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973 Cards in this Set

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Substances that dissolve in water are called:
hydrophilic "water loving"
Substances that lack charged poles, nonpolar covalent substances do not dissolve in water and are called:
hydrophobic "water fearing"
True or false, water has a high heat capacity?
True
T or F, ice is more dense than water
True
True or false water has strong cohesion and high surface tension:

What intermolecular force causes this?

Give an animal example
True: Cohesion, or attraction between like substances, occurs in water because of the hydrogen bonding between water molecules.

Water bugs exerts less surface tension than what is on the water. That is why they can walk
True or false...water adheres to other molecules?
True.
In water, what is the difference between cohesion and adhesion?
Cohesion, or the attraction between like substances, occurs in water because of the hydrogen bonding between water molecules.

Adhesion, is the attraction of unlike substances.
What is capillary action?
water rises up the tubing or creeping through the paper. An example is in organic chemistry during TLC (Thin Layer Chromatography)
What are polymers?
molecules that consists of a single unit (monomer) repated many times
What is a monomer?
A single molecule unit.
True or false, carbohydrates are made from sugar molecules?
True
What it the simplest kind of carbohydrate? define it and give examples of it
it is the simplest kind of carbo. It consists of a single sugar molecule.

Examples, are fructose or glucose
Sugar molecules have the formula:
(CH2)n, where n is any number from 3 to 8
What is this?
Alpha-Glucose
What is this?
Beta Glucose
What is this?
Fructose
What two monosaccharides make this molecule? what is it? What is this commonly known as?
glucose + fructose = sucrose
Table Sugar
What is this? And how is it made?
Starch. It is a polymer of alpha-glucose molecules. It is the principle ENERGY STORAGE molecule in plant cells.
WHat is starch?
a polymer of alpha-glucose molecules. It is the principla energy storage molecule in PLANTS
Def. glycogen?
is a polymer of alpha glucose.

It differs from starch by its patter of polymer branching. It is a major storage molecule in ANIMAL Cells.
def cellulose?
is a polymer of Beta-glucose.

It serves as a STRUCTURAL molecule i th weall of plant cells and is the major component of wood.
def chitin
is a polymer similar to cellulose, but each Beta-glucose molecule has a NITROGEN containing group attached to the ring.

Chitin serves as a STRUCTURAL mol. in the walls of FUNGUS cells and in the exoskeltons of INSECTS, other ARTHROPODS, AND MOLLUSKS.
What type of glucose is only for humans? And what type of glucose is only specialiezed organisms like the bacteria and protozoa in the guts of termites?
Alpha-Glucose for Humans/Animals

Beta-Glucose for specialized organisms
What three groups are carbohydrates classified in?
1) monosaccharides
2) Dissaccharides
3) Polysaccharides
What class of substances are insoluble in water but are soluble in nonpolar substances?
Lipids
What are the three major groups of Lipids?
1) Triglycerides
2) Phospholipid
3) Steroids
Fats, oils and waxes are in what group?
Triglycerides
What is this and what does each row represent (top down)?
A triglyceride
Top = saturated fatty acid
Middle = monosaturated fatty ac
Bottom = polyunsaturated fatty acid
How are tryglycerides made?
Glycerol + 3 Fatty Acids
What are fatty acids and why are they called that way?
Fatty acids are a carboxyl group (-COOH) , the acid part.

Fatty = from how long the carbon chain is on the carboxyl group.
When the fatty acid on the triglyceride is all covalently bonded and has no double bonds it is said to be a
saturated fatty acid
A fatty acid that has one double covealent bond in a triglyceride it is a
monosaturated fatty acid
When a fatty acid has two or more double bonds it is said to be
polyunsaturated
What is a phospholipid?
It is just like a triglyceride except that one fatty acid is replaced with a phosphate group (-PO3^-2)
What is this a structure of? And why are they labled hydrophbic and hydrophilic?
phospholipid

The hydrophilic is the head because it is polar, which means this side will point towards water

hydrophobic becase the fatty acid tails are non-polar and don't like water. they point in the towards the cell.
What is an amphipathic molecule and what is an example of one?
def: the moecule has both polar (hydrophilic) and non-polar (hydrophobic) regions.

Example: phospholipid
How are phospholipids usually found? What do they usually form?
They are often found oriented in sandwichlike formations with the hydrophobic tails grouped together on the inside of the sandwich and the hydrophiic heads oriente toward the outside and facing an aquesous environment.

Usually provide the strutural foundatoin of CELL MEMBRANES
What is this general structure represent?
a steroid which is one of the groups of lipids.
How are steroids often characterized?
charatcterized by a backbone of four linked carbon rings.
What are examples of staroids?
cholesterol
certain hormones (ie. testosterone and estrogen)
WHat are the four classes of organic molecules?
1) carbohydrates
2) Lipids
3) Proteins
4) Nucleic Acids
What are the five main groupings of proteins, categorized according to their functions?
1) Strcutural Porteins
2) Storage Proteins
3) Transport Proteins
4) Defense Proteins
5) Enzymes
How are all groupings of proteins similar?
All proteins are polymers of amino acids, that is, they consist of a chain of amino acids covalently bonded.
What are the bonds between amino acids called? And what is a chain of them called?
peptide bonds
A chain of peptide bonds is a polypeptide or peptide.
How then do proteins differ from one another?
they differ by the number and arragnement of the twenty different amino acids.
What is an amino acid consist of?
central carbon bonded to an amino grop (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), and a hydrogen atom
What is this a strcutre of?
THe general structure of an amino acid
What are the four levels that describe a protein?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
What does the primary structure of a protein mean?
describes the order of amino acids.
def secondary structure

What does the binding produce?
is a three-dimensional shape that results from hydrogen bonding between the amino and carboxyl groups of adjacent amino acids.

The bonding produces:
1) a spiral (Alpha Helix) or
2) Folded Plan (Beta Sheets
def tertiary structure
includes additional three-dimensional shapng and often dominates the structure of GLOBULAR PROTEINS.
What intermolecular forces contribute towards the tertiary structure?
- Hydrogen bonding between R groups of amino acids
- IONIC BONDING: between R groups of amino acids
- The HYDROPHOBIC EFFECT that occurs when hydrophobic R groups move toward the center of the protein = globular
- DISULFIDE BONDS are formed when the sulfur atom in the amino acid cysteine bonds to the sulfr atom in another cystein = DISULFIDE BRIDGE
define quaternary protein structure.

What inter molecular forces contribute to its stucture?

What is an example?
describes a protein that is assembled from two or more separate peptide chains.

Same forces that define the tertiary structure also effect the quaternary structure.

