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226 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Ipsilateral |
Belonging to or occurring not he same side of the body |
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Contralateral |
Occurring on the opposite side of the body |
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Long Bone |
Longer than they are wide contains growth plates harder outer surface (compact bone) Spongy bone in the inside (cancellous bone) bone marrow Bone ends covered in hyaline cartilage |
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Short Bone |
as wide as they are long function: provide support and stability with little movement Thin layer of compact bone large amounts of bone marrow |
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Flat Bones |
Flat plates of bone function: provide protection to the body's vital organs; base for muscular attachment Have anterior and posterior surfaces highest number of RBC formed in flat bone |
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Irregular Bone |
Non-uniform shape primarily spongy bone (cancellous bone) thin layer of compact bone |
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Sesamoid Bone |
typically short or irregular bones imbedded in a tendon that passes over a joint to serves as protection of the tendon |
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Name the 5 functions of the skeletal system |
1. Leverage 2. Support 3. Protection 4. Storage 5. Blood Cell Formation (Hematopoiesis) |
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How many bones are in the body? How many are axial and how many are Appendicular? |
206 total 80 Axial 126 Appendicular |
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Epiphysis |
the rounded end of a long bone, at its joint with adjacent bone(s). Between the epiphysis and diaphysis (the long midsection of the long bone) lies the metaphysis, including the epiphyseal plate (growth plate). |
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Diaphysis |
The shaft or central part of a long bone. |
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Compact Bone |
also known as cortical bone 80% of skeletal bones located on the outside of bone Lamellae contains blood vessels and nerve pathways porosity of 15% |
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porosity |
the ratio of pore same to the total volume; where porosity increases, bone mechanical strength deteriorates |
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Lamellae |
a system of hollow tubes placed inside one another made of collagen fibers to collectively create osteon (functional unit) |
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spongy bone |
also known as cancellous bone internal portion of bone of vertebrae, ends of the long bones lattice-like structure with 70% porosity weaker than cortical and less dense |
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periosteum |
a thin white membrane covering the outside of the bone with the exception of the parts covered by cartilage |
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articular cartilage |
also known as hyaline cartilage avascular cartilage consisting of 60% to 80% water and a solid matrix of collagen and proteoglycan no blood, no nerves, but is nourished by synovial fluid shock absorption and stress diffuser |
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synarthrosis |
immovable articulation |
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amphiarthrosis |
slightly movable articulation |
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diathrosis |
freely movable articulation |
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name the three functional classifications of articulations |
1. Synarthrosis (immovable) 2. Amphiarthrosis (slightly movable) 3. diarthrosis (freely movable) |
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Name the three structural classifications for articulations |
1. fibrous 2. cartilaginous 3. Synovial |
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Are synovial joints freely movable are immovable? |
freely movable |
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Muscle |
contracts and pulls on bone to produce joint movement |
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tendon |
formed by extensions of the fascia connects muscle to bone in kinetic chain |
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Close-Packed Position |
Maximal joint surface contact, minimal mobility |
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Loose-Packed Position |
Less joint surface contact, greater mobility |
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Uniaxial joint |
One Plane Ex: hinge (elbow) and Pivot (atlanto-axial) |
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Biaxial Joint |
Two Planes Ex: Saddle, Condyloid (Knee, TMJ), Ellipsoid (Radio- carpal) |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Lumbar Transverse Processes |
Lumbar Vertebrae |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Iliac Crest |
Os Coxae |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: ASIS and AIIS |
Os Coxae |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Pubic Tubercle/ Body |
Os Coxae |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Ischial Tuberosity |
Os Coxae |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Lesser Trochanter |
Femur |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Greater Trochanter |
Femur |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Linea Aspera |
Femur |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Adductor Tubercle |
Femur |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Medial and Lateral Condyles |
Femur |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Tibial Tuberosity |
Tibia |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Pes Anerine |
Tibia |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Gergy''s Tubercle |
Tibia |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Fibular Head |
Fibula |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Navicular Tubercle |
Navicular |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Styloid Process |
5th Metatarsal |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Retrocalcaneal Surface |
Calcaneous |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Medial Tubercle |
Calcaneous |
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Name the bone where the following muscle attachment site is located: Metatarsal Heads |
Metatarsals |
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What is the four purposes of the foot? |
1. Support weight of the body 2. Loose adaptor to uneven surfaces 3. Shock absorber to attenuate GRF's 4. Rigid lever for proulsion |
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Name the two joints of the Ankle Joint Complex. |
Talocrural Joint Subtalar Joint |
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What makes up the talocrural joint and where is it located? |
the mortise (Fibula and tibia) with the talus bone |
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What makes up the subtler joint? |
