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539 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the ventral boundary of the hypothalamus?
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optic chiasm, infundibulum
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What is the posterior border of the hypothalamus?
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mammillary bodies and midbrain
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What is the anterior border of the hypothalamus?
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lamina terminalis, preoptic area, septum
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What is the superior border of the hypothalamus?
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hypothalamic sulcus
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What is the lateral border of the hypothalmus?
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optic tract
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What are the 2 main fxs of the hypothalamus?
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integration, coordination
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What are the five types of information that the hypothalamus integrates?
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visceral, endocrine, homeostatic, cognitive-affective, sensory about environment
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What is the main blood supply to the hypothalamus?
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posterior cerebral artery
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How does the hypothalamus regulate the internal environment?
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ANS, endocrine state, motivational state
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How does the hypothalamus regulate the external environment?
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coordinates behavior that satisfies the motivational state
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Visceral afferents to the hypothalamus come from? What nucleus do they synapse in?
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CN 9, 10 ganglia (baroreceptors, gut, respiratory system); synapse in nucleus of solitary tract
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Endocrine information to the hypothalamus comes from?
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hormone levels in the blood, CSF
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Homeostatic information to the hypothalamus comes from?
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blood glucose, osmolarity, temperature, fat metabolism
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Cognitive information to the hypothalamus comes from?
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frontal, orbitofrontal, and anterior cingulate cortices, along with the basal forebrain limbic system
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Sensory information to the hypothalamus comes from?h
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hypothalamic reticular formation and retinal afferents
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Because of the tight packing of the hypothalamic nuclei, what can cause damage to them?
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closed head injuries, brain surgery, meningitis, encephalitis, strokes, subarachnoid hemorrhages, and neoplasms
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What does the preoptic nuclei control?
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behaviors necessary for the propagation of the species including a large repertoire of reproductive and maternal behaviors
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The development of the preoptic nuclei is under the control of?
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estrogen and testosterone during critical periods
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Regulation of LH/FSH gonadotropin release from the anterior pituitary is under control of which nuclei?
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preoptic nuclei
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What did the Simon-LeVay study show?
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interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus well developed in heterosexual men, but not in homosexual men
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Which nuclei is important for heat dissipation?
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preoptic nuclei
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What is the most anterior hypothalamic nuclei?
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preoptic nuclei
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What is the location of the paraventricular nuclei?
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bilaterally adjacent to dorsal third ventricle
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What is the afferent to the paraventricular nuclei?
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brainstem
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What are the 3 efferents from the paraventricular nuclei?
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brainstem/spinal cord, median eminence, posterior pituitary
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What are the 2 functions of the paraventricluar nuclei?
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secretes vasopressin, oxytocin, corticotropin releasing factor; autonomic regulation
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Lesions of the paraventricular nuclei lead to?
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diabetes insipidus with polyuria and polydipsia
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Closed head injuries, stroke, and neoplasms in the paraventricular nuclei result in?
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syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH (SIADH)
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What is the location of the supraoptic nuclei?
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bilaterally adjacent to optic chiasm and tracts
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What is the afferent to the supraoptic nuclei? The efferent?
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brainstem; posterior pituitary
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What are the 3 main functions of the supraoptic nuclei?
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produce oxytocin and vasopressin; osmosensitivity (water balance and volume regulation); lactation, milk ejection, orgasm, maternal behavior
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Lesion in the supraoptic nucleus can lead to? Injuries in this area can lead to?
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diabetes insipidus with polydipsia and polyuria; SIADH
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What is the location of the suprachiasmatic nuclei?
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bilaterally located on midline above optic chiasm
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Afferents to the suprachiasmatic nuclei? Efferents?
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retinal ganglion cells; output eventually reaches pineal gland via IML cell column and superior cervical ganglion
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What is the function of the suprachiasmatic nuclei?
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entrains circadian rhythms of sleeping, eating, melatonin synthesis
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What is the function of ADH?
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water retention by kidney
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What is the function of oxytocin?
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milk letdown and uterine contraction
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What happens in pts with SIADH?
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they conserve more water than they are supposed to
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What does the pineal gland produce?
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melatonin
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What is the function of the anterior hypothalamic area?
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cooling system for body temperature
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Stimulation of the anterior hypothalamic area causes?
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panting
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What is the location of the arcuate nuclei? Functions?
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base of the third ventricle; secretes dopamine, GnRH, GHRH, at the median eminence
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What is the location of the ventromedial nuclei?
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posterior on either side of the fourth ventricle
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Bilateral lesions of the ventromedial nuclei lead to?
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overeating and obesity; rage and aggressiveness
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What is the location of the lateral hypothalamic area? Functions?
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diffuse area bounded by internal capsule and fornix; regulation of sympathetic neurons in spinal and cord, and feeding
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What would you lesion bilaterally to abolish feeding behavior?
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lateral hypothalamic area
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What is the location of the posterior nuclei? Functions?
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posterior and dorsal to mammillary bodies; heating system of the body
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Stimulation of the posterior nuclei causes?
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vasoconstriction, shivering, and increase in body temperature
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What is the location of the mammillary nuclei?
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most posterior and ventral in hypothalamus
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What are the afferents to the mammillary nuclei? Efferents?
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hippocampus; anterior thalamic nucleus and midbrain tegmentum
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What is the function of the mammillary nuclei? Susceptible to effects of?
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memory consolidation; alcoholism or stroke
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Necrosis of the mammillary nuclei is noted in what?
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Korsakoff's psychosis
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One of the well known hypothalamic afferents is the hippocampal-hypothalamic fiber. What does it connect?
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hippocampus to mammillary bodies
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Another well known hypothalamic afferent is the amygdalohypothalamic fiber. What does it connect?
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from the amygdala to anterior nuclear area, preoptic, ventromedial, and arcuate nuclei
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What is the third well known hypothalamic fiber?
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retinohypothalamic fiber
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What is one of the well known hypothalamic efferents?
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mammillothalamic tract
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What are the two hypothalamic efferents that influence the pituitary gland?
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tuberohypophysial tract and hypothalamoneurohypophyseal tract
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What is the hypothalamic efferent that regulates autonomic activity?
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from lateralposterior and anteromedial hypothalamus to brainstem nuclei and the spinal cord IML cell column at all levels to terminate on ipsilateral preganglionic parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons
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Are lateral and posterior hypothalamus SNS or PNS?
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SNS
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Are anterior and medial hypothalamus SNS or PNS?
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PNS
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What 7 things are seen with SNS activation?
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dilated pupils
piloerection vasoconstriction increased HR increased respiration decreased gut/bladder motility rage rx-fight or flight |
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What 2 things are seen with PNS activation?
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decreased HR
increased gut motility |
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Injury of cervical SNS or descending hypothalamospinal fibers causes?
