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86 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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  • 3rd side (hint)
Pulmonary embolism
1. Most common cause=
DVT

DVT starts from =
lower limb or pelvis
RPA
location of: =
Posterior to Ascending Aorta and SVC
LPA
location of: =
Anterior to Descending Thoracic Aorta
Pulmonary embolism
2. Risk Factors
patient’s age
minimal physical
exercise
bed rest after a major operative gynecological procedure
Postoperative
Pulmonary embolism
Summary: Two days ago, a 65-year-old woman underwent a total abdominal
hysterectomy due to endometrial cancer. She developed acute onset dyspnea
with pleuritic chest pain. She has tachypnea and tachycardia and appears anxious.
Rales (crackles) are not present by pulmonary examination
Most likely diagnosis: Pulmonary embolism
Most likely location of the primary disease: Deep vein thrombosis
(DVT) of the pelvis or lower limb
Pulmonary embolism
location of:
3. RPA=
LPA=
Posterior to Ascending Aorta and SVC

Anterior to Descending Thoracic Aorta
identify the
right pulmonary artery locations?
Posterior to the ascending aorta and the SVC
how many pulmonary veins entering the left atrium?
4
A 44-year-old woman who has a DVT of the lower extremity suddenly
gasps and collapses. She is found to be hypotensive. Resuscitative
measures are attempted without success. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
B. Saddle embolus

+
A saddle embolus or straddling embolism is a thrombus that straddles a dividing blood vessel. Saddle emboli are often lethal because they prevent the entry of blood into the lung and cause acute anoxia. These emboli typically originate in the veins of the lower extremities and are carried by venous blood to the vena cava and then through the right atrium and ventricle into the pulmonary artery. A massive thromboembolus may occlude the pulmonary artery or its main branches and cause sudden death.
Acute Pancreatitis

Anatomical location
Retroperitoneal
posterior to the stomach
lesser peritoneal sac
(omental bursa)
Acute Pancreatitis:

S/S = key sign is =

Most common cause =
Pain radiates to back

alcohol
and then gall stone
Acute Pancreatitis
3. Diagnosis-enzyme
Serum amylase
1st to check

S. Lipase
Acute Pancreatitis

4. Complications =
3ct
chronic pancreatic.....
diabetes......

And pseudocyst
the second portion of the
duodenum and the head of the pancreas. You note an artery and vein
passing anteriorly to the uncinate process of the pancreas and the third
portion of the duodenum. Which vessels are these?
SMA and SMV
Acute Pancreatitis

As you proceed to elevate the duodenum and pancreas, you note two
veins posterior to the neck of the pancreas uniting to form a large vein
that passes superiorly. Which large vein has been formed?
Portal vein
Acute Pancreatitis

As you continue, you also note a large, tortuous artery passing to the
left along the superior border of the pancreas. This is likely to be which
of the following?
Splenic artery
Small Bowel Mesentric Angina

Mesenteric ischemia-Risk Factors =
4ct
a. Age
b. Hypertension
c. Diabetes
d. Hypocholesterolemia Hx
Small Bowel Mesentric Angina

most commonly involved =
SMA-Superior mesenteric artery-


Nm Branches =
&
organs fed =
(i-iv ct)
a. Branches of SMA
i. Inferior pancreaticduodenal

ii. Right colic artery.....
ascending colon

iii. Middle colon A.....
transverse mesocolon

iv. ileocolic
Small Bowel Mesentric Angina
1. During a surgical procedure, you have elevated the transverse colon
and note an artery in the transverse mesocolon. What is this vessel?
B. Middle colic artery
Small Bowel Mesentric Angina

2. During surgery you note a retroperitoneal artery crossing the right side
of the posterior abdominal wall and supplying the ascending colon.
Which vessel is this?
Right colic artery
3. A 44-year-old accountant develops a bleeding ulcer around tax time.
The gastroenterologist visualizes the ulcer in the proximal duodenum.
A radiologist has been called to cannulate and embolize the artery supplying
the ulcer. Which of the following arteries does the radiologist
need to cannulate?
Celiac artery
Coronary Artery Circulation