Talus and calcaneus |
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What structure restricts the subtler joint? |
The lateral malleolus of the fibula |
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Name the 5 joint structures |
Ligaments, Tendons, Bursae, Retinacula, Articular Cartilage |
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What kind of articulation structures connect the Tib-Fib Syndesmosis? Low or high risk for ankle injury? |
connective tissue/tendons, high |
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What is the purpose of the lateral ligaments of the ankle? |
Resist excessive eversion stress |
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Name the three lateral ligaments of the ankle. |
ATFL: anterior tibiofibular ligament CFL: calcaneofibular ligament PTFL: posterior tibiofibular ligament |
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What is the purpose of the medial ligaments of the ankle? |
resist excessive eversion stress |
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Name the medial ligament of the ankle. |
Deltoid Ligaments (4 total) |
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What is the purpose of plantar fascia + spring ligaments? |
To support arch of foot |
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Name the five articulation groups of the ankle. |
Tip-fib syndesmosis Lateral Ligaments Medial Ligaments Plantar Fascia +Spring Ligaments Achilles Tendon |
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Name the three joint motions of the ankle. |
Talorcrucal joint Subtalar joint 1st MTP |
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In a talocrural joint, which has a greater angle? Dorsiflexion or plantar? |
plantar flexion (50 degrees) dorsiflexion(20) |
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What injury is caused by hyperextending the 1 MTP motion joint of the ankle? |
MTP ligaments can be torn called turf toe |
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caves foot arch (pes cavus) |
high arch windlass effect |
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rectus foot arch |
normal |
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planus (pes planus) foot arch |
flat foot |
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name the three planar motions when trying to supinate. |
calcaneal inversion forefoot adduction plantar flexion |
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Name the three planar motions when trying to pronate. |
Calcaneal eversion forefoot abduction dorsi flexion |
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what muscle group gains a mechanical advantage from the patella-femoral articulation? |
quads |
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which joint in the knee absorbs torsional stress applied by closed kinetic chain (foot planted) foot movements? |
proximal tibia-fibular joint |
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Name the three roles of the meniscus cartilage in the knee joint. |
enhance joint stability absorb shock disperse synovial fluid to lubricate joint surface |
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all three per anserine muscles. |
Sartorial, gracilis, and semitndonosis |
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name the four quad muscles. |
vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, and rectus femoris |
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name all 3 hamstrings. |
biceps femoris, semitendinosis, semimembranosis |
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the screw home mechanism of the knee is shown during flexion or extension of he knee? Does the tibia rotate literally or medially during this motion? |
Extension, laterally
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What muscle causes knee flexion by unlocking the knee? What bone is rotated medially by this muscle? |
Popliteus, tibia |
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knee valgum |
Q angle increases and causes knees to bend more medially (pigeoned legged) |
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knee vargum |
q angle decreased and causes knee to bend more laterally (bow legged) |
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What is the most functional Q angle value for the knee? For males? Females? |
10 10-14 15-17 (birthing hips cause greater angle) |
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Knee Recurvatum |
hyperextension of the knee where the femur is more anterior that the tibia/fibula |
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What are the two markers of the human skeleton used to measure the q angle? |
Center of patella and anterior superior iliac spine |
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in an unhappy triad injury, what two ligaments and structure are torn? |
ACL MCL Meniscus Tear |
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What disease marks the bone being inflamed and broken up at the attachment of the patellar tendon to the shin bone? |
Osgood Schlatter's disease |
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What is jumpers knee? |
patellar Tendinitis |
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What are the three parts to the pelvis? |
ilium, pubis, ischium |
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True or false. There are only ligament from the ischium to the femur in the hip joint. |
False, there are joint from all three pelvic bone: olio-, ishio-, pubs-femoral ligaments |
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Which has the greatest range of motion the hip joint: flexion or extension. |
Flexion |
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Name the function of the muscle: Rectus Femoris |
Hip Flexor |
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Name the function of the muscle: Isiopsoas |
Hip Flexor |
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Name the function of the muscle: Hamstrings (Semi/BF) |
Hip Extensor |
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Name the function of the muscle: Gluteius Maximus |
Hip Extensor |
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Name the function of the muscle: Gluteus Medius/Minimus |
Hip Abductor |
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Name the function of the muscle: TFL |
Hip Abductor |
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Name the function of the muscle: Gracilis |
Hip Adductor |
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Name the function of the muscle: Pectineus |
Hip Adductor |
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The sciatic nerve runs through a group of muscles that causes piriformis syndrome when damaged. What movement group are they? |
Hip Rotator muscles (piriformus, gamellus, obturators) |
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What is the difference between degenerative joint disorder (DJD) and avascular necrosis? |
DJD breakdown of cartilage in joint AN breakdown of bone |
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greater trochanteric bursitis is also known as what syndrome? |
