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187 Cards in this Set

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what are symptoms of anxiety?
trembling, sweating, flush/chills, nausea and palpitations

these people also have a higher HR, more rapid RR and high blood glucose and triglycerie concentration
in an anxious state which hormones are increased
corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH - hypothalamus
adrenocorticotrophin hormone (ACTH) and prolactin from the anterior pituitary
Vasopressin from the posterior pituitary
cortisol and adrenaline - adrenals
the anterior pituitary secretes which hormones
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
LH (leutinising hormone)
ACTH
TSH
Prolactin
GH (gowth hormone)

CLUE: FLAT PiG
the hypothalamus secretes which hormones
CRH
GnRH
What is the hormonal response of stress?
increase in CRH for the hypothalamus --> increases in ACTH and prolactin fron the anterior pituitary as well as vasopressin from the posterior pituitary--> increase in cortisol and adrenalin release from the adrenal (cortisol is made cortex and adrenaline in the medulla)
SNS stimulation in response to stress results in
increased adrenalin (adrenal medulla) AND
increased noradrenaline (adrenal cortex) as a result of increased ACTH
t/f. adrenaline and cortisol act to help insulin
FALSE. they counter the actions of insulin by increasing glycogenenolysis (break down of glycogen) and increasing hepatic glucose output.
triglyceride breakdown is also excellerated
t/f. increase in cortisol can cause immune suppression
true!
how is blood volume affected in anxiety
blood volume increases due to a decrease in renal blood flow which triggers the increase in renin and vasopressin
what is the Basal metobolic rate
it is the energy expended by a human when completely at rest but not asleep in the absence of muscle movement and without SNS arousal
what is resting metabolic rate
is what we use in practice (instead of BMR) to measure the energy used by humans and is typically 10-15% higher than BMR
what are some causes of energy expenditure?
cold induced thermogenesis or thermoregulatory heat
thermic effects of exercise
thermic effects of food
how is BMR measured?
it is dependant on lean body mass - so while obseise people have a higher 'absolute ' BMR it is adjusted so that relatively we are all the same if we have normal functioning bodies
what controls BMR
the hypothalamus via the autonomic nervous system and genetic factors also contribute
what are the two mechanisms of gain of body heat
shivering and non-shivering

non-shivering is via biochemical reactions to produce heat
what causes hypothermia?
it is usually due to an acute illness
name the 3 catecholamines
adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine
what is noradrenaline used for in the sympathetic nervous system
it acts as a NT of the sympathetic nervous systen on postganglionic fibres
t/f. beta adreno receptors are activated by dobutamine and blocked by metropolol
true
t/f. beta adrenoreceptors in the heart increase the force of contraction of the myocardium
true
what is an action of all beta adrenoreceotors
they are activated by G proteins that result in stimulation of adenylate cyclase that then converts ATP to second messanger cAMP
what are the grades of goitre
0 none
1a not visible but palapalbe
1b palpable and visible on full neck extension
2 visible in the normal position
3 very large
what are some of the classifications of a goitre
difuse or nodular
single nodule or multinodular
toxic or non-toxic(simple)
what is the most common goitre presentation
non-toxic diffuse goitre
what is the most common cause of endemic goitre?
iodine deficiency
what is the cause of sporadic goitre?
due to heterogenoeous stimulation of the growth of thyroid epithelial cells by the growth fact such as TSH, insulin, insulin-like growth factor or moduate efects of TSH
what is a cause of non-toxic diffuse or multinodular goitre?
may be due to the presence of autoimmune changes within the thyroid gland due to hashimoto's thyroiditis
a toxic multinodular goitre causes
thyrotoxicosis
a diffuse toxic goitre is often
graves disease and accompanied by both the signs of thyrotoxicosis and the graves opthalmopathy signs
what sre some effects of excessive thyroid hormone
weight loss,
increased apeptite
increased heat production
heat intolerance
tachocardia
diarrhoea
tiredness
anxiety
irritability
tremour
muscle may become weak and wasted
hypothyroid common signs include
tiredness,
weight gain
loss of apetite
dry and brittle hair
cold intolerance
depression
slow HR
muscle may become painful and reflexes may be delayed in relaxing
puffy face and hands
what is the autoimmune process in hashimoto's thyroiditis
activated T cells
what is the autoimmune process in Grave's Disease
caused by thyroid autoantibodies, directed towards the thyroid hormone receptor TSH-R and stimulate it - that is stimulate thyroid hormone releases that is independent of the feedback loop with the pituitary gland. when T3/T4 levels are at a high enough level this negatively feeds back to the pituitary to stop TSH thus stop TH production
in testing thyroid function if the TSH is normal does this warrant more testing?
if TSH levels are normal this normally indicates that the patient is euthyroid
if the TSH is high?
this indicates there is a primary hypothyroidism
if the TSH is low or undetectable what does this indicate?
that there is thyrotoxicosis or a hypopituitary state
when measure thyroid hormone explain what T3 and T4 should look like
if the patient suffers thyroitoxicosis than there will be high free T3 and T4
in a hypothyroid patient T3 is not as important because it is very slow to fall; the T4 is useful in determining the thyroid state
how long does it take TSH to reach a new equilibrium
4 weeks
what medications are there for thyrotoxicosis
carbimazole and PTU = both block peroxidase activity
carbamazole has a longer half life of 8 hours
however PTU also converts T4 to T3
neither should be used in the first trimester of pregnancy - use Neomercazole

