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309 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
t/f... male and female brains are roughly the same size
false, male brains are, on average, 100g heavier than female brains
what percentage of people aged 95 will have AD?
20-25%
what percentage of people aged 95 will have a) NFTs and b) amyloid plaques?
a)100%
b)85%
what forms the floor of the fourth ventricle?
open medulla together with the pons
which cell groups are found within the medulla?
cell groups processing sensory information and modulating motor function, cranial nerve nuclei, brainstem reticular formation, ascending and descending fibre pathways
t/f... the presence of cerebral atrophy is suggestive of Alzheimer's disease
false, cerebral atrophy is commonly seen in a variety of neurodegenerative conditions, including Alzheimer's disease
t/f... cerebral atrophy predisposes patients to intracerebral haemorrhage
false, cerebral atrophy predisposes patients to subdural haematomas, due to the stretching of bridging veins
t/f... focal cerebral atrophy is most frequently seen with disease states rather than normal ageing
true
t/f... cerebral atrophy predisposes to epilepsy
false, cerebral atrophy by itself has not been shown to increase the rate of epilepsy; although, diseases which may cause cerebral atrophy (cerebral infarction), may predispose patients to developing epilepsy
t/f... familial AD has been related to mutations on chromosomes 21, 14 and 1
true
t/f... Huntington's disease has been linked to point mutations on chromosome 4
false, Huntington's disease is due to increased triplet repeats (CAG) rather than a point mutation
t/f... sporadic CJD is caused by infection with a prion particle/protein
false, while the prion protein is the most likely cause for sporadic CJD, there is no evidence that people with sporadic CJD have caught the disease (been exposed to an infectious prion protein). It is most likely that they have undergone a change in their own protein to transform it to an infectious and disease inducing state
t/f... cerebrovascular disease has been associated with Parkinson's disease
false
t/f... cerebrovascular disease has been associated with atrial fibrillation
true
t/f... the medial lemniscus lies in lateral regions in the medulla
false, it lies close to the mid-line in the medulla
where is the superior cerebellar peduncle?
pons and midbrain
where is the cerebral aqueduct?
midbrain
t/f... the closed medulla has a large population of serotonergic cells
true
t/f... the cuneate nucleus receives many afferents from the head
false, the majority of its afferents come from the upper limb
where do afferents from the head project to?
trigeminal nuclei
t/f... the brainstem reticular formation has a major projection to the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus
true
t/f... the inferior cerebellar peduncles carry fibres of the spinothalamic tracts
false
where does the huge pontocerebellar tract travel?
in the middle cerebellar tract
where do the inferior cerebellar peduncles lie in the medulla?
dorsolaterally
t/f... the inferior cerebellar peduncles carry axons of the ipsilateral dorsal spinocerebellar tract
true
t/f... the inferior cerebellar peduncles carry axons from the ipsilateral inferior olivary nucleus
false, they carry axons from the contralateral nucleus
t/f... the pyramids contain axons arising from the ipsilateral cerebral cortex
true
t/f... the pyramids lie lateral to the olives
false, they lie medial
t/f... the pyramids lie on the ventral surface of the medulla
true
t/f... all corticosinal axons decussate at the pyramidal decussation
false, about 15% do not cross; they form the ventral corticospinal tract. The axons that do cross become the lateral corticospinal tract
t/f... the inferior olivary nucleus projects strongly to the cerebellum
true, this occurs through the contralateral inferior cerebellar peduncle
what is tetraplegia?
impairment of motor and sensory function involving the upper limbs, trunk and lower limbs due to damage to the cervical spinal cord
what is paraplegia?
impairment of trunk and/or lower limb muscle function as a result of damage to the thoracic cord, lumbar cord or nerve roots within the spinal canal
what is the definition of spinal level of injury?
the lowermost neurologically intact segment with normal motor and sensory function
what is spinal shock?
a state of diminished excitability of the isolated spinal cord
why is a complete spinal cord lesion in the lower cervical region associated with diaphragmatic breathing?
paralysis of all intercostal muscles
t/f... the spinal level of injury corresponds to the adjacent vertebral body
false, the level of spinal cord injury refers to the lowest neurological intact segment with normal motor and sensory function
what is the commonest form of motor neuron disease?
