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280 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
3 types of cerebral edema?
|
vasogenic
cytotoxic interstitial |
|
describe vasogenic cerebral edema
|
leakage of fluid from damaged microvasculature
|
|
describe cytotoxic cerebral edema
|
cellular injury with cytoplasmic swelling
|
|
describe interstitial cerebral edema
|
ventricular fluid diffuses into brain parenchyma
|
|
major clinical complication/manifestation of cerebral edema -"bottom line"?
|
may cause or contribute to increased intracranial pressure
|
|
treatment for increased intracranial pressure?
|
hyperventilation
O2 IV mannitol corticosteroids |
|
herniation may occur as a complication to increased intracranial pressure. order of herniation in top 4 locations?
|
1. cingulate (under edge of falx)
2. uncal/transtentorial 3. cerebellar tonsillar (through foramen magnum) 4. transcalvarial (through open skull defect) |
|
which vasculature structure is affected in a cingulate herniation?
|
branches of the anterior cerebral artery (infarction)
|
|
structures affected in an uncal/transtentorial herniation?
|
oculomotor nerve
posterior cerebral a. (infarction) cerebral peduncle aqueduct of sylvius (obstruction) basilar perforating arteries |
|
clinical s/s of oculomotor nv. involvement seen in an uncal herniation?
|
ipsilateral fixed, dilated pupil
|
|
clinical s/s of posterior cerebral a. involvement in an uncal herniation?
|
infarction
cortical blindness |
|
clinical s/s of cerebral peduncle involvement in an uncal herniation?
|
hemiplegia
|
|
pathological finding in basilar perforating arteries affected in uncal herniation?
|
Duret hemorrhages seen in pons
|
|
what structure is affected in a cerebellar tonsilar herniation?
|
medulla, respiratory centers
(see depression of consciousness and respirations) |
|
CSF is produced where and resorbed where?
|
produced in choroid plexus of lateral, fourth ventricles
resorbed in arachnoid granulations |
|
non-communicating hydrocephalus is usually the result of a blockage where?
|
aqueduct or interventricular foramina
|
|
four mechanisms of non-communicating hydrocephalus
|
1. congenital (stenosis)
2. neoplasm (ie. choroid plexus adenoma) 3. inflammation (ventriculitis, meningitis) 4. intraventricular hemorrhage |
|
what causes communicating hydrocephalus?
|
impaired resorption of CSF at the arachnoid granulations (obstructive process involving the meninges)
|
|
effects of the mass effect caused by an epidural hematoma?
|
increased intracranial pressure -> get uncal/transtentorial herniation with associated neurological signs (ipsilateral fixed pupillary dilation)
|
|
subdural hematoma is MC seen in what age group?
|
elderly
(cerebral atrophy predisposes to avulsion of bridging veins) |
|
what other group, besides the elderly, are at high risk for subdural hematomas?
|
chronic alcoholics
|
|
how might a subdural hematoma present in an elderly patient?
|
confusion
(DDx: AD, dementia) |
|
clinical s/s of an subarachnoid hemorrhage?
|
*meningeal irritation (complain of worst H/A ever had)
*no pupillary symptoms (no mass effect) *may see hyponatremia develop (due to SIADH) |
|
what is the MCC of an subarachnoid hemorrhage?
|
spontaneous rupture of a berry aneurysm
|
|
diffuse axonal injury is due to what mechanism?
|
rotational/shearing forces within the brain
|
|
clinical findings in diffuse axonal injury?
|
nonspecific
(do see decreased consciousness or coma) |
|
a congenital disorganized cluster of arteries and veins in the brain is called?
|
arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
|
|
are AVMs inherited or sporadic?
|
sporadic
|
|
clinical implications of an AVM?
|
may act as a focus for seizures
may have episodic hemorrhage |
|
clinical implications of a cavernous hemangioma?
|
NONE
*most are asymptomatic and incidentally found |
|
clinical implications of capillary angiomas, venous angiomas, telangectasias?
|
NONE
most are asymptomatic, found incidentally |
|
berry aneurysms have an association with what disease?
|
polycystic kidney disease
|
|
what type of hemorrhage does a ruptured berry aneurysm lead to?
