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147 Cards in this Set

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What are some clinical presentations of acute pericarditis?
Sharp chest pain, retrosternal, frequently sudden in onset, with inspiration and movement. Pain reduced by leaning forward or sitting up.

Splinted breathing, odynophagia, fever, myalgia, anorexia, anxiety, pericardial friction rub, cardiac dysrhythmias (intermittent), SVT, tachypnea, localized rales
When there is a pericardial effusion, how would you relieve pressure?
Insert an aspiration syringe beneath the xyphoid to the bottom of the pericardium
What is a pericardial "window"? What are the benefits?
A pericardial "window" is a flap opened to relieve Tamponade

Helps in performing diagnostic biopsies and collecting cultures, relieves fluid rapidly
What would a depressed PR segment usually indicate clinically?
Pericarditis
What are some ECG findings in acute pericarditis?
ST segment elevation (NOT AVR or V1)
PR segment depression
Sinus rhythm (sometimes atrial flutter or fibrillation)
Decreased QRS voltage
Occasionally electrical alternans (usually in setting of tamponade)
What is "bread and butter" pericarditis?
Mild fibrinous pericarditis - the heart has a film if fibrous material over the surface of the heart.
What are the ECG findings in mild fibrinous pericarditis?
MIld fibrinous pericarditis, or "bread and butter" pericarditis, show T wave inversion in all leads except AVR and V1. It is isoelectric in lead III.
What are some drugs and procedures that cause pericarditis (Iatrogenic pericarditis)
Drug induced lupus like syndrome (hydralazine, procainamide, diphenylhydantoin)
Radiation
Anticoagulants
Methysergide
Cyclosporine
Minoxidil
Streptokinase
CVP, defibrillator or pacemaker catheter placement
Cardiac transplantation, CABG and other cardiac surgery
Endoscopic sclerotherapy
What are some agents that cause infectious pericarditis? (don't need to memorize them all)
Viral (Coxsackie A, B, echovirus, influenza, adenovirus, Epstein-Barr, varicella, HIV, mumps)
Mycobacterial (M Tb, M. avium intracellulare)
Protozoa (Toxoplasmosis, Trypanosoma cruzi)
Fungal (histoplasma, coccidioides, blastomycosis, candida, aspergillus)
Bacterial (staphylococcus, sterptococcus, gram negative bacilli, meningococcus, pneumococcus, salmonella, brucella, Legionella, campylobacter, hemophilus inf, lyme disease, chylamydia psitaci, ricketsial, clostridium, nocaria, actinomyces, mycloplasma)
Parasitic (trichinosis, microfiliaria, echinococcus)
When the pericardial sac is opened up, what kind of necrosis may be seen?
Caseous "cheesy" necrosis
What is the approximate incidence of tuberculous pericarditis in TB patients? In cases of acute pericarditis? In cases of tamponade? Pericarditis in India?
1-2% of patients with pulmonary TB develop tuberculous pericarditis
4% of acute pericarditis
7% of tamponade
2% of cases of restrictive pericarditis
Most common cause of pericarditis in India

About 1/3 of cases require pericardiectomy
More common in AIDS patients than general population
What are some causes of pericardial complications of AIDS?
Kaposi's sarcoma, TB, HSV type 2, cytomegalovirus, cryptococcus neoformans, lymphoma, nocardia asteroides, nonspecific pericarditis
What is postpericardiotomy syndrome?
There is chest pain, fever, increased sed rate, pericardial effusion, sometimes pulmonary infiltrates. Occurs in 10-40% of patients following cardiac operations within 1-8 weeks of the operation.
In postpericardiotomy syndrome, how would you describe the pericardial fluid?
Are there ECG changes?
Pericardial fluid in this case is often serosanguinous