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (80%)
which protein aggregation is associated with Alzheimer's disease?
beta amyloid
what is the blood supply for the sensory areas of the lower limb?
branches of the anterior cerebral artery
which artery supplies PICA?
vertebral artery
t/f... there is a small but significant decrease in grey matter volume in late adulthood of about 2ml/year
false, this is true for white matter
t/f... chromosome 14 mutations have been associated with a higher incidence of epilepsy
true
name the six masses of grey matter that comprise the basal ganglia
caudate
putamen
globus pallidus
subthalamus
substantia nigra
pedunculopontine nucleus
what separates the caudate and the putamen?
internal capsule
which part of the substantia nigra contains GABAergic cells?
SN pars reticulata
which dopamine receptors are inhibitory?
D2
which dopamine receptors are excitatory?
D1
what covers the superior aspect of the cerebellum?
tentorium cerebelli (dural reflection)
what is the blood supply tot he cerebellum?
PICA, AICA, SCA
what is the function of myelin?
enables saltatory conduction along axons
the cell membranes of which type of cell fuse to form myelin?
oligodendrocytes
what is the function of the lens?
transmits and focuses light on the retina
what are the changes to the lens during accommodation?
ciliary muscles tighten, allowing the pliable crystalline lens to become more rounded
what produces the aqueous humour?
the pars plicata of the ciliary body
t/f... the cornea is avascular
true
how many brainstem nuclei are associated with the trigeminal nerve?
3
which two brainstem nuclei receive projections directly from the trigeminal nerve?
chief sensory nucleus of V
spinal nucleus of V
where is the chief sensory nucleus of V located?
rostral pons, at entry point of trigeminal nerve
where does information in the chief sensory nucleus of V go?
to the thalamus via a contralaterally projecting tract called the ventral trigeminothalamic tract
where is the mesencephalic nucleus of V located?
floor of the IVth ventricle between pons and midbrain rostral to entry point of V nerve
where does the mesencephalic nucleus receive input from?
proprioceptors in TMJ and muscles of mastication
where does information from the mesencephalic nucleus go?
motor nucleus of V
ventro-posterior nucleus of thalamus
where is the spinal nucleus of V located?
along rostro-caudal extent of caudal pons and medulla
how does information from the spinal nucleus of V reach the vetroposterior nucleus of the thalamus?
via the contralaterally projecting ventral trigeminothalamic tract
which nucleus receives input from thick myelinated fibres from low threshold mechanoreceptors of the orofacial region?
chief sensory nucleus of V
t/f.... spinal nucleus of V receives input from lightly and unmyelinated fibres
true
what are the symptoms and signs of raised ICP?
diffuse headache - worse in morning and with straining/coughing
nausea/vomiting
sixth nerve palsy
papilloedema
coma
death
where is pain from supratentorial structures referred?
anterior 2/3 head
where is pain at the vertex and back of the head and neck referred from?
infratentorial structures
where do CNs VII, IX and X refer pain?
naso-orbital region, ear, throat
what is the mechanism of aura in migraine?
cortical spreading depression
what is pharmacokinetics?
what the body does to the drug
what is pharmacodynamics?
what the drug does to the body
what causes the pulsatile quality of a migraine headache?
dilation of cranial arteries
what is the first branch of the internal carotid artery?
posterior communicating artery
which artery supplies the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricle as well as the retro-lenticular limb of the internal capsule, the amygdala and hippocampal formation?
anterior choroidal artery (second branch of internal carotid artery)
what are the two major arterial branches of the ICA?
anterior and middle cerebral arteries
what does the anterior cerebral artery supply?
medial surface of frontal and parietal lobes of cortex (including pre- and post-central gyri representing lower limb)
what does the middle cerebral artery supply?
insular cortex and lateral cortical surface
what do the anterior and middle cerebral perforating arteries supply?
basal forebrain
hypothalamus
thalamus
internal capsule
basal ganglia
which artery gives rise to the posterior cerebral arteries?
basilar artery
what does the posterior cerebral artery supply?
midbrain
hypothalamus
thalamus
medial and inferior surfaces of occipital and temporal lobes
where do superior superficial veins drain?
superior or inferior sagittal sinuses
which veins empty into the cavernous and transverse sinuses?
inferior superficial veins
which vein empties into the straight sinus?
great cerebral vein of Galen
where in the neck does the brachial plexus lie?
posterior triangle
where is the middle cerebral artery located?
lateral sulcus
which sinus drains the inferior sagittal sinus?
straight sinus
where is the straight sinus located?
in the tentorium cerebelli
what is the blood supply to the optic chiasm?