Myocardial infarction
◆ Anatomical structures likely affected:
Right coronary artery

left anterior descending artery
Anatomical structures likely affected:

RCA
SA node
AV node
posterior 1/3 Interventricular septum
Anatomical structures

RCA branches
a. SA nodal branch
b. Right margincal branch
c. Posterior interventricular
Anatomical structures likely affected:

LCA=
Anterior right/Left ventricles
Anterior 2/3 Interventricular septuim
Anatomical structures

LCA branches
a. Circumflex
b. Left marginal
c. Left anterior descending

artery is the most commonly occluded of the coronary arteries =
LAD
c. Left anterior descending
As a cardiologist, you are concerned about blockage of the artery to the SA node in a patient.
This artery typically arises from which of the following?
RCA
In a balanced coronary artery pattern, the blood supply to the majority of the
interventricular septum
is derived from which of the following?
Anterior interventricular artery
As a cardiologist, you are concerned about blockage of the artery to
the AV node in a patient. This artery typically arises from which of the
following?
RCA
Pneumothorax

to remove fluid from the pleural cavity of your patient (thoracentesis).
insert the needle over the top of a
rib, into an intercostal space inferior to lower border of the lung @ MAL
at the end of a normal expiration. highest RIB level
W/o injuring the lung?
8th intercostal space
Pneumothorax

While performing this thoracentesis procedure,
lowest level of the
pleural cavity at the end of expiration
will lie at #___ RIB in the MAL?
10th
Pneumothorax

While performing this procedure, the lower lung border will lie
at the level of which rib in the MCL?
6th
gall stones(cholelithiasis)

Histology of Gall Bladder
gallbladder fossa lies between the right and quadrate lobes of
the liver.
❖ The cystic artery is usually a branch of the right hepatic artery.
❖ The hepatic ducts are the most anterior structures at the porta
hepatis.
❖ The bile ducts lie to the right within the hepatoduodenal ligament
gall stones(cholelithiasis)

Blood supply of Gal Bladder
Cystic Duct ---->

Cystic Artery(Branch of Hepatic Artery)
gall stones(cholelithiasis)
Risk Factors
fat
forty
fertile
gall stones(cholelithiasis)

Which of the following is the correct landmark for locating the normal
position of the gallbladder during a physical examination?
junction of
-R linea semilunaris
w/
-subcostal margin
During a surgical procedure in which you will remove the gallbladder,
you will expect its blood supply, the cystic artery, to arise from which
of the following arteries?
A. Right hepatic artery
During the surgical procedure in the above question, your index finger
is placed into the epiploic foramen. Which of the following structures
would be inferior to your finger?
B. First part of the duodenum
Suprarenal gland tumor

Right Adrenal
Anatomical relationship:
Right Adrenal gland

IVC
Liver
diaphragm
Suprarenal gland tumor

Anatomical relationship:
b. Left Adrenal gland

(Stomach
Pancreas
Diaphragm
Spleen
As a surgeon about to remove the right adrenal gland, you examine the
blood supply of the right adrenal gland and observe which of the following?
Its central vein drains into the IVC
After removal of a large portion of the stomach in a patient who has
cancer, you are now examining the lymph nodes that receive lymph
from the stomach. Which of the following structures receives lymph
directly from the stomach?
Celiac nodes
In a patient who has testicular cancer that has metastasized (spread) to
the lymph nodes, which of the following would you expect to be
involved first?
Lumbar (aortic) nodes

+
❖ The right suprarenal gland is closely related to the IVC, into which
its vein will open.
❖ The left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein.
❖ Multiple arteries to the suprarenal glands arise from the inferior
phrenic artery, aorta, and renal artery.
❖ Lymph from the gonads drains to upper lumbar nodes.
❖ Lymph above the pectinate line of the anal canal drains to the iliac
nodes, whereas lymph below the pectinate line drains to inguinal
nodes.
Recurrent Tonsillitis