Hemoglobin
What is a nucleic acid?
THe term nucleic acid is the overall name for DNA and RNA. Nucleic acids where named for their initial discovery within the nucleus, and for the presence of phosphate groups.
Nucleus + Phosphate group =
Basic term for nucleic acid
Where is genetic information stored?
How is the genetic passed along?
deoxyribnucleic acids DNA

DNA passes its genetic information to ribonucleic acid (RNA) for directing various metabolic activities of the cell.
DNA is a polymer of what?
nucleotides
What are nucleic acids made of?
THey are lindear polymers (chains) of nucleotides?
What comprises a nucleotide?
THREE PARTS:
1) Nitrogen base
2) Five-carbon sugar called deoxyribose
3) Phosphate group
WHat is this?
a nucleotide
Which nitrogen bases are bigger Pyrimidines or purines?
Purines
How can you remember Purines and Pyrimidines?
Pure Ag (Gold)

CUT PY
How doe purines and pyrimidines match up? And which one is stronger?
A-T (Double Bonded)
G-C (stronger b/c Triple Bond)
How do two strands of a DNA helix line up?
Both of the strands are oriented in opposite directions.

FIRST STRAND: 5' -> 3'
2ND STRAND : 3' -> 5'

They begin with phosphate group attached to the FIFTH (5') carbon of the deoxyrbose and ends where the phosphate of the next nucelotide would attached, at the THIRD (3') carbon of the deoxyribose.
How does RNA DIFFER FROM DNA?
RNA
1) The sugar in the nucleotides that make an RNA molecule is ribose, NOT deoxyribose as it is in DNA

2) Uracil pairs with adenine instead of Thymine

3) RNA is usually single-stranded and does not form a double helix as it does in DNA
Chemical reactions that occur in a biological system are ___

What does it include?
Metabolism
Includes:
catabolism
synthesis/anabolism
energy transfer
The breakdown of substances is called:

The formation of new products is
1) catabolism ("canables like to break down humans")

2) synthesis/anabolism
What are enzymes?
They are globular proteins that act as catalysts for metabolic reactions.
What are the characteristics of an enzyme?
1) The substrate is the substance or substances upon which the enzyme acts

2) Substrate specific
3) The induced-fit model describes how enzymes work
4) AN enzymes is UNCHANGED as a result of a rxn.
5) EFFICIENCY is effect by TEMPERATURE and pH.
Who is the substrate, amylase or amylose (starch)?
amylose/starch is the substrate, and the enzyme amylase breaks starch down.
T or F reactants are also termed substrates?
True
T or F, enzymes are proteins?
True
Is the active site on the enzyme or substrate?
The enzyme
What does the induced-fit model tell us?
How enzymes work:
Interaction of the reactants (substrate) and the enzyme causes the enzyme to change shape.

- THe new position places the substrate molecules into a position favorable to their reaction.

- ONce the rxn takes place, the product is released
What is the optimal temperature for enzymes?

At went temp. do enzymes find it unfavorable? what happens to them?
The temperature of the human body 98.6 F / 37.5 C

Unfavorable at 104 F, enzymes begin to DENATURE
What are cofactors?
They are non-protein molecules that assist enzymes.
What is a holoenzyme?

What is a apoenzyme
holoenzyme = apoenzyme + cofactor

apoenzyme = enzymes that require a cofactor but do not have one bound
What are coenzymes?

What is an example?
are organic cofactors that usually function to donate or accept some component of a rxn, often electrons.

Some vitamins are coenzymes or components of coenzymes
What are inorganic cofactors? give ex
they are often metal ions, like Fe^2+
The most common source of activation energy for metabolic reactions are
ATP
How does ATP supply energy to an rxn?
is usually energy in the last bond that is delivered to the reaction.
What happens to ATP in the process of giving up his energy?
THe last phosphate bond is broken and the ATP molecule is converted to ADP (adenosine diphospate) and a phosphate group (indicated by Pi)
How are new ATP molecules produced?
ATP molecules are assembled by PHOSPHORYLATION when ADP combines with a phosphate group using energy obtained from some energy-rich molecule like glucose.
What is ATP essentially?
it is an RNA adenine Nucelotide with two additional phosphate groups.
What happens in rxn 1 and 2?

1) ATP -> ADP + Pi

2) ADP + Pi -> ATP
1) ATP supplies energy to system

2) ATP is reformed through phosphorylation.
What are the four common general charactersitics of metabolism?
1) Equilibrium
2) Enzymes
3) Cofactors
4) ATP
What is regulated when enzymes are regulated?
chemical rxns and how to start or stop reactions are often regulated through enzymes
What are the four ways enzymes are regulated?
1) Allosteric Enzymes/feeback inhibition
2) competitive inhibition
3) noncompetitor inhibitor
4) Cooperativity
What are allosteric enzymes?
THey have two binding sites--one active site for the substrate and one allosteric site for an allosteric effector.
WHat is allostery?
changing the shape and activity of an enzyme that results from molecule binding with a regulatory substance at a site other than the enzymatically active one.
WHat is allosteric regulation?
is the regulation of an enzyme or the protein by binding an effector molecule at the protein's allosteric site (that is, a site other than the protein's active site)
T or false a protein has both active and allosteric sites (both are different sites)
True
What are the two binding sites for allosteric enzymes?
1) an active site for the substrate
2) one an allosteric site for an allosteric effector.
What is an effector?
An effector is a molecule that binds to a protein/enzyme and thereby alters the activity of that protein.
What are the two allosteric effectors and what do they do?
1) allosteric activator = binds to an enzyme and induces the enzyme's ACTIVE FORM.

AKA enhances the protein's activity.

2) ALLOSTERIC INHIBITOR binds to the enzyme and induces the enzyme's INACTIVE FORM.

or decreases the protein's acivity
What happens in FEEDBACK INHIBITION?
An end product of a series of rxns acts as an allosteric inhibitor, shutting down one of the enzymes catalyzing the reaction series.
What is competitive inhibition?
a substance that mimics the substrate ingibits an enzyme by occuping the active site. The mimic displaces the substrate and prevents the enzyme from catalyzing the substrate.
What is non competitor inhibitor?
THis binds to an enzyme at locations other than an active or allosteric site. The inhibitor changes the shape of the enzyme which disables its enzymatic activity.
What are some important locations on an enzyme?
active sites and allosteric sites
What happens in cooperatively? WHat is an example.
an enzyme becomes more receptive to additional substrate molecules after one substrate molecule attaches to an active site.

"Let's cooperate and invite others to the party after the first shows up"

Example: Hemoglobin's binding capacity increases after the first oxygen binds to its binding site. Other oxygens are then invited to other sites.
1) Protein is a polymer of what?

2) Nucleic Acid is a polymer of what?