In 50% of cases, ECG resembles acute pericarditis.
What three types of infarctions are associated with pericarditis?
Early infarct associated with pericarditis?
Pericardial infusion - with or without tamponade
Postcardiac injury (Dressler's syndome)
How does pericarditis in MI present?
Pericardial rub 5-15% of patients
Usually 11 days to 3 months post infarction
Why are NSAIDs NOT used to treat pericarditis following MI?
Increasing risk of wall rupture, scar thinning, aneurysm
What are some causes of cardiac tamponade?
Malignant Tumor
Idiopathic pericarditis
Uremia
Bacterial infections
Anticoagulant therapy
Myxedema
Radiation
Cardiac rupture post infarction
Primary Chylopericardium
Dissecting aneurysm
Diagnostic procedures
Tuberculosis
Postpericardiotomy
Trauma
Connective Tissue Disease
What are some causes of pulsus paradoxis?
cardiac tamponade
acute/chronic airway disease
constrictive pericarditis
restrictive cardiomyopathy
pulmonary embolism
right ventricular infarction
circulatory shock
Physical findings in cardiac tamponade (good for boards!)
Elevated systemic venous pressure 100%
Paradoxical pulse 98%
Respiratory rate>20/min 80%
Heart rate >100/min 77%
Diminished heart sounds 34%
Pericardial friction rub 29%
Rapidly declining blood pressure 25%
What are some ECG findings for cardiac tamponade?
RA, RV diastolic collapse
LA collapse
IVC plethora
LV pseudohypertrophy
Swinging heart
Abnormal inspiratory increase in tricuspid wave flow, abnormal increase in RV dimension with abnormal decrease in LV dimension
What are some symptoms of constrictive pericarditis?
Exertional dyspnea
Fatigue
Abdominal swelling/discomfort
Orthopnea
Cough
What are some signs of constrictive pericarditis?
Elevated venous pressure
Edema, Ascites
Hepatomegaly
Pleural effusion
Kussmaul's sign
Pericardial knock
Pulsus paradoxis
Decreased precordial activity
What are some of the more common causes of constrictive pericarditis?
Idiopathic pericarditis: 40%
Post CABG: 30%
Tuberculosis: 10%
Radiation induced: 5%
Collagen vascular disease: 5%
Others (malignant, uremic, purulent): 5%
What are some causes of secondary cardiomyopathy?
Sarcoidosis
Amyloidosis
Hemochromatosis
Rheumatic
infection (viral, Lyme, Chagas)
Alcoholic
Adriamycin and other toxic drugs
List the classes of primary cardiomyopathies (3)
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Dilative cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
What are some treatments for Obstructive HCM?
Negative inotropes, pacemaker, or Myectomy
What are some treatments for Non-Obstructuve/End-Stage HCM?
Digoxin, Afterload reduction, Diuretics, Transplant surgery
What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
It is disproportionate hypertrophy of the LV, sometimes RV. Most often the hypertrophy bulges out on the interventricular septum, and LV volume is reduced.
What is the cause of HCM?
HCM is an autosomal-dominant genetic disease with incomplete penetrance.
How does an afterload-reducing agent in a patient with sub-aortic stenosis improve heart performance?
It decreases perfusion
What two types of HCM are there?
Obstructive and Non-Obstructive (which progresses to End-Stage)
What are the patterns for asymmetric vs symmetric idiopathic HCM?
Asymmetric Idiopathic HCM: 95%
Ventricular septal - 90%; Apical - 3%; Midventricular - 1%; Other - 1%;

Symmetric (concentric) Idiopathic HCM: 5%
What is dilated cardiomyopathy?
Dilation of the left ventricle and/or right ventricle - dilation is severe, and hypertrophy usually accompanies it.
How does dilated cardiomyopathy present?
LV/RV dilation, hypertrophy, impaired systolic ventricular function, CHF may be present

