Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
156 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Pt presents to your office with dry, irritated, red eyes that protrude slightly. Upon physical exam, there is diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland and swelling of the lower legs. What is the most likely etiology of this condition?
|
In Grave's disease, a patient may present with what symptoms, ultimately caused by circulating autoantibodies that resemble TSH?
|
|
|
What is the treatment regimen for thyroiditis and why?
|
What thyroid condition is self-limiting and thus treated symptomatically with B-blockers, NSAIDS, or glucocorticoids?
|
|
|
Thyroiditis presents with what major physical finding?
|
A TENDER thyroid gland is indicative of what condition?
|
|
|
Pt presents to your office with palpable bumps on his neck. When you ask him to raise his arms, he can't leave them elevated for long without turning red in the face. What is the best choice of therapy?
|
Hot/Toxic Nodules are treated with Radio-iodide or surgery and have what major symptoms?
|
|
|
What is the name of a rare condition caused by injestion of excessive amounts of thyroid hormone, sometimes due to psychiatric disorders, pharmacy error, or desire to lose weight?
|
List possible causes and define Thyrotoxicosis factitia.
|
|
|
What relation does a Hydatidiform mole have with hyperthyroidism?
|
What type of tumor produces large amounts of hCG, which has alpha and beta subunits structurally similar to those of TSH?
|
|
|
Pt presents to your office and upon receiving blood work, it is discovered that he has high levels of iodine with normal TSH, T3, T4. What is his diagnosis?
|
Thyroid Carcinoma, usually follicular (not metastatic) presents with what types of lab values?
|
|
|
An elderly patient presents with anorexia, weight loss, mental status changes, elevated liver enzymes (AST, ALT, ALP, bilirubin). He is thrilled that his LDL and cholesterol are now under control, even a little low. What is the diagnosis?
|
Elderly patients with hyperthyroidism can present with HYPERTHYROIDISM that lacks tachycardia, hyperactivity, and sympathetic activation. What symptoms DO they have?
|
|
|
What would you expect to see in a thyroid scan of a patient with these conditions?
Hyperthyroidism Thyrotoxicosis/Thyroiditis Graves Toxic Nodule |
The thyroid scan of which diseases would present with the following findings?
High Uptake Low/Absent Uptake Diffuse Uptake w/ Enlarged Gland Focal Uptake |
|
|
What is the most common treatment for hyperthyroidism and how must you counsel your patient about using this medication?
|
Radioactive Iodine may have PERMANENT effects and is used to treat what condition?
|
|
|
Describe the Primary, Secondary/Central, and Tertiary causes of hypothyroidism.
|
End organ failure (thyroid)
TSH deficiency (pituitary) TRH deficiency (hypothalamus) These are the causes of what conditions? |
|
|
What is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism?
|
Hashimoto's disease is the most common cause of what?
|
|
|
A female patient (M:F = 8:1) with either Turner's or Down's Syndrome presents for blood work which shows titers for TG, TPO, TSH rcptrs, NaI transporters. What do you think is causing her to produce these antibodies?
|
T and B cells destroy thyroid follicular cells in Hashimoto's thyroiditis. What antibodies are present, and in what type of patient does this disease most commonly present in?
|
|
|
A patient comes to you complaining of weight gain and constipation. You notice her face is puffy, skin cold to the touch, and tongue is enlarged. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
|
Hypothyroidism can present with what skin and GI symptoms?
|
|
|
Upon physical exam of a patient, you notice the DTR is delayed and muscle strength is decreased. There is some sensorineural hearing and memory loss. What do you think is causing these symptoms?
|
Hypothyroidism can present with what neurological and musculoskeletal symptoms?
|
|
|
What is the first appropriate diagnostic test to check for hypothyroidism?
|
If you see elevated TSH in a patient, what condition should you suspect?
|
|
|
After a patient presents with elevated TSH, what test(s) should you order next?
|
Check for a normal to low level of free T4 in patients who have just had blood work showing what value?