3) Starch is a polymer of what?
4) glycogen is a polymer of what?
5) cellulose is a polymer of what?
1) amino acids

2) nucleotides

3-5) all are made up of glucose monomers
What are the characteristics of hydrophilic properties?
1) polar molecules
2) molecules soluble in water
3) molecules that readily ionize in water
4) the hydroxyl group (OH)
What do plants convert into to make?
Plants use photosynthesis process and use CO2 and water to make carbohydrates
Maltose and sucrose are examples of what?
disaccharides
How are dissacharides made and what is lossed?
Dehydradtion (Condesation) synthesis and water is lost.
Glycogen and starch are examples of what?
Polysaccharides
Which of the following serves at the structural role in plants?

A. Glycogen
B. Amylose (Starch)
C. Cellulose
C. Cellulose
True of false, glycogen, starch and cellulose are all soluble in water?
False.
Polymers are made through ->
Polymers are broken through ->
dehydration
hydrolysis ( water + separation)
T or False Glycogen and glycerole are lipids
False

Glycogen is polysaccaharide carbohydrate

Gycerole is the backbone of lipids.
What are the five lipids derivatives?
1) Phospholipids
2) Waxes
3) Steroids
4) Carotenoids
5) Porphyrins
What include steroids?
cholesterol
sex hormones (testosterone and estrogen)
corticosteriods
What are carotenoids and what are they a derivative of?

What are the two subgroups
Derivative of Lipids.

carotenoids are compounds that are the PIGMENTS which produce red, yellow, orange and brown colors in plants and animals.

Subgroups:
1) carotenes
2) xanthophylls
What are cartoenes?
THINK ORANGE CARROTS AND SWEET POTATO TOTS

They come from:
Lipid -> carotenoids -> carotenes

THey are synthesized by PLANTS but cannot be made by ANIMALS.
What are xanthophylls?
Yellow pigment

THey come from:

Lipids -> Carotenoids -> xanthophylls

Contain oxygen atoms
WHat is the main difference between carotenes and xanthopylls?
Carotenes = orange color, purely hydrocarbons with no oxygen

xanthophylls: yellow pigment, contain oxygen atoms
Proteins can be classified on the bases of structure. There are classes of protein structure. List them all.
1) simple proteins =
2) albumins and globulins
3) scleroproteins
4) conjugated proteins
5) lipoproteins
6) mucoproteins
7) chromoproteins
8) metalloproteinss
9) nucleoproteins.
simple proteins are
composed entirely of amino acids
albumins and globulins are
proteins primarily globular in nature. They are the functional proteins that act as carriers or enzymes.
scleroproteins are....

what is an example
these are fibrous in nature and act as structural proteins. Collage is a scleroprotein.
conjugated proteins are ...
these contain a simple protein portion, plus at least one nonprotein fraction.
llipoproteins are...
protein bound to a LIPID
mucoproteins are...
protein bound to CARBO.
chromoproteins are...
protein bound to pigmented molecules
metalloproteins ...
protein complexed around a METAL IONS
nuceloproteins are...
protein containing histone or protamine (nuclear protein) bound to NUCLEIC ACIDS
What are the 5 general functions of proteins?
1) Hormones
2) Enzymes
3) Structural proteins
4) Transport proteins
5) Antibodies
What are hormones?/
They are proteins that function as chemical messnger
What is an example of a transport protein?
Hemoglobin
WHat is an example of a structural protein both extra and intra cellular?
extracellular: collagen in cartilage, bone and tendons

intracelullar: proteins in cell membranes.
Antibodies are what?
They are proteins that bind to foreign particles (antigens), including disease-causing organisms, that have entered the body.
Antigens are what?
foreign particles that entered the body.
Are all of the following about enzymes true?

1) Lower activation energy of a rxn
2) increase the rate of rxn
3) Do not effect the overall Delta G of the rxn
4) Are not changed or consumed in the course of the rxn
True
True or false most enzymes are reversible?
True
What factors effect the enzyme action and the reaction rate depend on?
Temperature
pH
Concentration of Enzyme
Concentration of Substrate
At what pH do enzymes work best? What are some exceptions?
Work best at pH 7.2

Exceptions:
Pepsin works in stomach at highly acidic conditions (pH=2)

Pancreatic enzymes works in small intestine (pH=8.5)
True or false: Every reaction in the body is regulated by enzymes
TRUE!
What enzyme hydrolyzes lactose to the monosaccharides glucose and galactose?

A. lactase
B. proteases
c. lipases
lactase
What enzyme degrade proteins to amino acids?

a. lactase
b. protease
c. lipase
protease
what enzyme hydrolyzes (break down) lipids to fatty acids and glycerol?

a. lactase
b. protease
c. lipase
lipase
True or false: Synthesis (dehydration) reactions can be catalyzed by the same enzymes as hydrolysis reactions, but the direction of the reaction is reversed.
True
What are prosthetic groups?
cofactors which bind to the enzyme by strong covalent bonds
What are cofactors?
a nonprotein molecule that incorporate themselves on a enzyme so that they become active.
WHat are the sub units nucleic acids?
nucleotides
Nuncleic acids are polymers of what?
nucleotides
What are the four points to The Cell Theory?
1) All living things are composed of cells
2) THe cell is the basic functional unit of life
3) Cells arise only from pre-existing cels
4) Cells carry genetic information in the form of DNA. THis genetic material is passed from parent cell to daughter cell.
What are the three microscopy techniques for studying cells? is the organism alive or dead?
1) Compound Light Scope (cell is dead). Total magnification
2) Phase contrast microscopy (specimen is alive).
3) electron microscopy (specimen is dead). thousand fold magnification.
What are the differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes in cell biology? First give an example of both, as a reference point to compare.

Compare the:
Cell Wall
Nucleus
Ribosomes
Membrane bound organelles
Prokaryotes: Bacteria
Eukaryotes: Protists, fungi, plants, animals

Cell Wall:
-PROK = Yes;
- EUK =No, protists, animals Yes: fungi and plants

Nucleus:
-PROK: No All
-EUK: Yes All

Ribosomes:
-PROK: subunits = 30S and 50S
-EUK: subunits = 40S and 60S

Membrane bound Organelles
-PRO = No all
-EUK = Yes all
The fluid matrix in inside the cel is called?
cytosol
What two things can move freely about the lipid bilayer/plasma membrane?
lipids and most proteins
What are the three common proteins found in the phospholipid bi layer?
peripheral proteins
integral proteins
transmembrane proteins
Proteins may attach loosely to the inner or outer surface of the membrane are called:

peripheral proteins
integral proteins
transmembrane proteins
peripheral proteins
Proteins that extend into the membrane are called:

peripheral proteins
integral proteins
transmembrane proteins
integral proteins
Integral proteins that span across the membrane, appearing at both surfaces are called:

peripheral proteins
integral proteins
transmembrane proteins
transmembrane proteins
proteins that extend out of the surface are called