Rarely: ventricular or atrial arrhythmias
Death may occur at any stage
Since dilated cardiomyopathy is essentially irreversible, what problems are treated?
Hemodynamic/CHF issues
Dysrhythmia
Thromboembolic complications
Treatment for specific muscle diseases and myocarditis
Cardiac transplantation
What is used to treat hemodynamic/CHF issues in dilated cardiomyopathy?
Diuretics
Aggressive afterload reduction
Low sodium diet
Digoxin, possible role for other inotropics
What is used to treat dysrhythmias in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy?
Amiodarone
Beta-blockers (Metaprolol)
Carvedilol
Propafenone
Implantable Automatic Defibrillator
What is used to treat (risk of) thromboembolic complications in dilated cardiomyopathy?
Warfarin therapy
What are the treatments for specific muscle diseases and myocarditis which may contribute to the dilated cardiomyopathy?
Antiparasitic therapy for Chagas and trichinosis
Antibiotic therapy for Lyme disease
Treatment of underlying malignancies if present in amyloidosis
Chelation for hemochromatosis
Various treatments for myocarditis?
What are some possible viral causes for myocarditis?
Coxsackie A, B; Mumps, Influenza, Adenovirus;
What is the most common cause of sudden death in young athletes?
HCM
Why does HCM cause diastolic dysfunction?
Diastolic dysfunction means a problem with blood filling the left ventricle. Since HCM usually has diminished LV capacity and LV hypertrophy, that would cause diastolic dysfunction.
What are the principles of ACE inhibitor use?
Start drug early
Start at a low dose
Titrate to maximally tolerated dose
Tolerate low peripheral BP
Decrease diuretics as needed
Decrease potassium replacement as needed
What causes an increase in the murmur in patients with HCM? Why?
The murmur increases with amyl nitrate, valsalva, and isoproterenol - anything that increases LVOT gradient and decreases ventricular volume.
What causes a decrease in the murmur in patients with HCM? Why?
Decreases with hand grip, beta blockers, and phenylephrine - so with decreased LVOT gradient and increased ventricular volume
Why does dilated cardiomyopathy cause systolic dysfunction?
Dilated cardiomyopathy results in dilated left ventricular and a weaker ejection force of blood. As a result, the heart has more trouble ejecting blood into systemic circulation, blood backs up, and the lungs accumulate fluid, edema.
How would you recognize cardiac amyloidosis clinically?
In asymptomatic patients with abnormal ECG
In patients with HF and one of the following without obvious cause: Proteinuria, Gastroenteropathy, Anemia, Plasmacytosis, Peripheral neuropathy, bone pain
What kind of work-up would you do for cardiac amyloidosis?
ECG
Urine for Bence Jones protein
Serum for immunoelectrophoresis
Bone survey
Bone marrow aspiration
Biopsy - endomyocardial, abdominal subcutaneous fat, rectal, gingival
What is involved in a restrictive cardiomyopathy?
There is endocardial fibrosis, Loffler's cardiomyopathy, scarring that restricts filling of one or both ventricles, involvement of atrioventricular valves, cavity obliteration is characteristic of advanced cases
What is acute rheumatic fever?
A systemic disease of childhood that can follow a beta hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx (NOT skin)

It is a diffuse inflammatory disease of the connective tissue, primarily involving the heart, joints, skin, subcutaneous tissue, and CNS.
What are some manifestations of RF?
Migratory polyarthritis of the major joints (75%)
Pancarditis (endocarditis, myocarditis, pericarditis) in 40-50% can result in permanent heart damage
Erythema marginatum and subcutaneous nodules are uncommon, nearly pathognomic
Sydenham's chorea from inflammation of the basal ganglia
What demographics tend to get acute RF? Under what conditions?
Peak age-related incidence: 5-15 years
Young adults may be affected, recurrence as late as age 40
Associated with lower standards of living, crowding, poor sanitation
About what percent of individuals with untreated group A strep pharyngitis will develop RF?
0.4-3%
How does RF develop from strep A infection? What is the specific mechanism?
RF is a delayed immune response to an untreated group A strep infection which typically occurs after a latent period of 2-4 weeks

Antigen of the outer protein wall of GABHS induces an antibody response that can result in autoimmune damage to heart valves, subcutaneous tissue, tendons, joints, and basal ganglia of the brain
What is part of the typical immune response with RF?
Fibrinoid degeneration of connective tissue
Inflammatory edema
Inflammatory cell infiltration
What is the single diagnostic sign or laboratory test needed for diagnosis of RF?
There is no single sign/test that is sufficient
How does one use the (modified) Jones criteria to diagnose RF?
A patient must have either two major criteria, or one major criteria and two minor criteria
Plus evidence of of recent strep A infection, by culture or evidence of an immune response go GABHS antibody (anti-streptolysin O, anti-deoxyribonuclease B)
What are the major criteria of the Jones criteria?
Carditis
Migratory polyarthritis
Sydenham's chorea
Subcutaneous nodules
Erythema marginatum
What are the minor criteria of the Jones criteria?
Clinically: Fever, Arthralgia