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ipsilateral Horner's syndrome
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What 5 things are associated with Horner's syndrome?
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Miosis-paralyzed dilator muscle
Ptosis of eyelid-paralyzed levator palpebrae muscle Enopthalmos-paralyzed orbital muscle Anhydrosis-absence of sweating Vasodilation-increased temperature over face/neck |
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Where does the fornix begin? Where does it end?
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hippocampus; mammillary bodies
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What is the same as the forebrain?
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telencephalon
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The forebrain comes from the most ____ part of the neural tube, developing out of the ____?
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rostral; prosencephalon
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The mesencephalon gives rise to?
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midbrain
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The rhombencephalon or hindbrain gives rise to?
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pons, medulla
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The telencephalic vesicles, diencephalon, and optic vesicles make-up the?
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forebrain
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The two cerebral hemispheres make-up the?
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telencephalon
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The telencephalon folds over the ____ and fuses? What is formed in the space made by this fusion?
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diencephalon; lateral ventricles and the third ventricle
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How many layers compose the neocortex?
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6
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What feature of our cortex makes us human?
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the fact that we have 6 neocortical layers
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The size of our dendritic arbors relates to?
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cognitive ability
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In what layer of the cortex are the pyrimidal cells found?
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2/3
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In what layer of the cortex are the stellate cells found?
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4
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What layers of the cortex contain glutamatergic (excitatory) neurons?
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layers 2-6
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What cells in the cortex are the GABAergic (inhibitory) neurons? What layers of the cortex are they found in?
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non-stellate cells; layers 1-6
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There are ____ types of pyramidal cells that vary according to their ____?
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3; axons
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What are the three types of pyramidal cells?
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associational, commissural, projection
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The supra-granular layers contain which 2 types of pyramidal cells?
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associational and commissural
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The infra-granular layer contains which type of pyramidal cells?
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projection
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What are associational fibers?
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fibers that communicate with cells in the same cerebral hemisphere
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What are corticofugal fibers?
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projection fibers; their axons travel away from the cortex
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Does granular mean a well-developed layer 4?
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yes
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Which areas of the brain are granular?
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primary sensory regions, prefrontal cortex
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Which areas of the brain are agranular?
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primary motor and premotor regions
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Which part of the cortex needs to project long distances?
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motor cortex
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The olfactory apparatus develops from the?
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prosencephalon
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Fractures in the cribiform plate can cause?
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loss of sense of smell
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What sense diminishes with age?
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sense of smell
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Damage to the fornix causes?
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short term memory loss
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What is a function of the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus?
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memory
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What is the main input to the hippocampus? What is it responsible for?
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entorhinal cortex; pre-processing of input signals along with memory consolidation and mapping of spatial environment
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What is one of the first areas to be affected by Alzheimer's disease?
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entorhinal cortex; impaired sense of direction
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Lesions to the entorhinal cortex cause?
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deficits in short term memory, anterograde amnesia, and deficits in memory consolidation
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The ____ remembers where good and bad things happen and knows the location of self and things in space?
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hippocampus
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White matter tracts are derived from the?
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prosencephalon
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Association fibers stay within the?
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hemisphere
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The lateral ventricles are contained within the?
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telencephalon
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What are 2 examples of commissural fibers?
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corpus callosum, anterior commissure
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What three components of the basal ganglia come from the telencephalon?
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caudate, putamen, globus pallidus
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What are three important functions of the basal ganglia?
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initiating voluntary movement
suppressing involuntary movement maintaining proper muscle tone |
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What 2 nuclei degenerate with Alzheimer's disease?
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medial septal nucleus, basal nucleus of Meynert
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Why are the medial septal nucelus and basal nucleus of Meynert important?
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the resident magnocellular choline acetyltransferase containing cells supply the entirety of the diffuse cholinergic input to the cerebral cortex
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Drugs that increase acetylcholine might be able to help with?
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memory loss
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What neurons degenerate in Alzheimer's disease? Where does it start?
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cholinergic; starts in frontal and temporal lobes
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____ input from the VTA modulates the activity of neurons within the ____.
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dopaminergic; nucleus accumbens
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What is the reward center of the brain?
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nucleus accumbens and septal nuclei
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Almost every drug in abused by humans has been shown to increase ____ levels in the ____.
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dopamine; nucleus accumbens
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Depletion of dopamine doesn't reduce pleasure, but increases?
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cravings
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Cocaine acts on the?
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nucleus accumbens
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Meth acts on the?
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nucleus accumbens and the dopamine neurons of the VTA
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Heroin and nicotine act on the?
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dopamine neurons of the VTA
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What part of the brain is involved with the regulation of emotions induced by music?
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nucleus accumbens
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What structure in the brain is considered the basal forebrain?
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amygdala
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What is the function of the amygdala?
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responsible for keeping us aware of possible danger in the world and regulating appropriate responses to it
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What acts as the interface between the cortex, hypothalamus, and brain stem?
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amygdala
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Lesions in the amygdala don't interfere with the sense of?
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smell
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An intact ____ is needed for emotional responses.
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hypothalamus
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The part of the cortex that forms a rim around the corpus callosum is termed?
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the limbic lobe
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What is the Cannon-Bard theory?
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cortex generates ANS response that then causes an emotional response
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What is the James-Lange theory?
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stimulus received and then the ANS stimulated
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Lesioning the dorsal medial nucleus in the frontal lobe would cause?
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complacent, docile behavior
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What area of the brain remembers where good and bad things happen?
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hippocampus
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What are the 6 main limbic functions?
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processing of olfactory information
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Prefrontal, orbitofrontal, and anterior cingulate cortices oversee?
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when and where to release survival related behaviors - our needs for nutrition, hydration, reproduction, affiliation, fear, anger, and aggression
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Hypothalamus, septal nuclei, medial and basolateral amygdala initiate?
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neurons directly in charge of survival related behaviors and emotions - initiate sexual reproduction, affiliation, fight, flight, and foraging
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Hypothalamic and brain stem autonomic nuclei are associated with?
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neurons that directly initiate the optimal sympathetic and parasympathetic physiological environments associated with each activity
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Parahippocampal gyrus and uncus, amygdala, entorhinal cortex are the relay for?
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conscious and unconscious perception of olfactory stimuli
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Dorsomedial thalamus and orbitofrontal cortex are involved with?
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conscious perception of smell
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Amygdala, mesiotemporal cortex,and the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis are involved with?
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associational learning
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Hippocampus and mesiotemporal lobe involved with?
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contextual memory, short term memory, and memory consolidation
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What does the HOME component of the limbic system mean?
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Homeostasis
Olfaction Memory Emotions |
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Lesions in the orbitofrontal cortex reduce?
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aggression and emotional responsiveness
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Stimulation of the orbitofrontal cortex causes?