peripheral proteins
integral proteins
transmembrane proteins
peripheral proteins
T or F. both peripheral and integral proteins are amphipathic?
False only integral proteins.
The nature of scattered proteins within a flexible matrix of phospholipid molecules describes the ...
fluid mosaic model
What molecules can freely pass through the phospholipid membrane?
only small,
-uncharged
- polar molecules (ie H20 and CO2)
- hydrophobic molecules (nonpolar molecules like O2)
What molecules can NOT freely pass through the membrane?
Large polar molecules (ie glucose)
- All ions are impermeable
What do carrier proteins do?
They assist some larger charged molecules across the membrane
What are the top 6 functions proteins play in the membrane?
1) Channel proteins
2) Transport Proteins
3) Recognition Proteins
4) Adhesion Proteins
5) Receptor proteins
6) electron transfer proteins
Channel proteins do what?
provide passageways through the membrane for certain hydrophilic (water-soluble) substances such as polar and charged molecules.
Transport Proteins do what?
spend energy (ATP) to transfer materials across the membrane. When energy is used for this purpose, the materials are siad to be actively trasnported, adn the process is called active transport.
What do Recognition proteins do?
distingish the identify of neighboring cells. These proteins are called GLYCOPROTEINS b/c they have short polysaccharide chains (oligosaccharides) attached. The ologosaccharides part of the glycoprotein protrudes from the surfacd of the membrane like an entenna.
What to Adhesion proteins do?
Attach cells to neighboring cells or provide anchors for the internal filaments and tubules tha give stability to the cell
What do receptor proteins do?
provide binding sites for hormones or other trigger molecules. IN response to the hormone or trigger molecule, a specific ell response is activated.
What do electron transfer proteins do?
are involved in transferring electrons from one molecule to another during chemical reactions.
What do cholesterol molecules do in the phospholipid bilayer?
they provie some rigidity to the plasma membranes of animal cells.

In plant cells, related substances (sterols) provide a similar function.
What is glycocalyx and what does it do?
It is a carbohydrate "coat" coverign the outer face of the plasma membrane. It consists of various oligosaccharides that are attached to membrane phospholipids (glycolipids) and proteins (glycoproteins or recognition proteins). THe glycocalyx provides makers for cell-cell recognition.
What are the the three things that comprise the nucleus?
Nuclear envelope (similar to the phospholipid bilayer)
- nucleolus
- chromatin
What does the nucleus contain?
DNA
When a cell is not replicating what is DNA like?
DNA is spred out in a threadlike matrix called CHROMATIN
When a cell is about to divide DNA in the form of _____begins to condense into _______.
chromatin, chromosomes
What are chromosomes made up of?
- Two long DNA molecules
- various histone (protein) molecules
What are the purpose of histones in DNA?
They serve to organize the lengthy DNA, coiling it into bundles called nucleosomes.
WHat is the nucleolus?
is a dense structure in the nucleus where ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis occurs.
Where in the cell is the site for separation?
The nucleus
What are ribosomes?

What is there function in the cytoplasm?
Ribosomes subunits are manufactured in the nucleolus and consist of RNA molecules and proteins.

In the cytoplasm ribosomes assist in the assembly of amino acids into proteins.
Where are free ribosomes and bound ribosomes found?
free ribosomes = in cytoplams
bound ribo...= line the outer membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum
What is the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) and what is it's main function?
is a network of membrane-enclosed spaces

Function: involved in the transport of materials throughout the cell...PARTICULARLY those materials destined to be secreted by the cell.
What is the ER rough?
It is surround by ribosomes.
WHat makes proteins?
Ribosomes
Who else helps with protein synthesis?
The Rough ER
Smooth ER is repsonspsible for what? What is it responsbile for in the liver?
the synthesis of lipids and hormones, especially in cells that produce these substances for export from the cell.

IN the liver the smooth ER is invovled for breakdown of toxins, drugs and toxic by-products from cellular reactions.
What is the golgi apparatus responssible for?
They function to modify and package proteins and lipids into VESICLES, small, spherically shaped sacs that bud from the outside surface of the Golgi apparatus.
THe KKB relates the Golgi apparatus like UPS. WHat for?
Well Like UPS the golgi apparatus receives vesicles and their contents from the smooth ER, modifies them, repackage them into vesicles, and distributes them to the cell surface for exocytosis.
What are lysosomes and where to they originate from?
The come from a Golgi apparatus that contain digestive enzymes
What are peroxisomes?
They are organelles that break down various substances. O2 combines with hydrogen to from toxic hydrogen peroxide, which in turn is converetd to H2O

THere are commonly found in the liver and kindeys and in photosynthesizing plant cells
Where does the majority of the cells metabolic activity occur?
THe cytoplasm
What is the function of Chloroplasts?
They carry out photosynthesis, the plant process of incorporating energy from sunlight into carbohydrates.
What is the function of microtubules?
THey are made of the protein tubulin and provide support and motility for cellular activities.

They are found in the spindle apparatus.
What does the spindle apparatus do?
guides the movement of chromosomes during cel division.
Intermediate filaments provide support for what?
maintaining the shape of the cell
Microfilaments are made of what and involved in what?
Made of actin and is involved in cell motility, mechanical support, maintains cell shape.
What are centrioles?
They are specialized microbule involved in spindle organization during cell division and are not bound by a membrane.

The region where they lie is CENTROSOMES
How are Plant Cells Distinguished from Plant Cells?
1) Presence of cell walls, chloroplasts, an central vacuoles IN PLANTS. NOT IN ANIMALS

2) presence of lysosomes and centrioles IN ANIMALS. NOT IN PLANTS
SIMPLE DIFFUSION IS:
the net movement of dissolved particles down their concentration gradients

High Conce -> Low Conc.

Passive Process
OSMOSIS
Is simple diffusion of water from a region of:

Lower Solute Conc. -> Higher Solute Conc.
Water likes to move where during osmosis
It likes going to more conentrated areas
When the cytoplasm of a cell has a lower concentration than the extracellular medium what will happen?
The cell is in Hypertonic solution.

Water will flow out of the cell to the more concetrated medium.

