Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
89 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
plasma
|
fluid phase after centrifugation with heparin (prevents clotting)
|
|
function of blood
|
conveys nutrients & wastes, hormones (endocrine) and gases (O2 and CO2)
|
|
components of plasma
|
90% water
10% protein (albumin, globulins, clotting proteins, complement proteins, lipoproteins) salts, gases |
|
how is serum different from plasma?
|
fluid phase remaining after CLOTTING and centrifugation
|
|
differential count
|
the relative numbers of leukocytes
|
|
number of erythrocytes
|
4-6 x 10^6/microliter
|
|
number of leukocytes
|
6-10 x 10^3/microliter
|
|
list granulocytes and percentages
|
neutrophils 61%
eosinophils 3% basophils 1% |
|
list agranulocytes and percentages
|
monocytes 5%
lymphocytes 30% |
|
RBC characteristcs
|
biconcave (increase SA)
7.5 um no nucleus or organelles 120 day lifespan |
|
what product is being synthesized by the polyribosomes in the cells in the early stages of erythrocyte production?
|
hemoglobin
|
|
why is the cytoplasm changing color as the cells in the erythropoietic series differentiate?
|
increase in hemoglobin content leads to increased red staining; decrease in polyribosome (Hb mRNA) content leads to decreased blue staining
|
|
how might iron deficiency affect the morphology of erythrocytes?
|
RBCs are microcytic (smaller than normal) and exhibit hypochromia (less hemoglobin leads to decreased redness in the RBCs, they tend to have staining only at the periphery of the cell)
|
|
anemia
|
low RBC count
|
|
erythrocytosis
|
high RBC count
|
|
thalassemia
|
loss of function mutation gives the absence of a Hb subunit (alpha and beta); often have increased HbF in beta thalassemia
|
|
sickle cell anemia
|
d/t GLU -> VAL mutation in beta globin, gives "sickle-shaped" RBCs
|
|
carbon monoxide poisoning
|
irreversible CO binding prevents O2 transport
|
|
band 3
|
anion transporter which exports HCO3- and binds ankyrin (maintains biconcave shape by 'anchoring' to the sub-plasmalemmal network)
|
|
outermembrane proteins of RBCs
|
attach carbohydrate groups (antigen A, antigen B, Rh antigen) which confer blood type; if patient is missing antigen, the patient has antibodies against the missing antigen
|
|
leukocyte characteristics
|
move thru tissues via diapedesis
fx to defend against foreign invaders "travel in blood, work in tissues" 6-10 x 10^3/ul in peripheral blood; higher at birth |
|
neutrophil appearance
|
12 um
"neutral" granules (light pink or purple) single, multi-segmented nucleus (~3 lobes) three granule types (azurophilic, specific, tertiary) |
|
neutrophil function
|
kill bacteria
chemotactic signal -> specific & tertiary granule release -> degrade ECM to permit migration -> granule release to degrade bacteria -> phagocytose bacteria into phagosome |
|
what are the three components of the glomerular filtration barrier?
|
(1) glomerular capillary endothelium
(2) glomerular basement membrane (3) visceral layer of Bowman's capsule (podocytes) |
|
what is the space between pedicles?
|
filtration slit
|
|
what is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule?
|
65-70% Na+, H2O via AQP-1 channels, all glucose, amino acids, protein (<70kD), HCO3, K, Cl and PO4
|
|
what is excreted from the proximal tubule?
|
H ions, organic acids, bases
|
|
what types of cells line the thick and thin portions of the loop of Henle?
|
thick=cuboidal epithelium
thin=simple squamous epithelium |
|
what are the "endocrine" functions of the kidney?
|
secretion of renin, erythropoietin and activated vitamin D
|
|
what is secreted and reabsorbed in the STRAIGHT portion of the distal tubule?
|
impermeable to H2O
reabsorbed: Na, Cl, Ca, Mg, K, HCO3 secreted: H ions |
|
what is secreted and reabsorbed in the CONVOLUTED portion of the distal tubule?