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increased plasma cortisol
increased EEG arousal |
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Cutting the dorsal medial thalamus's connection to the orbitofrontal lobe leads to?
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docileness and flat affect
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What are the 5 components of the Papez circut?
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hippocampus
mammillary bodies anterior thalamic nuclei cingulate gyrus hippocampus |
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What is an important connection for emotional expression?
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dorsomedial thalamus to the frontal lobe
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What part of the brain develops until the age of 25?
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prefrontal cortex
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What 3 main things is the prefrontal cortex involved with?
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executive control of emotional responses
weighs consequences of actions seat of personality and self reflection |
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People with obsessive-compulsive disorder have greater activity in?
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cingulate gyrus
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Stimulation of the cingulate gyrus causes?
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arrest reaction - inhibition of respiratory movements (ANS); enhanced attentiveness, stops other activities
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What is the pleasure center of the brain?
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septal area
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What part of the brain processes fear?
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amygdala
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What part of the brain integrates sensory cortical and sensory thalamus information and makes a decision about which emotion to have about an external stimulus?
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amygdala
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What is "stress?"
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what we feel when are fear system is activated
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What is perception?
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the form of the sensory information arriving to the amygdala which underlies the vulnerability to stress
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What part of the brain is shaped like an almond?
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amygdala
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What is the most common mental health problem in the U.S.?
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anxiety disorders
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Anxiety disorders have a high comorbidity with?
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depression and other "psychosomatic" illnesses
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Which nuclei of the amygdala are the most important for the fear circuitry?
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lateral, basolateral, and central nuclei
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Early developmental exposure to stress in humans can?
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alter brain development and later response to stress
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There are two pathways by which sensory input reaches the amygdala. What is the low road? What is the high road?
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Low road - through the sensory thalamus
High road - through the sensory cortex |
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Which road to the amygdala is the unconscious route?
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low road
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Undue, chronic activity in what path to the amygdala may underlie anxiety disorders?
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low road
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What are the main points about the low road?
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through sensory thalamus
short latency degraded information starts fear/stress autonomic responses |
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What are the main points about the high road?
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through the sensory cortex
long latency high resolution information may confirm or refute initial impression of the low road pathway |
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Sympathetic outputs of the amygdala are from the central nucleus to the?
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lateral hypothalamus
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Parasympathetic outputs of the amygdala are from the central nucleus to the?
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DMN of the vagus
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Freezing causes information from the central nucleus of the amygdala to travel to the?
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central grey
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The startle reflex causes information to travel from the central nucleus to the?
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reticularis caudalis (reticulospinal tracts)
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Information from the central nucleus of the thalamus to the PVN causes the release of?
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CRF and stress hormones
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What are the stress hormones?
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epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortisol
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The body's acute response to the stress hormones is?
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to optimize the body for the fight or flight response
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Are all major organs involved in the stress response?
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yes
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What causes cortisol release?
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anterior pituitary ACTH-induced release from adrenal cortex
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What 4 things does cortisol do?
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stimulation of gluconeogenesis in liver; mobilization of extrahepatic AAs; inhibition of glucose uptake in muscle and adipose tissue; stimulation of fat breakdown in adipose tissue
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What causes epi and norepi release? Where is it released from?
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sympathetic stimulation of release from adrenal medulla
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Epi and norepi cause what 7 things?
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increased rate and force of heart muscle contraction
constriction of blood vessels dilation of bronchioles stimulation of lipolysis increased metabolic rate dilation of pupils GI tract inhibition |
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Anatomical and functional changes in the ____ are associated with anxiety and other affective disorders. Some examples are?
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amygdala; bipolar disorder, depression, autism
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Face recognition is a specialty of the?
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amygdala
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What is Urbach-Wiethe Syndrome?
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genetically based lipid storage disease that destroys the amygdala; these people have difficulty judging emotions from facial expressions
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What part of the brain can exert a calming influence on the amygdala?
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prefrontal cortex
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What type of models have provided information about anxiety which is already used clinically?
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animal
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What type of signals does the prefrontal cortex send to the amygdala?
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sends "all clear" signals when the stimulus or situation is no longer a danger; termed extinction
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What are the types of treatment for anxiety disorders?
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cognitive behavior therapy and medications
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What types of meds can be used in treating anxiety disorders?
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serotonin, GABA, norepinephrine, glutamate
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What causes Kluver-Buch syndrome?
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bilateral ablation of the amygdala and other temporal lobe structures in animals and man - bilateral temporal lobectomy
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What was bilateral temporal lobectomy once used for?
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treatment/control of seizures
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What is a hallmark sign of Kluver-Buch syndrome?
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psychic blindness
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What is psychic blindness? Why do patients do this?
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compulsion to examine every object tactilely, orally, and visually; along with a compulsion to ingest non-food items; pt is trying to extract information about the stimulus because the amygdala is no longer there to do the job
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What are some other characteristics of Kluver-Buch syndrome?
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fearlessness, tameness, and hypersexuality
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With what area of the brain did Olds and Milner perfrom their famous experiment? What was the experiment?
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septal area; electrical self-stimulation by a rat
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What are the 5 primary functions of the limbic system?
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processing of olfactory information; control of drive-related behavior; control of emotional behavior; substrate for learning and memory; control of autonomic activity
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What tract gets things from the mammillary bodies to the thalamus?
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mammillothalamic tract
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What structure separates the thalamus from the hypothalamus?
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third ventricle
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What is the output of the hippocampus?
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fornix
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What structure in the brain is located in the medial temporal lobe?
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hippocampus
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What white fiber tract connects the R temporal lobe to the L temporal lobe?
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anterior commissure
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What is learning?
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acquisition of new information
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What is memory?
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retention or storage of the new information that is acquired
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What are the 2 types of memory?
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declarative and procedural
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Does the loss of one memory system impair the other one?
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no
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What are declarative memories?
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facts and events that can be recalled and declared; example would be your birthdate
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What structures must be intact to form declarative memories?
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limbic structures - medial temporal lobe and the medial diencephalon
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What pathway comprises the medial temporal lobe?
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hippocampus through the fornix to the hypothalamus
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What pathway comprises the medial diencephalon?
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mammillary bodies through the mammillothalamic tract to the thalamus; anterior nucleus
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What are procedural memories?
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motor skills, habits, and reflexes modified by experience; example would be how to land a plane
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Which memories aren't available to conscious awareness?
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procedural
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What brain structures must be intact for procedural memories?
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basal ganglia and cerebellum
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Memory ____ over time.
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changes
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What is immediate memory?
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the sensory register; seconds in duration
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What is the capacity of immediate memory?
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very large
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What must be done with immediate memories?
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must be converted into a more stable form or will be RAPIDLY lost with newer incoming sensations
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What is the length of short term memory? The capacity?