THis is called pasmolysis
If the extracellular environment is less concentrated than the cytoplasm of the cell , the extracellular medium is said to be ______ and what will happen?
hypotonic, the cell will burst (lyse)
What are the three main types of transport?
Passive diffusion:
- Down Gradient
- NO carrier
- No energy required

Faciliated Diffusion:
- Down Gradient
- Carrier
- No energy required

Active Transport:
- Against gradient
- carrier
- energy required
WHat types of things are transported during active transport?
small ions (Na+, K+, Cl-, H+)
amino acids
monosaccharides

...across the membranes
How are things circulated in the cell (Intracellular circulation)?
1) Brownian Movement
2) Cyclosis or streaming
3) Endoplasmic reticulum
What is Brownian Movement?
the movement of particles due to kinetic energy which spreads small suspended particles throughout the cytoplasm of the cell
What is cyclosis or streaming?
the circular motion of cytopasm around the cell trasnport molecules
How is the movement of materials on a large, extracellular circulation, done through the body of an organism?
1) Diffusion: If organisms cells close to the external environment. i.e transprot for food and oxygen from external environment. ANd even transport of materials between cells and interstitiaul fluid which batehs the cells

2) Circulatory System: If organisms cells are not close to external environment. vessels are used to move things around if the cells are too far from the external environment.
How do prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ in their organization of genetic material?
Prokaryotes: genetic material is composed of a single circular molecule of DNA localized in a region of the cell called the nucleoid.

Eukaryotes: have highly coiled linear strands of DNA organized into chromosomes within a membrane-bound nucleus.
How do prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ in their site of cellular respiration?
Prokaryotes: cellular resp. occurs directly at the cell membrane.

Eukaryotes: celular resp. occurs across the mitochondrial membrane and within the mitochondria itself.
How do prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ in their presence of membrane-bound organelles?
Prokaryotes: don't have them

Eukaryotes: Have them
What are the only Prokaryotes?
Bacteria
What kingdoms are the eukaryotes?
Protists, Fungi, Plants, Animals
Movement of solutes across a plams membrane from a region of igher solute conc. to a region of lower solute conc. with the aid of proteins is...
Facilitated diffusion
Movement of water across a membrane from a region of higher concentration to lower conc. of water is....
Osmosis
Movement of water out of a cell resulting in the colllapse of the plasma membrane
plasmolysis
Movement of urine through the urinary tract
bulk flow
Movement of solutes across a plasma membrane requiring the addition of energy...
active transport
Karyokinesis is ____________
Cytokinesis is _____________

Which comes first?
1) nuclear division
2) cell division

Nuclear division comes first in Motisis
Where does a cell spend most of its life?
Interphase
What happens during Interphase?
Each chromosome is replicated so that during division , a complete copy of the genome can be distributed to both daughter cells.
Before replication what does the genetic material look like and what is its name?
Chromatin
What is the difference between Chromatin and Chromatids?
Chromatin: DNA Uncoiled.

Chromatid: DNA Coiled
How many chromatids equal a chromosome?

Where do the two chromatids join at?
two Chromatids = 1 Chromosome

THe CENTROMERE
What are the four phases in Mitosis?
PMAT
What three activities happen in Prophase?
First: the nucleoli disappear and the chromatin condenses into chromosomes ( or also termed single chromatid.
True or False: Each Chromatid is composed of a complete, double-stranded molecule of DNA.
True
True or False the term "chromosome" may be used to refer to either the single chromatid OR the pair of chromatids attached at the centromere.
TRUE
What 3 steps happen in Prophase?
First: THe nucleoli deisappear and the chromatin condenses into chromosomes.

Second: the nuclear envelope breaks down.

Third: The mitotic spindle is assembled
How does the mitotic spindle begin to develop?
Centromeres begin moving at opposite ends.
- As they move microtubules develope increasing in length by the addition of tubulin.
- Once on each side of the nucleus the microtubules connect to a specialiezed region on the centromere called the KINETOCHORE.
-Microtubules an begin tugging, moving the chromosomes back and forth.

Now we enter metaphase.
How many centrioles are at the centrosome? Are they located outside or inside the cell?
2 Centrioles per centrosome (kind of like the h-"ome" of centrioles.
What key feature is characteristic of Interphase?
The centrioles are still at the centrosome...waiting to be put in position.
microtubules are made from ___
microfilaments are made from____
micro-"tubules" = Tubulin
microfil-"A"-ments = A-ctin
What roles do the microtubules and microfilaments do?
microtubules: guides movement of chromosomes in cell division

microfilaments = when the shorten they act as a purse string to pull the plasma membrane into the center, dividing the cell into two daughter cells. The groove created by these purse strings is called CLEAVAGE FURROW.
When does metaphase begin? Continue the process of what happens.
Begins when chromosomes are distributed across the metaphase plate.

Ends when microtubules begin pulling the chromatids apart

Entering Anaphase
T or False, once a chromosome is pulled apart, the chromatid that is separated from its sister is now called a chromosome?
True
What happens in Anaphase?

Begin...
Ends...
Begins: after the chromosomes are separated into chromatids. The microtubules connected tot he chromatids (now chromosomes) shorten, pulling the chromosomes to opposite pulls.

End: at the end of this phase each pole has a complete set of chromosomes, the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.
True or false: Since a cell consists of only one chromatid, each chromosome contains only a single copy of the DNA molecule after cell division
True
What happens in telophase?
- Nuclear envelope develops, forming two nuclei
- Chromosomes (aka chromatid) disperse into chromatin (uncoiled DNA), and the nucleoli reappear.

Simultaniously Cytokenisis occurs, dividing the cytoplasm into two cells.
-
What causes cleavage furrow during cytokinesis?
the microfilaments, aka purse strings.
What are the two major differences between cell division in animal cells and plant cells?
1) Plants lack centrioles
2) Cytokinesis:
- in animal cells (CLEAVAGE FURROW) proceeds through production of Cleavage Furrow.

-In Plant cells (CELLS WALLS) can't cleavage furrow. Vesicles originating from Golgi bodies migrate to the plane between two newly forming nuclei. The vesicles fuse to form a cell plate = turns into plasma membranes for the two daughter cells
TRUE OR FALSE: During interphase growth occurs in all three phases of G1, S, and G2
True
At which phase in Interphase marke the time during which teh second DNA molecule for each chromosome is synthesized?
the S phase
TDNA is replicated during what phase?

Propase
Telophase
Anaphase
Interphase
Interphase
What is the result of DNA replication?
Each chromosome that appears at the beginning of the next mitotic division will appear as two sister chromatids.
During what period of growth are materials for the next mitotic division are prepared?
G2
True are fallse. Centrosomes also replicate?
True
Where do centrosomes replicate?
During Interphse (S)
T or F: Microtubules only attach to the chromosomes during prophase?
False. Microtubules are also attach to places around the cell to help pull things apart.
For all organisms, what does haploid and diploid mean.
Haploid = N = half the number of total chromosomes

Diploid = 2N = Full number of chromosomes.
What types of cell go through meiosis?
germ cells
When two homologous chromosomes come together and intertwine this is called
synapsis
What does homologous chromosomes mean?
chromosomes that code for the same traits, one inherited from each parent
What is crossing over and where does it occur?
Crossing over occurs between chromatids of homologous chromosomes and break at correspond ponts and exchange equivalent pices of DNA, one from the father and mother.

