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86 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What kind of drug is atipemazole?
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alpha 2 adrenergic antagonist
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Which drug was atipemazole designed to reverse the effects of?
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Medetomidine
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What is the MOA of atipemazole?
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Antagonism of the presynaptic alpha-2-adrenergic receptors block the negative feedback loop on the regulation of the norepinephrine release from the presynaptic nerve endings of the sympathetic nervous system
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Which effects are inhibited by alpha-2-adrenergic antagonists?
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Sedation, anxiolysis, analgesia, and the central and peripheral cardiovascular changes
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What can be an adverse effect of alpha-2-adrenergic antagonists?
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Cardiovascular collapse due to rapid relaxation of vessel tone coupled with bradycardia in IV administration
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What's another name for atipamezole?
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Antisedan
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What is the mechanistic class of medetomidine?
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Alpha-2-adrenorecetor agonist
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What is the functional class of medetomidine?
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Sedative
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What effects does medetomidine have?
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Sedation, muscle-relaxant, and analgesic properties
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What is medetomidine's MOA?
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Decrease in norepinephrine release and thereby inhibition of impulse transmission
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What is another name for medetomidine?
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Domitor
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What is the functional class of phenylbutazone?
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NSAID
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What is the mechanistic class of phenylbutazone?
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Enolic acid
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What is the active form of phenylbutazone? And how is it transformed?
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Oxyphenbutazone - metabolized in the liver to this active form
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What is the drug name for Etodolac?
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Etogesic
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What is the functional class of Etodolac?
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NSAID
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Etodolac may not be safe in which dogs?
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Dogs under 12 months of age or in breeding, pregnant, or lactating dogs
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What is Etodolac's MOA?
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Inhibits cyclooxygenase, thereby reducing prostaglandin and thromboxane synthesis from arachidonic acid; more selective for COX-2 than COX-1
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What are some other names for Wobbler's syndrome?
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Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy, cervical vertebral malformation, and cervicospinal arthropathy
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Which horses most commonly have Cervical Vertebral Instability?
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Thoroughbreds and Quarter Horses
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Which dogs most commonly have Wobblers syndrome?
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Great Danes and Doberman Pinschers
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Which region of the cervical vertebrae are usually affected in dogs with cervical vertebral myelopathy?
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C-6 to C-7
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80% of bone (including the outer layer of bone) is what kind of bone?
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Dense cortical (compact) bone
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The other 20% of bone is what kind?
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Trabecular (cancellous or medullary) bone
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What type of collagen is most osteoid bone mass made of?
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Type I
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What is osteocalcin? How is it induced? And what does it do?
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A protein made by osteoblasts at sites of new bone formation. Its synthesis is induced by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D. It bindst to Ca++ & hydroxyapatite.
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What is osteonectin? What does it do?
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A protein made by osteoblasts. Binds to hydroxyapatite and collagen.
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What is RANK ligand? What does it do?
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Produced by osteoblasts. Promotes differentiation of pre-osteoclasts and osteoclasts. Binds to a membrane-bound receptor on the osteoclast called RANK.
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What does osteoprotegrin do?
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Bind to RANK ligand to protect bone from osteoclastic activity
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What regulates the synthesis and secretion of PTH?
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Plasma calcium
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Which cells synthesize and secrete PTH?
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Chief cells from the parathyroid glands
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Increase in plasma phosphorus [increases/decreases] PTH release
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Increases
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How does PTH affect Vitamin D?
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Vitamin D decreases PTH transcription
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Which fragment of PTH is the active portion?
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N-terminal fragment
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How does high plasma calcium affect PTH?
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It inhibits synthesis of PTH
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How does calcium inhibit PTH secretion?
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Ca++ binds to CaSR, activates G protein, activates phospholipase C, IP3, and DAG, causing the release of Ca from internal stores and the activation of protein kinase C, which inhibits PTH secretion
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What does PTH promote in the kidney?
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Ca++ reabsorption, phosphate loss, and 1-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxyvitamin D
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Where are the PTH receptors located in the kidney?
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Renal proximal tubule
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What is created when PTH stimulates the 1-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxyvitamin D?
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Active form of Vitamin D
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Which cells have more receptors for PTH: osteoblasts or osteoclasts?
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Osteoblasts
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What does intermittent PTH do?
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Produces bone synthesis
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What is the direct mechanism of intermittent PTH?
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Directly activates Ca++ channels in osteocytes, leading to transfer of Ca++ from bone fluid to osteocyte, which can transfer the Ca++ to osteoblasts at bone surface. Then osteoblasts pump Ca++ into matrix.
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Which Vitamin D is received in the skin if enough UV light is absorbed or obtained from fish, eggs, and milk?
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Vitamin D 3
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Which Vitamin D can only come from diet, mostly vegetables?
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Vitamin D 2
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Which molecules carry Vitamin D?
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Chylomicrons and D-binding protein (DBP)
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Which Vitamin D forms can make the active form?
