibody ____

Anti-Lewis

Serum/Plasma (w/ complement) can neutralize____

Anti-chido/roger

Guinea Pig urine can neutralize

Anti-Sd^a

Human breast milk can neutralize ______

Anti-I

Increase of antibody than antigen

PROZONE

Increase of antigen than antibody

POSTZONE

Monoclonal AHG is produced through hybridoma technology using ____

MICE

Polyclonal AHG is produced through conventional method using ___

Rabbit/Sheep/Goat

In factors affecting AHG testing the serum cell ratio of Minimum ratio for routine tests is achieved by

2 drops of serum and 1 drop of 5% rcs

In factors affecting AHG testing the serum cell ratio of Minimum ratio for detecting weak antibodies is achieved by

4 drops of serum and 1 drop of 3% rcs

This potentiators allows antibody coated cells to come into closer contact with each other, reducing zeta potential, incubation time is 30-60 minutes

Albumin(22%)

Potentiators that enhance antibody uptake and decrease incubation time to 10-15 minutes

LiSS (0.2% NaCl)

Potentiator that increase antibody uptake by removing water molecules surrounding rbcs. Not for patients with high protein serum

PEG

RCF for AHG testing

1000 rcf /20 sec

1500 rcf/1 min

Specimen for AHG testing

EDTA

It often serves as the replacement to minor crossmatching

Antibody screening

Allows easier detection of underlying igG alloantibodies

Use for Sulfhydryl agents or Dithiothreitol (DTT)

Prevents complement activation in antibody screens

Complement

Done to remove rouleaux or prevent it

Saline replacement

Aids in identification of HTLA antibodies

Antibody Titer determination

Used to measure the production of IgG antibodies during pregnancy

Antibody titer determination

Create RBCs negative for all antigens of the Kell blood group system

AET/DDT

Destroy disulfide bonds on IgM, does not affect ___

IgG

ZZAP comprised of

cysteine -activated papain (ficin) +DDT

Removes antibodies attached to RBCS

ZZAP

Dissociates IgG from patient cells with DAT (+)

Chloroquine diphosphate

Only ____ should be sued as the AHG reagent as complement proteins are not dissociated with chloroquine

Anti-IgG

Removal of antibody from surfaces of RBC

Elution

Washed pRBC are treated with subsequent rapid freezing and thawing to cause lysis of the red blood cells, resulting in the freeing of cell bound antibodies

Lui freeze method

tubes in major crossmatching

Donors red cell

Patient serum

tubes in minor crossmatching

Patient red cell


donors serum

Age limit of those who can donate

18 and above but below 60


60 years old and above can donate if

there's discretion of the BB physician

Refers to removal and storage of blood from a donor-patient before an elective procedure for reinfustion during or after the procedure

Pre-operative collection

Blood is collected after administration of anesthesia and before a surgical procedure.

Acute normovolemic hemodilution

Collection and reinfusion of blood lost by a patient during the surgery

intraoperative collection

Most commonly used anticoagulant in aoheresis

ACD/ ACD- A formula

75% of plateletpheresis products should contain a minimum of

3.0X10 platelets

Used to collect immune plasma from donors with increased concentrations of certain plasma immunoglobulin for immunocompremised patients

Plasmapheresis

For patients who are severely neutropenic and unresponsive to antibiotics

Leukapheresis

Positive test for HBsAg

Indefinite deferral

men to men sexual contact since 1977

permanent deferral

Prostitution

permanent deferral

Positive Hepatitis C

permanent deferral

Received human derived growth hormone

permanent deferral

Have leukemia

Indefinite deferral

Deferral: received bovine insulin

indefinitely deferral

Imprisonment for 72 hours

1 year deferral

History of syphilis or Gonorrhea

1 year deferral

Tattoo, skin piercing, dental

1 year deferral

Tooth extraction

3 days

Malaria confirmed diagnosis

3 years after asymptomatic

Travel to endemic area (prior resident of endemic country <3 years after leaving)