Note: crossing over cannot happen between sister chromoatids. It would be like exchanging information with yourself. That is why only homologous chromosomes can do it because they are from two different people.

Occurs at Prophase I of Meiosis
What is a tetrad?/
During Prophase I of meiosis each synaptic pair of homologous chromosomes contain four chromatids
T or False. once crossing over occurs sister chromatids are no longer identical
True
What happens in Metaphase I in meiosis?
Homolgous pairs (Tetrads) algin at the equatorial plate
- each pair attaches to a seperate spindle fiber by its kinetochore.
What happens in Anaphase I of meiosis? And what is the process generally called in terms of genetics?
- Homologous pairs (tetrads) are pulled to opposite poles
- called DISJUNCTION
T OR F: The Meiosis I is exactly like Mitosis?
False: Meiosis two is exactly like Mitosis.
What is the one difference between Meiosis II and Mitosis?
Mitosis: Chromosomes replicate
Meiosis II: Chromosomal replication does NOT occur, which is why each new cell ends up with a haploid number of chromosomes.
Mitosis In Nutshell True or False:

2N -> 2N
- Occurs in all dividing cells
- Homologous chromosomes do NOT pair up
- Crossing over occurs
False: Everything is true but crossing over. It does not occur in mitosis. Sister chromatids cannot cross over = no genetic variation
Meiosis in a nutshell True or False:

- 2N -> 2N
- Occurs in sex cells only
- Homologous chromosomes pair up at metaphase plate forming tetrads
- Crossing Over can occur
False: It goes from 2N -> N
What are the different types of asexual reproduction:
fission
budding
regeneration
parthanogenesis
What type of reproduction to Prokaryotes
Animals
Plants

use
Prokaryotes: ALL asexually
Animals: Most sexually, Asexual reproduction is more prevalent among invertebrates
Plants: All, both simple and complex, use sexual repro.
If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at anaphase there would be a total of...

23 chromatids
23 chromosomes
46 chromosomes
46 chromatids
92 chromosomes
E. 92 Chromosomes
If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the begginning of meiosis, then anaphase I there would be a total of...

23 chromatids
23 chromosomes
46 chromosomes
46 chromatids
92 chromosomes
46 chromosomes
True or false: All eukaryotic cells have centrioles?
False, Most plants do not have centrioles
What is fission?
Who normally goes through it?
What: The DNA replicates and a new plasma membrane and cell wall grow inward along the midline of the cell,
-dividing it into two equally-sized cells with
- equal amounts of cytoplasm, - each containing a duplicate of the parent chromosome.

Who: Prokaryotes, one-celled organisms such as amoebae, paramecia, algae, bacteria
What is Budding?
Who usually goes through it?
What: the repication of nucleus followed by UNEQUAL cytokinesis.
- smaller than parent
- genetically identical
- grows to adult size

Who: Hydra and yeast
What is regeneration?
WHo usually goes through it?
What: is the growth of a lost or injured body part and occurs by mitosis.

Who: Lower animals like hydra and starfish
- Salamanders and tadpoles
What is Parthanogenesis?
Who usually goes through it?
What: is the development of an unfertilized egg into an adult organism.

Who: Bees and Ants
Male Bees = unfertilized eggs
Worker and Queen bees = fertilized eggs
What does meiosis produce in plants?
Spores.
What are spores?
Spores are haploid cells that divide by mitosis to become a multicellular haploid structure, the gametophyte.
Know that plants have different phases in their life. Sporophyte and gametophyte generations/phases
In plants what phase of their life do they asexually reproduce?
sporophyte generation: when they are a plant having roots etc.
What is alternation of generations?
which a diploid generation is succeeded by a haploid generation.
Is the sporophyte generation diploid or haploid?

Which generation produces haploid spores?
Diploid

sporophyte
What do spores go through _____to produce _______.
mitosis, gametophytes
What two ways to plants asexually reproduce?
1. Spore formation
2. Vegetative propigation
What are the two types of vegetative propagation?
1) Natural Vegetative Prop
2) Artificial Vege..
WHat is vegetative propagation?
undifferentiated tissues in plants, called meristems, provide a source of cells that can develop into an adult plant.

= no genetic variation
- rapid reproduction
Certain types of plants can each go through natural propagation. And each have special propagation parts. What are those parts and give examples of each.
Bulbs: Tulips and Daffodils
Tubers: Potato
Runners: Strawberries and lawn grasses
Rhizomes (stolons): ferns and iris plants
Define each of these:
bulbs
tubers
runners
rhizomes
bulbs: split into form several bulbs
Tubers: underground stems with buds, like the eyes of potatoes, that can develop into adult plants
Runners: are stems running above and along the ground, extending from the main stem
Rhizomes: are woody, underground systems. THey can develop new upgright stems as they do in ferns and iris plants
WHat is artificial propagation?
Humans way of making plants reproduce asexually.
What are the male and female gonads called? What do they prod?
Testes produce sperm and ovaries produce oocytes (eggs)
What is the term for an organism that has both male and female gonads?

give examples
hermaphrodites,

Hydra and earthworm
What is the production of gametes for both male and female?
spermatogenesis
oogenesis
What are the cells called in spermatogenesis?
Diploid or haploid
goes through meiosis or mitosis
produce 4 or two sperm of equal size
called spermatogonia
- diploid cells
- go through meisosis
- 4 haploid sperm of equal size are produuced
THe head of the sperm consists of what?
The tail is what?
Head consists almsot entirely of the nucleus which contains the paternal genome
- tail is flagellum
During oogenesis the female sex sell goes through what?
How many cells go through this?
Is it a diploid or haploid cell?
What does this process produce and how much does it produce?
1) goes through meiosis
2) Only 1 sex cell
3) Diploid
4) produces a single mature egg/ ovum
Each meiotic division during oogenesis produces what?
A polar body which is a small cell that contains little more than the nucleus.
What does the mature ovum contain?
cytoplasm, RNA, organelles, and nutrients
What are the two types of fertilization?
External and Internal
External: Fish and amphibians, sperm have flagellum, female produces a crap load of eggs to increase chances of fertilization

Internal Fertilization: Species that care for their young produce fewer eggs
Besides sperm what else is produced in the testes? What does it regulate?
the male hormone TESTOSTERONE. It regulates secondary male sex characteristics including facial and pubic hair and voice changes
1) Where are the ovaries located?
2) Ovareis consists of thousands of what?
1) The abdominal cavity, below the digestive system
2) follicles = a multi-layered sac of cells that contains, nourishes, and protects an immature ovum.
What cells produce estrogen and where are these cells found?
Ovaries -> follicle -> follicle cells -> estrogen
Describe the path that an immature ovum takes each month.
ovum (egg) -> released from the ovary into the abdominal cavity -> drawn to oviduct -> uterus
This location is the site of fetal development:
A. fallopian tube
B. oviduct
C. uterus
D. Cervix
C. Uterus
where are the female sex hormones produced?
What are they?
How are they regulated?
Ovaries produce estrogens and progesterone -> secretion is regulated by LH an FSH -> which is regulated by GnRH
From the top down how are the two female sex hormones regulated
1) GnRH regulates
2) LH and FSH who regulate
3) estrogen and progesterone
What are estrogens?
What do they do/responsible for?
Who secretes them
They are steroid hormones necessary for normal female maturation
- stimulate the development of the female reproductive tract
- contribute to secondary sexual characterstics
- stimulate sex drive
- responsible for thickening of the endometrium (uterine wall)

Secreted by:
ovarian follicles and corpus luteum
What is progesterone?
What does it do?
Who secretes it?
Progesterone is a steroid hormone
Function: stimulates the development and maintenance of the endometrial walls in preparation for implantation.