|
subarachnoid hemorrhage
(35% mortality at time of 1st bleed) |
|
most berry aneurysms are found?
|
in the anterior part of the circle of willis
|
|
besides berry aneurysms: what 4 other types of aneurysms are there in the CNS?
|
1. atherosclerotic
2. hypertensive 3. mycotic 4. traumatic |
|
atherosclerotic aneurysms are MC found in which artery?
|
basilar
(may thrombose but do not rupture) |
|
what is the other name for hypertensive aneurysms?
|
Charcot-Bouchard (microaneurysms of the arterioles)
|
|
rupture of a hypertensive anuerysm results in what type of hemorrhage?
|
intracerebral
|
|
what is a mycotic aneurysm?
|
infective aneurysm (usually from septic amboli, ie. endocarditis)
|
|
a traumatic vertebral artery dissection is also known as?
|
pseudoaneurysm
|
|
pathogenesis of amyloid angiopathy
|
amyloid deposited in small vessel walls, tendency to rupture. NOT DUE TO HTN
|
|
three types of neurons that are extremely susceptible to ischemia?
|
purkinje cells of cerebellum
hippocampal neurons neurons in basal ganglia |
|
what is the usual cause of small vessel disease leading to a stroke?
|
chronic HTN
|
|
what are some hematologic causes of stroke?
|
prothrombotic states
(polycythemia vera, sickle cell disease, protein C, S, antithrombin deficiencies, leukemia, DIC) |
|
occlusion of perforating small arteries tends to cause what kind of infarct?
|
lacunar infarct
(pure motor or sensory deficit) |
|
in regards to ischemia and infarction: a deficit that lasts <24 hrs is called?
|
TIA
transient ischemic attack (usually lasts 5-30 min) |
|
in regards to ischemia and infarction: a deficit that lasts >24 hrs but <3 wks is called?
|
reversible ischemic neurologic deficit
(RIND) |
|
in which type of infarct is it advised to "do nothing," as treatment will cause increased injury upon reperfusion?
|
hemorrhagic infarct
|
|
gross manifestations of a cerebral infarction at:
1. 6-12 hrs 2. 48-72 hrs 3. >72 hrs |
1. mild softening, blurring of grey-white matter junction
2. marked softening and edema 3. coagulation necrosis, eventual cavitation |
|
micro manifestations of a cerebral infarction at:
1. 12-24 hrs 2. >24 hrs 3. later |
1. red dead neurons
2. influx of neutrophils and macrophages 3. peripheral gliosis, central cavitation |
|
describe injury to the peripheral axon
|
*focal (trauma) or generalized (DM) injury
*wallerian degeneration of axons distal to injury *may have chromatolysis of neuron cell body *secondary disintigration of myelin sheath |
|
describe myelin (Schwann cell) injury
|
*segmental myelin sheath damage, with segmental cells present
*underlying axon intact, potential for remyelination |
|
what is the MCC of peripheral neuropathy worldwide?
|
leprosy
|
|
is Guillan-Barre more common in males or females?
|
males
|
|
describe the clinical s/s of guillan-barre
|
acute onset of rapidly progressing motor, sensory and autonomic disturbances
*LMN disturbances (symmetrical weakness, hyporeflexia) *parasthesias |
|
what is the pathogenesis of guillan-barre?
|
immune mediated disease
*lymphocytic infiltrates around peripheral nerves *schwann cell injury, peripheral demyelination |
|
in guillan-barre - approx. 1/3 have a history of illness 2-3 wks prior. what types of illness did they commonly have?
|
1. upper respiratory infx (ie. mycoplasma)
2. GI (ie. campylobacter jejuni) *also have been associated with vaccinations, lymphomas, some drugs, pregnancy |
|
CSF studies seen in Guillan-Barre?
|
elevated protein
|
|
clinical course of G-B?
|
usually self-limited
complete recovery Tx. is supportive |
|
what is the equivalent of "MS" in the PNS?
|
chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy
|
|
treatment for chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy?
|
prednisone
plasma xchange IVIg |
|
what are the 3 types of neuropathy seen in DM?