3 years after asymptomatic

Travel to endemic area (prior resident of endemic country >3 years after leaving)

1 year if asymptomatic

Tegison

Permanent deferral

Soriatane

3 years deferral

Aspirin

Plt: 3 days

WB: no deferral

Rabies vaccine
HepaB Immune globulin
Gamma globulin
Rh immune globulin for HDN prevention

12 months

Rubella and Varicella zoster virus

4 weeks

Measles (robeola)
Oral polio
mumps

2 weeks

Cholera
Anthrax
Influenza

No deferral

Fainting and vasovagal reactions management *donor should respond by coughing

Administer aromatic spirit of ammonia

Ratio of ACD|CPD

9:1

If patient is allergic to iodine, use ____ for antiseptic

chlorhexidine gluconate

Apply tourniquet or BP cuffs

1.5 inch above the site,| 40-60 mm/hg

If collection exceeds 8 minutes; unit may not be suitable for _____

Platelet

Blood must be processed within____ hours of collection

6-8 hours

Most common disease transmitted by blood transfustion

Hepatitis C

______ is used for screening and _____ for confirmatory for blood bag testing for HIV

ELISA
WESTERN BLOT

Causative agent of adult T cell leukemia

HTLV I

New confirmatory test for HIV

rHIVda

Platelets are the only unit that is capable of transmitting _____ because this organism cannot live in blood stored for 3-4 days at 1-6

Syphillis

_________ serve as the confirmatory test for syphillis

FTA-ABS

Purpose is to maintain pH during storage

Phosphate

Improve viability of RBC for 21-35 days

adenine

decrease HCT from 70-80% to 50-60%

Additive solutions

HCT should not exceed

80%

Additive solutions composed of

Saline
Adenine
Glucose
Mannitol

SAGM

Component of additive solution that acts as a stabilizing agent

Mannitol

________ are solutions that used to restore ATP and 2,3-DPG levels.

Rejuvenating solutions

Rejuvenating solutions are composed of

Phosphate
Inosine
Pyruvate
Adenine

PIPA

RBC's can be rejuvenated at up to _____ after outdate

3 days

Rejuvenating solutions are done by placing RBC unit w/ ____ ml RS, for ____ hour at ____ C

50 ml
1 hour
37C

Purpose of rejuvenating solution

Saving O type and rare blood

molecules that enter the cell to prevent dehydration

cryoprotective agents

Example of penetrating cryoprotective agents

Glycerol, DSMO

Example of non-penetrating cryoprotective agents

HES, PVP glucose

RBC to be frozen should be less than _____ old

6 days old

Lifespan of glacierized RBC before and after thawing

10 years , 24 hours

Initial concentration Glycerol 40% w/v

-80%

Low concentration Glycerol 20% w/v

-196%

Deglycerolization is achieved by replacing glycerol with _____ amount of _____

Decreasing, Saline

Decrease in storage lesions

2-3 DPG
pH
Glucose
ATP
Sodium

2PGAS

Increase in storage lesions

Hemoglobin
Ammonia
Lactate/Lactic acid
Potassium

HALP

_____% is the minimum amount of RBC's must remain viable at the end of the permitted storage period

70

______ C is the transport storage temperature

1-10

Light spin _____ RPM or ____ g for _____minutes

3200 RPM, 2000g, 3 minutes

Hard spin _____ RPM or ____ g for _____minutes

3500 RPM, 5000g, 5-8 minutes

Blood product for Rapid blood loss

Whole blood

Blood product for anemia with large volume deficit

Whole blood

Blood product for neonatal exchange transfusion

Whole Blood

Whole blood unit should increase HCT by ____ and HGB for ______

HCT: 3-5%
HGB: 1-15%

Blood product for patients with symptomatic anemia and unable to tolerate sudden increase in blood volume