Secreted by:
Curpus leteum during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle
How is the menstrual cycle split up?
1) follicular phase
2) luteal phase
3) menstruation
What are the three sites of hormonal secretions that play a role in the female reproductive cycle?
ovaries
hypothalamus
anterior pituitary
What happens in the follicular phase? What phase happens next?
Anterior Pituitary Hormone releases -> FSH -> Follicle starts to grow -> follicle cells secrete -> estrogen ->Enter ovulation phase
What happens during the ovulation phase?
WHat causes it?

What happens next?
a mature ovarian follicle bursts ->releases an ovum

Caused: ovulation is caused by a surge in LH which is preceded, and in part caused, by a peak in estrogen levels

Luteal phase happens next
What happens in the Luteal phase?

What happens next
LH induces the ruptured follicle to develop into -> corpus luteum, wich secretes -> estrogen and progesterone.

Progesterone causes the glans of the endometrium to mature and produce secretions that prepare it for the implantation of the embryo. Progesterone and estrogen are essential for the maintenance of the endometrium

NExt phase is Menstruation
What happens during menstruation if:
1) Not fertilized
2) Fertilized
1) If the ovum is not fertilzed, the corpus leteum atrophies -> estrogen and progesterone levels drop -> endometrium lining sluffs off (blood) -> menstrual flow (menses)

2) If fertilization occurs -> the developing placenta produces hCG (guman chorionic gonadotropin) -> maintain corpus luteum -> thus, supply of estrogen and progesterone maintains uterus -> until placenta takes over production of these hormones
In plants what has evolution leaned towards the dominant generation?
diploid sporophyte generation
How does the gametophyte generation produce gametes?
through mitosis
How is the sporophyte generation restord?
by union of the male and female gametes at fertilization, restores the diploid sporophyte generation
Which plant generation reproduces sexually and asexually?
Gametophyte sexually (b/c they restore diploid sporophyte gen)

Sporophyte asexaully (b/c they restore haploid gametophyte generation)
Which generation is dominant in :
Mosses
Ferns
Angiosperms
Mosses: gametophyte is dom
Ferns: Sporophyte is dom
Angiosperms: Sporophyte gen is dominant
If you see a woody plant (maple, rose etc) what stage is it in?
sporophyte stage
What is the reproductive structure for angiosperms?
Flowers
What is the male organ of the flower and what is the female organ?
Stamen = male organ
Pistil = female organ
What is the stamen an what does it consists of? And what does the anther produce
The male reproductive organ of the flower. Consists of thin stalk-like FILAMENT with a terminal sac called the ANTHER.

The anther produces haploid spores which develop into pollen grains
What is the pistil and what does it consist of? What do each of the three parts do?
Pistil = female organ of the flower.

Three parts:
1) Stigma - sticky and catches pollen
2) style = a tube-like structure connecting the stigma to the ovary at the base of the pistil
3) ovary- enlarged base of the pistil, containing one or more ovules.
What are sepals?
What covers the flower
In flowers what are the male and female gametophytes?
Males: pollen grain
Females: embryo sac containing nuclei including the two polar (endosperms) nuclei and an egg nucleus
In flowers when does fertilization occur? What happens? And what happens to the other sperm that enters?
occurs when the sperm nuclei enter the embryo sac.

One haploid sperm nucleus fuses with the haploid egg nucleus to form the diploid zygote, which develops into the embryo.

THe other sperm nuclues fuses with the 2 polar bodies to form the endosperm (triploid or 3N)
What N is the endosperm and what is its purpose? WHat happens to the sperm in dicotyledonous plants?
1 sperm nucleus + 2 polar bodies = 3N endosperm

Endosperm serves as food for the embryonic plant.

In dicotyledonous plants the endosperm is absorbed by the seed leaves (cotyledons)
In plant reproduction how does the zygote divide?
mitotically
What does a plant embryo consist of?
1) Epicotyl
2) Cotyledons
3) Hypocotyl
4) Endosperm
5) seed coat
Epicotyl is..
the precursor of the upper stem and leaves
cotyledons is...
these are the seed leaves. Dicots have two seed leaves while monocots have only one.
hypocotyl. is...
this develops into the lower stem and root
Endosperm is...
the endosperm frows and feed the embryo. in dicots, the cotyledon absorbs the endopserm
seed coat is...
develops from the outer covering of the ovule.
embryo + seed coat = ?
the seed
What are meristem cells?
They are key embryonic cells in higher plant development. THese tissues undergo active cell reproduction Gradually, the cells elongate and differentiate into cell types characteristic of the species.
What are apical meristems and where are they found?

What are lateral meristems and where are they found?
found in the tips of roots and stems. Growth in length occurs only at these points

Lateral meristems or cambium is located between the xylem and phloem. This tissue permits growth in diameter and can differentiate into new xylem and phloem cells.
True or false: lateral meristem cells is not an active tissue in monocots (grasses) or herbaceous dicots (alfalfa) but is predominant in woody dicots like oaks?
True.
What are the two main difference in mitosis between plants and animals
1) plants don't have centrioles
2) Plants develop cell wall, animals have cleavage furrow and divide by cytokinesis
The chromosome number of offspring produced via parthenogenesis is
A: diploid
B: haploid
C: 2N
D: Both A and C
B haploid
Genes are composed of what and located where?
composed of DNA and located on chromosomes
When a gene exists in more than one form, the alternative forms are called?
alleles
The genetic makeup of and individual is...

The physical manifestation of the genetic makeup is the individual's
genotype

Phenotype
WHat probability tech. is usually used when looking at genetics problems?
the multiplication rule
WHat does a gene represent?