|
1. diffuse symmetric axonal injury (MC)
2. mononeuropathy or plexopathy 3. autonomic neuropathy (symp/parasymp) |
|
clinical manifestations of autonomic neuropathy seen in DM?
|
*cardiac
*GI (stomach, bowel motility dysfx) *GU (bladder, erectile dysfx) |
|
carpal tunnel injury is due to damage to which nerve?
|
median
|
|
saturday night palsy is due to damage of which nerve?
|
radial nerve
|
|
what is a traumatic neuroma?
|
disorganized attempt at nerve regeneration, often at sites of major or minor nerve transection, may be painful
|
|
histology seen in a traumatic neuroma?
|
sprouting axons
proliferating schwann cells |
|
clinical s/s of Morton's neuroma?
|
shooting pain around ball of foot
pain worse with weightbearing |
|
histology seen in Morton's neuroma?
|
perineural fibrosis
vascular microthrombi |
|
which tumor of the PNS characteristically has palisading nuclei upon histological examination?
|
schwannoma
|
|
where are neurofibromas MC seen?
|
skin
|
|
what do neurofibromas consist of?
|
disorganized schwann cells
mucous material collagen |
|
what is the plexiform type of neurofibroma and what is significant about it?
|
involves peripheral nerves
*when present is pathognnomonic for neurofibromatosis type I* |
|
what is the basic difference between a schwannoma and a neurofibroma?
|
schwannoma - no neural infiltration
neurofibroma - expand whole nerve, within nerve |
|
what are the only two situations in which a malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor asrises?
|
1. neurofibromatosis (neurofibroma turned malignant)
2. large nerve trunk |
|
inheritance pattern of neurofibromatosis?
|
AD
|
|
where is the mutation found in neurofibromatosis type I?
|
chromosome 17
|
|
three characteristics of NF type I?
|
1. cafe-au-lait spots
2. multiple cutaneous neurofibromas 3. Lisch nodules - pigmented iris hamartomas |
|
where is the mutation found in NF type II?
|
chromosome 22
|
|
4 characteristics of NF type II?
|
1. bilateral acoustic neuromas
2. gliomas 3. meningiomas 4. neurilemmomas |
|
inheritance pattern of tuberous sclerosis?
|
AD
|
|
in relation to tuberous sclerosis - pathologic findings in:
1. brain 2. skin 3. viscera |
1. hamartomas
2. ash-leaf patches (hypopigmented areas), angiofibromas of face (adenoma sebaceum) 3. rhabdomyomas of heart, angiomyolipomas of kidney, cysts in liver, kidney, pancreas |
|
transmission of von-hippel lindau syndrome?
|
AD
|
|
where is the mutation found in von-hippel-lindau?
|
chromosome 3
|
|
in relation to von-hippel-lindau syndrome: pathologic features in:
1. brain 2. eyes 3. viscera |
1. cerebellar hemangioblastomas
2. retinal angiomas 3. cysts in liver, kidneys, pancreas, angiomas |
|
von-hippel-lindau syndrome is associated with an increased risk of what cancer?
|
renal cell carcinoma
|
|
manifestations of sturge-weber syndrome in the brain?
|
ipsilateral leptomeningial angiomas with underlying atrophy of cerebral cortex
|
|
what is the composition of prions?
|
NO NUCLEIC ACID COMPONENT
just protein |
|
are prions hardy or not?
|
very hardy
can be exposed to heat, radiationand chemical disinfectants and still survive |
|
prognosis of a prion disease once symptoms appear?
|
NO remission or recovery
|
|
four prion diseases seen in humans?
|
1. Kuru
2. CJD 3. gerstmann-straussler-scheinker syndrome (GSS) 4. fatal familial insomnia (FFI) |
|
describe the prion hypothesis
|
PrPsc (prion protein)forms beta sheets and is protease resistant. it serves as a template for converting normal protein into PrPsc. this modification is permanent
|
|
why are animal forms of prion diseases inefficiently transmitted to humans?
|
species barrier
|
|
where do prions replicate in the human host?
|
lymphoid tissues and spleen
|
|
what (in regards to the immune system) is required for prions to enter the CNS?
|
a competent immune system with fully differentiated B cells
|
|
characteristic histo findings in spongiform encephalopathies?