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D2 or D3
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Which cytochrome in the liver does 25-hydroxylation of Vitamin D?
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Cytochrome P450 oxidase
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Why is Vitamin D considered a hormone?
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Because it is endogenously synthesized
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Where does transcellular absorption of calcium occur?
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Duodenum
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How does transcellular absorption of ca++ occur in duodenum?
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Ca++ enters cell across apical membrane thru Ca++ channels. Ca++ binds to calbindin. Enterocyte extrudes Ca++ across basolateral membrane via Ca++ pump & Na-Ca++ exchanger.
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Which cells make calcitonin?
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C cells of the thyroid gland (parafollicular cells) or in the ultimobrachial gland
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What triggers the release of calcitonin?
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Extracellular Ca++ levels higher than normal
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What is the most bioactive form of Vitamin D?
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1,25(OH)2D3
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What are the 3 sites of Vitamin D metabolism?
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Skin, liver, kidney
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Where does chylomicron carry Vitamin D to?
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From lymph system to the circulatory system and then to the liver
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Is there more calcium intracellularly or extracellularly?
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Extracellularly
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What are the functions of calcium in the extracellular space?
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Formtion of skeletal tissues, transmission of nervous tissue impulses, excitation of skeletal & cardiac muscle contraction, blood clotting, & a major component of milk
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What are the functions of calcium in the intracellular space?
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Enzyme functions & reactions and second messenger systems
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How is extracellular calcium lost?
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Through bone formation, digestive secretions, sweat, urine, and through milk production & egg shell formation
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How can extracellular calcium concentrations be increased?
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Through bone resorption, renal resorption, and dietary absorption
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Which species absorb calcium in their gut independently of vitamin D?
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Horses, rabbits, and perhaps wild hind-gut fermenters
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What is cauda equina syndrome?
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Compression of nerve roots in lower part of spine
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What kind of dogs most commonly have cauda equina syndrome?
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Large breed, older dogs
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What are the clinical signs of cauda equine syndrome?
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Lower back pain, difficulty rising, hind limb lameness, poor tail carriage, nerve impairment depends on severity of compression
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Which nerves can be affected in cauda equina syndrome?
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Cranial gluteal nerve, caudal gluteal nerve, sciatic nerve, pelvic nerve
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What is degenerative myelopathy?
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Slow progressive, non-inflammatory degeneration of the axons and myelin in white matter of spinal cord
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What is the cause of degenerative myelopathy?
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Cause unknown but genetic factors are suspected
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Where is the most severe lesion present in degenerative myelopathy?
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Thoracic region
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What type of dogs are most usually affected by degenerative myelopathy?
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Usually older than 5 years old; most common in German Shepherds and Welsh Corgis
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What are the clinical signs of degenerative myelopathy?
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Nonpainful ataxia, weakness of pelvic limbs, proprioceptive deficits
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How is degenerative myelopathy treated?
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Exercise, physical therapy, and cold laser therapy
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What is the most common cause of lumbosacral pain in dogs?
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Degenerative lumbosacral stenosis
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What is degenerative lumbosacral stenosis?
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Degenerative multifactorial disorder in which intervertebral disc degeneration plays major role
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What type of dogs are most commly affected by degenerative lumbosacral stenosis?
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Large breed dogs, average age of 7 years old, males, German Shepherds
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What can IVD degeneration and soft-tissue proliferations contribute to?
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Spinal stenosis and caudal equina compression leading to pain, lameness, and neurologic signs
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Where is the spinal cord derived from? What about the vertebral column?
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Spinal cord is from ectoderm and vertebral column from mesoderm
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Where does the cauda equina originate from?
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Conus medullaris
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Where is the cauda equine located? (vertebra #s)
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L6 - Cd5
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What are the clinical signs to degenerative lumbosacral stenosis?
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Lumbosacral pain, pelvic limb lameness, hyperesthesia, difficulty rising/sitting, low carriage of tail
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Why are severe neuro deficits rare with cauda equina compression?
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B/c cauda equina is resistant to compressive forces, unlike the spinal cord
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What is fibrocartilaginous embolism?
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Ischemic necrosis of a segment of spinal cord (ischemic myelopathy) caused by herniation of intervertebral disk material into the spinal cord microvasculature
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What are some other names for fibrocartilaginous embolism?
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Spinal cord ischemia, embolic myelopathy, fibrocartilaginous infarct
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How do fibrocartilaginous embolisms occur?
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Emboli travels to spinal cord through blood vessels. To induce clinical signs, a large # of small neighboring vessels must be simultaneously occluded.
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What is the common signalment of dogs who get fibrocartilaginous embolisms?
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Mostly large, non-chondrodystrophic breeds (Great Danes, Labs, Shepherds), mostly young adults (3-7 yrs)
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What are the common clinical signs of fibrocartilaginous embolisms?
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Paresis, pain that may resolve with time
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What are the most common locations for fibrocartilaginous embolisms?
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Cervical (C6-T2) intumescence or lumbar (L4-S3) intumescence
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