Packed RBC's

Blood product for neonates suffering from anemia due to FMH

RBC aliquot

Blood product for symptomatic anemia on patients with severe allergies/anaphylactic reaction

Washed RBC's

Blood product for patients who have anti-IgA antibody because of IgA deficiency

Washed RBC's

Blood product for prevention of non-hemolytic febrile transfusion reactions and exposure to CMV

Frozen & deglycerolized RBC's

Blood product for extension of time between transfusions in periodically transfused individuals (THALASSEMIA)

Neocyte-enriched RBC's

Blood product for prevention of HLA alloimmunization, TRALI and GVHP

Leukoreduced RBC"s

Blood product to replenish plasma proteins and coagulation factors

Fresh frozen plasma

Blood product for minimization of exposure to donor WBC, prevent febrile transfusion reaction caused by antibodies againts WBC's

Leukoreduced rbc

Fresh frozen plasma is procced for 6-8 hours, if 24 hours its called

PF 24

Blood product for inactive replicative machinery of the donor leukocyte

Irradiated RBC

Blood product for prevention of GVHD

Irradiated RBC

Most prone blood product to contamination

Random donor platelet

Minimum number of PLT in 1 unit in single donor platelet

3x10^11 PLT

Single donor platelet can increase PLT by

30,000 to 60,000 PLT

random donor platelet can increase PLT by

5000-10000 PLT

Blood product for von Willebrand disease, Hypofibrinogenemia, Hemophilia basically coagulation diseases

Cryoprecipitate

Blood product given to severely neutropenic patients

Granulocyte concentrate

Blood product for patients who have overwhelming sepsis

Granulocyte concentrate

Blood product for hypovolemic shocks and severe burns

Single donor plasma

Blood product for hemorrhagic shock and burn patients

Volume expanders: Colloids and Crystaloids

Storage temperature for Frozen RBC (Low)

-120C-

Storage temperature of Frozen RBC (High)

-65C

Storage temperature of FFP for 1 year

-18C

Storage temperature of FFP for 7 years

-65C

Transfusion procedure are checked and monitored by ____ nurses

2

_______ represent main cause of transfusion related deaths and acute HTR

clerical error

Specimen for transfusion must be collected within _____ of scheduled transfusion

3 days

Only ______ or _______ should be used as IV solutions to dilute blood components

Isotonic saline or 5% albumin

Use of _______ is PROHIBITED, since it it hypotonic and will cause RBC lysis

5% dextrose in water

Use of _______ is PROHIBITED, since it contains calcium and will initiate coagulation

ringer solution

First generation filter pore size of _______ um to remove gross clots and cell debris

170-260

Second generation filter pore size of ______ to remove microaggregates such as degenerated WBC's and call fragments

20-40

Third generation filters remove WBC leaving less than 5x10^6

5x10^6

Blood must NOT be warmed over

38C

ANY transfusion should be done within ____

4 hours

Blood can be reissued after returning from the ward IF

the blood must not have been away from the blood bank for more than 30 minutes

Filter to remove grass clots and cell debris

first generation filters

Filter to remove microaggregates such as degenerated WBC

second generation

Massive transfusion for adults units is within

8-10 units, <24 hours

Massive transfusion for infants units is within

more than a half a unit

Neonatal RBC transfusion blood needed is less than_____ days to reduce hyperkalemia and maximize 2-3 DPG

7 days

Done on a newborn infant suffering from anemia and hyperbilirubinemia due to HDN

Exchange transfusion

Performed when baby inside the mothers womb is suffering from severe anemia due to HDN

Intrauterine transfusion

Increase fluid in developing fetus

Hydrops fetalis

Intrauterine transfusion method by injecting the rbc into the fetal peroneal cavity

Intraperitoneally

Intrauterine method where RBC is directly injected into fetal umbilical vein

Purpose of intrauterine transfusion

Maintain fetal hemoglobin above 10 g/dl