|
*vacuolation of dendritic and axonal processes
*proliferation and hypertrophy of astrocytes *spongiform gray matter *amyloid plaques and fibrils |
|
age of onset of CJD?
|
40-70 yrs
|
|
is CJD familial or sporadic?
|
both
(most sporadic (85%), some familial) |
|
incubation time of "infectious" CJD?
|
3-20 yrs
|
|
3 MC s/s seen in CJD?
|
dementia (seen in all)
involuntary mvmts cerebellar ataxia |
|
inheritance of gerstmann-strassler-scheinker syndrome?
|
AD
|
|
compare the clinical s/s of gerstmann-strassler-scheinker syndrome to CJD
|
gerstmann-strassler-scheinker syndrome - like CJD, but cerebellar ataxia is dominant feature
|
|
inheritance pattern of fatal familial insomnia (FFI)?
|
AD
|
|
what is the predominant clinical feature of FFI?
|
progressive insomnia
|
|
shape of the rabies virus?
|
bullet shaped
|
|
describe the genome of the rabies virus
|
(-)ssRNA
enveloped |
|
the rabies virus genome only encodes how many genes?
|
5
|
|
what is the protein found in the envelope that targets neutralizing antibodies called?
|
G protein
|
|
three hosts of rabies in the US?
|
bats
skunks raccoons |
|
transmission of rabies virus?
|
*virus-containing saliva inoculation through broken skin
*infected aerosols |
|
behavioral patterns seen in animals infected with the rabies virus?
|
deranged
more aggressive more likely to attack unprovoked |
|
what causes the hydrophobia seen in rabies patients?
|
spasms of the muscles of deglutition - inability to drink or swallow saliva
|
|
what is the mortality rate of rabies once prodromal symptoms have appeared?
|
>99%
|
|
diagnosis of rabies?
|
fluorescent antibody staining of skin biopsy or hair follicles
|
|
classic histo of rabies infection?
|
Negri bodies (eosinophilic inclusions in brain tissue)
|
|
how is post-exposure rabies treated?
|
vaccine
hyperimmune globulin |
|
brain tumors MC arise from which cell type?
|
glial cells
|
|
are most astrocytomas benign or malignant?
|
malignant
|
|
astrocytomas tend to involve which brain locations in:
1. adults 2. children |
1. cerebral hemospheres
2. posterior fossa, optic nerve |
|
in a high grade astrocytoma, what is the classic lesion seen on CT
|
ring-enhancement lesion
|
|
pilocytic astrocytomas are MC seen in what age group?
|
children
|
|
MC location of a pilocytic astrocytoma?
|
intracerebellar
(circumscribed cystic lesion with a mural nodule) |
|
behavior of a pilocytic astrocytoma?
|
relatively benign
|
|
where are oligodendrogliomas MC found?
|
white matter of cerebral hemispheres
|
|
common presentation of pts with oligodendrogliomas?
|
seizures
|
|
compare the prognosis of an astrocytoma and an oligodendroglioma?
|
oligodendroglioma has better prognosis (slower growing)
|
|
what is seen upon a CT scan of an oligodendroglioma?
|
calcifications
|
|
what neoplasm is slow growing, circumscribed, MC seen in children, and MC occurs in the 4th ventricle or spinal cord?
|
ependymoma
|
|
is an ependymoma MC benign or malignant?
|
benign
|
|
where are choroid plexus tumors MC located?
|
in lateral or 4th ventricles
(where choroid plexus is) |
|
choroid plexus tumors are MC in which age group?
|
children
|
|
what is the MC type of choroid plexus tumor?
|
papillomas (benign)
|
|
which CNS neoplasm is one of the "small blue cell tumors of childhood" and is commonly located in the cerebellum?
|
medulloblastoma
|
|
what does the prognosis of a medulloblastoma depend on?
|
extent of surgical resection
N-myc and C-myc oncogene amplification C-erb-B2 overexpression |
|
where do medulloblastomas tend to metastasize to?
|
spinal cord
|
|
describe the "character" of a meningioma
|
indolent, most grow slowly
|
|
where are meningiomas MC found
|
intracranial or spinal location
|
|
any connection between meningiomas and pregnancy?
