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166 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the 3 general functions of blood?
Distribution of: Oxygen, nutrients, wastes, and hormones
Regulation of: Temperature, pH, and fluid volume
Protection from: Fluid loss (clotting), infection (immunity)
What is present in the plasma?
Water
Proteins
Hormones
Nutrients
Electrolytes
In unclotted whole blood, red blood cells account for how much of the total volume?
40-50%
In unclotted whole blood, what types of cells are located in the buffy coat?
Leukocytes and thrombocytes
What is the name of the fluid fraction of blood after coagulation?
Serum
What type of lymphocytes make antibodies?
B-cells (aka plasma cells)
What type of lymphocytes are helper and cytotoxic cells?
T-cells
What are the 3 different types of white cells?
Lymphocytes, granulocytes, and macrophages
What are the 4 different biochemical roles of plasma proteins?
Maintenance of oncotic pressure
Transport
Defense reactions
Coagulation and fibrinolysis
Why do intracellular enzymes and tumor markers sometimes appear in the plasma?
As a result of the disease
How much of the blood do plasma proteins make up?
They are about 7% of the blood volume. The plasma contains over 300 proteins.
Where is albumin produced?
The liver
Which plasma protein accounts for about 50% of the total plasma proteins (and 4 to 5 g/kg of body weight)?
Albumin
How long is the half life of albumin?
About 20 days
How much albumin is synthesized daily?
14 to 15 g daily
Which plasma protein helps maintain blood oncotic pressure?
Albumin
What does albumin transport?
Fatty acids ("free" fatty acids)
Unconjugated bilirubin
Metal ions: Ca2+, Fe2+, and Cu2+
Drugs, thyroid, and steroid hormones
What plasma protein is an important free radical scavenger in sepsis? (sulfhydryl groups)
Albumin
How is albumin a buffer?
Because of its abundance
What are possible causes of hypoalbuminemia?
Liver disease
Starvation, malnutrition (
Excess excretion by the kidneys (as in nephrotic syndrome)
Sepsis
What is hyperalbuminemia typically a sign of?
Severe dehydration
What is the name of the forces occuring at the capillaries?
Starling's forces
What happens to fluid when capillary hydrostatic pressure is 37 mm Hg, tissue pressure is 1 mm Hg, and oncotic pressure of plasma proteins is 25 mm Hg?

Where does this occur?
Water leaves the capillary.

Arteriolar capillaries
What happens to fluid when the hydrostatic pressure is 17 mm Hg, tissue pressure is 1 mm Hg, and oncotic pressure of plasma proteins is 25 mm Hg?

Where does this occur?
Fluid moves from the extravascular space back into the blood.

Venous capillaries
The main force bringing water back from the tissues is the __________ pressure of plasma proteins.
Osmotic
Kwashiorkor is a childhood _____________________.
protein malnutrition
In Kwashiorkor, plasma proteins concentration is __________. Therefore, there is a ___________ osmotic pressure of the blood, and fluid is not drawn back to the blood and accumulates in ___________ → _________
Decreased
Decreased
Interstitial space
Edema

The distained bellies of famine victims is the result of fluid accumulation in extravascular tissues
What does the classic triad of nephrotic syndrome consist of?
Hypoalbuminemia
Proteinuria
Edema
In nephritis, what leads to the leak of albumin?
Damage to the glomerular basement membrane
In nephritis, what leads to peripheral (leg) edema and pulmonary edema (breathlessness)?
Capillary oncotic pressure is reduced
Increased glomerular damage in nephritis results in loss of ___________: immunoglobulins and complement
Large proteins
What plasma protein binds hemoglobin?

How does it affect the hemoglobin?
Haptoglobin

Inhibits its oxidative activity, prevents losses of iron through kidney, and prevents kidney damage by hemoglobin.
What removes the hemoglobin-haptoglobin complex?
Reticuloendothelial system
In ______________, haptoglobin level decreases because of abnormal breakdown of _________.
Hemolytic anemias

RBCs
What plasma protein binds free heme released from hemoglobin?
Hemopexin
T/F

Free heme is potentially highly toxic.
True!
Why is free heme potentially toxic?
Because it intercalates into membrane and produces free radicals.
a) The heme-hemopexin complex is taken up by _____ cells.
b) In the ______, the released iron binds to _______
c) Depletion of unsaturated hemopexin is an indicator of ____________________
a) Liver
b) Liver, ferritin
c) intravascular hemolysis
What percent of iron goes to each of the following from transferrin?
a) Hemoglobin/erythropoiesis
b) Ferritin (stores iron in liver and heart)
c) Other processes
a) 75%
b) 10-20%
c) 5-15%
Which plasma protein transports iron in plasma as ferric ions (Fe3+)?
Transferrin
Which plasma protein protects agains the toxic effects of free iron?
Transferrin
Transferrin is normally 30% saturated with Fe3+.

a) (increased/decreased) saturation is indicative of iron overload.
b) (increased/decreased) saturation is indicative of iron deficiency.
a) increased
b) decreased
T/F

Transferrin is decreased in inflammatory states due to excessive formation of transferrin-Fe3+ complexes.
False!