ICA
what type of fibres are nociceptors associated with?
unmyelinated (C or group IV)
small myelinated (A-delta or group III)
what divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe
central sulcus
which brainstem nucleus is associated with taste?
rostral part of nucleus of the solitary tract
what is the major factor controlling breathing?
blood CO2 level
what happens in the respiratory centre to initiate inspiration?
increase in rate of firing of neurons
what is the main type of neurons in the dorsal respiratory group?
inspiratory neurons
what type of neurons are found in the ventral respiratory group?
inspiratory and expiratory neurons
which respiratory centre inhibits inspiratory neurons?
pneumotaxic centre
what do neurons in the apneustic centre do?
excite inspiratory neurons
what is the effect of the Hering-Breuer reflex?
limit inspiration, thus reducing the depth of breathing and increasing its rate
what is the commonest type of stroke?
infarction
what percentage of strokes are haemorrhagic?
20%
what are the common sites of atheroma in intracranial vessels?
origin of MCA
ends of basilar artery
what inhibits activated platelets from adhering to endothelial cells?
PGI2 and NO
what clears fibrin from the surface of endothelial cells?
tPA
why will contrast MRI detect brain tumours?
contrast agent gets through new capillaries lacking a BBB
what causes a lacunar infarct?
occlusion of a small penetrating artery
which artery is most commonly affected by embolic infarcts?
MCA
what is the commonest form of syncope?
vasovagal
t/f... dopamine crosses the BBB
false
t/f... L-dopa crosses the BBB
true
what are the three ways for bacteria to enter the CNS?
direct implantation
extension from a contiguous focus of infection
haemtogenous spread
t/f... the BBB is at the level of the capillary endothelium and contiunuous tight junctions
true
what is the role of the astrocyte foot processes in the BBB?
form, regulate and maintain BBB (but are not part of the BBB) and mediate immune responses
t/f... body temperature variation is associated with the sleep wake cycle
false, but it is entrained to light dark cues and is due to the actions of the autonomic nervous system
when is body temperature highest?
3-6pm
during inactivity, where does heat flow?
from blood to muscle
during exercise, where does heat move?
from muscle to blood
how is heat transferred from the core to the skin?
convection
what percentage of heat loss at rest in a neutral environment is by radiation?
60%
what is acute bacterial meningitis associated with in the CSF?
numerous neutrophils
low glucose
high protein
which type of meningitis is associated with acute inflammatory exudate in the subarachnoid space?
acute bacterial meningitis
what will the CSF contain in acute viral meningitis?
lymphocytes
normal glucose
protein may be raised
which organisms are associated with chronic meningitis?
tuberculosis
cryptococcus
what type of organism usually causes encephalitis?
virus
what are the microscopic features of encephalitis?
perivascular lymphocytes
neuronophagia
glial nodules
viral inclusion bodies
where does the varicella-zoster virus reside after chicken pox?
dorsal root ganglion
what are the four layers of an abscess?
pus
macrophages
granulation tissue
astrocytes
t/f... beta lactams cross the BBB easily
false
which antibiotics used to treat meningitis can achieve therapeutic levels in CSF with high IV doses?
beta lactams (penicillin, 3rd gen cephalosporins, carbapenems)
vancomycin
where are corticosteroids given in treatment of meningitis?
prior to or at the same time as antibiotics
name the four rigid septa formed by the dura
falx cerebri
falx cerebelli
tentorium cerebelli
diaphragma selli
what makes up the leptomeninges?
pia and arachnoid
which type of cell nourishes neurons?
astrocytes
which type of neural cell has phagocytic activity?
microglia
what do Meissner receptors detect?
touch, pressure
which receptors are associated with touch and pressure?
Meissner
Merkel
which receptor detects deep pressure and vibration?
Pacinian
what do Ruffini receptors transmit information about?
stretch
what type of fibres transmit information about pain?
C (IV)
Adelta (III)
what type of information is carried by type II (Abeta) fibres?
tactile
what type of fibres are associated with proprioception?