|
meningiomas may have estrogen receptors, therefore may grow more rapidly in pregnancy
|
|
what is the classic growth pattern seen in a meningioma?
|
whorling growth pattern
(also see psammoma bodies) |
|
where do most acoustic neuromas occur?
|
involve CN VIII at the CEREBELLOPONTINE ANGLE
|
|
bilateral acoustic neuromas should make you think of?
|
neurofibromatosis type II
|
|
where are most cranioparyngiomas located?
|
suprasellar, in hypothalamic region
|
|
germ cell neoplasms MC occur in which sex and age group?
|
young men
|
|
name four germ cell neoplasms commonly seen in the CNS?
|
germinoma
choriocarcinoma embryonal carcinoma teratoma |
|
where do CNS hemangiomas MC occur?
|
cerebellum, spinal cord
|
|
syndrome with hereditary form of CNS hemangioma?
|
von-hippel-lindau syndrome
|
|
typical sites of origin of metastatic tumors to the brain?
|
melanoma
breast lung kidney |
|
what are the 3 states of existence (according to the sleep lecturer)?
|
wakefullness
N-REM sleep REM sleep |
|
what wave activity is seen in wakefullness?
|
alpha waves
(restful wakefullness when eyes are closed) *Alpha for Awake* |
|
describe stage I N-REM sleep
|
*decreased alpha waves to <50%
*slow rolling eye mvmt *decreased muscle tone *THETA waves |
|
describe stage II N-REM sleep
|
*K complex
*spindles *no eye mvmt |
|
what type of waves are seen in stage 3 and 4 N-REM sleep?
|
delta waves
|
|
delta waves signify what kind of sleep?
|
deep sleep "D for Deep Sleep"
(wake up from this and have foggy haze, poor judgement, poor memory) |
|
in which type of sleep is HR and RR irregular?
|
REM
|
|
in which type of sleep is skeletal muscle tone absent?
|
REM
|
|
in which type of sleep is penile tumescence and vaginal engorgement seen?
|
REM
|
|
in which stage of sleep is poikilothermia observed?
|
REM
(that's why see sweating and chills in REM sleep) |
|
in what type of sleep do most sleep problems occur?
|
REM sleep
|
|
what are the 3 mechanisms underlying wakefullness and sleep?
|
1. circadian
2. homeostatic 3. masking |
|
which type of sleep waves are important in cognitive maturation?
|
delta waves
|
|
where in the brain is REM sleep initiated?
|
pons
|
|
when are PGO waves seen?
|
REM sleep only
|
|
which 3 neurotransmitters have been shown to turn off REM?
|
NE
5-HT Histamine |
|
connection between adenosine and sleep?
|
adenosine = sleep factor
(caffeine inhibits) |
|
three aspects in the mechanism of N-REM sleep?
|
1. inhibiting process of cortex and thalamus
2. decreased excitability of cortex and hypothalamus (thalamic gating) 3. dissappearance of FFWs (fast freq. wavelets) |
|
what is thalamic gating?
|
shutting off of excitability coming from the lower brain centers
|
|
describe the effects of N-REM sleep on the following:
1. HR 2. BP 3. cerebral flow, metabolic rate |
1. decreases
2. decreases 3. decreases *remember: N-REM is primarily a PARASYMPATHETIC state* |
|
describe CO early in the morning
|
decreased
(that's why more MIs occur in the morning) |
|
what happens to the upper airway muscles in REM?
significance? |
relax
this increases airway resistance (see snoring and OSA) |
|
what else relaxes airway muscles?
|
etoh
benzodiazepenes |
|
when are ACTH and cortisol levels highest?
|
4-8 am
|
|
when is GH released?
|
90 minutes after sleep onset
|
|
TSH and Melatonin release are circadian related. what does this mean?
|
both are released in the evening and levels are lower in the daytime
|
|
what is meant when it is said that PRL is sleep related?
|
levels are increased in sleep, decreased in wakefulness
|
|
any connection between gastric secretions and sleep?
|
increased gastric secretions during sleep
|
|
when is brain activity highest?
|
REM > wake > nREM
|
|
what is the correlation between age and quality of sleep?