Transferrin is decreased in inflammatory states due to excessive degradation of transferrin-Fe3+ complexes.
What is the name of the globular protein complex with 24 subunits?
Ferritin
What is the main intracellular iron storage protein?
Ferritin
T/F

Ferritin keeps iron in soluble and nontoxic form.
True!
What is the name of iron-free ferritin?
Apoferritin
What can we use to measure the total amount of iron stored in the body?
Ferritin
T/F

Hemosiderin is sometimes found circulating in the blood.
False!

It is always found within cells (as opposed to circulating in blood)
What protein is a complex of ferritin, denatured ferritin and other material?
Hemosiderin
Which protein is found in situations following hemorrhages?
Hemosiderin
T/F

The iron within hemosiderin is very poorly available to supply iron when needed.
True!
What color are hemosiderin deposits in the kidney?
They show up as brown areas
What are some iron-storage proteins?
Ferritin and hemosiderin
T/F

Iron is a necessary, non-toxic substance.
False!

Iron is necessary, but it is potentially toxic.
Do humans have a mechanism to excrete excess iron?
No
On what level is the iron content in the body regulated?
On the level of absorption
What disease is characterized by defects in proteins regulating iron absorption that have led to iron overload?
Hereditary hemochromatosis
In what way can iron overload hinder the immune system?
Prone to infections and illness
In what way can the pancreas be affected in iron overload?
Diabetic complications
What types of heart problems may occur with iron overload?
Angina and poor heart rhythm
What types of liver problems are associated with iron overload?
Cirrhosis and cancer
T/F

Depression and infertility (after the age of 40) are associated with iron overload.
True!
To treat iron overload, how often and how long should therapeutic phlebotomy be performed?
Once or twice a week
De-ironing may take from 6 months to 3 years
In cases of extreme anemia, how is iron overload treated?
Chelation (desferal (desferoxomine) infusion)
After treatment of iron overload, how can normal iron levels be maintained?
Low-iron diet
Less extreme phlebotomy or chelation
What is the major copper transport protein?

What percentage of plasma copper does it carry?
Ceruloplasmin

About 90%
What protein regulates oxidation-reduction, transport and utilization of iron (oxidation of ferrous form into ferric form)?
Ceruloplasmin
When are increased concentrations of ceruloplasmin found?
In active liver disease or tissue damage
What disease results in decreased levels of ceruloplasmin?
Wilson’s disease
What type of inheritance is Wilson's disease?
autosomal recessive
What is the mutation associated with Wilson's disease?
There are mutations in the ATPase that is involved in transport of copper into the bile
Where is the mutation in Wilson's disease primarily expressed?
In the liver, kidney and placenta
The deficiency in Wilson's disease leads to accumulation of copper in what organ, damaging its tissue?
Liver
Wilson's disease presents with low plasma concentrations of ____________ and increased urinary/plasma ___________.
Ceruloplasmin, Copper
How common is Wilson's disease and when do the symptoms usually appear?
Incidence is about 1 in 30,000. Symptoms usually appear between 10 and 21 years.
What are the major serum thyroid hormone binding proteins?
Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
Transthyretin (TTR) transports thyroxine and retinol
Albumin (HSA)
T/F

Most serum T4 and T3 are present in the bound state.
True!
From most common to least common, list albumin, TBG and TTR.
Albumin>TTR>TBG

Albumin is present at approximately 100-fold the molar concentration of TTR and 2,000-fold that of TBG
List albumin, TBG and TTR in order of highest affinity to lowest affinity.
TBG>TTR>Albumin

TBG has highest affinity, which is 50-fold higher than that of TTR and 7,000-fold higher that of HSA
What percent do the following bind serum T4?

a) TBG
b) TTR
c) HSA
a) 75%
b) 20%
c) 5%

This order is because of their affinity
Name the major corticosteroid transport protein produced by the liver.
Transcortin
Synthesis of transcortin is regulated by what?
Estrogens
What levels increase during pregnancy and decrease during cirrhosis?
Plasma transcortin levels
Approximately 75% of the cortisol and other corticosteroids in circulation are bound to what protein?
Transcortin

The rest are bound to serum albumin.
T/F

Transcortin binds and transports progesterone.
True!
Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) is mainly produced by what?