(Note- You should also repeat the original test.) |
|
|
What condition is indicated by low values for both free T4 and TSH?
|
Central Hypothyroidism is indicated by what type of lab values?
|
|
|
What is the most common finding in the lab values of patients with Hashimoto's?
|
Anti TPO and Anti TG antibodies are the most common finding in the labs of what patient population?
|
|
|
What additional abnormal lab values may be found in hypothyroid patients?
|
Anemia
Inc. LDL/Chol/TG Inc. Prolactin Inc. Creatine Kinase Dec. Sodium (hyponatremia) These are common findings in the labs of which patient population? |
|
|
In patients with hypothyroidism, what might you find on a CXR or echo?
|
Pleural/Pericardial effusions can sometimes be seen on a CXR of patients with what condition?
|
|
|
The ECG of a hypothyroid patient may show what?
|
Low voltage QRS wave
Non-specific ST changes PVC's Prolonged QT interval These are possible findings in the ECG of what type of patient? |
|
|
What is the first line of therapy in hypothyroid patients?
|
Levothyroxine (T4) is the first line of treatment for what condition?
|
|
|
What medication can be given to patients in prepartation for thyroid CA treatment or radioactive iodine testing?
|
Liothyroxine (T3) has such a short half life that it is usually only recommended in which patients?
|
|
|
What can you try if a patient fails to respond to T4 therapy?
|
Combination (T3/T4) Therapy can be used in which patient population?
|
|
|
In a patient with adrenal insufficiency (or Addison's Disease), what is the course of treatment for hypothyroidism?
|
What patients must be given glucocorticoid therapy prior to administration of Levothyroxine (T4)?
|
|
|
When initiating therapy for hypothyroidism, what is the recommended course of action?
|
Start medications "low and slow" in the elderly to prevent tachycardia/angina due to increased O2 consumption and titrate the dose every 6 wks based on TSH levels. This practice should be followed when prescribing what type of medications?
|
|
|
What is the gold standard test to detect blood in the urine?
|
The Urine Sedimentation Test is the gold standard test to test for what?
|
|
|
What is the most common screening test for hematuria?
|
The urine dipstick is the most common what?
|
|
|
What can cause a false negative in a urine dipstick? What can cause a false positive?
|
When testing for hematuria....
Formalin or Ascorbic Acid can cause a ________ urine dipstick. Alkaline urine or oxidizing cleaning agents can cause a _______ urine dipstick. |
|
|
A female patient presents with hematuria shortly after or during menstruation, what can you suspect?
|
Endometriosis is a possible cause of blood found where?
|
|
|
A patient presents with hematuria and recent history of upper respiratory tract infection. What is the most likely cause?
|
Post infectious glomerulonephritis can occur as hematuria shortly following what?
|
|
|
A male patient presents with hematuria and frequent urination. What can you suspect?
|
Prostatic obstruction can be suspected in male patients presenting with what symptoms?
|
|
|
A patient's urinalysis results are as follows... the color is red/pink with clots present. There is proteinuria < 500 with normal RBC's and no RBC casts. What type of nephritis is this?
|
Extraglomerular nephritis has what typical lab values?
|
|
|
A patient's urinalysis results are as follows... the color is red/smoky brown/coca-cola with no clots present. There is proteinuria > 500 with dysmorphic RBC's and RBC casts. What type of nephritis is thhis?
|
Glomerular nephritis has what typical lab values?
|
|
|
What are the 3 most common causes of glomerular nephritis?
|
IgA Nephropathy
Thin Basement Membrane Syndrome Alport Syndrome These are causes of what type of nephritis? |
|
|
What is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis world wide?
|
IgA Nephropathy is the most common cause of what condition?
|
|
|
A 55 year old patient presents with extraglomerular nephritis. What is your next test?
|
In order to rule out stones and malignancy, a renal ultrasound is the most logical next test in a patient > 50 that presents with what condition?
|
|
|
In a patient with glomerular nephritis, how should you make the decision to take a kidney biopsy?
|
Which procedure should only be performed in patients with glomerular nephritis if the patient is...