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seconds to minutes duration; very limited (7 +/- 2 pieces of information)
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What does short term memory require?
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requires constant attention; must be consolidated into long term memory or memories in short term will be lost as soon as attention shifts
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What is the duration of long term memory? The capacity?
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very long duration; vast capacity
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Long term memories are very resistant to?
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forgetting
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What process forms long term memories?
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consolidation
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Memories in the process of consolidation are vulnerable to?
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variety of insults; for example head trauma, seizures, electroconvulsive shock
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How would you test long term memory in a pt if they had suffered an insult?
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using a family member to verify the pt's recall or have the pt identify famous faces
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What are the types of amnesia?
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retrograde and anterograde
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The phenomenon of ____ is a normal process.
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forgetting
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The phenomenon of ____ is the pathological loss of memories.
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amnesia
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What is retrograde amnesia?
|
loss of accumulated long term memories due to damage to areas of the brain where long term memories have been stored
|
|
|
Where are memories stored in the brain?
|
in the cerebral cortex at the end of their processing pathway
|
|
|
What is anterograde amnesia?
|
inability to form new memories as a result of damage to areas of the brain involved with consolidation of memories
|
|
|
What pathway consolidates memories?
|
hippocampus>hypothalamus>
thalamus |
|
|
What areas of the brain consolidate memories?
|
medial temporal lobe and medial diencephalon
|
|
|
What part of the brain "talks to itself?"
|
cortex
|
|
|
The high level sensory/association cortices are thought to be the location of?
|
immediate and long term memory
|
|
|
Lesions in what area of the brain would result in the inability to identify or remember familiar faces?
|
inferior temporal cortex
|
|
|
If a pt has prosopagnosia, what can they recognize about an individual?
|
features of a face, shape, depth, movement; can also recognize the person by gait, voice, clothing, and movement
|
|
|
What lobe of the brain has neurons that can identify faces?
|
temporal lobe
|
|
|
The magnocellular pathway identifies?
|
motion
|
|
|
The parvocellular pathway identifies?
|
what it is
|
|
|
What is the "top-down" method for identifying something?
|
using the voice, scent, motion to identify
|
|
|
What is the "bottom-up" method for identifying something?
|
processing with the eyes and going from there
|
|
|
How does consolidation occur?
|
by strengthening synaptic connections between neurons in multiple neocortical areas
|
|
|
Consolidation of memory requires an intact set of?
|
limbic structures
|
|
|
Are limbic structures involved in the long term storage of memories or the consolidation of declarative memories?
|
only in the consolidation of declarative memories
|
|
|
What is the number one site for epileptic seizures?
|
temporal lobe
|
|
|
Bilateral lesions in what 2 main areas of the brain cause global, anterograde amnesia?
|
medial temporal lobe and medial diencephalon
|
|
|
What is the important brain structure in the medial temporal lobe?
|
hippocampus
|
|
|
What are the important brain structures in the medial diencephalon?
|
mammillary bodies and anterior nucleus of the thalamus
|
|
|
What are CA3 and CA1?
|
layers of cortex with pyramidal cells
|
|
|
Is CA1 or CA3 very sensitive to anoxia and ischemic insult?
|
CA1
|
|
|
What is the input to the hippocampus?
|
entorhinal cortex
|
|
|
What is the output of the hippocampus? What is the output tract?
|
mammillary bodies and hypothalamus; fornix
|
|
|
From the input starting at the entorhinal cortex, what four components come next?
|
dentate gyrus > CA3 > C1 >subiculum
|
|
|
The consolidation of memory is ____ and ____.
|
gradual and cumulative
|
|
|
How long does the process of consolidation take?
|
takes place over hours and days
|
|
|
In short, what is long term potentiation?
|
process of strengthening the synapses
|
|
|
The physiological basis of memory is thought to result from the ____ or ____ of synapses through an ____ dependent process.
|
strengthening; potentiation; activity
|
|
|
What synapses are strengthened during potentiation?
|
cortico-cortical association pathways (pyramidal cells)
|
|
|
What dislodges Mg++ from the channel so that Ca++ can enter the cell?
|
EPSP
|
|
|
What is released from the CA3 axon onto the CA1 pyramidal cell spine?
|
glutamate
|
|
|
With sufficient activity at the synapse, which receptor will depolarize the postsynaptic membrane?
|
non-NMDA
|
|
|
What happens when the postsynaptic membrane is depolarized?
|
EPSP
|
|
|
Does glutamate enter the postsynaptic cell?
|
no, it just binds to the channel and opens it so that Na+ can enter
|
|
|
What happens when Ca++ enters the cell?
|
it stimulates calcium dependent enzymes
|
|
|
What do the calcium stimulated enzymes do?
|
increase the sensitivity of the postsynaptic neuron to glutamate
|
|
|
Long lasting change in the sensitivity of the synapse is thought to occur by?
|
a signal sent to the nucleus that stimulates the production of proteins (glutamate receptors, cytoskeletal proteins, neurotrophic factors)
|
|
|
When you say that the pyramidal cells' spines grow, what does that mean?
|
the spine increases its surface area and therefore the availability of receptors
|
|
|
What happens to the release of glutamate during a seizure?
|
abnormal amounts are released which leads to excitotoxicity
|
|
|
What helps with memory retrieval?
|
stimulus feature reactivates one of the cortical areas where one of the aspects of memory is stored
|
|
|
What does it mean when you say that memory recall is variable?
|
attempts to recall a memory may not succeed in reactivating all areas of where the memory is stored
|
|
|
What does it mean when you say that memory recall is sometimes incorrect?
|
attempt to recall a memory may lead to activation of inappropriate areas of the cortex
|
|
|
Which is easier...recognition or recall?
|
recognition is easier than recall
|
|
|
What does recall require?
|
self-generated stimulus for the reactivation of the corical areas where the memory is stored
|
|
|
R visual cortex receives information from?
|
L visual fields
|
|
|
A lesion in the R visual cortex would result in?
|
contralateral hemianopsia
|
|
|
What Broadman's area is V1?
|
BA 17
|
|
|
What makes up 75% of the neocortical tissue?
|
association cortex
|
|
|
Our highest brain function is?
|
cognition
|
|
|
What are the 3 main association areas of the brain?
|
prefrontal, parietal, temporal
|
|
|
What neurons are located in the prefrontal cortex?
|
delay-specific neurons and mirror neurons
|
|
|
What is the function of delay-neurons and mirror neurons?
|
planning behavior, setting goals, recognizing behaviors
|
|
|
What neurons are located in the parietal lobe?
|
attention-specific neurons
|
|
|
What is the function of attention-specific neurons?
|
attending to complex stimuli
|
|
|
What neurons are found in the temporal lobe?
|
recognition-specific neurons
|
|
|
What is the function of recognition-specific neurons?