|
reabsorbed: Na (aldosterone responsive), Cl, K, HCO3, H2O (ADH required)
secreted: K, urate, H ions, NH3 |
|
what is a kidney lobe?
|
a macroscopic subdivision consisting of a renal pyramid and its surrounding cortex
|
|
what is a kidney lobule?
|
a microscopic subdivision consisting of a medullary ray and the cortical tissue on either side
|
|
what is the capsule of the kidney?
|
consists mainly of fibrous connective tissue and surrounds kidney; the parenchyma is not subdivided by septa
|
|
respiratory burst
|
neutrophil releases hydrolytic enzymes into the phagosome; initiated by NADPH oxidase
|
|
what does mutation of the NADPH oxidase gene cause?
|
persistent bacterial infections
|
|
eosinophil functions (2)
|
(1) kill parasites
(2) phagocytize Ab:Ag complexes |
|
what is the mechanism for asthma?
|
leaukotrienes (products of arachidonic acid) recruit eosinophils to the lungs and induce them to manufacture more leukotrienes which cause:
(1) blood vessel leakiness -> edema (2) bronchiolar cells -> constrict (3) sero-mucous glands -> mucus |
|
what is the tx for asthma?
|
leukotriene receptor antagonists
|
|
what specific granules are found in basophils?
|
heparin & histamine
|
|
anaphylactic shock
|
second exposure to allergen may cause global release of specific granules by basophils resulting in:
(1) low blood volume (bv leakiness) (2) respiratory insufficiency (bronchial constriction) |
|
function of monocytes
|
(1) migrate into tissue and differentiate into tissue macrophages -> phagocytosis
(2) macrophages known as antigen-presenting cells present phagocytosed antigens to lymphocytes |
|
T cells
|
predominant in peripheral blood (~80%); types include:
(1) helper T cells (2) suppressor T cells (3) cytotoxic "killer" T cells: kill tumor cells, transplanted tissue, virus-infected cells |
|
B cells
|
differentiate into plasma cells -> release antibodies
|
|
granulomere (platelet)
|
central dark region with granules containing clotting factors and growth factors (PDGF)
|
|
hyalomere
|
peripheral light region containing parallel-arranged microtubules
|
|
thrombocytopenia
|
too few platelets (~50,000/ul)
|
|
precursor to platelet
|
megakaryocyte in bone marrow
|
|
epitopes
|
the parts of each antigen that are specifically recognized by receptors; usually peptides consisting of only a few amino acids
|
|
antigen
|
any molecule that is recognized by the immune system
|
|
innate immune system
|
comprised of phagocytes (macrophages and neutrophils) which directly kill, degrade and ingest pathogens
|
|
adaptive immune system
|
comprised of lymphocytes which kill pathogens via their highly specialized cell surface molecules
|
|
B lymphocytes
|
contain specific cell surface receptors that are ultimately secreted as antibodies (immunoglobulins) to confer 'humoral' immunity within body fluids
|
|
T lymphocytes
|
confer 'cell-mediated immunity' via specific cell-surface receptors that are never secreted
|
|
what are the four biological features of adaptive immune cells?
|
(1) diversity: B and T cells are amplified as diverse clones; each cell makes a specific antigen receptor
(2) specificity: each antigen receptor recognizes a specific epitope on the antigen of a pathogen (3) self-tolerance: antigen receptors that recognize 'self' are normally removed via apoptosis during development (4) memory: second and subsequent encounters between an antigen receptor and its specific antigen elicit a dramatic 'boost' |
|
how many polypeptides make up antibodies?
|
four (two identical 'heavy' chains ~50kD and two identical 'light' chains 25 kD); each heavy chain has 4-5 Ig domains and each light chain has 2 Ig domains
|
|
variable region
|
outermost region that binds antigens in a specific fashion; amino acid structure of the outermost Ig domain of both the heavy and light domain significantly varies between antibodies
|
|
what does it mean that BCRs are bivalent?