What are some other organs that produce SHBG?
The liver

Other organs that produce SHBG include the brain, uterus, testes, and placenta.
What protein binds testosterone and estradiol?
SHBG
High SHBG is associated with what?
Pregnancy, hyperthyroidism, anorexia nervosa and some cancers
Which do laboratory assays usually use: plasma or serum?
Serum
Explain "steady state" in regards to enzyme levels.
Healthy individuals contain relatively constant levels of the intracellular
Why do healthy individuals have relatively constant levels of intracellular enzymes?
Because of normal tissue turnover
T/F

Enzymes are not specific for specific types of tissues.
False!

Some enzymes are specific for one or a few tissues
What limits diagnostic value of many plasma enzymes?
Lack of tissue specificity
Increased levels of tissue-specific _________ in plasma reflect damage of the corresponding tissue(s).
Enzymes
If a patient has liver disease, for example, hepatitis or tissue damagae in the liver, kidney and muscle, what enzyme will be elevated?
Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)

(if AST/ALT < 1)
If a patient has liver disease or tissue damage to the liver, muscle or RBCs, what enzyme will be elevated?
Aspartate Aminotransferase

(AST)
A patient with primary biliary cirrhosis will have elevated levels of what enzyme?
Alkaline phosphatase
48 hours after a myocardial infarction, what enzyme will be elevated?
Troponin I (Tn I)

Creatine Kinase levels would have already gone back to normal by this time
What enzyme will be elevated during tissue damage to the liver or muscle and late phase of myocardial infarction?
Lactate dehydrogenase
Heart muscle damage is indicated by elevated levels of what?
Creatine kinase
CK-MB and CK-MM
Elevated levels of what enzyme is a marker for prostate cancer?
Prostate acid phosphatase (PAP), prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
What enzyme will be elevated in acute pancreatitis?
alpha-Amylase
The highest levels of acid phosphatase are found in ____________ prostate cancer.
Metastasized
T/F

Manipulation of the prostate gland through massage or rectal exam before a test will not increase its level.
False!

Manipulation of the prostate gland through massage or rectal exam before a test may increase its level.
The physiological function of which enzyme is thought to be a liquefaction of semen?
Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP)
Where are Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP) and Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) produced?
The prostate
What enzyme is often elevated in the presence of prostate cancer as well as other prostate disorders?
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
A blood test to measure PSA is considered the most effective test currently available for the early detection of prostate cancer
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Elevated plasma levels of alpha-amylase may reflect which conditions?
Pancreatitis — because of damage to the cells that produce amylase
Trauma of salivary glands
Mumps — due to inflammation of the salivary glands
In order to measure alpha-amylase for clinical diagnosis, when should blood be taken?
Why?
Timing is critical when sampling blood for the test. Blood should be taken soon after a bout of pancreatitis pain.
Otherwise it is excreted rapidly by the kidneys.
Where can amylase be measured other than the blood?
In other body fluids, including urine and peritoneal fluid
CK isozymes are _________ charged and migrate towards the ________.
Negatively, anode
Cardiac troponin levels peak at about _____ day(s) after an acute myocardial infarction and return to normal by about _____ days(s).
2, 5
CK-MB levels peak at about _____ day(s) after an acute myocardial infarction and return to normal by about _____ day(s).
1, 2
The acute phase response is a set of nonspecific host responses to cytokines released in response to what?
tissue injury
infection
inflammation
Causes functional liver changes:
↑ synthesis of acute phase proteins
↓ albumin synthesis,
What functional liver changes does the acute phase response cause?
↑ synthesis of acute phase proteins
↓ albumin synthesis,
Which protein is a major component of the acute phase response and a marker of inflammation?
C-reactive protein (CRP)
When is C-reactive protein produced?
Produced in response to bacterial infection, inflammation or injury
What protein mediates the binding of foreign polysaccharides and activation of complement system?
C-reactive protein (CRP)
T/F

Positive CRP results also occur during the last half of pregnancy or with the use of birth control pills
True!
What is the concentration of c-reactive protein in normal plasma?
<1 mg/L
Slightly elevated levels of ___________ have been correlated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.