|
recognizing and identifying objects
|
|
|
What is the main function of the association cortices?
|
these regions are responsible for the information processing that goes on between sensory input and motor output
|
|
|
What layers of the cerebral cortex allow the cortex to talk to itself?
|
layers 2 and 3
|
|
|
What does the cerebral cortex talk through?
|
corpus callosum
|
|
|
What is the relay station of the brain?
|
thalamus
|
|
|
All information relayed through the thalamus travels to the? Which layer?
|
cortex; layer 4
|
|
|
What layer of the cortex is the output to the thalamus?
|
layer 6
|
|
|
What layer is precentral gyrus - motor?
|
layer 5
|
|
|
What is found in VA/VL?
|
motor; basal ganglia
|
|
|
What is VPL? Where are its cell bodies
|
contralateral body sensation; nucleus cuneatus and nucleus gracilis
|
|
|
What is VPM? What layer of the cortex does it send information to?
|
contralateral face sensation; layer 4
|
|
|
What is the tract for the hippocampus? The relay nuclei? The area of the cortex? Modality?
|
fornix; anterior nucleus; cingulate gyrus posterior; memory
|
|
|
What is the tract for the amygdala and olfactory cortex? Modality? Relay nuclei? Area of the cortex?
|
stria terminalis; emotions; medial dorsal nucleus; prefrontal cortex and cingulate cortex anterior
|
|
|
What is the relay station for your emotions?
|
medial dorsal nucleus
|
|
|
What is the ascending reticular activating system important for?
|
arousal
|
|
|
What activates the entire cortex?
|
activated brainstem reticular formation
|
|
|
What is the "gate-keeper" of the thalamus?
|
reticular nucleus in the thalamus
|
|
|
What is the reticular nucleus of the thalamus? What is the location?
|
thin sheet of neurons just lateral to the rest of the thalamus and medial to the internal capsule
|
|
|
What is the only nuclei in the thalamus that DOESN'T project to the thalamus? Where does it project to?
|
reticular nucleus; projects to itself
|
|
|
Where does the reticular nucleus of the thalamus get its input from?
|
cortex, thalamus, ascending reticular activating system, and forebrain
|
|
|
What kind of neurons are found in the reticular nucleus of the thalamus?
|
pure inhibitory GABAergic neurons
|
|
|
What is the cingulate gyrus associated with?
|
memory
|
|
|
What is the prefrontal cortex associated with?
|
emotion and cognition
|
|
|
What is cognition?
|
our ability to know our world by attending and planning responses to internal motivation and external demands
|
|
|
Which cortices are responsible for planning appropriate behavior responses?
|
frontal association cortices
|
|
|
Which cortices is responsible for attending to complex stimuli in the external and internal environment?
|
parietal association cortices
|
|
|
Which cortices are responsible for indentifying the stimuli?
|
temporal cortex
|
|
|
The path that travels from V1 to the parietal lobe determines?
|
motion; where the object is
|
|
|
The path that travels from V1 to the temporal lobe determines?
|
what the object is
|
|
|
Which cortex is dominant?
|
neither one; they work together - complementary specialization
|
|
|
What hemisphere is specialized for sequential and analytical processes?
|
categorical hemisphere; in most people it is the left
|
|
|
What hemisphere is specialized for visuospatial relations?
|
representational hemisphere; right
|
|
|
Whether you are R or L handed, your categorical hemisphere is?
|
most likely the left
|
|
|
Which hemisphere is for language?
|
left
|
|
|
What does the L hemisphere specialize in?
|
intellectual, rational, verbal, analytical thinking, and declarative memory; concerned with categorization and symbolization
|
|
|
Lesions in the L hemisphere cause?
|
language disorders
|
|
|
Are pts that have lesions in their L hemisphere aware of their disability?
|
yes, and are often depressed
|
|
|
What does the R hemisphere specialize in?
|
perceiving, and in emotional, nonverbal, and intuitive thinking, along with procedural memory
|
|
|
Which hemisphere is involved with recognition of objects by their form and the recognition of musical themes?
|
right
|
|
|
Lesions in the R hemisphere produce?
|
agnosias
|
|
|
What is agnosia?
|
inability to recognize objects by a particular sensory modality even though the sensory modality is intact
|
|
|
Where are the lesions normally found in the R hemisphere?
|
temporal and parietal lobes
|
|
|
What region is responsible for attention?
|
inferior parietal lobe
|
|
|
Are pts aware of their lesion if it is on the right?
|
no; pts are unaware and may even be euphoric
|
|
|
Are pts with lesions on the right able to recognize emotions in other individuals?
|
no
|
|
|
What are the main jobs of the prefrontal cortex?
|
cognitive behavior, motor planning, and maintenance of an individual's personality
|
|
|
What part of the brain weighs consequences of actions being considered?
|
prefrontal cortex
|
|
|
What part of the brain carries out motor tasks involving memory or in relation to sensory inputs?
|
prefrontal cortex
|
|
|
Where would a lesion be that would cause change in a pt's character?
|
prefrontal cortex
|
|
|
Lesions in the frontal lobe are diverse and devastating if?
|
they are bilateral
|
|
|
How does a pt with a frontal lobe lesion present sometimes?
|
boastful of physical prowness, little restraint in conversation, and unable to plan for the future
|
|
|
Where and on what side of the brain is Broca's area located?
|
inferior frontal gyrus; left hemisphere
|
|
|
What is Broca's aphasia?
|
difficulty in expressing thoughts either in written or in spoken languge
|
|
|
What are other names for Broca's aphasia?
|
nonfluent, expressive, or motor aphasia
|
|
|
What Broadman's areas are Broca's area?
|
44, 45
|
|
|
What is the blood supply to Broca's area?
|
superior MCA
|
|
|
What can also be seen in Broca's aphasia pts?
|
contralateral UE paralysis
|
|
|
What Broadman's area is Wernicke's area?
|
22
|
|
|
What is the blood supply to Wernicke's area?
|
inferior MCA
|
|
|
What is the function of the parietal-temporal association cortex?
|
higher sensory function and language
|
|
|
Lesions of the left parietal-temporal lobe produce?
|
aphasias
|
|
|
What is aphasia?
|
disorder of language
|
|
|
Where is the lesion that causes Wernicke's aphasia?
|
posterior part of the superior temporal lobe
|
|
|
Fluent aphasia is the same thing as?
|
Wernicke's aphasia
|
|
|
What is Wernicke's aphasia?
|
difficulty in comprehending speech and in reading
|
|
|
A lesion in the auditory cortex causes?
|
conduction aphasia
|
|
|
What is conduction aphasia?
|
patient has no trouble speaking or hearing, but has trouble putting words together or conjuring up words
|
|
|
Damage to the angular gyrus causes?