Ia
Ib
II (Abeta)
what type of receptors are associated with proprioception?
muscle spindles
joint receptors
golgi tendon organs
what are the two sub-tracts of the spinothalamic tract?
neospinothalamic
paleospinothalamic
what type of fibre is associated with the neospinothalamic tract?
type III
what fibre is associated with the paleospinothalamic tract?
type IV
where does the information in the neospinothalamic tract eventually end up?
somatosensory cortex
where does the paleospinothalamic tract end?
cingulate and insular cortices
where do the dorsal column tract fibres decussate?
rostral medulla
in which tract does dorsal column tract information travel after the sensory decussation?
medial lemniscus
which tract is associated with unconscious proprioception?
spinocerebellar tract
which tract carries information about conscious proprioception?
dorsal column tract
which fibres are associated with proprioception?
Ia
Ib
II
which motor tract is located most anteriorly in the ventral funiculus?
vestibulospinal tract
what spinal roots does the biceps reflex test?
C5, C6`
which myotome is tested by the brachioradialis reflex?
C6
which myotome is tested by the triceps reflex?
C7
which reflex tests the L4 root?
patellar
which reflex tests the S1 root?
achilles
t/f... neuromuscular spindles lie parallel to muscle fibres
true
t/f... the stretch reflex involves an interneuron
false
t/f... the flexor reflex involves an excitatory interneuron
true
which reflex stops contraction?
golgi tendon organ reflex
which reflexes contribute to muscle tone?
stretch reflex
gamma reflex loop
what are the effects of spinal shock on the cardiovascular system?
loss of sympathetics - bradycardia, hypotension, vasodilation (blood pooling)
what are the urogenital consequences of spinal shock?
loss of parasympathetics - no urination
injury above what level may lead to autonomic dysreflexia?
T5-6
what are the features of a lower motor neuron lesion?
flaccid paralysis
areflexia
fasciculations
atrophy
loss of bladder function
what are the features of an upper motor neuron lesion?
paralysis (loss of skilled movement)
spasticity
hyperreflexia
no control of bladder
what effect does an increase in parasympathetic activity have on the detrusor muscle?
contraction
how does an increase in parasympathetic activity affect the internal sphincter?
relaxation
what type of autonomic activity results in relaxation of the detrusor muscle and contraction of internal sphincter?
sympathetic
when does the rostral neural tube close?
24 - 26 days
when does the caudal neural tube close?
26-28 days
what is the result of failure of rostral neural tube to close?
anencephaly
what is the result of failure of caudal neural tube to close?
spina bifida
what structures are derived from the telencephalon?
cerebral cortex
amygdala
hippocampus
striatum
olfactory bulb
what structures are derived from the diencephalon?
thalamus
hypothalamus
epithalamus
subthalamus
retina
what structure is associated with the mesencephalon?
midbrain
which vesicle of the neural tube is associated with the pons and cerebellum?
metencephalon
what is the medulla derived from embryologically?
myelencephalon
what are the 3 vesicles of the neural tube in its 3 vesicle stage?
prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon
what is the dorsolateral signal involved in regionalisation of neural tube?
bone morphogenic protein
what is the ventral signal involved in regionalisation of the neural tube?
sonic hedgehog
are the oldest neurons located superficially or deep?
superficially
where is CSF found?
ventricles
subarachnoid space
what is the volume of CSF?
120-150ml
how does CSF from the lateral ventricles drain into the 3rd ventricle?
foramen of munro
how do the 3rd and 4th ventricles communicate?
aqueduct of sylvius
how does CSF in the 4th ventricle drain into the subarachnoid space?
foramina of Luschka (lateral) and Magendie (midline)
what are the two layers of dura?
periosteal layer
meningeal layer
what is the production rate of CSF?
21ml/hour or 500ml/day
what are the two sources of CSF production?
choroid plexus
ependyma
what percentage of CSF production is choroidal?
80%
where are the majority of choroidal fissures?
lateral ventricle (floor of body, temporal horns)
t/f... the type (fast or slow) of neurotransmission is determined by the neurotransmitter
false, it is determined by the postsynaptic receptor
which of CSF and serum contains less protein?
CSF
which of CSF and serum have fewer chloride ions?
serum
where does CSF absorption mainly occur?
arachnoid villi (venous sinuses)
which transverse sinus is usually dominant?
right
t/f... CSF absorption is pressure dependent
true
t/f... CSF production is pressure independent
true
what is the normal CSF pressure?
7-15 cmCSF (5-12 mmHg)
what type of receptor will result in fast neurotransmission?
ionotropic receptors
which type of receptor is associated with slow neurotransmission?