surgery is also an option
what are the 3 growth phases in a human
infantile
childhood
puberal growth spurt
describe growth hormone in the body.
GH is secreted in a pusatile fashion from the pituitary (anterior) gland. it is controlled by the hypothalamus - by somatostatin which negative controls it and by growth releasing hormone which has a positive effect
what forms the roof of the pituitary fossa
the roof of the pituitary fossa is formed by the sella diaphragm dura which stretched between clivoid processes
it has a small hole which the pituitary stalk travereses
what does the pituitary stalk connect to?
from the pituitary to the hypothalamus
what lays just lateral to the pituitary gland
the cavernous sinuses - which carry the carotid artery, III, IV, VI and V3
name the parts of the anterior pituitary
pars distalis
pars tuberalis
pars intermedia
what are the secretory cells of the pituitary gland called
acidophis and basophils

acidophils = lactotropes and samatotropes
what do lactrotropes produce
prolactin

which promotes mammary gland development and lactation in women. it stimulates testosterone in men by binding in the prostate
what do basophils secrete
gonadotrophs - FSH and LH,
thyrotropes - thyrotrophin and T4
adrenocorticotropes - stimulate adrenal cortex to produce glucocorticoids.
what is the vascular pathway in the pituitary?
supplied by the superior hypophyseal arteries and a single inferior artery = all are branches of the internal carotid

the superior hypophyseal supplies the infundibulum and the anterior pituitary via the portal system
what is the definition of a microadenoma and a macroadenoma
microadenoma is a pituitary tumour <1cm and macroadenoma is >1cm
what are the pressure effects in a pituitary macroadenoma?
compression or local invasion --> headache from stretching the dura, CSF obstruction and hydrocephalus.
can also get visual disturbances - bitemporal hemionopia - and III, IV, VI palsy
compression of the pituitary stalk can cause?
disruption to the delivery of factors from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary which typically occur in the following order
gonadotrophins,
GH
TSH
ACTH
what is a craniopharyngeoma?
a tumour arising from the remnants of Rathke's pouch which is the diverticulum at the roof of the mouth that gives rise to the antierior pituitary
what is the most common type of pituitary tumour
non-functioning adenoma (32%)

prolactinoma
growth hormone producing adenoma
corticotrope adenoma
in a women what does a prolactinoma cause?
galactorrhoea
menstral disturbance
infertility

NB: in a man there are no signifincat physiolgicaly side effects except for sexual dysfunction
what would a growth hormone tumour do?
prior to epiphyseal closure --> get gigantism; or after closure called acromegaly
what is papilodoema?
is due to transmision of ICP up the optic sheeth causing swelling and venous congestion of the optic nerve head, is almost pathogenic of increased ICP
what does vasopressin do?
controls water reabsorption in the kidney via V2 receptors that increase cAMP which increases the aquaporins in the apical membrane