|
increase age, increase sleep complaints
|
|
define parasomnias
|
behavioral changes during sleep
|
|
top 2 reasons for excessive daytime sleepiness?
|
1. apnea
2. insufficient sleep |
|
historical term for sleep apnea?
|
pickwickian syndrome
(70% of pts with OSA are overweight) |
|
symptoms of OSA?
|
excessive sleepiness
snoring apneic episodes choking or gasping in sleep nocturia |
|
predisposing factors to OSA?
|
Age (40-60yrs)
obesity male anatomical abnormalities etoh smoking family history |
|
CV complications of OSA?
|
HTN
pulmonary HTN, cor pulmonale brady or tachycardia complete heart block arrythmias MI sudden death |
|
possible therapies for OSA?
|
1. positive airway pressure
2. oral appliances 3. surgery |
|
s/s of narcolepsy
|
1. excessive daytime sleepiness
2. cataplexy (REM intrusion on the state of wakefullness) |
|
when is cataplexy MC seen?
|
strong emotion
(bilateral loss of muscle tone provoked by strong emotion) |
|
what are hypagognic hallucinations?
|
vivid, frightening, dream like experiences that occur in the transition from wakefullness to sleep or vice versa
|
|
describe the nocturnal sleep habits of a pt with narcolepsy
|
disturbed nocturnal sleep
(sleep fragmentation, nightmares, hypnagogic hallucinations, sleep paralysis, sleep apnea) |
|
human narcolepsy shows a loss of what neurgenic substance?
|
hypocretin
|
|
what is the normal requirement for sleep?
|
ranges from 4-10 hrs
|
|
what are some medical conditions that can cause insomnia?
|
hyperthyroidism
arthritic conditions renal failure lung disease heart failure GERD hepatic disease |
|
what is psychophysiological insomnia?
|
conditioned arousal to sleep environment
|
|
what is delayed sleep phase syndrome?
|
can't fall asleep until 2-3 am, wake up at 7 or 8am. whole wake/sleep cycle is shifted
|
|
define parasomnias
|
undesirable phsyical or experiential phenomena which occur exclusively during the sleep period or are exacerbated by sleep
|
|
3 MC parasomnias?
|
1. disorders of arousal
2. nocturnal seizures 3. REM sleep bahavior disorder |
|
3 disorders of arousal?
|
1. confusional arousals
2. sleepwalking 3. sleep terrors |
|
what are confusional arousals?
|
confusion following arousal from sleep, disorientation
|
|
what is REM sleep behavior disorder?
|
abnormal intrusion of muscle tone in sleep, can be violent
(dreams acted out) |
|
what is the MC life threatening neurologic disease adn the 3rd leading cause of death in the USA?
|
CVA
|
|
what is the difference between cerebral ischemia and a cerebral infarct?
|
a cerebral infarct is dead neurologic tissue secondary to cerebral ischemia.
|
|
how long after lack of blood flow does metabolic failure of cerebral tissue occur?
|
10 sec
(ie. if sudden anoxia such as choking or heart stops -> 10 sec. until unconscious) |
|
how long after lack of blood flow does irreversible damage of cerebral tissue occur?
|
4 minutes
|
|
infarcted tissue is replaced with cystic areas. this is called?
|
encephalomalacia (lack of brain tissue)
|
|
what is the amount of blood flow to normal brain tissue?
|
50 mL/100g/min
|
|
blood flow in an ischemic penumbra?
|
<25 mL/100g/min
|
|
cell death occurs at what blood flow?
|
<10 mL/100g/min
|
|
84% of all strokes are of this type?
|
ischemic
|
|
three mechanisms of ischemic stroke?
|
1. large vessel
2. cardioembolic 3. small vessel |
|
2 mechanisms of hemorrhagic stroke?
|
1. vascular malformation
2. small vessel |
|
3 vascular malformations that may result in a hemorrhagic stroke?
|
1. aneurysm
2. AVM 3. cavernous hemangioma |
|
at what size are saccular (berry) aneurysms mor elikely to rupture?
|
>10 mm
|
|
which sex, age is rupture of berry aneurysms MC in?
|
females
avg. age of rupture - 50 yrs |
|
rupture of a berry aneurysm results in what type of hemorrhage?