Laboratory: Elevated acute phase reactants; Prolonged PR interval
Describe carditis within the context of RF
Presents with S/S of one or more of the following: pericarditis, cardiomegaly, right/left side CHF, mitral and/or aortic regurgitation
What is the only manifestation of RF that leaves permanent damage?
Carditis
How many patients with ARF carditis will have mitral valve involvement? What pathologic characteristics are present in the chronic phase?
~60%
Chronic phase: fibrosis, calcification, stenosis
How is ARF carditis diagnosed? (ECG studies, 2D echocardiography)
Prolonged PR interval (1st degree heart block)
May also see...
2nd/3rd degree blocks
ST depression
T wave inversion

2D Echocardiography - may reveal valve edema, mitral regurgitation, left atrial/ventricular dilation, pericardial effusion, decreased contractility
Describe migratory polyarthritis within the context of RF? How common is it?
Present in up to 75% of RF patients
Often affects ankles, wrists, knees, elbows - over a period of days. Joints become extremely painful, small joints and hips are usually spared.
What is an adequate pharmacological treatment for migratory polyarthritis in ARF?
Responds well to salicylates and other anti-inflammatory, so important not to prescribe until it is determined whether it is MIGRATORY polyarthritis
What is the difference between arthralgia and arthritis?
Arthritis is inflamed joints - with clinically observable S/S

Arthralgia is subjective, the sense of having painful or swollen joints
What is Sydenham's chorea within the context of RF? In what population is it most common?
10% of children with RF develop Sydenham's chorea

Latent period may be up to several months between strep infection and onset of chorea

Diagnosis of exclusion - no definitive test FOR Sydenham's chorea
What is the logical course of action for a patient with Sydenham's chorea?
Prophylaxis to prevent recurrent attacks even if they don't seem to have rheumatic fever

Patients who only seem to have chorea have later developed rheumatic valve disease, so must treat it as a serious sign
Describe erythema marginatum
Red circular/blobby outlines on the skin
What is included in the differential diagnosis for RF?
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Septic arthritis
Sickle-cell arthropathy
Kawasaki disease
Myocarditis
Scarlet fever (exotoxin-mediated)
Leukemia
What laboratory tests are useful in the diagnosis of ARF?
Anti-streptolysin O titer is positive in 80-85% of patients with ARF before 6 weeks
Adding anti-DNAse B or anti-hyaluronidase to ASO increases sensitivity to 90%
ESR, C-reactive protein (non-specific)

Throat culture - reliable only 40% of the time
What are the four steps in the treatment of RF?
Step 1 - primary prevention and treatment (eradication of streptococci with penicillin or erythromycin regardless of culture results)
Step 2 - Anti-inflammatory treatment (aspirin and/or steroids)
Step 3 - supportive management and management of complications
Step 4 - secondary prevention (prevention of recurrent attacks)
What are the conditions for going ahead with step 2 (anti-inflammatory tx) in treating RF?
Treat with anti-inflammatory drugs...
If ONLY arthritis is present, treat with aspirin
If carditis is present, treat with prednisone and add aspirin during the tapering
What is considered supportive management and management of complications in step 3?
Bed rest
Joint rest and supportive splinting
Treat CHF with diuretics, digitalis
Treat chorea with diazepam or haloperidol
What is secondary prophylaxis? What are the three categories and associated durations of treatment?
Patient is instructed to take ongoing low-dose antibiotics (penicillin, sulfadiazine, erythromycin)

Category I - Rheumatic fever with carditis and persistent valvular disease: Treat 10 years minimum, at age 40 consider lifelong prophylaxis

Category II - Rheumatic fever with carditis but no residual valvular disease: treat for 10 years or past age of 40, whichever is longer

Category III - Rheumatic fever without carditis: treat for 5 years or until age 21, whichever is longer
What is the prognosis for RF? What would make for a better prognosis? Worse prognosis?
RF can recur whenever the individual experiences new GABHS infection of not on prophylactic medicines - 50% recurrence if untreated

Good prognosis for older group if there was no carditis during initial attack

Worse prognosis if younger and had carditis - 30% die within 10 years (more susceptible to RF recurrences)
What is required for diagnosis of CHRONIC RHD?
Persistent valve lesions
How does chronic valvular disease develop (related to RF)? Incidence of mitral valve disease? Combined MV disease and aortic disease? Tricuspid involvement?
Chronic valvular disease develops from repeated episodes of RF - rigidity and deformity of valve cusps, fusion of the commisures, or shortening and fusion of the chordae tendinae