Vessel involved with intraoperative bleeding:
External palatine vein
Recurrent Tonsillitis

Loss of taste sensation
Compression of glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
Recurrent Tonsillitis

1. Bleeding V. & A.

2. Loss of taste posterior 1/3
tongue (N is =)
a. Palatine vein
b. Tonsilar branch of facial artery


CN IX
Recurrent Tonsillitis

3. Location of palatine tonsil=
palotoglossal arch/palatopharyngeal arch
Recurrent Tonsillitis

4. Pharyngeal tonsil/adenoid location =
floor or posterior wall of mesopharynx
During a procedure to remove a palatine tonsil, the operating field was
suddenly filled with bright red blood.
Which artery was inadvertently
damaged?
Tonsillar branch of facial
A patient has a mild chronic cough, but has clear lungs and no evidence
of bronchitis. Her physician believes that the symptoms are due to
postnasal drip brought on by allergy. Which nerve is responsible for the
afferent limb of the cough reflex?
CN IX
Which structure passes through the gap between the superior and middle
constrictor muscles?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
❖ The three pharyngeal constrictor muscles are stacked like ice-cream
cones. Structures pass into the pharynx through gaps between the
muscles.
❖ The tonsillar ring (Waldeyer) is a discontinuous mass of lymphoid
tissue located where the body opens to the environment, exposing
the immune system to pathogens.
❖ At the base of the palatine tonsil, the tonsillar branch of the facial
artery, and the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) can be identified.
❖ The gag reflex is evoked by mechanical stimulation of the oropharynx.
The ______ limb of the reflex is mediated by the glossopharyngeal
nerve (CN IX),
and
_____ limb is mediated by
vagus nerve (CN X).
afferent

efferent
Menstural/Ovarian cycle
Hormones ? & Levels ?

a. Proliferative=
b. Luteal=
high estrogen

high progesterone
Menstural/Ovarian cycle
Hormones ? & Levels ?

c. Menstruation=
d. Middle level of cycle =
low level of estrogen/low level progesterone

high level of LH
Amenorrhea types & description
a. Primary-never had
b. Secondary-had but then stops
Anorexia nervosa affects what part of brain.
hypothalamus

everything decreases
Peptic ulcer disease

Organs likely affected:
duodenum
Stomach
Peptic ulcer disease


Blood supply of stomach =
4ct
-celiac artery .....
a. Left gastric
b. Splenic
c. Common hepatic
Peptic ulcer disease


__________ artery-at risk of ulcer perforation
Gastroduodenal
Peptic ulcer disease

S/S
4ct
Mid abdominal pain right after eating-
gastric ulcer,
chronic pancreatic,
mesenteric ischemia,
choleliathisis
Peptic ulcer disease

Treatment includes a
=
histamine-blocking agent,
proton pump inhibitor,
antibiotic therapy.


+
The
bacterium Helicobacter pylori has been implicated in most cases of peptic
ulcer disease. If an ulcer occurs in the duodenum, the posterior wall of the
ampulla of the duodenum (duodenal cap) is the usual site. The gastroduodenal
artery lies posterior to the duodenum at this point and is at risk in the event of
ulcer perforation.
Gastric contents exiting a posterior perforation of the stomach wall will
accumulate in which of the following?
omental bursa
Ligation of the common hepatic artery will eliminate the gastric blood
supply through which of the following arteries?
Right gastro-omental

right gastric arteries
surgical incision through the fundus of the stomach would require
you to clamp which of the following?
Short gastric arteries
Peptic ulcer disease

❖ stomach vertebral Levels =
gastroesophageal
junction
pylorus, which lie at vertebral levels