|
subarachnoid
|
|
"hypertensive hemorrhage" is due to rupture of?
|
small vessels
(may cause lobar hemorrhage) |
|
top 3 locations of large vessel disease leading to ischemic stroke?
|
1. internal carotid
2. vertebral-basilar embolism 3. aortic arch |
|
what is the MCC of cardioembolic stroke?
|
atrial fibrillation
|
|
other causes of cardioembolic stroke?
|
wall motion abnormalities
valvular disease paradoxical embolism |
|
what is the spectrum of small vessel ischemic disease?
|
mild - gliosis, demyelination
moderate - lacunar stroke severe - hypertensive hemorrhages, lobar hemorrhages |
|
prognosis of lacunar strokes compared to other forms of strokes?
|
better
(many recover function) |
|
which type os hemorrhage is caused by arterial degeneration with amyloid deposits in arterial walls?
|
lobar intracerebral hemorrhage
|
|
MC location of lobar intracerebral hemorrhage?
|
cortical-subcortical junction
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some risk factors for ischemic stroke?
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male
family Hx age HTN Afib coronary artery disease carotid artery disease DM hyperlipidemia smoking, etoh inactivity |
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hematologic and cellular disoroders that predispose to stroke?
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sickle cell
thormbocytopenia polycythemia DIC cardiolipin antibodies, lupus anticoagulants pregnancy protein C,S, antithrombin III deficiency |
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s/s of an intracerebral hemorrhage?
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*acute onset neurologic deficit
*quickly worsening *H/A, N/V *altered level of consciousness *markedly elevated BP |
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s/s of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
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*acute onet of severe H/A ("worst H/A of my life)
*meningeal signs *confusion, LOC, seizures *may progress and have focal neurologic signs |
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describe the level of consciousness in an ischemic stroke
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normal
(unless bilateral brainstem reticular activating system is involved) |
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symptoms of an anterior circulation stroke in the right (non-dominant) side?
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*L body weakness, numbness
*visual spacial neglect *L hemifield loss *amaurosis fugax (blindness in ipsilateral eye) |
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symptoms of an anterior circulation stroke in the left (dominant) side?
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*R body weakness, numbness
*aphasia *R hemifield loss *amaurosis fugax |
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symptoms of a stroke to the posterior circulation (brainstem)?
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dysarthria, dysphagia, diplopia, nystagmus, vertigo, mixed weakness/numbness, N/V, somnolence
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symptoms of a stroke to the posterior circulation (cerebellum)?
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*incoordination/ataxia
*dysarthria *dysrhythmia *dysequilibrium *nystagmus |
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symptoms of a stroke to the posterior circulation (occipital lobe)?
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hemifield visual defect
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symptoms of a stroke to the posterior circulation (medial temporal lobe)?
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confusion
memory loss |
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give examples of some things that mimic TIAs
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seizures
syncope episodic vertigo migraine transient global amnesia psychosomatic |
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in a young patient with a cryptogenic stroke, what should we be looking for?
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vascular abnormality or hypercoagulable state
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in which imaging modality (CT or MRI) does stroke show up earliest?
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MRI
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which imaging modality is better to see hemorrhage with?
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CT
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which imaging modality shows blood flow in vessels?
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MRI
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secondary prevention in a cardioembolic stroke?
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warfarin
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secondary prevention in a large vessel stroke?
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carotid endarterectomy
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secondary prevention in a small vessel stroke?
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risk factor management
antiplatelet meds avoid anticoagulation |
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a cortical stroke is caused by?
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emboli from heart or large vessels
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a subcortical stroke is caused by?
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small vessel disease
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signs of a subcortical (small vessel) stroke?
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profound sensory or motor loss without aphasia or neglect
(cortical strokes have aphasia and neglect) |
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most improvement after a stroke is in which timeframe?
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1-3 months afterwards
(then slows down - will see most recovery by 2 yrs) |
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which has a worse prognosis: intracerebral hemorrhage or subarachnoid hemorrhage?
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subarachnoid hemorrhage (mortality near 50%)
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acute treatment of ischemic strokes (medications)?
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TPA
aspirin (heparin) |
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secondary prevention of ischemic strokes?