snapping hip syndrome |
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can walking display emotion? |
yes |
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What are the three purposes of walking? |
move our HAT (head, arm, torso) locomotion survival |
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What percent of the gait cycle is stance and swing? |
stance is 60% swing is 40% |
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what percent of stance is double limb stance? |
10% |
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does double limb support imply equal sharing of body weight of the two feet? |
no |
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who would have longer times of double limb support? |
slow walkers, unbalanced people |
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what kind go gait requires no double limb support? |
running |
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stride |
action of one limb |
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step |
timing between the two limbs (2 steps in |
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What is the difference between cadence and speed when running? |
Cadence is number of steps per given amount of time (steps/s). Speed is distance per given time (m/s) |
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T or F. If we decrease step length on one side, that means it is injured. |
False, it may be limping wear the foot bearing all the weight due to injury on the other side can only take little steps because of all the weight. |
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What triggers the initial contact in gait? |
When the foot's heel strikes the ground |
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What determines loading response in the initial contact? |
Joint postures |
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Given the scenario, name what part of gait is described: The purpose of this part of gait is to prepare the limb for loading response actions. |
Initial Contact of Double Limb Stance |
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What percent of Gait cycle is Initial contact? |
0-2% |
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In initial contact for gait, does the rocking motion use or save energy? |
save |
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Name the action of the hip, knee, and ankle each during initial contact. |
Flex, extend, and dorsiflex respectively |
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Name the two parts to wright acceptance in gait. |
Initial Contact and loading response |
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What part of gait begins initial double stance period? |
Loading response |
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What position is the foot in when the loading response of gait? Just heel or full foot flat? |
Full foot flat |
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Name the beginning and end of wight acceptance's loading response. |
Beginning: when the foot (heels and toe) are all touching the ground End: When the opposite foot begins swing |
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Name what phase is described: The purpose is shock absorption, weight-bearing stability, maintain progression |
loading response |
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What is mid stance entail in gait: double limb support or single limb support? |
single |
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What is the beginning and end of mid stance? |
beginning: when one foot is lifted end: Body weight aligned over forefoot |
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Name what phase or gait is described: progression over stationary foot, and limb & trunk stability are the purposes. |
Mid Stance |
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What part of gait represents 12-31% of GC? |
Mid Stance |
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What is the last stage of single limb support? |
Terminal Stance |
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When does terminal stance end? |
When the opposite limb's heel touches the ground |
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What is the final stage of stance? |
Pre-swing |
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What ends pre-swing in gait? |
the ipsilateral toe off the ground |
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What is the purpose of pre-swing in gait? |
position limb for swing, and accelerate progression |
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Name the two parts to terminal stance. |
Terminal Stance and pre-swing |
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Name why phase of gait is described: The purpose is to position the limb for swing and accelerate progression |
Pre-Swing |
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Name all four parts to swing phase. |
Pre swing, initial swing, mid swing, and terminal swing |
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What begins terminal stance in reference to tibial positioning? |
Tibia becomes vertical |
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what ends terminal swing in GC? |
Foot contact with the floor |
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Name what part of GC is described: the purpose is to complete limb advancement and prepare the limb for stance |
Terminal Swing |
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What can determine instability by magnitude and direction of force relative to joint centers? |
Ground Reaction Force |
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What can gain insight into demands on muscles and ligaments to either maintain stability or contribute to joint mobility in gait? |
Center of pressure |
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In the gait cycle, why are muscles contracting if they are not responding to external forces and moments from GRF? |
Bc they are contracting for stance |
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In order to walk faster, what two things need to be increased? |
Cadence and stride length
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T or F. If greater ground reaction force is decreased, speed will increase in gait. |
False |
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T or F. A larger range of motion will increase speed. |
True |
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T or F. Higher energy consumption will decrease speed. |
False |
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True or False: cervical and Lumbar more mobile than thoracic and pelvic. |
True |
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Name the three components of the spine to cause motion segment. |
2 adjacent vertebrae, Intervertebral discs, and facet joints |
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What type of joint in a facet joint? |
A synovial Joint wth joint capsules |
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What feature of the spine prevents excessive shear and rotation to protect discs? |