symptomatic shows signs of kidney failure increased creatinine hypertensive |
|
|
What is the most common cause of IgA nephropathy?
|
Ideopathic/Unknown is the most common cause of what type of kidney disease?
|
|
|
A patient presents to your office with hematuria, proteinuria, and flank pain three days after an upper respiratory tract infection. What condition should you suspect?
|
IgA nephropathy frequently presents with what findings?
|
|
|
What is the treatment for IgA nephropathy?
|
ACE (-), ARB, statins, and possibly corticosteroids are all treatments for what kidney condition?
|
|
|
A patient presents with gross hematuria, but no renal insufficiency. Her mother also has a history of hematuria. Kidney biopsy reveals the presence of antibodies for alpha-3, 4, 5 side chains of Type 4 Collagen. What condition do you suspect?
|
Thin Basement Membrane Disease presents with what urinalysis and kidney biopsy findings?
|
|
|
What is one of the initial tests in a patient whose urinalysis causes you to suspect Alport's Syndrome?
|
Skin biopsy can be performed in patient to check for the presence of collagen alpha 3,4,5, side chains in a patient suspected of what condition?
|
|
|
In a patient with Alport's syndrome, a kidney biopsy should only be performed if you suspect what?
|
In patients with Alport's syndrome, the possibility of progressive renal disease is evidenced by hypertension, proteinuria, and creatinine in the urine. What test should be performed?
|
|
|
A patient presents to your office with complaints of decreased vision, hearing loss, and hematuria. Kidney biopsy reveals laminated appearance of the GBM due to longitudinal splitting of the GBM lamina densa. What condition should you suspect?
|
Alport's syndrome has what major pathognomonic and diagnostic features?
|
|
|
Define anterior lenticonus. For which syndrome is it pathognomonic?
|
The lens protrudes in a cone-like shape into the anterior chamber of the eye due to a thin basement membrane in what pathognomonic finding of Alport's syndrome?
|
|
|
What is the treatment for Alport's syndrome?
|
The treatment of what disease includes ACE(-), ARB, and, for patients in ESRD, dialysis or a kidney transplant (with little risk of de novo disease)?
|
|
|
What is the diagnostic test of choic in a patient suspected of having kidney stones?
|
Non-contrast enhanced helical CT scan is the diagnostice test of choice in patients suspected of what condition?
|
|
|
What is the best way to examine the bladder for tumors?
|
Cystoscopy is the best way to visualize what part of the urinary tract?
|
|
|
Ultrasound is better for looking at the _____, while IVP is better for looking at the _____ and _____.
|
_____ is better for looking at the kidneys, while _____ is better for looking at the ureter and bladder.
|
|
|
What are two good tests for suspected urinary tract obstruction?
|
IVP and US can both be used to examine what urinary tract conditions?
|
|
|
In patients under 50, the most common cause of hematuria is what?
|
Transient/unknown/benign is the most common cause behind what urine finding?
|
|
|
Define Azotemia.
|
What is an ASYMPTOMATIC higher than normal level of urea in the blood (acute retention of nitrogenous waste)?
|
|
|
Define Uremia.
|
What is a SYMPTOMATIC retention in the bloodstream of urea waste products?
|
|
|
Define Nonoliguria.
|
What is a urine output of >400 cc/24HR?
|
|
|
Define Oliguria.
|
What is reduced urine output, around 100-400 cc/24HR?
|
|
|
Define Anuria.
|
What is almost no urine output, less than 100 cc/24HR?
|
|
|
What do hyaline casts indicate?
|
What type of cast occurs as a result of concentrated urine, diuretics, strenuous exercise, or fever?
|
|
|
What do red cell casts indicate?
|
What type of casts occur as a result of glomerulonephritis?
|
|
|
What do white cell casts indicate?
|
What type of casts occur as a result of pyelo/interstitial nephritis?
|
|
|
What do granular casts indicate?
|
What type of casts occur as a result of acute tubular necrosis?
|
|
|
What do waxy casts indicate?
|
What type of casts occur as a result of stasis in the tubule or chronic renal failure?