G-protein coupled receptors
at what level is a lumbar puncture performed?
between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae
what is hydrocephalus?
increased CSF volume
what are the causes of congenital hydrocephalus?
aqueduct stenosis
communicating
myelomeningoceles
what are the causes of acquired hydrocephalus in newborns?
intraventricular haemorrhage of prematurity
meningitis
what are the causes of hydrocephalus in adults?
meningitis
haemorrhage
tumour (blocking outflow of CSF)
surgery
aqueduct stenosis (LOVA)
idiopathic
what are the cardinal signs of acute hydrocephalus?
headache, nausea and vomiting followed by lethargy, drowsiness, stupor and coma
what are the signs of acute hydrocephalus?
papilloedema
diplopia
setting sun sign
false localising signs - 6th nerve palsy
decreased level of consciousness
which malformation is associated with myelomeningocele?
Chiari II
how does phenytoin work?
limits the firing frequency of neurons
how do barbiturates work in epilepsy?
inhibit excitatory transmitter release
activating GABA receptors
enhancing GABA action
how do benzos work in epilepsy?
enhance GABA action
how does carbamazepine work?
lits firing frequency of neurons
enhances GABA action
activates adenosine receptors
how does sodium valproate work?
inhibits GABA metabolism
how does vigabatrin work?
inhibits GABA metabolism
how does tiagabine work?
inhibits GABA uptake
how does lamotrigine work?
inhibits glutamate release via effects on sodium channels
what percentage of people with epilepsy do not have an identifiable cause?
60-70%
what develops into the neural plate?
ectoderm
when does the neural groove develop?
20 days
when does the neural groove close to form the neural tube?
by 22 days
what percentage of the neurons formed in embryonic and foetal development do not survive?
between 40 and 75%
which two neurotransmitter systems of the brainstem reticular formation are associated with ANS control?
acetylcholine
noradrenaline
which tract might be affected if the patient has nystagmus?
medial longitudinal tract
what structures of the brainstem may be involved if a patient has dysphonia
nucleus ambiguous
corticobulbar tract
what is the usual cause of vertigo, vomiting and nausea in brainstem lesions?
vestibular nuclei
(or area prostrema)
what is the cardinal sign of a brainstem lesion?
loss of pain & temp from contralateral body
loss of pain & temp from ipsilateral head
what is the sensory pattern of loss in a spinal cord lesion?
loss of pain and temp contralaterally
loss of tactile ipsilaterally
which cranial nerves are associated with the nucleus of solitary tract?
VII, IX, X
which cranial nerves are associated with nucleus ambiguous?
IX, X, XI
what are the features of an upper motor neurone lesion to the facial nerve?
contralateral lower facial muscle weakness
what is the feature of a lower motor neurone lesion to the facial nerve?
ipsilateral loss of upper and facial muscles
which muscles of the face receive a contralateral input only?
lower facial muscles
which facial muscles have bilateral innervation?
upper facial muscles
what are the three most common causes of bacterial meningitis?
H. influenzae
S. pneumonia
N. meningitidis
what are the common pathogens in neonatal meningitis?
E.coli
listeria
group b strep
what are the common pathogens in childhood meningitis?
Hib
S. pneumonia
N. meningitidis
what are the common pathogens in adult maningitis?
N. meningitidis
s. pneumonia
spinal cord injury above which level will result in substantial loss of sympathetic vascular tone with resultant hypotension?
T6
what is the Brown-Sequard syndrome?
hemi-section of spinal cord resulting in motor paralysis and loss of deep touch, vibration and proprioception on the same side as the damage and loss of pain, temp and light touch on the opposite side
which reflexes are often the first to return after spinal shock in an upper motor neurone lesion?
anal and bulbo-cavernosus reflexes
what anchors the spinal cord to the sacrum and coccyx below?
filum terminale (fibrous band of pia mater)
where are somatic motoneurons located in the spinal cord?
Rexed lamina IX
which reflex pathway includes one synapse only?
stretch reflex pathway
what maintains urinary continence?
contraction of trigone, internal and external sphincters
what contracts to expel bladder contents during micturition?
detrusor muscle
what causes relaxation of the detrusor muscle?
activation of symp nerves
what innervates the external urethral sphincter?
somatomotor nerve fibres within the pudendal nerve (originate in sacral spinal cord)
what are the three levels of CNS control of bladder function?
lumbar/sacral spinal cord
micturition centre in pons
suprapontine centres
which muscles contribute to conscious effort to maintain continence?
striated muscles of perineum and pelvic floor
destruction of which elements of neurones leads to death of the neurone?
soma
axon
what are the two types of neurones?
projections (make the message)
interneurones (modify the message)
what are the three types of glial cells?
astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
microglia/macrophages
what is the function of astrocytes?
nourishment of neurones
synapse cleaner
relationship with blood vessels - plug leaks
what do oligodendrocytes do?
make myelin
anti-regeneration
what is the role of microglia?
phagocytosis
anti-inflamm/immune response
"brain policeman"
what fibres are associated with tactile receptors?