its pressor effects via the V1 receptor increase DAG/IP3 and rise in Ca inside vascular smooth muscle causes peripheral vasoconstriction
what does diabetes insipidus cause in the hypothalamus
it causes destruction of cell bodies OR there is a mutation in the VP gene
what does oxcytocin do?
at birth it causes uterine contrations
it is involved in milk secretion: suckling --? signal to the SON and PVN to increase oxytocin --> mammary glands - contraction of myoepithelial cells around the alveoli
what are the two most common groups of symptoms producing pituitary tumours
primary tumour of adenohypophyseal origin (adults)
tumours of germ cell origin arising in the pituitary region though not of pituitary origin - seen in children
t/f. all microadenomas of the pituitary will require treatment.
false. many that become evident on autopsy never became clinically evident and therefore did not require treatment
what do you treat a pituitary prolactinoma with
carbergoline (DA agonist) which is efficacious in inhibiting the synthesis of prolactin and reducing serum prolactin
which brain area is key in cirrcadian rhythm
the anterior hypothalamus
what is the supra nucleus
is the cirrcadian pacemaker and resets everyday by the Zeitberger cues = light and dark
what occurs in the pineal glad with respect to circadian rhythm
SNS stimulation of the pineal gland --> darkness stimulates melatonin release and light inhibits SNS stimulation of malatonin
release of CRH --> pituitary gland --> ACTH --> adrenal cortex then releases cortisol
when is cortisol the lowest?
just before sleep


it is the highest early in the morning
when is melatonin onset
between 10 and midnight

the secretion of melatonin is independent of the sleep wake cycle and not affected by sleep deprivation
what are steroid hormones synthesized from
cholesterol
names some synthetic glucocorticoids
prednisolone, dexamethasone, betamethasone, budesonide and fluticasone
how do glucocorticoids work?
they act on intraellular steroid receptors in the cytoplasm forming a GCS-receptor compled that translocates to the nucleus binding to a target gene know as a glucocorticoid response element (GRE)
do glucocortocoids modulated anything other that glucocorticoid activity?
yes. some including hydrocortisone and prednisolone have mineralocorticoid activity as well although this is small, but can cause Na retention and K and Ca losses
what is the mechanism of anti-inflammation in steroids?
1. trasnactivation: glucocorticoid receptor complex translocates to the nucleus where it binds to GRE and causes the sythesis of anti-inflammatory proteins
2. transrepression: transcription factors such as activator protein 1 (AP-1) --> produce mRNA which codes for proinflammatory cytokines. the complex binds to transcription factors therefore suppressing the ability to stimulate mRNA products = less pro-inflammatory cytokines.
t/f. steroids recruit HDAC to activate transcriptional complexes leading to deacetylation of histones that decrease transcription of pro-inflam.
true
what is a non-glucocorticoid use for dexamethasone
treatment of cerebral oedema
what is the half life of hydrocortisome
8-12hours
what is the half life of prednisolone
12-36 hours
what is the half life of dexamethasone
36-72 hours
which steroids are made in the adrenal cortex
glucocorticoids
mineralocorticoids
which steroids are made in the gonads
androgens - testosterone and DHT
Oestrogen and Eostrodiol
progestogens
which steroids are produced by fat cells
testosterone and estridiol
what are the 3 layers of the adrena cortex
zona glomerulosa - aldosterone
zona fasiculata - cortisol
zona reticulata - androgens
what do leydig cells snythesise?
they are in the testes and they synthesise testosterone
what stimulates testosterone production
LH secreted by the antirior pituitary

LH is under the control of GnRH released by the hypothalamus
what stimulates estridiol secretion
FSH from the anterior pituitary
what secretes estridiol in women
the ovaries
t/f. progesterone is a key intermediate in steroid synthesis - then converted to cortisol, aldosterone or a sex steroid
true
what is cushing's disease
it is an ACTH secreting tumour which then leads to increased cortisol casing the steryotypic cushingoid appearence.
addinson's disease is?
an autoimmune atrophy of the drenal cortex --> decreased cortisol and increased ACTH which causes hyperpigmentation

because there is no cortisol beong procuded ACTH is upregulated in its secretions trying to stimulate cortisol release - however this is impossible as the area of the adrenal gland - the cortex - which synthesises and stores cortisol is now destroyed
what impact do glucocorticoids have on glucose in the blood stream?
they increase levels so that they are available to tissues more rapidly
what happens in the muscle when cortisol is releasead?
the muscle undergoes catabolism to realse amino acids into the blood stream. it also prevents reuptake of amino acids into muscle
what effect does cortisol have on adipose tissue?
it causes a breakdown of lipid stores
what is the mechanism of cortisol and glucose including the hypothalamus and pituitary
IACTH binds to receptors in the fasciculata and reticulata and produces cortisol which enters circulation and binds to a corticosteroid binding globulin and acts to increase glucose available.
cortisol is inhibiting ACTH from the pituitary. negatively feeding back on the system
how is cortisol produced:
cholesterol --> via p450 the pregnenelone -->p450 to cortisol
what is the effect of cortisol on the muscles
suppressed glucose oxidation leading to lactate build up
decreased glucose uptake (reduced sensitivity to insulin)
elevated proteolyses leading to release of animo acids
what is the effect of cortisol on the liver
lactate and amino acids released from muscle taken up by the liver and converted to glucose via gluconeogenesis --> this glucose is then stored as glycogen
what is the effect of cortisol on carbohydrate metabolism
cortisol and glucagon from the panceratic islet cells and circulating adrenaline (from the adrena medulla) act as key countrer regulatory hormones to insulin
cortisol increased plasma glucose and promotes production of hepatic glycogen where as glucagon and adrenalin promote gycogen break down
what is the effect of cortisol on Protein metabolism
cortisol enhances protein break down - antagonised by insulin and insulin-like growth factor 1 and testosterone