|
|
|
What is functional proteinuria?
|
What type of proteinuria can be due to exercise or stress and is benign?
|
|
|
What is overflow proteinuria?
|
What type of proteinuria is caused by increased production of circulating, filterable plasma proteins, associated with conditions like multiple myeloma or rhabdomyalisis?
|
|
|
What is glomerular proteinuria?
|
What kind of proteinuria is due to increased filtration of normal plasma proteins, in conditions such as nephrotic syndrome?
|
|
|
What is tubular proteinuria?
|
What type of proteinuria is due to faulty reabsorption of normally filtered plasma proteins in the proximal tubules? It's associated with ATN and toxic drug injuries.
|
|
|
Creatine Clearance is a marker of what?
|
What is the most specific marker of GFR?
|
|
|
Define Azotemia.
|
What is an ASYMPTOMATIC higher than normal level of urea in the blood?
|
|
|
Define Uremia.
|
What is a SYMPTOMATIC retention in the bloodstream of urea waste products?
|
|
|
Define Nonoliguria.
|
What is a urine output of >400 cc/24HR?
|
|
|
Define Oliguria.
|
What is reduced urine output, around 100-400 cc/24HR?
|
|
|
Define Anuria.
|
What is almost no urine output, less than 100 cc/24HR?
|
|
|
What do hyaline casts indicate?
|
What type of cast occurs as a result of concentrated urine, diuretics, strenuous exercise, or fever?
|
|
|
What do red cell casts indicate?
|
What type of casts occur as a result of glomerulonephritis?
|
|
|
What do white cell casts indicate?
|
What type of casts occur as a result of pyelo/interstitial nephritis?
|
|
|
What do granular casts indicate?
|
What type of casts occur as a result of acute tubular necrosis?
|
|
|
What do waxy casts indicate?
|
What type of casts occur as a result of stasis in the tubule or chronic renal failure?
|
|
|
What is functional proteinuria?
|
What type of proteinuria can be due to exercise or stress and is benign?
|
|
|
What is overflow proteinuria?
|
What type of proteinuria is caused by increased production of circulating, filterable plasma proteins, associated with conditions like multiple myeloma or rhabdomyalisis?
|
|
|
What is glomerular proteinuria?
|
What kind of proteinuria is due to increased filtration of normal plasma proteins, in conditions such as nephrotic syndrome?
|
|
|
What is tubular proteinuria?
|
What type of proteinuria is due to faulty reabsorption of normally filtered plasma proteins in the proximal tubules? It's associated with ATN and toxic drug injuries.
|
|
|
Creatine Clearance is a marker of what?
|
What is the most specific marker of GFR?
|
|
|
What is the Cockroft-Gault formula and what does it measure?
|
CrCl=[(140-age)(kg)]/(72xCr)
Measures estimated creatine clearance. Multiply by .85 for females. |
|
|
What is the MDRD formula and what does it measure?
|
EstGFR=[186(S Cr)^(-1.154)]x[(Age)^(-.203)]
x .742 if female x 1.210 if Af Am What is this formula? Measures estimated GFR. |
|
|
Arteriography is the gold standard for assessing what?
|
The gold standard to assess Renal Artery Stenosis is what?
|
|
|
What is a condition associated with elevated BUN but preserved GFR?
|
Upper GI bleed, a high protein diet, or steroids can cause what with relation to BUN and GFR?
|
|
|
What medications are associated with an elevated Cr but preserved GFR?
|
Trimethoprim and Cimetidine are two medications that can cause what with relation to Cr and GFR?