Abeta (type II) fibres
which fibres are associated with proprioceptors?
Ia, Ib, Abeta (II)
which fibres are associated with pain and temperature?
Adelta (III), C (IV)
where are the cell bodies of the spinothalamic tract located?
dorsal horn
what is the course of the neospinothalamic tract?
dorsal horn->ventral posterior nucleus of thalamus->S1
what is the course of the paleospinothalamic tract?
dorsal horn->BRF->MD?IL of thalamus->insula/cing cx
where does the spinothalamic tract cross the midline?
ventral white commissure
where are the cell bodies of the dorsal column tract?
DRG
where do dorsal column tract fibres cross the midline?
sensory decussation (rostral medulla)
after the gracile and cuneate nuclei, where do tactile fibres travel?
medial lemniscus->VP nucleus thalamus->S1
which tract transmits conscious proprioception?
dorsal column tract
which tract transmits unconscious proprioception?
spinocerebellar tract
which tracts control posture and autonomics?
vestibulospinal tract
reticulospinal tract
where are the cell bodies of rubrospinal tract?
red nucleus
where are the cell bodies of corticospinal tract?
motor cortex, parietal cortex, frontal-cingulate cortex
where does the corticospinal tract cross the midline?
motor decussation (caudal medulla)
what are the cardiovascular effects of spinal shock?
decreased HR
decreased BP
vasodilation - blood poolin
(decreased symp)
when will the bladder and heart be involved in spinal shock?
bladder - injury above S2-4
heart - injury above T5-6
what is an intracerebral haematoma?
mass of blood greater than 2cm, not in contact with surface of the brain
what percentage of people with intracerebral haematomas have a lucid period?
20%
which injury is a haematoma due to rupture of dural bridging vessels?
subdural haematoma
what type of forces can cause diffuse axonal injury?
acceleration/deceleration
rotational
what is seen microscopically in diffuse axonal injury?
axon swelling
how does brain/SC swelling occur after injury?
vasogenic oedema
cytotoxic oedema
increased blood volume
what is anencephaly?
failure of closure of anterior neuropore
what forms from the telencephalon?
cerebral hemispheres
what forms from the diencephalon?
thalamus
hypothalamus
epithalamus
what forms from the mesencephalon?
midbrain
what forms from the metencephalon?
pons and cerebellum
what forms from the myelencephalon?
medulla
what percentage of spina bifida cystica are myelomeningoceles
over 90%
what is primary neurulation and when does it occur?
elevation, folding and fusion of neural folds (completes early brain and spinal cord down to second sacral spinal level)
day19-26
what is the normal total volume of CSF?
130ml
what is the communication between the lateral ventricles and the IV vent?
interventricular foramen
how does CSF travel between III and IV vents?
cerebral aqueduct
how does the IV vent communicate with subarachnoid space?
median aperture of Magendie
lateral apertures of Luschka
what is the extra-choroidal production of CSF?
capillaries of CNS (20% CSF production)
t/f... CSF absorption is a passive process via pinocytosis
true
t/f... the rate of CSF absorption is independent of pressure
false, absorption is pressure dependent
which drugs reduce the neuronal release of glutamate?
phenobarbitone
carbamazepine
which drugs enhance the activation of GABA-A receptors by GABA?
diazepam
barbiturates
which drugs work by inhibiting metabolism of GABA?
sodium valproate
vigabatrin
which antiepileptic drugs are frequently monitored?
phenytoin
carbamazepine
sodium valproate
what do the neural crest cells eventuallly form?
peripheral nervous system - DRG, autonomic ganglia, adrenal chromaffin, melanocytes
what substances can cross the BBB?
low MW substances
lipid soluble substances
what is pseudotumor cerebri?
increased ICP in the absence of a mass lesion or hydrocephalus
who suffers from pseudotumor cerebri?
young overweight females
what percentage of people will have a seizure at least once?
5%