Facet Joints |
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What is the difference between spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis? |
Spondylolysis is the degeneration of bone when spondylolisthesis is the displacement of a vertebrae over an adjacent vertebrae to cause displacement of weight bearing. |
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Would pronation of the ankle make you flat footed or high arched? |
Flat footed |
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Would supination of the ankle make you flat footed or high arched? |
High arched |
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Practice digitorum extension/flexion, adduction and abduction |
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Practice wrist flexion/extension, dial deviation and ulnar deviation, and pronation/ supination. |
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Practice elbow extension and flexion. |
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Choose either true leg length difference or apparent: There is pelvic obliquity and functional scoliosis. |
True LLD |
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If there is functional scoliosis, is it true LLD or apparent? |
True |
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What kind of deviation is a product of true leg length displacement? |
Ground up deviation |
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What kind of deviation is a product of structural scoliosis? |
Spine Down Deviation |
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If the spine is structurally affected by scoliosis, there will be pelvic obliquity and therefore apparent or true leg length deviation? |
apparent |
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If there is apparent leg length deviation, then what kind of scoliosis is present? |
Structural deviation |
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Are the intervertebral discs of the spine vascular or avascular? Do they experience longer or shorter healing time? |
Avascular, longer healing time |
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Annulus fibrosis |
fibers outer overing of the intervertebral discs |
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Nucleus pulposus |
Central, gel-like inside of the intervertebral disc |
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What percent of the intervertebral disc is made up of the nucleus pulpous of water and of collagen? |
80-90% water 10-20% collagen |
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Throughout the day, body weight causes water reduction. Will this shorten or lengthen the spinal column? by roughly how much in mm? |
shorten by 15-25 mm |
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Overnight, the nucleus pulpous of the IVD imbibes or expels water to shorten height or restore height to the disc and column? |
imbibes, restores |
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Name the five branches of the brachial plexus. |
axillary nerve musculocutaneous nerve radial nerve median nerve ulnar nerve |
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Name the six nerves of the limbo-sacral plexus. |
Superior/ inferior gluteal nerve femoral nerve obturator nerve sciatic nerve tibial nerve common peroneal nerve (deep and superficial) |
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practice neck flexion/ extension and rotation. |
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Practice trunk lateral flexion and extension. |
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Practice trunk flexion and extension. |
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Practice neck flexion/extension as well as rotation. |
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What is the name for having a hump back? when vertebrae are affected? |
Kyphosis, exaggerated thoracic |
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What is the name of sway back of the spine? What is a group of people how commonly have this? |
Lordosis, fat people or pregnant women |
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Name the status of the hip flexors, erector spinae and the abs whether each are weak or tight when there is an anterior pelvic tilt. |
Tight hip flexors, tight erector spinae, and weak abdominals |
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When there are tight hamstrings, is there a posterior or anterior tilt of the pelvis? |
Posterior Pelvic tilt |
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In trunk flexion, the IVD is (compressed or under tension) on the anterior portion annulus fibrosis and (compressed or under tension) on the posterior portion. |
compressed, under tension |
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When performing a spearing tackle in football, should one keep their head down or up? Explain wha the injury could be if performed incorrectly. |
They should keep their head up bc when it is down, the cervical spine is in a straight line as apposed to its normal curvature. It loses some of its natural loading and shock absorption abilities when curved. Possible damage to spinal cord |
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When the head accelerates, does the brain hit the front or the back of the head? |
hits the back. |
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When the head decelerates, does it hit the front or the back of the head? |
front of the head. |
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Name the three articulations at the elbow. |
Humero-Ulnar (trochlear) humero- radial proximal radio-ulnar |
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Which articulation at the elbow is responsible for pronation and supination? |
Radio-ulnar joint |
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What is the reason for the cubital valgus angle in the elbow? |
Due to the asymmetry in the trochlear groove (longer ulnar) |
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Who has a greater cubital valgus angle in their elbow, women or men? |
women |
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If there is a greater angle in the cubital valgus of the elbow, what injury potential increases? What sport is this commonly found? |
Medial elbow aka medial collateral ligament aka UCL |
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Is cubital virus an increase or decrease in the elbow angle? What is the nickname of this kind of injury? |
decrease, gunstock deformity |
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In the angular ligament, what motion at the elbow is affected? |
supination and pronation |
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What three ligaments make up the UCL? |
Transverse anterior longitudinal |
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Of the three ligaments in the UCL of the elbow, which ligament is most commonly injuries due to its predominance of managing the stress? |
Anterior band |
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Which is more commonly injuries? UCL or RCL? |