|
anomic aphasia
|
|
|
What is anomic aphasia?
|
inability to name objects
|
|
|
What is global aphasia?
|
loss of all language skills
|
|
|
Lesions of the left or right parietal-temporal lobes produce?
|
agnosia
|
|
|
What is agnosia?
|
"not knowing;" inability to recognize a complex sensory stimulus such as an object even though sensory pathways and perception of the object are intact
|
|
|
What is astereognosis?
|
inability to recognize the form of objects by touch alone
|
|
|
What is prosopagnosia? What causes it?
|
inability to recognize old faces or remember new faces; there are no visual pathway deficits; unilateral or bilateral temporal lobe damage
|
|
|
What causes Gerstmann's syndrome?
|
parietal lobe lesion
|
|
|
What are the 4 signs of Gerstmann's syndrome?
|
confusion between R and L sides, difficulty in saying which finger was touched, dysgraphia, dyscalculia
|
|
|
Lesions that aren't well localized cause?
|
apraxia
|
|
|
What is apraxia?
|
inability to perform an action in response to a verbal command in the absence of any deficit in comprehension, incoordination, or motor weakness
|
|
|
Lesions of the right parietal lobe produce?
|
inability to appreciate emotional aspects of a verbal message conveyed by tone, loudness, or timing; if inferior parietal lobe affected pt also can't express emotion in speech
|
|
|
Where is the lesion that causes Contralateral Neglect syndrome?
|
right parietal lobe
|
|
|
What is Contralateral Neglect syndrome?
|
tendency to neglect the opposite (usually left) side of the body
|
|
|
The left hemisphere attends to which half of the body?
|
only the right half
|
|
|
A lesion of the left parietal lobe is compensated by?
|
the right hemisphere
|
|
|
The right hemisphere attends to which side of the body?
|
the left and right side of the body
|
|
|
What happens to the body when the right hemisphere is damaged?
|
there is no control for the left side of the body and it is neglected
|
|
|
What is hemiasomatognosia?
|
neglect of one side of the body
|
|
|
How do you test for Contralateral Neglect syndrome?
|
ask pt to draw; drawing lacks left side of picture
|
|
|
What do you not see with Contralateral Neglect syndrome?
|
the environment or the body on the left side
|
|
|
What is on the X axis of an EEG?
|
time in seconds
|
|
|
What is on the Y axis of an EEG?
|
voltage
|
|
|
What is the #2 neurological disease?
|
epilepsy
|
|
|
What does an EEG measure?
|
detects current; extracellular field potentials; NOT APs
|
|
|
What does EEG stand for?
|
electroencephalogram
|
|
|
What does an EEG measure collectively?
|
electrical activity of the neurons in the cortex
|
|
|
What can cause the activity of the cortical neurons to change?
|
behavioral states and pathologies such as coma and epilepsy
|
|
|
The activity of the EEG reflects?
|
cortical neurons post-synaptic potentials
|
|
|
What state shows low amplitude and high frequency?
|
excited
|
|
|
What state shows high amplitude and low frequency?
|
relaxed
|
|
|
What state has lowest frequency and highest voltage?
|
stage 4 non-REM sleep
|
|
|
What term should be used in place of "deep sleep?"
|
stage 4 non-REM sleep
|
|
|
Lots of negative charges cause the spike on an EEG to?
|
go up
|
|
|
Lots of positive charges cause the spike on an EEG to?
|
go down
|
|
|
What does the thalamus do when you are sleeping?
|
sends rhythmic signals to the cortex
|
|
|
What cells are the principal source of EEG potentials? How are these cells orientated to the surface of the brain?
|
pyramidal cells; perpendicular
|
|
|
EEG is the result of?
|
extracellular current flow associated with the summated synaptic potentials in activated pyramidal cells
|
|
|
When cortical neurons fire synchronously, what happens to their biopotentials? Their amplitude? Their frequency?
|
biopotentials summate; large amplitude (high voltage); slow rate (low frequency)
|
|
|
When cortical neurons fire asynchronously, what happens to their biopotentials? Their amplitide? Their frequency?
|
biopotentials summate; small amplitude (low voltage); fast rate (high frequency)
|
|
|
How many cps with beta waves? When do they occur?
|
>13; active, awake, thinking, eyes open, REM sleep
|
|
|
How many cps with alpha waves? When do they occur?
|
8-13; relaxed, mental inactivity, eyes closed
|
|
|
What waves have the highest amplitude over the occipital, posterior region of the head?
|
alpha; you aren't seeing anything since your eyes are closed
|
|
|
What waves are uncommon? How many cps? When do they occur?
|
theta; 4-8; awake youth, small amount in awake adult, drowsiness, and non-REM sleep states
|
|
|
How many cps with delta waves? When do they occur?
|
<4; non-REM sleep states
|
|
|
EEG is a record of ____ plotted against ____.
|
voltage; time
|
|
|
Voltage of the EEG is what determines the?
|
amplitude
|
|
|
EEG voltage is attenuated by?
|
meninges, CSF, dura, bone, and scalp
|
|
|
How many electrodes are used in full standard placement?
|
21
|
|
|
Odd numbered electrodes are placed on what side of the head? Even numbered electrodes are placed on what side of the head?
|
left; right
|
|
|
Summation of synchronously firing neurons will generate the ____ frequency and ____ amplitude EEG waves. What waves are an example of this?
|
slowest; highest; delta
|
|
|
Summation of asynchronously firing neurons will generate
____ amplitude waves with ____ frequency. What waves are an example of this? |
low; high; beta
|
|
|
What waves are pronounced over the occipital cortex in awake, relaxed humans with their eyes closed?
|
alpha
|
|
|
What 2 things can rapidly change EEG patterns?
|
eye opening or mental calculations
|
|
|
Alerting the subject by making them open their eyes blocks what waves? What waves are produced after the subject opens their eyes?
|
alpha; beta
|
|
|
What is one method clinically used to enhance existing EEG abnormalities or induce abnormal EEG patterns?
|
hyperventilation; 20 breaths/minute (deep breathing for 2-4 minutes)
|
|
|
What does hyperventilation do to the the partial pressure of CO2 in the lungs, blood, and brain?
|
decreases
|
|
|
What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the brain normally?
|
40 torr (mmHg)
|
|
|
Hyperventilation causes respiratory acidosis or alkalosis?
|
alkalosis (decreased H+ conc.)
|
|
|
What will hyperventilation do in a normal subject?
|
will provoke the slowing of waves; seen in children
|
|
|
What will hyperventilation provoke in an abnormal subject?
|
generalized synchronous seizure discharge or petit mall seizure
|
|
|
What is another method used to clinically enhance EEG abnormalities or induce abnormal EEG patterns?
|
intermittent photic stimulation - flashing light of 1-30 cps
|
|
|
What is the physiologic response to intermittent photic stimulation? What will it cause?