60% - mitral valve disease - stenosis or regurgitation
20% - combined MV disease and aortic disease - aortic stenosis and/or regurgitation
10% - tricuspid involvement - stenosis
What are the common S/S of Mitral Stenosis within the context of RF?
Common S/S: dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea - depends on the degree of left atrial pressure and subsequent right heart failure

May remain asymptomatic until there is a precipitating event - usually with onset of atrial fibrillation (80%) or pregnancy
How is Mitral Stenosis diagnosed?
Characteristic heart sounds - opening snap with a low-pitched mid-diastolic murmur (rumble)
Heard best with patient on left side, listen at apex with bell
ECG useful
How is Mitral Stenosis treated?
Warfarin - anticoagulant therapy if atrial fibrillation is present
Conversion to sinus rhythm
Surgery - balloon valvuloplasty, open mitral commissurotomy, valve replacement
Antibiotic prophylaxis
What is infective endocarditis?
A localized infection which forms a mass (vegetation) comprised of fibrin, platelets, and microorganisms

The vegetation adheres to cardiac valves or to the endothelial surface of injured areas
How does IE manifest?
IE tends to manifest systemically

Fever
Cardiac murmurs
Anemia
Splenomegaly
Petechiae
Pyruia
Peripheral Emboli
What is the untreated mortality rate for IE? How may it be paced?
Without proper treatment, mortality approaches 100%

Pace of symptomatic progression may vary from indolent to fulminant
What complications dominate during infection (within context of IE)?
Extracardiac complications are most common - though many patients with endocarditis will experience none of these

Complications result from bacteria shedding fragments of the infected thrombus from the valve vegetations
How long does bacteremia persist? How does the immune system make matters worse? (within the context of IE)
Bacteremia persists for a very long time, and is a prolonged antigenic challenge to the immune system.

Circulating immune complexes may cause microvascular damage, especially in the kidneys and small blood vessels of the skin
What is the impact of embolizing fragments in extracardiac disease (in IE)?
Embolizing fragments can present as metastatic infection, the worst may result in a brain abscess - other sites include kidney, liver, bone, and lung

Emboli also cause damage by occluding vessels
How is acute endocarditis defined?
Subacute endocarditis? Which is more common?
Acute endocarditis - hectic, febrile disease that will cause death in weeks if untreated

Subacute endocarditis - more indolent course, causing cardiac damage slowly, if at all. Accounts for 2/3 of cases
What (largely) determines the course of treatment?
Acute vs Subacute
Causative organism
What pathogens may cause infective endocarditis?
Staphylococcus aureus - 40%
Strreptococcus viridans - 40%
Enterococcus sp. - 11%
Gram Negative bacteria - HACEK (Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella), pseudomonas, etc.
How do the pathogens that cause IE enter the body?
S. viridans - oral cavity
S. aureus - skin
HACEK organisms - upper respiratory tract
What are risk factors for developing IE?
Using IV drugs - number one risk factor pts < 40 yo
Structural heart disease - 75% of patients with IE have a pre-existing structural cardiac abnormality. Up to 20% have a congenital heart disease.

Mitral valve prolapse carries a risk 5-8x higher than general population
Aortic valve disease in 30% of IE cases

Prosthetic heart valves (1-4% recipients)
Nosocomial endocarditis (invasive procedures)
HIV (from history of drug abuse)
How does IE usually develop?
Normal endothelium is resistant to infection
Infection is usually a consequence of a prior injury - such as impact by high-velocity blood jets from abnormal hemodynamics, areas of aberrant flow that allows thrombus formation
How are RF and IE related?
Decreased cases of RF also result in fewer cases of IE
What causative agents are usually behind acute IE? subacute IE?
Acute IE: beta-hemolytic strep, S. aureus, pneumococci

Subacute IE: S. viridans, enterococci, HACEK group
Does IE tend to have a general or specific presentation? How indicative is fever?
Variable presentations - spans a continuum between acute and subacute