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of Acute Renal Failure?
|
Acute Tubular Necrosis is the most common cause of what?
|
|
|
The Cockroft-Gault equation is inaccurate during what?
|
During Acute Renal Failure, what happens to the Cockroft-Gault equation?
|
|
|
Radiocontrast dyes can cause what renal condition?
|
Acute Tubular Necrosis can sometimes be caused by what substance?
|
|
|
Define Acute Interstitial Nephritis.
|
Acute Renal Failure due to lymphocytic infiltration of the interstitium is also know as what?
|
|
|
What is the classical clinical triad of Acute Interstitial Nephritis?
|
Fever, Rash, and Eosinophilia is the classic triad (seen in only 10%) of patients with what condition?
|
|
|
What drugs are associated with drug-induced Acute Interstitial Nephritis?
|
Penicillins and Thiazides can cause what type of renal problem?
|
|
|
The labs of a patient with Acute Interstitial Nephritis will most likely show what?
|
Eosinophils and WBC casts in the urine with a NEG urine culture most likely indicates what condition?
|
|
|
What is the treatment for Acute Interstitial Nephritis?
|
Start prednisone in patients with what condition if discontinuation of the offending drug or treatment of the underlying illness doesn't work?
|
|
|
If post-void residual bladder volume is more than 100mL, it is a sign of what?
|
One test of Post-Renal Acute Renal Failure is to measure what volume?
|
|
|
What is the treatment for hypercalcemia?
|
Give isotonic saline to correct volume depletion in what condition?
|
|
|
Patients with Goodpastures Syndrome have what...
Antibodies? Biopsy? |
Patients workup reveals Anti-GBM, with linear deposition of IgG along glomerular capillaries.
|
|
|
Patients with Goodpastures Syndrome have what...
Treatment? |
Plasmapheresis with cyclophosphamide and steroids is the treatment for what condition?
|
|
|
Patients with Goodpastures Syndrome have what...
Pathology? |
Patient presents with hemoptysis due to alveolar hemorrhages, and has rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis. What is it?
|
|
|
How would you treat Hep C Associated renal disease?
|
If CrCl is > 50, use pegylated interferon alpha and ribavirin.
If CrCl is < 50, use non-pegylated interferon alpha. This is the treatment for what condition? |
|
|
What are the indications for dialysis?
|
Uremic syndrome
Uncontrollable Hyperkalemia Severe Metabolic Acidosis Refractory Fluid Overload Severe Renal Failure BUN>100 Cr>10 What treatment should you recommend for this patient? |
|
|
What are the uremic symptoms?
|
N + V
Poor appetite Fatigue/Lethargy Pruritis Altered Mentation (personality change, confusion, somnolence, comatose) This patient is suffering from what? |
|
|
Arrythmia is associated with what ionic concentration?
|
A rapid increase in K+ can result in what?
|
|
|
What is the treatment of hyperkalemia?
|
IV Ca Gluconate
Insulin and glucose B-agonists Kayexalate This combination is used to treat what condition? |
|
|
Winter's formula is used to calculate what?
|
Respiratory compensation for a metabolic acidosis can be calculated using what formula?
|
|
|
Hepatorenal syndrome presents how?
|
A patient with chronic liver disease and portal hypertension presents with decreased GFR which does not improve upon diuretic withdrawal. He is oliguric, proteinuric, and has low urine Na. What is the issue?
|
|
|
What is the treatment for Hepatorenal syndrome?
|
Midrodine, an alpha agonist, is used to treat what kidney issue?
|
|
|
Plasmapheresis and steroids are used to treat what syndrome, but not in the postdiarrheal form in children?
|
What is the treatment for TTP-HUS?
|
|
|
A kid presents with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute renal failure, neurological abnormalities, and fever. This pentad indicates what condition?
|
TTP-HUS has a pentad of conditions that consists of what?
|
|
|
What are the two most common causes of TTP-HUS?
|
Idiopathic, followed by Shiga-toxin producing E. Coli, are the two most common causes of what syndrome?
|
|
|
What is the hallmark of glomerular disease?
|
Proteinuria is the hallmark of what disease?
|
|
|
What qualifies as nephrotic syndrome?
|
Proteinuria > 3.5g/d qualifies as what type of kidney syndrome?
Hypoalbuminemia Edema Hypercholesterolemia/lipidemia |
|
|
What qualifies as nephritic syndrome?
|
Oliguria and hematuria are more likely to be associated with what type of kidney syndrome?