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antiplatelet agent
control of BP, glucose and lipids coumadin carotid endarterectomy |
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why is reactive HTN allowed to go oup to 220/120 in ischemic stroke?
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want to keep penumbra alive
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treatment of hemorrhagic stroke?
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*correct blood clotting abnormalities
*supportive *only allow BP up to 140-180 |
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BP guidelines in a SAH?
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keep BP at normotensive range until aneurysm is clipped, then allow HTN and vascular expansion
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which 2 vascular malformations require no treatment if asymptomatic?
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venous angiomas
cavernous hemangiomas |
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name 3 antiplatelet agents used in stroke prevention?
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1. ASA
2. clopidogrel (plavix) 3. ASA/dipyridamole (aggrenox) |
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Pompe's disease is primarily manifested by?
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cardiac involvement
(cardiomegaly, CHF) |
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other manifestations of Pompe's disease?
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macroglossia/thick lips
skeletal muscle weakness failure to thrive hypotonia diminished/absent DTRs |
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EMG findings in Pompe's disease?
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pseudomyotonia
high freq. discharges fibrillations |
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Pompe's disease is a deficiency in?
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lysosomal a-1,4-glucosidase
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chromosomal locatation of Pompe's disease mutation?
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chromosome 17
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inheritance pattern of Pompe's?
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AR
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Pathophysiology of Pompe's disease?
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*glycogen accumulation in lysosomes of cardiac and skeletal muscle
*glycogen deposition in nervous system |
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prognosis of Pompe's disease?
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most die in 1st 2 yrs
|
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which genetic myopathy is characterized by the "policeman's tip"?
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amyoplasia congenita disruptive sequence
|
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describe the facies seen in amyoplasia congenita disruptive sequence
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round flat facies
mild micrognathia |
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inheritance of amyoplasia congenita disruptive sequence?
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none - sporadic
(could be due to intrauterine vascular accident or vascular compromise) |
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pathophysiology of amyoplasia congenita disruptive sequence?
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*hypotension in fetal spinal cord leads to decreased # of anterior horn cells
*muscle fails to form normally, get fibrous bands and fatty tissue *lack of in utero movement causes contractures |
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what is the other name for cerebro-hepato-renal syndrome?
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Zellwegger syndrome
|
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facial characteristics of cerebro-hepato-renal syndrome?
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high forehead
large fontanelles epicanthil folds flat facies |
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skeletal abnormality seen in cerebro-hepato-renal syndrome?
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patellar stippling
(Ca++ deposits visible on Xray) |
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prognosis of cerebro-hepato-renal syndrome?
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death in 1st year is common
|
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inheritance pattern of cerebro-hepato-renal syndrome?
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AR
|
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pathophysiology of cerebro-hepato-renal syndrome?
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absent to greatly reduced peroxisomes
*defect in catabolism of very long chain fatty acids *plasmalogen deficiency *phytanic acid accumulation |
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which inherited disorder is characterized by furrows on the forehead when crying?
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Miller-Dieker
(lissencephaly) |
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facial characteristics of lissencephaly?
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small anteverted nose
long philtrum thin upper lip |
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where is the genetic defect in lissencephaly?
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deletion on chromosome 17
|
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pathophysiology of lissencephaly (miller-dieker)?
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gene -> signal transduction pathway abnormality -> deficient neuronal migration -> agyria/pachygryria
|
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what is the triad seen in Meckel-Gruber syndrome?
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occipital encephalocele
polycystic kidneys postaxial polydactyly |
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what is characteristic about the facial development of an individual with Meckel-Gruber?
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absent or incomplete midfacial development
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Meckel-Gruber involves a mutation where?
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chromosome 17 (AR)
|
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what is holoprosencephaly?
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defect of midfacial development, incomplete forebrain development
|
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possible facial characteristics of holoprosencephaly?
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hypotelorism
absence of philtrum absence of nasal septum cyclopia proboscis cleft lip, palate |
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what is the pathophysiology behind holoprosencephaly?
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3rd-4th wk. of development: incomplete prechordial mesodermal migration to area anterior to notochord -> midfacial dysmorphogenesis and failure of forebrain division into cerebral hemispheres
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