|
photic driving of the occipital EEG; rhythmic EEG activity with the same frequency as flashing light
|
|
|
What is the response to intermittent photic stimulation in a patient with epilepsy?
|
photoconvulsive response occurs at 15cps
|
|
|
What are some less commonly used methods to clincally enhance EEG abnormalities or induce abnormal EEG patterns?
|
visual pattern stimulation
auditory stimulation somatosensory stimulation convulsants eye and limb movements hypoglycemia sleep deprivation |
|
|
What is seizure activity?
|
abnormal neuron discharge
|
|
|
What can seizure activity be due to?
|
trauma, low oxygen, tumors, infections, high body temperatures, toxic states, and unknown in 50% cases
|
|
|
What % of the population suffers from epilepsy?
|
0.5-1%
|
|
|
What form of seizure begins in a restricted brain region and remains local or spreads to adjacent cortex?
|
partial or focal epilepsy
|
|
|
Does pt remain conscious during a partial or focal epileptic seizure?
|
yes
|
|
|
For a partial or focal epileptic seizure, where are EEG spikes seen?
|
only in a FEW EEG channels
|
|
|
What is Jacksonian motor seizure an example of?
|
partial or focal epileptic seizure
|
|
|
What is the form of seizure that involves large parts of the brain right from the start of the seizure?
|
generalized or non-focal epilepsy
|
|
|
Is pt conscious during a generalized or non-focal epileptic seizure?
|
no
|
|
|
Where are EEG spikes seen in a pt with generalized or non-focal epilepsy?
|
activity is evident on all EEG channels at the same time
|
|
|
What are the 2 types of generalized or non-focal epileptic seizures?
|
absence (petit mal) and grand mal
|
|
|
If pt is having a absence seizure, do they fall?
|
no
|
|
|
If pt is having a grand mal seizure, do they fall?
|
yes
|
|
|
What seizure shows a 3Hz spike and wave pattern?
|
absence seizure
|
|
|
What occurs during a grand mal seizure?
|
pt falls; pt has alternating periods of tonic and clonic body movements
|
|
|
What is the post-ictal state?
|
state of pt after seizure; they won't remember anything about their seizure
|
|
|
What is tonic movement? What is firing?
|
periods of increased muscle tone; "AL"
|
|
|
What is clonic movement?
|
periods of jerky movements
|
|
|
Overly rapid elevation of plasma Na+ conc. may cause neurologic symptoms in a pt with chronic hyponatremia because?
|
they lose fluid too quickly and their brain cells shrink too rapidly
|
|
|
What occurs in the vegetative state?
|
cortex is dead; brainstem is okay; pt NOT in coma; pt NOT
"locked in" |
|
|
What is a classic example of the sleep-wake cycle? What are some other examples?
|
circadian biological rhythm; body temperature, endocrine secretion
|
|
|
Is the sleep-wake cycle dependent on the visual system or zeitgebers?
|
no
|
|
|
What are zeitgebers? What are some examples?
|
time cues; light/dark cycle of Earth, alarm clocks, meal times, etc
|
|
|
Without the normal zeitgebers the human sleep-wake will increase to?
|
26 hrs
|
|
|
The anterior commisure fibers go from?
|
temporal lobe to temporal lobe
|
|
|
The mammillary bodies connect to?
|
anterior nucleus of the thalamus
|
|
|
What 2 things does the paraventricular nucleus and the supraoptic nucleus secrete?
|
ADH and oxytocin
|
|
|
What nucleus may entrain the sleep/wake cycle to the external environment?
|
suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus
|
|
|
Which organs don't have a BBB? What is one of their functions?
|
subfornical organ; works as an osmoreceptor
|
|
|
Hypernatremia causes the subfornical organ to?
|
fire an AP which causes release of ADH
|
|
|
Hyponatremia causes the subfornical organ to?
|
not fire an AP and therefore no release of ADH
|
|
|
What is the pigment used to detect luminance?
|
melanopsin
|
|
|
What is melatonin synthesized from? When is it released? From where?
|
serotonin; in the dark; pineal gland into the blood
|
|
|
What is the pathway from the suprachiasmatic nucleus to the pineal gland?
|
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
IML T1-T2 of spinal cord Superior cervical ganglion Pineal gland |
|
|
When are our two major sleep gates?
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one during evening; one during mid-afternoon
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What are the 3 states of consciousness for the brain?
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wake, REM, non-REM
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What are the 3 ways to measure states of consciousness?
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EEG, EMG, EOG
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For wake state of consciousness, what do you see for EEG, EMG, and EOG?
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EEG-beta; EMG-high; EOG-some fast eye movements
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For the Non-REM state of consciousness, what do you see for EEG, EMG, and EOG?
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EEG-delta; EMG-low; EOG-fast eye movements are absent
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For the REM state of consciousness, what do you see for EEG, EMG, and EOG?
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EEG-beta; EMG-absent, "AL" paralyzed; EOG-fast eye movements are present
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What muscles aren't paralyzed during REM sleep?
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extraocular muscle (3,4,6) and diaphram
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The awake state is characterized by? What waves are associated with this state?
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a wide range of reactivity from terror through drowsy; beta
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Who identified REM sleep and when?
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Drs. Aserinsky and Kleitman; 1953
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What 3 things is REM sleep identification based on?
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low or absent muscle tone, bursts of rapid eye movement, and brain waves similar to beta waves
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What are 2 other names for REM sleep?
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paradoxical sleep or desynchronized sleep
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80% of people woken up during REM sleep report?
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vivid, active dreams
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What is paralyzed during REM sleep? What is activated?
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all muscles except for extraocular muscle and diaphram; brain
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Is afferent sensory input inhibited during REM?
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yes
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Phasic REM encompasses?
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abrupt changes in respiration, BP, and HR as well as whole body twitches and jerks in association with bursts of rapid eye movement
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How many REM sleep periods per night? How much of total sleep time per night?
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4 or 5; about 20%
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How long does each REM period last?
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about 20 minutes
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The first REM period of the night is ____? Each successive REM period?
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shortest; becomes longer than the previous one
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What causes you to go from wake directly into REM sleep?
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a pathological condition
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What is the rhythm during which REM and non-REM alternate with each other?
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ultradian (<24hr) rhythm of 90-100 minutes
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During early or late sleep do you see stage 4 non-REM?
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early
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High REM sleep state means more stage ____ and ____ non-REM sleep.
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2 and 3
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All pyramidal cells have same extracellular field potentials during what type of sleep?
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non-REM sleep
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Non-REM sleep goes by what 2 other names?
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slow wave sleep; synchronized sleep
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How many stages of non-REM sleep?
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4
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What happens during Stage 1 non-REM sleep?