Need to have a high degree of suspicion when a fever occurs in a patient with valve disease or history of drug use.
Fever is not a reliable sign in elderly
What are some cardiac signs in a clinical presentation of IE?
New regurgitant murmurs from valve damage and ruptured chordae
Development of intra-cardiac abscesses and fistulae
Injury to conduction system leads to heart block
What are some non-cardiac signs in a clinical presentation of IE?
Vegetation >10 mm more likely to embolize early, in these patients, peripheral signs are more likely at presentation
Antibiotic therapy significantly decreases but does not eliminate embolic events
List some basic S/S of IE, and how often are they seen in a clinical presentation?
Fever - 80-90%
Heart Murmur - 80-90%
Chills/sweats - 40-75%
CHF - 30-40%
Arterial emboli - 20-50%
Splenomegaly - 15-50%
Neurological changes - 20-40%
Worsened murmur - 10-40%
Peripheral signs - 2-15%
What organism is the most common causative agent in IV drug-related IE? Blood cultures positive or negative?
S. aureus in 50% of cases

Positive blood cultures (usually)
What kind of IE is most common in IV drug abusers?
Right-sided IE with tricuspid valve involvement - about 75% also have septic pulmonary emboli
Usually present without peripheral stigmata
Low fatality rate
Is a physical exam necessary for an IE dx? Why or why not?
Physical exams are NOT necessary for an IE dx
Most of the physical findings caused by endocarditis are not specific for dx and must be interpreted in the context of the overall exam and the patient's history
There are no physical findings that, if absent, are useful for ruling out the an IE dx

*However, the initial exam can assist in establishing the severity and serial exams are absolutely essential to the treatment of endocarditis pts.
How does fever usually present in an IE presentation?
Usually is present, may be intermittent or masked by other conditions such as malnutrition. May have already resolved through inappropriate antibiotic treatment
How does a cardiac exam (physical exam) lend clues to IE?
The value initially of a heart murmur may be low if there is no reliable information about the patient's prior condition
How do physical findings regarding skin, eyes, and the extremities lend clues to IE?
A careful exam for evidence of vasculitis or emboli, if found, can lend strong support to the diagnosis.
Red nodules (Osler's nodes)
Purpura (Janeway lesions)

Skin sores, such as from S. aureus, may also be useful. Fingernail beds may have splinter hemorrhages.

Eyes - Roth spots
What is the tests in the Duke criteria? Is the Duke criteria more sensitive or specific?
Highly sensitive, not specific - 10% of patients meeting these criteria will NOT have IE

Blood cultures - 3 BC sets from different sites obtained over 24 hours. Repeat in 48-72 hours if first sets are negative, but high suspicion remains

Echocardiography - allow anatomic confirmation of vegetation locations and size, and of cardiac function. Trans-esophageal (TEE) is the most sensitive.
How does one determine presence of IE using the Duke criteria?
There must be one of the following:
1) Direct evidence of IE based on histology
2) Gram's stain or culture of organisms obtained at surgery or autopsy
3) Two major criteria
4) One major and any 3 minor criteria
5) Five minor criteria
What are the major criteria in the Duke criteria?
Positive blood cultures - 2 separate cultures with S. viridans, S. bovis, HACEK group, S. aureus, enterococci

Evidence of endocardial involvement by echo of: vegetations, abscesses, or new partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve

New valvular regurgitation
What are the minor criteria in the Duke criteria?
Predisposition - heart condition, IV-drugs
Fever > 38 degrees C
Vascular development - arterial emboli
Immunologic development - glomerulonephritis
Microbiological evidence - other than major criteria
Echocardiogram - other than major criteria
What are the laboratory manifestations of IE?
Anemia - 70-90%
Leukocytosis - 20-30%
Microscopic hematuria - 30-50%
Elevated sed rate > 90%
Rheumatoid factor 50%
Circulating immune complexes 65-100%
Decreased serum complement - 5-40%

*Do not directly contribute to dx of IE, but are important in managing disease*
How is a trans-esophageal echo relevant to IE dx?
TEE is much more sensitive than transthoracic echocardiograms. Especially useful for detecting vegetations, better in dx of prosthetic valve endocarditis
Approaches 100% negative predictive value for native valve endocarditis

TTE is still the 1st dx test for most, as it is less invasive and often makes the dx, but TEE is gaining advocates. All agree it is better and necessary in selected situations
What is the general path for diagnosing endocarditis?
Ancillary laboratory tests, BC x 3, TTE - if Diagnostic, treat.
If nondiagnostic...TEE - if diagnostic, treat.
If nondiagnostic, most likely is not endocarditis
What are the general principles of antibiotic treatment within the context of endocarditis? What if the causative organism is unknown?
Antibiotics should be administered parenterally initially
Must reach high serum concentrations that will, through passive diffusion, lead to effective concentrations in the depths of vegetations.
Effective therapy requires precise knowledge of the susceptibility of the causative organism