What are the risk ranges? (low, average, high)
CRP

Low risk: <1 mg/L
Average risk: 1-3 mg/L
High risk: >3 mg/L
What protein is a natural inhibitor of proteases produced by the liver, manifold increase upon acute inflammation.
Alpha 1-antitrypsin (AAT)
What protein is the most important inhibitor of leukocyte elastase?
Alpha 1-antitrypsin (AAT)
AAT is secreted by activated ___________ and _____________.
Neutrophils and macrophages
AAT breaks down the a)______________ of E. coli and other Gram-negative bacteria leading to their destruction.
b)_________________ breaks down cytokines, immunoglobulin A and G (IgA, IgG), and cleave a component of the complement system, and a receptor on neutrophils that contributes to a _________ of their ability to kill bacteria by phagocytosis
a) Outer membrane protein A (OmpA)
b) Bacterial elastase
c) decrease
Unchecked _________ activity can lead to extensive destruction of connective tissue.
elastase
The inherited disorders of AAT synthesis, when concentration is reduced to 10-15 % of normal, can result in what?

What factors can increase this process?
Respiratory complications such as emphysema or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

The process is increased by air pollution and cigarette smoking.
Cigarette smoke can lead to oxidation of a)_____________ of b)____________ and thought to contribute to the development of c)___________.
a) Methionine 358
b) α1-antitrypsin
c) Emphysema
Alpha 1-Antichymotrypsin (ACT) belongs to what family of human plasma proteins?
a1-globulin family
Which protein is a specific inhibitor of chymotrypsin and other related serine proteases?
Alpha 1-Antichymotrypsin (ACT)
What are the normal levels of Alpha 1-Antichymotrypsin (ACT) in human serum.
25-40 mg/dl
Which protein is a major component of the amyloid deposits associated with Alzheimer‘s disease
Alpha 1-Antichymotrypsin (ACT)
Elevated serum levels of Alpha 1-Antichymotrypsin (ACT) are found in various inflammatory conditions, such as:
Crohn's disease
Ulcerative colitis and burn injuries
In normal acute phase response after surgery, serum levels of CRP begin to go back down after about how many days?
3 days
If an infection develops after surgery, the CRP levels will continue to rise longer than the normal acute phase response. When will they go down again?
After treatment
What shape are antibodies?
Y-shaped
When are antibodies produced?
In response to foreign substances
How many polypeptide chains are in an antibody?
Consists of 4 polypeptide chains
The ends of which 2 identical fragments of antibodies bind to a specific antigen?
2 identical fragments (Fab) have ends that bind to specific antigen
Fc region of antibodies binds to specific proteins, modulating what?
Immune cell activity
Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
IgG
Which immunoglobulin's biological function is long-term immunity?
IgG
Which immunoglobulin's biological function is as a secretory antibody, on mucous membranes?
IgA
Which immunoglobulin is the first response to an antigen?
IgM
Which immunoglobulin's biological function is as a B cells receptor?
IgD
Which immunoglobulin is involved with allergies and worm infections?
IgE
What is the % of total antibody and average life of the following immunoglobulins?
a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgD
e) IgE
a) 75-80%, 23 days
b) 7-15%, 6 days
c) 5-10%, 5 days
d) about 1%, 3 days
e) .002%, 2.5 days

Remember order with - Gabby And Micah Daydream of Eachother
Describe the primary response to an antigen.
After the first exposure to an Ag, the immune system produces IgM, leading to a gradual increase in Ab titer.
Describe the secondary response to an antigen.
After the second contact with the same Ag, the immune system produces a quicker, stronger response due to Abs production by memory cells.
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer of what type of cells?
Plasma cells (producing antibodies)
Multiple myeloma typically affects men and women after what age?
50 years
T/F

There is therapy for multiple myeloma, and its prognosis is generally good.
False!

Its prognosis, despite therapy, is generally poor
What types of treatment are available for multiple myeloma?
Treatment may involve chemotherapy and stem cell transplant
Multiple myeloma is part of the broad group of diseases called _________________.
Hematological malignancies
In multiple myeloma, bone lesions may affect what bones?
Skull, vertebrae, ribs and pelvis.
What may cause renal failure in multiple myeloma?
The excess production of light chains and its deposition in renal tubules
How can hypercalcemia be caused by multiple myeloma?
The breakdown of bone also leads to release of calcium into the blood.
How can anemia result from multiple myeloma?
Anemia results from Inhibition of normal red blood cell production (hematopoiesis).
T/F

Many organs can be affected by multiple myeloma, and the symptoms and signs vary greatly.
True!
What is the common tetrad of multiple myeloma?
CRAB

C = Calcium (elevated)
R = Renal failure
A = Anemia
B = Bone lesions
In regards to monoclonal antibodies, what can be formed by fusing a mouse B cell with a myeloma cell?
Hybridomas
(single specificity antibodies, that can recognize specific antigen)
T/F

Hybridomas can divide indefinitely.
True!
Monoclonal antibodies produce specific Abs in (small/large) amounts.
Large
What can monoclonal antibodies be used for?
Used in diagnosis of disease, identification of microbes and therapy