|
each BCR can bind two epitopes (as long as they are identical)
|
|
what are the five subclasses of antibodies?
|
IgD, IgE, IgG (monomers)
IgA (dimer) IgE (tetramer) |
|
TCRs
|
remain on the cell surface and are never secreted; comprised of two polypeptide chains (alpha and beta chain)
|
|
what do helper T cells express?
|
CD4
|
|
what do cytotoxic T cells express?
|
CD8
|
|
MHC-I
|
expressed by virtually all nucleated cells; "presents" foreign antigens of an invading microorganism, cell is killed following cytotoxic T cell activation; also presents "self" epitopes, which are normally ignored by the T cell
|
|
MHC-II
|
expressed only on antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic cells, B lymphocytes); "presents" foreign epitopes only
|
|
cytokines
|
a group of proteins called interleukins secreted by helper T cells; "help" cells of the innate immune system kill pathogens; also induce B cells to differentiate into plasma cells and produce antibodies
|
|
primary lymph organs
|
liver, bone marrow, thymus
|
|
secondary lymphatic organs
|
lymph nodes
spleen diffuse lymphatic tissue (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue MALT and gut-associated lymphoid tissue GALT) |
|
what is unique about the stroma in the thymus?
|
the stroma consists of supportive cells (epithelial-reticular cells derived from endoderm) rather than connective tissue fibers
|
|
what is the parenchyma of the thymus composed of?
|
T cells and APCs (specifically macrophages and dendritic cells)
|
|
thymic lobule
|
subunit of thymus; each lobule has an outer thymic cortex and an inner thymic medulla (contain cellular compartments created by the cytoplasmic processes of the epithelial-reticular cells)
|
|
what holds the cytoplasmic processes together?
|
tight junctions that provide effective barriers against: (1) foreign antigens and (2) the blood vascular system; prevents premature activation of T cells during maturation
|
|
lymphoid nodules in the cortex predominantly contain what kind of cells?
|
B cells
|
|
lymphoid nodules in the paracortex contain what kind of cells?
|
T cells and APCs
|
|
what are the two main functions of the spleen?
|
(1) mount an immune response
(2) filter blood and re-cycle RBC components |
|
neutrophil lifespan
|
few days
|
|
eosinophil lifespan
|
<2 weeks
|
|
basophil lifespan
|
long-lived (~years)
|
|
what is the largest WBC?
|
monocyte (~15 um)
|
|
monocyte lifespan
|
few days in blood; several months in CT
|
|
what kind of cells provide physical support in the bone marrow?
|
mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs); can be thought of as specialized fibroblasts
|
|
what kind of cells can multipotent stem cells differentiate into?
|
endothelial cells, osteocytes, bone marrow adipose tissue, hematopoietic cells
|
|
clusters of differentiation
|
surface proteins on bone marrow cells and bone marrow products (allow differentiation b/t different bone marrow-derived cells types)
|
|
how is typing of bone marrow cells performed?
|
use monoclonal antibodies which specifically bind to a cognate cell surface receptor protein -> enables isolation and purification of bone marrow and bone-marrow derived cells using mAbs labeled with fluorescent signals, followed by "cell sorting" using an instrument called a fluorescent-activated cell sorter (FACS)
|
|
how much of the total body mass is composed of bone marrow?
|
5%
|
|
site of hematopoiesis
|
yolk sac blood islands (early embryo) -> liver -> "red marrow" (5th month of prenatal life)
|
|
what is the daily demand of human bone marrow?
|
100 billion new erythrocytes
10 billion new granulocytes 400 billion new platelets |
|
colony forming units
|
collection of progenitor cells that undergo clonal expansion in response to specific colony-stimulating factors
|
|
colony-stimulating factors
|
proteins that regulate the expansion of bone marrow progenitor cells
|
|
stem cell factor (SCF)
|
interacts with c-kit (on all hematopoietic precursors) -> restricts hematopoiesis to the 'stromal' cells in the bone marrow
|