If the organism is unknown, start with Vancomycin and Gentamicin - will cover MRSA, gram negatives, and other common causative agents
What kind of cardiac surgery is recommended in IE? When should it be considered?
Surgery recommended when...
Peri-valvular extension of infection
Poorly responsive S. aureus infection of valve
Persistent unexplained fever over 10 days
Relapse of prosthetic valve infection due to resistance

Surgery is required for optimal outcome if there is ...
Moderate/severe CHF
Partially dehisced prosthetic valve
S. aureus prosthetic valve endocarditis
Relapse of prosthetic valve infection due to resistance
What is the prognosis for native valve IE? Prosthetic valve IE?
Native valve IE - 85-90% survival for all organisms except S. aureus (survival is 55-70%)

Prosthetic valve IE - 50-60% if IE occurs within 2 months of valve placement. Increases to 80-90% thereafter
Are preventive steps taken for IE?
No evidence-based studies show effectiveness of endocarditis prophylaxis, but AHA expert committee has set guidelines for treatments and for how long it should be given
When is one considered at high risk for IE?
Prosthetic heart valves
Prior IE
Complex cyanotic congenital heart disease
Coarctation of the aorta
Surgically constructed systemic-pulmonary shunts
When is one considered at moderate risk for IE?
Ventricular septal defect, bicuspid aortic valve
Acquired aortic and mitral valve dysfunction
HCM
Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation and/or thickened leaflets
Who receives prophylaxis for IE prior to dental procedures?
As of 2007, it is now limited to those at high risk of adverse outcome from IE - argument is that the risk of IE from normal toothbrushing is higher than occasional dental procedures, and there is a relatively high risk of side effects from antibiotic prophylaxis
What antibiotics are used for IE prophylaxis?
PO: Amoxicillin

If PO poorly tolerated: Ampicillin, Cefazolin, Ceftriaxone

If PCN allergy: Cephalexin, Clindamycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin
List a few things in the DDx for chest pain (GI, Mus, Resp, CV)?
GI: PUD, GERD, esophageal spasm, gastritis
Mus: Costochondritis, rib dysfunction
Resp: Pneumonia, pleuritis, bronchitis
CV: aortic dissection, pericarditis, acute coronary syndromes
What affects the nature of cardiac pain in coronary artery occlusion?
Location of lesion
Amount of lumen narrowing
Duration of ischemia
What information is used to determine CAD?
History: HPI, risk factors
ECG
Serum biomarkers
Stress testing
Angiography
IVUS (if they have AWESOME insurance or they're at that step in the formulary)
What is the classic presentation for an acute coronary event (eg ischemia)? Atypical presentation? Associated symptoms?
Classic: substernal pressure with radiation along T1-T6 dermatomes, especially left

Atypical: overwhelming fatigue, sense of impending doom, anxiety

Associated symptoms: N/V, diaphoresis, dyspnea, lightheadedness
What is included in the Framingham risk score?
Age, gender, smoking, LDL-C, blood pressure
Describe the treadmill stress test
Watch for flat ST depression >2mm x 0.08ms
Stable or decreasing BP and HR
Can use adenosine to simulate exercise if the person is physically incapable of moving themselves and it's mind-blowing that they haven't died yet
Describe the Thallium (or Technetium) stress test
Inject Thallium during stressed phase of treadmill stress test
Nuclear scans detect regional ischemia
Repeat a nuclear scan 4h later to confirm reversibility of ischemia
Describe the pathophysiology of unstable angina - most common cause? What is happening? What is included in the DDx?
Decreased oxygen supply and increasing myocardial demand superimposed on cardiac obstruction

Most common ins plaque rupture with subtotal

DDx: consider spasm, fixed lesion, progressive lesion
What are some ECG findings in unstable angina?
Normal or non-specific
30-50% may have inverted T waves
Occasional ST segment depressions (transient ischemia)
Check ECG with CP and without for compensation
What is Variant (Prinzmetal's) Angina?
Coronary vasospasm without increased myocardial oxygen demand