❖ The stomach is supplied by all three branches of the celiac artery.
❖ The short gastric and left gastro-omental arteries lie within the gastrosplenic
ligament and are at risk in a splenectomy
T-11
L-1
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia


Anatomical basis for the symptomatology:
Compression of the
bladder neck
or
prostatic urethra
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia


1.Histology of Prostate
2.Transitional epithelium means what
–cancer
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia


1. A 66-year-old man complains of difficulty voiding and is noted to have
probable BPH. Which of the following prostatic lobes is likely to be
responsible for these symptoms
Middle lobe
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

48-year-old man is undergoing cystoscopic examination. As the cystoscope
is placed into the urethra through the penile portion, which of
the following tissues surrounds the urethra?
Corpus spongiosum
police detective takes a scraping of some stains to be examined for
alkaline phosphatase to assess whether these might be ejaculate. What
is the source of alkaline phosphatase in the semen?
Seminal vesicles

+
❖ The posterior and lateral lobes of the prostate are palpable by DRE.
❖ The middle lobe may press on the bladder neck in BPH.
❖ The sphincter urethrae muscle extends superiorly to cover the anterior
surface of the prostate.
❖ The bulbourethral glands lie adjacent to the membranous urethra,
but their ducts open into the proximal spongy urethra.
Menopause

Estrogen/Progesterone Levels are low during menopause
a. Because of
atrophy of ovaries due to _____
apoptosis
Menopause

3. Turner’s Syndrome
a. Low levels of
estrogen/progesterone

because of ___________
atrophy
Menopause
3. Turner’s Syndrome
Hormone levels will be =
Low estrogen

Low progesterone

because of =
atrophy
Klinefelter Syndrome

Chromosomal type =

Causes what in testis =
XXY

Testicular atrophy

so the levels of testosterone will be =
very LOW
Menopause

b. Levels of
GnRH,
LH,
FSH

will be =
HIGH
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
1. Karyotype =
46XY
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

2. Pathophysiology
defective androgen receptor
causes atrophy of
mesonephric duct

mesonephric duct structures developed from =
a. Mesonephric duct
b. Paramesonephric duct
Perinephric Abcess

◆ Anatomical structure involved:
Kidney
anatomically related
Structures
Perinephric Abcess

1. Most common organism cause of UTI?=
E. COLI
Perinephric Abcess

2. Between renal fascia you have paranephric fat=paranephric abcess
a. UTI ascending infection goes into

b. Infection in paranephric fat=
kidney causing pyelonephritis

paranephric abscess
Perinephric Abcess
3. Treatment:
a. Drainage
b. Followed by Antibiotics
1. During the removal of a patient’s kidney, you would observe which of
the following as being most anterior within the renal sinus?
Renal vein
2. You wish to examine the hilum of the right kidney during surgery. Which
of the following structures must be elevated and reflected to do so?
Duodenum
3. To elevate the kidney within the renal fascia and the perirenal fat, the
renal fascia must be reflected or incised from the fascia of which of the
following muscles?
Psoas muscle
Perinephric Abcess

❖ The hilum of the left kidney lies at the level of =

❖ In the renal sinus, the renal vessels lie anterior to the _____ _____
with the _____ ______ being the most anterior.
L-1

renal pelvis
renal vein

❖ The left renal vein receives the =
3ct
inferior phrenic,
suprarenal,
gonadal vessels.
Ludwig's angina is a bilateral infection of the
submandibular space ...
2 compartments in mouth floor
sublingual space
&
submylohyoid
(aka submaxillary space)
-infection begins in mouth floor
-characteristically aggressive,
-rapidly spreading
-"woody" or brawny cellulitis involving
-submandibular space.
-rapidly spreading cellulitis
w/o
-lymphatic involvement
-generally without abscess formation.

Both the submylohyoid and sublingual spaces are involved.
The infection is bilateral.
submandibular space ...
2 compartments in mouth floor
sublingual space
&
submylohyoid
(aka submaxillary space)

Nm Dz =
Ludwig's angina