cortisol upregulates the small protein ubiquiton which is then attached to proteins marking them for degradation in proteosomes
what is the effect of cortisol on fat metabolism?
redistributes fat from the periphery to centreal sites.

promotes the enzymes hormone sensitive lipase in peripheral sites
how long does it take for cortisol to have an effect
may be several hours
name the 3 enzymes that up regulate cortisol
enzymes in the gluconeogenic pathway
glycogen synthase
hormon sensitive lipase
give an example of a primary cause of adrenal insufficiency
the adrenal glands have been ablated
give an example of a secondary cause of adrenal insufficiency
Pituitary ACTH is deficient or absent
give an example of tertiary cause of adrenal insufficiency
when the hypothalamus CRH is deficient or absent
t/f. in a secondary or tertiary cause of adrenal insufficiency thre will be significant mineralocorticoid effect too
FALSE. there will be none
what is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency?
suppresion by exaogenous seteroids
t/f. the first presentation of a primary adrenal insufficiency may be life thretening.
true. an example of this may be an addisonian crisis.
what is the replacement therapy for adrenal insufficiency
~37.5mg ccortisone acetate and 100-200ug of fludrocortisone
what would a patient with a secondary adrenal insufficiency look like.
unlike in addison's disease they will have lost ACTH so they will be pale
what is the blood supply to the adrenals?
adrenal arteries: with small arteries that penetrate the capsule

capsular capillaries

fenestrated cortical sinusoidal capillaries that supply the cortex and dran into fenstarted medullary capillary sinusoids.

the medulla also supplied by medullary arterioles that travel with the trabeculae
what embryonic structure does the adrenal gland belong to
the mesoderm
describe a typical steroid myopathy
onset may be insidious by develops into a weakness in the proximal muscles of the limbs
what dosage is required to induce steroid myopathy symptoms
>30mg/day prednisone
what is the main finding on muscle histology of steroid myopathy
atrophy of the type II B fibres. these are the fast twitch fibres.
where is insulin synthesised stored and released?
in pancratic beta cells.
what is the major stimulus for insulin secretion
blood glucose <5mM concentration
what is insulin synthesised from
a large polypeptide pre-proinsulin
how is the polypeptide pre-proinsulin transformed into insulin
in the rough ER a 23 amino acid sequence is removed leaving proinsulin.

proinsulin has a C peptide cleaved and they are both secreted together. there will be no C peptide in the blood of a type I diabetic
how is insulin secreted
glucose --> beta cells --> taken up by glucose transporter GLUT-2
the glucose is then metabolised closing K channels on the beta cell surface: this destroys the membrane potential allowing Ca channels to open
which are the key target organs for insulin
liver, muscles and adipose tissue
what does insulin inhibit?
lipolysis and ketone body formation
what occurs in starvation?
starvation --> 0insulin: increase in cAMP --> liver activation of glycogon phosphytase which degrades glycogon to maintain glucose >4mM
what is the consequence of prolongued exposure to hypoinsulinaemia.
elicits massive lipolysis.
excess fatty acids are converted to ketone bodies in the liver so they can be transported in the blood
ketone bodies can be used by the brain although not that efficiently
what is the cause of type 1 diabetes
autoimmune attach that destroys beta cells in the pancreas
at what level does glucose appear in the urine
>10mM
what do the osmotic change scaused by hyperglycaemia do?
they mean that water is drawn out of tissues causing a cellular dehydration
what are the key plasma glucose levels in hypoglycaemia
<4mM glucose uptake and metabolism by the brain is compromised
<3mM symptoms appear
<2.7mM causes cognitive dysfunction
what are the symptoms of a hypoglycemic episode
tremous,
tachycardia
palpitations
sweating
weakness
usually becomes aware just before the symptoms come on
what is hypoglycemic unawareness
the symptoms of a hypo are due to sympathetic overdirve and secretion of adrenaline - after suffering DM1 for many years (>10years) this response becomes impaired or is dampened down --> meaning there is no warning signs before the life threatening reality of a hypoglycemic attack
t/f. maintenance of near normal blood glucose levels is associated with significantly more hypos and thus a worse outcome.
false. whilst it is accociated with more hypos, evidence now shows that those who maintain a lower blood glucose are less likely to suffer some of the common diabetic complications
what are the characteristics of diabetic retinopathy?
weakening, rupturem leakage and occlusion of the blood vessels manifest as miscraneurysms, blot haemorrhages and hard exudate (lipid deposits) and soft exudate (local ischemia and miscrovascular occlusion)
what is diabetic nephropathy
occurs in 30% of DM1
characterised by proteinuria, hypertension and oedema with renal insufficiency.
what is the efficacy of ACEi in diabetic nephropathy?
they can prevent it beyond their antihypertensive action.
what is the name of very long acting insulin analogue
Glargine and determir
what are the genetic relationships of DM1
concordance is only 50% between monocygotic twins