Often adjacent to plaque, an active phase of spasms over 1-2 years, no evidence of plaque rupture, dysrhythmias are common, some role played by increased sympathetic tone
In what populations is Prinzmetal's Angina more common?
Typical patient is younger, with fewer risk factors - more common in smokers and cocaine users

ECG shows transient ST elevations
Good prognosis overall - some short term risk of MI, mostly from concurrent CAD
How does one evaluate and treat a patient with Prinzmetal's Angina?
Angiography with induction of spasm (via Ergonovine or hyperventilation)

Treatment: Nitroglycerin and a CCB - evaluate for CHD risk, refractory disease managed with surgical sympathetic denervation, in cocaine users avoid CCB and use benzodiazepam for short-term management
What is NSTEMI? How does it present?
Non-ST elevation MI
No ST elevation in ECG
Positive evidence of myocardial necrosis (biomarkers)
Angina or anginal equivalent
Diaphoresis, cool/clammy skin, tachycardia, S3/S4, bibasilar rales, HoTN

ECG may have T wave inversions, ST depressions, transient ST elevations (subendocardial ischemia)
How is NSTEMI treated?
Bedrest with continuous telemetry monitor
Sublingual Nitroglycerin, then paste or gtt (drip)
BB to goal HR 50-60
Morphine for breakthrough pain
Transfuse to goal Hct > 30%

Manage coagulation, electrolytes, glucose

Determine risk of the patient
If low risk, stress test within 72h
If high, coronary angiography within 48h (consider GPIIb/IIIa inhibitor)
How are coagulation, electrolyte balance, and glycemic control treated in NSTEMI patients?
Antithrombotics: chew 4 baby ASA, Thienopyridine, LMWH
Glycemic control: goal is glucose 120-150
Electrolyte balance: K+ > 4.0; Mg2+ > 2.0
What should a patient be given for long-term management post-NSTEMI?
Risk factor modification
Nitroglycerin SL prn, or long-acting
BB to decrease triggers and maintain target HR
Statins for plaque stabilization
ACE-I or ARB for preventing LV remodeling
Antithrombotics
What is STEMI? How does it present?
Angina or anginal equivalent
Elevated cardiac biomarkers
Elevated ST segments on ECG (transmural ischemia)
Pain more severe, lasts longer than anginal pain, not relieved with rest
Pt more restless, anxious, sense of impeding doom
What may be find in a STEMI physical exam?
Decreased S1, split S2, S3, S4
Apical impulse diminished
Dysrhythmias
Hypotension
How is a STEMI treated?
Decrease myocardial oxygen demand: O2, nitroglycerine, bed rest, BB, morphine, transfusion

Antithrombotics - ASA, Thienopyridine, Heparin gtt, Gp IIb/IIIa inhibitors

Reperfusion - ST elevated > 2mm in 2 precordial leads or > 1mm in 2 limb leads

Hypothermia in VF/VT arrest
What are some reperfusion strategies?
Thrombolytics - systemic "clot-busters" - use within 30 minutes of patient arrival
Percutaneous coronary intervention - balloon angioplasty, localizing thrombolysis, stenting
CABG
What medications should a patient be started on post-STEMI?
ACE-I within 24h - reduces ventricular remodeling, decreases risk of CHF, decreases reinfarction rate
BB - PO
Statin therapy prior to discharge
Consider long-acting nitrate for angina
Before discharging a patient post-STEMI, what should be done aside from start them on meds and arrange for follow up care?
Assess LV function with ECG
Follow ECG to look for Q waves - determine final diagnosis of QWMI or NQWMI
What effect do the S-ANS fibers from T1-T6 have related to the heart?
Increase HR and contractility
Dilate coronary arteries
Control diameter of thoracic duct and lymphatic channels
What are changes in S-ANS post-MI?
Increased tone inhibits development of collaterals
Increased risk of coronary vasospasm
Vasoconstriction raises total peripheral resistance and increases cardiac work load
What are the P-ANS effects on the heart? From where do those fibers originate?
P-ANS fibers originate in vagus nerve
Effect increased tone to slow HR and conduction
Decreased tone accelerates HR and conduction

Vagal efferents go to SA node (right) and AV node (left)
What are some OMM strategies for an inpatient post-MI?
Calm sympathetic hyperactivity to prevent arrhythmias
Promote lymphatic drainage but don't overload a weakened heart
Focus on acute changes - don't try to fix a lifetime of SD in the acute setting