Red cell Casts Low Proteinuria Edema Hypertension |
|
|
What is the most common pattern/type of glomerulonephritis?
|
IgA nephropathy is the most common type of what?
|
|
|
How should blood pressure be taken?
|
What should be checked before meals/meds in the early a.m.?
Seated, feet on floor Arm supported at heart level Correct size cuff Measure 2x, 5 min apart, 2 arms Provide specific BP# goals in writing This is the proper procedure for what? |
|
|
Heavy smokers sometimes have lower blood pressure readings due to what phenomenon?
|
If a heavy smoker quits a few days before an office visit, what effect might this have on his blood pressure reading?
|
|
|
elevated liver copper content, decreased serum ceruloplasmin and copper concentrations and elevated urinary copper, personality changes, depression, cognitive impairment, Parkinsonian symptoms, Kayser-Fleischer ring – ring around periphery of cornea, Face of the Giant Panda on T2 MRI of brain
|
Wilson's Disease
(Hepatolenticular Degeneration) is a defect in hepatocyte copper transport ATPase which causes what symptoms? |
|
|
Fatigue, lethargy, arthralgia, right upper quadrant discomfort, Bronze diabetes, hyoerferritinemia and elevated transaminase. What is it?
|
Hereditary Hemochromotosis presents how?
|
|
|
Red or “Port Wine” colored urine, abdominal pain, neuropathy, increased sympathetic tone (hypertension and tachycardia), anxiety, depression, seizures, increased porphobilinogen and ALA
|
Describe porphyria
|
|
|
irritability, aggressive behavior, low appetite and energy, difficulty sweating, headaches, reduced sensations, constipation, abdominal pain, vomiting, coma. What's the treatment?
|
Lead poisoning is treated with a chelating agent (DMSA).
|
|
|
Elevated Eosinophils is due to NAACP – Neoplasms, Addison’s Disease, Allergies, Collagen Vascular Disease, Protozoan Infections
|
Acute Adrenal Insufficiency
|
|
|
21-Dehydroxylase deficiency is the most common cause of what condition?
|
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is most commonly caused by what?
|
|
|
What's Nelson's tumor?
|
Pituitary tumor from lost negative feedback of ACTH after a bilateral adrenalectomy.
|
|
|
Hypertension, polyuria, polydipsia, muscular weakness, paresthesias, headache, periodic paralysis, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis
|
Hyperaldosteronism
|
|
|
headache, diaphoresis, palpitations, anxiety, tremor, facial pallor, flushing, emesis, tachycardia, abdominal pain, paroxysmal hypertension, retinal hemorrhages, CVA, hypertension, dx is presence of plasma metanephrin and urine catecholamines
|
Pheochromocytoma
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?
|
Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of what?
|
|
|
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of osteoporosis?
|
Dual Energy X-Ray Absorptiometry is the gold standard in diagnosing what condition?
|
|
|
What are the major treatments of Osteopoorosis?
|
Raloxifene and Bisphosphanates are the common prescription for what condition?
|
|
|
Glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol and growth hormone are released in response to what levels of plasma glucose?
|
What hormones are released in response to low plasma glucose levels?
|
|
|
Postprandial blood glucose should not exceed what value?
|
140 should not be exceeded when you are talking about what?
|
|
|
Normal Random Blood Glucose is what value?
|
72-144 is the value for normal what?
|
|
|
What are the blood sugar levels corresponding to severe CNS depression and dognitive dysfunction?
|
severe CNS depression (starts at 54 mg/dL), cognitive dysfunction (starts at 47 mg/dL), acute or permanent brain dysfunction, brain death when you are talking about what blood measurement?
|
|
|
What is Whipple's triad?
|
Signs and Symptoms of Hypoglycemia, In the presence of low blood glucose levels, symptoms are relieved by restoration of plasma glucose. What is this concept, necessary for diagnosis of hypoglycemia?
|
|
|
What type of symptoms deal with increased autonomic activity with reference to hypoglycemia?
sweating, tachycardia, tremor, nervousness, irritability, paresthesias, nausea, vomiting |
What are the Neurogenic symptoms of hypoglycemia?
|
|
|
What type of symptoms deal with Depressed CNS Activity with reference to hypoglycemia?