UCL |
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What is the function of the annular ligament of the elbow? |
wraps around radial head to pin radius against ulna for supination and pronation |
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Name which feature of the elbow is described: spans through the elbow to hold radius and ulna together to prevent them from separating. |
Interosseous membrane |
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What is the Tommy John surgery referring to? |
The common baseball injury to the MCL of the elbow creating a figure eight formation of ligaments in the medial ligament |
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Where the carpo-metacarpal (CMC) located? Function? |
Base of thumb, function is opposition (grasp things) |
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There is a disc located between the ulna and carpals. Anatomically, why is there a disc between the ulna and not the radius? |
Because at the distal end of the ulna, it is shorter than the radius so it acts as a cushion and shock absorption for ulnar deviation. |
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Where do all extensors of the forearm originate? |
lateral epicondyle |
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where does all of the supinators originate? |
lateral epicondyle |
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Where doe all of the forearm pronators originate? |
Medial epicondyle |
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Where do all of the forearm flexors originate? |
medial epicondyle |
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What injury is related to tennis elbow and why? |
Lateral epicondylitis bc the back hand hit can over use the extensor muscles eccentrically loading and forces wrist into flexion |
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What injury is related to golfer's elbow and why? |
Medial epicondylitis bc wrist flexion action occurs when performing front swing where the collision with the ball causes eccentrical loading on extension of the medial epicondyle |
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What injury is related to little league elbow and why? |
medial epicondylitis because there are open growth plates at the supinator pronator insertion on the medial epicondyle. If the force is too large, it will pull the ligament off the growth plate (in adults its the UCL) |
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which has a great range of motion in the shoulder? flexion or extension |
flexion |
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which has a greater range of motion in the shoulder? abduction or adduction |
abduction |
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which has a greater range of motion in the shoulder? medial rotation or lateral rotation |
medial |
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describe the three muscles used for scapular upward rotation of the scapula and the direction they each move the scapula. |
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If rotator cuff is injured in the shoulder, will the humeral head move more proximal to the scapula or distal? Will is increase or decrease the hummer-scapular ratio? |
Proximal, will decrease to 1:1 or even 1:2 |
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At about what angle of degrees does the scapula kick in in shoulder abduction to assist the glena-humeral action? |
30 degrees |
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which joint has a fibrocartilage disc between the two bones: stereo-clavicular joint or acromio-clavicular joint |
SC joint |
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if the serrates anterior inn the scapulothoracic joint was damaged, where would the scapula move to? |
Medial border of scapula would come off of thorax and move dorsal |
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What two joints does the scapulothoracic joint rely on for movement and in what percentage? |
SC joint (65%) AC (35%) |
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Name the three plans of motion the shoulder act. |
Transverse Frontal Saggital |
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how much bigger is the humeral head in comparison to the glenoid cavity? |
humeral head is 4 times bigger with less that 20% of the humeral head in contact with the glenoid cavity at any point in ROM |
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What feature of the shoulder joint increases contact between humeral head and glenoid fossa by 75%? |
glenoid labrum |
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What was the glenoid labrum compared to in class as a part to a car sitting on a hill to stabilize it? |
the glenoid labrum is like a wedge to maximize stability so the bone doesn't roll out of the socket |
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If the glenoid labrum tears in the shoulder joint, where will the humeral head migrate to? |
more superior for more stability |
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What is the chief purpose of the rotator cuff muscles? |
to keep humeral head in the glenoid fossa through ROM in dynamic overhead activities |
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would people with a desk job experience shoulder retraction or protraction? |
protraction |
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When protracting shoulders, will shoulder ROM decrease or increase? Explain anatomically |
decrease; acromion bangs into humeral head bc scapula isn't getting out of the way |
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in class, we compared the backo of a little crane to a group of muscles, the arm of the crane as to our arm, and the heavy weight on the other side are the scapulothoracic articulation. What group of muscles? |
rotator cuffs to anchor the crane or in our case the shoulder |
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Name the three action coupling muscles to perform scapular elevation. |
trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboid |
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Name the three action coupling muscles to perform upward rotation of the shoulder. |
lower trap upper trap serrates anterior |
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Name the three action coupling muscles to perform depression of the shoulder. |
trapezius pectoralis minor subclavius |
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Name the three action coupling muscles to perform downward rotation of the shoulder. |
Levator scapulae rhomboid pectoralis minor |
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Name the two action coupling muscles to perform scapular protraction. |
serrates anterior, pectoralis minor |
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after prolonged stay in a wheel chair, when muscle do you expect to be adaptively shortened? |
hip flexor |
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after prolonged use of high heels, when muscle do you expect to be adaptively shortened? |
soleus |