chanc eof inheriting diabetes is only ~5%

90% of type 1 diabetics have no relative affected

there is an association with the HLA locus at HLADR, 3, 4 and HLA DQ - these are important but not causative or sufficient.

at least 1 allele of DR3 or DR$ is present in 90-95% of caucations with DM1 and it is 50% in the general population.
what autoimmune markers may be important in DM1
antbody to insulin (IAA)
glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)
tryrosine phosphatase (IA-2)
name a gene involved in obesity
mutations in gene coding for MCR-4receptor or stop codon of leptin
list some endocrine conditions that lead to weight gain?
hyperinsulinaemia
DM2
acromegaly
cushing's disease/syndrome
hypothyroidism
raised prolactin
what is the signal for insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells?
blood glucose > 5mM
what is the primary role of insulin?
to stimulate the use and storage or carbohydrates by promoting the synthesis of macromolecular fuel stores such as glycogen and lipids
t/f. Insulin is pleiotropic.
true. this is because it has effects within the nucleus of cells too affecting a wide variety of cellular processes
what happens, with regards to insulin, after a meal?
the blood glucose rises above 5mM stimulating pancreatic beta cells to secrete insulin.
the insulin then binds to its receptor forming a complex --> this stimulate the phosphorylation of signalling proteins within the cell.
these proteins modulate enzyme activity - in different ways in different tissues ---> causing the storage of energy in different forms in the liver, adipocytes and muscle.
when insulin is stimulated by a rise in glucose what effect does this have in the muscles and adipose tissue?
Golgi vesicles are stimulated to deposit GLUT4 on the cell surface --> this increases the rate of glucose transport.
what is special about the liver and glucose transport?
unlike in muscles and adipose tissue glucose transporters (such as GLUT 4 in the above tissues) do not need to be stimulated and recruited to the cell surface.
what prevents the breakdown of carbohydrates and lipid stores with respect to insulin?
cells binding to insulin decreased the concentration intracellularly of cAMP this prevents breakdown.
what increases the amount of leptin in the body?
high insulin, high glucocorticoids and increased nutritional intake
name a gene involved in obesity
mutations in gene coding for MCR-4receptor or stop codon of leptin
list some endocrine conditions that lead to weight gain?
hyperinsulinaemia
DM2
acromegaly
cushing's disease/syndrome
hypothyroidism
raised prolactin
what is the signal for insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells?
blood glucose > 5mM
what is the primary role of insulin?
to stimulate the use and storage or carbohydrates by promoting the synthesis of macromolecular fuel stores such as glycogen and lipids
t/f. Insulin is pleiotropic.
true. this is because it has effects within the nucleus of cells too affecting a wide variety of cellular processes
where is leptin synthesized?
in the subcutaneous adipocytes mainly. more so than the visceral/omental adipocytes
what is the role of leptin?
plays a role in protection from starvation and in regulating T cell number and function
what is the recommended intake of saturated fats and poly unsaturated fats?
saturated fates is <10% of daily caloric intake
poly unsaturated is less than the % of saturated fat intake.
what is an exchanger in the diet?
not used anymore it represents a portion of food with 15g of carbohydrates.
t/f. linoleic acid increases LDL in the body, this effect is not as bad with omega3 alpha-linoleic acid
FALSE> linoleic acid is the most potent way to lower LDL and it is less effective in the omega 3 form
what is the metabolic syndrome?
also know as syndrome X it is associated with abdominal adipocity and may be related to insulin resistance. it represents increased hepatic glucose output, insulin resistance coupled with a defect in insulin secretion --> leads to impaired glucose tolerance and/or DM
what is the first line drug treatment in type 2 DM
metformin
what is the second line drug treatment in DM2
glitazones
what is the mechanims of a sulphonylruea?
it potentiates glucose stimulated insulin release by combining with its receptor on thebeta cell causing a depolarisation and therefore stimulation of insulin.