Headache, drowsiness, dizziness, blurred vision, confusion, abnormal behavior, seizures, coma |
What are the neuroglycopenic symptoms of hypoglycemia?
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of hypoglycemia?
|
Side effects of diabetes medication is the most common cause of what condition?
|
|
|
What would be a good reason to use hGH on a child?
|
Use of what hormone should only be allowed if it will ADD mature height to a child with an identifiable disorder.
|
|
|
Raccoon Eyes, Battle’s Sign (bruise behind ear), psychogenic polydypsia with resultant polyuria. What is it?
|
Central Diabetes Insipidis presents how.
|
|
|
Small cell carcinoma of the lung is sometimes associated with what condition?
|
SIADH is often associated with what other condition?
|
|
|
(1)Sodium 115 – 120 mEq/L –
Headache, anorexia, vomiting, confusion (2) Sodium < 110 mEq/L – Disorientation, Stupor, Coma, Focal neurological Abnormality hyponatremia, decreased plasma osmolarity, water retention, elevated plasma ADH, Urine osmolarity > plasma osmolarity What is this? |
SIADH has what symptoms?
|
|
|
Insulin stimulates what hormone that allows fat cells to uptake circulating fatty acids?
|
Lipoprotein lipase is stimulated by what hormone? What is it's function?
|
|
|
Unresponsiveness or deficiency in Leptin (NZ that oxidizes XS lipid) can cause what?
|
Syndrome X is due to what?
|
|
|
A BMI over 40 classifies a patient as _____.
|
Morbidly Obese is the term used to describe a patient whose BMI is over what value?
|
|
|
daytime hypoventilation, somnolence, polycythemia and cor pulmonale
|
Pickwickian Syndrome symptoms.
|
|
|
A patient with Bulemia will more than likely have what type of BMI?
|
Normal or slightly elevated BMI is consistent with a patient having what condition?
|
|
|
puffy cheeks from parotid and salivary gland enlargements, erosions of the teeth (from gastric acid), subcutaneous emphysema, scratches on dorsum of hand from teeth after inducing gagging, EKG abnormalities from electrolytes, metabolic alkalosis, abnormal menses
|
Bulemia symptoms.
|
|
|
Treatment for Bulemia?
|
Psych and antidepressants are recommended for patients with what eating disorder?
|
|
|
Type I - most abundant collagen - present in scar tissue, tendon, myofibrils and organic bone
Type II - Articular cartilage and Hyaline cartilage Type III - collagen of granulation tissue - produced quickly by young fibroblasts before the tougher type I collagen is synthesized. Type IV - basal lamina; eye lens |
Describe Collagen 1-4.
|
|
|
Osteogenesis Imperfecta (Brittle Bone Disease)
|
Present with multiple fractures, Blue Sclera, early hearing loss, poor muscle tone, loose joints
|
|
|
Decreased production of alpha-1 procollagen chains is ass'd with what condition?
|
What is the pathogenesis of osteogenesis imperfecta?
|
|
|
easy bruising, velvety-smooth skin, mild hyperextensible skin, loose and unstable joints – also may have mitral valve prolapse- easy tearing and bruising and scarring, slow to heal, pectus excavatum
|
Hypermobility Syndrome
(Sub-Type of Ehler's Danlos Syndrome) |
|
|
What's the defect in Marfan's Syndrome?
|
FBN1 gene on chromosome 15 – codes for fibrillin-1. What's the syndrome?
|
|
|
dilation of dural sac around spinal cord is aka what, and is ass'd with what syndrome?
|
Dural Ectasia is a symptom of Marfan's that causes what?
|
|
|
What is the most common problem arising from Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum? What are the other symptoms?
|
MC problem is in the skin and eyes...
What disorder mainly causes Calcification of elastic fibers leading to stenosis everywhere – HTN secondary to renal artery stenosis, claudication, plucked chicken skin appearance |