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brief transition phase, drowsy state, low voltage with mixed frequencies
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What happens during Stage 2 non-REM sleep?
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signs of spindles and K complexes in the EEG
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What do spindles on an EEG mean?
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pt having longer non-REM period with less chance of wake period
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What happens during stage 3 non-REM sleep?
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20-50% of EEG has delta waves
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What happens during stage 4 non-REM sleep?
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50% of EEG has delta waves
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The early portion of nightly sleep is composed of?
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delta sleep stages 3 and 4 non-REM
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What stages are seen less in the latter part of the night?
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stage 3 and 4 non-REM
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Persons woken up in non-REM sleep report?
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mental activity but no vivid dream reports
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Slow rolling eye movements may be present in?
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any stage of non-REM sleep
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What happens to skeletal muscle and muscle tone during non-REM sleep?
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skeletal muscle are not paralyzed, but muscle tone is much less than in the awake state
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What stages of non-REM sleep are difficult to wake from? What do you see with adults and children?
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3 and 4; adults are not alert and children are very confused
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What is somnambulism?
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sleepwalking
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What is enuresis?
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bed-wetting
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What is pavor nocturnus?
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night terrors
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In children, during what sleep state are night terrors, sleepwalking, bed-wetting seen?
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non-REM sleep
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When do the parasomnias seen during non-REM sleep in children disappear?
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puberty
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The older you get, the ____ amount of time you sleep?
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less
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How many hrs a day do infants sleep? What % of time is spent in REM sleep?
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16; 50%
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How many hrs do adults sleep? What % of time is spent in REM sleep?
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8; 20%
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What stage of sleep falls slowly and disappears all together in old age?
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stage 4 non-REM
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What type of process is sleep? What intact structures does it require?
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active; brainstem and hypothalamus
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What was identified in the upper brainstem-diencephalic junction to be critical for the maintenance of consciousness?
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ascending reticular activating system
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Lesions in the ascending reticular activating system produce?
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coma
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What is the ascending reticular activating system (ARAS)?
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series of multiple interconnected systems regulated by the pontomesencephalic reticular formation system with wide spread projection systems to the entire nervous system
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What is the cortex "alert" system?
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intralaminar nucleus of the thalamus
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What neurotransmitter is high during wake and REM?
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Ach
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What neurotransmitter is low during non-REM?
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Ach
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During what state of consciousness is seratonin highest?
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wake
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During what state of consciousness is seratonin lowest?
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REM
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During what state of consciousness is norepinephrine highest?
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wake
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During what state of consciousness is norepinephrine lowest?
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REM
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What is the main function of sleep?
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really unknown, but most believe it is to maintain the CNS and PNS
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What is the classic sleep experiment?
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remove an item and see what happens
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What nucleus produces seratonin?
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raphe nucleus
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What nucleus produces Ach?
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nucleus basilis of Meynert
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What nucleus produces norepinephrine?
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locus ceruleus
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What where the physical symptoms of total sleep deprivation?
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progressive malfunction of the mind and nervous system
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What does total sleep deprivation cause?
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difficulty concentrating, irritable, decreased motor skill performance
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What does recovery sleep after total sleep deprivation show?
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rebound in non-REM stage 3 and 4 (this would come first instead of stage 1 and then 2 and so on)
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What happened to rats deprived of REM sleep?
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die after 30-40 days
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What does recovery sleep after REM sleep deprivation show?
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REM sleep rebound which makes up the previous REM sleep loss
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What does REM rebound sleep show?
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decrease in REM sleep latency and increase in REM sleep period duration
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What is narcolepsy a disorder of? What do pts have trouble doing?
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REM sleep; staying awake during the day
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What are sleep attacks?
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seen in narcoleptic pts and last for 5-30 minutes
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What do narcoleptic dogs lack?
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hypocretins-orexins, which are peptides in the hypothalamus that project to the reticular formation
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Narcoleptics have a very short?
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REM latency; you seen sleep onset REM in these pts where they go from wake directly into REM
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Do narcoleptic pts have disrupted night sleep?
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yes, but they sleep no longer than normal
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What is cataplexy, and who is subject to it?
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transient muscular paralysis immediately following sudden emotion; narcoleptic patients
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What happens during cataplexy? What can the episode develop into?
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pt is conscious but can't move; may develop into REM sleep wiht sleep onset hallucinations
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What is sleep paralysis, and who is subject to it?
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transient muscular paralysis while drifting into and out of sleep; pt is conscious but can't move; narcoleptic patients
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Are narcoleptic patients subject to hallucinations?
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yes
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What are hypnagogic hallucinations?
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hallucinations at the start of sleep
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What are hypnopompic hallucinations?
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hallucinations at the end of sleep
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What is insomnia?
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disorder of initiating and maintaining sleep (DIMS)
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What is the disorder in which pts have trouble falling asleep (increased non-REM latency)?
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insomnia
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In a normal person how long does it take to fall asleep? Narcoleptic person? Insomniac?
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15-20 mins; 2-3 mins; 1-3hrs
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What are some causes of insomnia?
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psychiatric disorders, drugs, alcohol, respiratory impairment
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What causes CO2 levels in the body to rise?
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decreased ventilation
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What is sleep apnea?
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pathological absence of breathing movements during sleep; pts may have as many as 600+ episodes of respiratory arrest during sleep
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What happens to pts with sleep apnea during the day?
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they get sleepy
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What is the most common form of sleep apnea?
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obstructive - airway obstructed in spite of huge swings in intrapleural (esophageal pressure)
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What is central sleep apnea?
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airway is okay, no swing in esophageal pressure seen; respiratory centers in medulla stop firing
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What is mixed sleep apnea?
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central sleep apnea that develops into an obstructive apnea
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What are some ways to treat sleep apnea?
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weight reduction, surgery, CPAP
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What is REM sleep behavior disorder? What type of pts is this disorder seen in?
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excessive movements during REM sleep; pathological absence of muscle atonia during REM sleep; elderly males
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In what stage of sleep does sleepwalking occur?
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non-REM
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Physiologic parameters during REM are ____ in magnitude between wake and non-REM sleep?
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intermediate
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What stage of sleep has the lowest physiologic parameters? The highest?
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non-REM sleep; REM sleep
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What type of capillaries are seen in circumventricular organs?
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fenestrated
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What is interupted in circumventricular organs?
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blood brain barrier
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What are tanycytes?
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cells that allow the BBB to communicate with the circumventricular organs
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What is the only paired circumventricular organ?
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area postrema
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Where is the area postrema located? What is its fx?
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medulla; also called the chemotactic trigger zone; detects toxins in the blood to trigger vomiting
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What 3 circumventricular organs fx as osmoreceptors?
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subfornical organ, organum vasculosum, lamina terminalis
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If plasma osmolarity rises, what happens to cells?
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they shrink
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