tends to stimulate appetite so is not recommended in obese patients
what is the mechanism of action of biguanides
an example is metformin.
increases glucose uptake into skeletal muscle and fat and surpresses appetite. 'it also decreases intestinal absorption of glucose and decreases gluconeogenesis
what is a contra indication to metformin use?
because it is excreted 100% by the kidneys it accumulates in renal failure
may cause a lactic acidosis which can be life threatening
what is 'acarbose'?
it is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor.
it inhibits the enzyme that breaks down carbs and sugars so to decrease the amount of glucose available for absorption.

if often used in combination with other insulin related drugs such as metformin or sulphonylureas
what is the mechanism of action of Glitazones?
this is a thiazolidinedione
it acts on peroxisome proliferator receptors in fat cells. and efficetively lowers glucose however causes weight gain.

some indication it is linked to peripheral limb fractures in post menopausal women.
what is periodontitis?
it is a chronic bacterial infection of the supporting structures of the teeth.
common in diabetic patients.
what product is implicated in the mechanism of chronic periodontitis?
advanced glycation end-products (AGEs) which increase collagen X linking, alter the vascular walls and thicken capillary BM
what are the 4 phases of intercourse?
excitement
plateau
orgasm
resolution
what are the two main functions of the testes?
spermatogenesis and steroidgenesis (androgens)
what is testosterone secretion regulated by?
LH from the pituitary
what controls the secretion of LH from the pituitary?
GnRH
where is FSH secreted from?
the anterior pituitary?
how do you describe the secretion of FSH
pulsatile and under negative feedback from inhibin beta seccreted by mature sertoli cells.
what are some hypothalamus related pathologies causing male infertility
failure of GnRH stimulation of the pituitary LH and FSH
failure of testes to produce testosterone
Kallmann's syndrome: mutation of KAL gene causing failure of GnRH ceurons to migrate from the olfactory placode to the hypothalamus
severe weight loss --> hypotha dysfunction
anabolic steroids
tumour desrtoying GnRH
etc.
what feedback system regulates LH secretion?
negative feedback lop with testosterone production
what are the normal figures in semen analysis
15million sperm/ml
>40% with forward progression
>4% normal function
>58% alive
pH 7.2
what does oligozoospermia mean?
abnormal concentration of sperm
what does asthenozoospermia mean?
abnormal motility
what does teratozoospermia mean
morphological abnormalities
what does globozoospermia mean?
all sperm lacking an acrosome
what are some exogenous causes of decreased fertility in men?
genital infection
alcohol
smoking >40 cigarettes a day
left varicocele
exposure to toxins within 2 years
what is fecundability?
normal is around 20% - and that is the chance of getting pregnant in each months
what is the fecundability of a couple who have not concieved after 2 years of trying?
likely to be <5%
what are some female causes of infertility?
a blockage
endometriosis
female age - sterility precedes the menopause by up to 10 years
for an amenorrhagic women what fertility test would be performed and why?
a progestergen challenge test:
a positive test is vaginal bleeding after ceasing the progestogens within a few days and indicates chronic anovulation as the cause

a negative test will indicate a hypo-pituitary cause or if the FSH is high organ failure
how many ova are created as the female genitalia rapidly develop?
up to 7 000 000. however most degenerate
t/f. at 6 weeks gestation the female and male genitalia are distinct looking and can be differentiated.
false. they will appear identical containing mesonephritic and paramesonephritic ducts (without testosterone the meonephritc duct disappears)

they will appear identical as late as 12 weeks
what does the paramesonephritic duct become in females?
the upper part of the 2 ducts becomes the uterine tubes and the lower half becomes the uterus and upper vagina

note: the lower vagina has a different morphological origin to the rest of the genital tract.