In pea plants, there is a _____that _______for purple flowers.
it represents the genetic material on a chromosome that contains the instructions for creating particular trait.

gene that codes for purple flowers
A _____is one of several varieties of a gene.
Allele

In pean plants, there a retwo alleles of the gene for flower color-purple allele, which codes for purple flower, and the white allele, which codes for white flowers.
THe ____refers to the location on a chromosome where a gene is located.
locus
If the two alleles inherited for a gene are different, one allele may be _____________, while the other is ______________.
dominant or recessive
What does homozygous dominant refer to ?
2) homozygous recessive
3) Heterozygous
refers tot he inhertiance of two dominant alleles (PP)
2) two recessive alleles are inherited (pp) and the recessive trait is expressed.
3) heterozygous refers to the condition where the two inherited alleles are different (Pp). The dominant allele is expressed
What does the law of segregation refer to?
During meiosis I homologous chromosomes migrate to opposite poles. As result, each gamete will contain one allele for each gene
In Mendel's experiment he mated or ______, two varieties of pea plant to form offspring, or ______
crossed, hybrids
A cross between a purple-flowerd pea and a white-flowered pea is called a _______. Why?
monohybrid cross, because it involves a gene for only on trait, the gene for flower color.
What do these mean:
1) P generation
2) F1 generation
3) F2 gen
P gen = the parents
2) F1 gen = the offspring from the crossing of the parents
3) F2 gen = the offspring produced from crosses among the F1

(F stands for filial, which refers to sons or daughters)
WHat is the only type of phenotype can the genotype be predicted with 100% accuracy?
ONLY a recessive phenotype
How would you determine the genotype of something?
do a test cross:
What is a test cross?

What genotype will you always know?
It is the mating of an individual whose genotype you are trying to determine with an individual whose genotype is unkown.

the recessive trait (pp)
What is the trend for Mendel's second law of independent assortment?
Two traits are being observed
- Both parents are homozygous
- Tall is dominant to dwarf and Purple is dominant to white
- Parents TTPP and ttpp.
- F1 = TtPp
- TtPp crossed with TtPp = 9:3:3:1
What is the phenotype of these crosses:

1) YYRR x yyrr
2) YyRr x YyRr
1) Only one phenotype: YyRr
2) Phenotype ratio: 9:3:3:1
What test is used to know if it is incomplete dominance?
Snapdragon: red flowers is R; white flowers is r. Combined Rr = pink.

or straight and curly hair crossed might yield wavy hair
What is codominance?
An inheritance pattern where both inherited alleles are completely expressed.
How will imagining a continuum help keep distinguish between the three kinds of inheritance?
One extreme = complete dominance by a dominant allele over a recessive allele.

Other extreme: Both allelels are expressed (codominance)

In the middle: a blending of two different alleles produces an intermediate phenotype (Incomplete dominance)
What is a classic example of codominance and multiple alleles?
ABO blood groups
If an individual with I^BI^B, I^Bi, or ii blood is given to type A blood, then the immune system of the recipient will identify the A Carbohydrate on the introduced red blood cells as a __________
foreign substance
What does the immune system term foreign substances and how do they respond to them?

What is the result?
THe immune system responds to foreign substances as ANTIGENS.

The immune system responds to antigens by producing ANTIBODIES that attack the antigens.

The result is clumping, or AGGLUTINATION, of the blood and possibly death.
What blood type is known as the universal donor?

the universal recipient?
Universal donor = O (b/c no A or B carbohydrates)

Universal recipient = AB (b/c has both A and B carbo = "self")
What is epistasis? Where does the frequently occur?
occurs when one gene affects the phenotypic expression of a second gene.
- This frequently occurs in the expression of pigmentation. One gene turns on (or off) the production of pigment, while a second gene controls either the amounf o pigment produced or the color of the peigment. If the first gene codes for no pigment, then the expression of the second gene has no affect, regardless of the kind of pigmentation it encodes.
This occurs in the pigmentation of fur in mice

A. Multiple Alleles
B. Pleiotropy
C. Polygenic Inheritance
D. Epistasis
D. Epistasis

One gene codes for the presence or absence of pigmentation. A SECOND gene codes for the color of pigmentation, black or brown. Thus, C and c represent the alleles for the presence and absence of color, and B and b represent the alleles for black and brown pigments. As the allele notation indicates, both genes are expressed by CCBB, CCBb, CcBB, and CcBb are all black, and the expressions of CCbb and Ccbb are both brown. However, whenever cc is inherited, no pigment is produced and the fur is white regardless of the color encoded by the B allele.
WHat is pleiotropy? What is an example?
Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene has more than one phenotypic expression.

I.e. one gene in pea plants can express not only for round or wrinkled but the same gene also influences the phenotypic expressions of starch metabolism and water absorption
What disease-causing gens exhibit pleiotropy?
sickle-cell anemia, a human blood disease, is caused by an allele that incorrectly codes for hemoglobin.
What is an example of polygenic inheritance what is it?
Def: the interaction of many genes to shape a single phenotype.

The heights of humans is an example. They are not just short or tall but are displayed as a CONTINUOUS VARIATION from very short to very tall. Continuous variation usually results from polygenic inheritance.
What is the difference between pleiotropy and polygenic inheritance?
Polygenic inheritance = many genes shaping one phenotype.

OPPOSITE OF

Pleiotropy = one gene influencing many phenotypes
What are linked genes?
Genes that reside ont he SAME chromosome and thus cannot segregate independently because they are physically connected. Genes that are linked are usually inherited together.
What is sex-linkage?
In humans, females have two W chromosomes, and males have only one. As a result, recessive genes tha are carried on the X chromosome will produce the recessive phenotypes whenever they occur in males, since no dominant allele is present to mask them. The recessive phenotype will thus be much more frequently found in males.
Describe how Hemophilia is a sex linked trait
Females and males who inherit the normal allele (H) are X^HX^H and X^HY = normal.

For a female to have hemophilia the offspring must be X^hX^h. The offspring must inherit both recessive X^h genes from each parent.

Males on only need to inherit one X^h recessive allele for them to have hemophilia: X^hY. Therefore hemophilia is more likely to occur in males.
What organism is often used to study genetics and why?
the Fruit Fly (Drosophila melangaster)

1: it reproducs often (short life cycle)
2: It reproduces in large numbers (large sample size)
3: Its chromosomes (especially in salivary gland) are large and easily recognizable in size and shape
4: Its chromosomes are few (4 pairs, 2n=8)
5: Mutations occur relatively frequently
True or false the Environement can affect the expression of a gene?

Give examples
True
Drosophila: witha given set of genes have cooked wings at low temperature, but straight wings at higher temperature

Himalayan Hare: Warm parts = white hair. Cold parts on body = black hair
What is x-inactivation? What is an example?
during embryonic development in female mammals, one of the two X chromosomes in each cell does not uncoil into chromatin.

Example is the Calico Cat
What is nondisjunction? What are two genetic defects as a cause from this?
The chromosomes, during meiosis, do not properly separate.

Down Syndrome and Turner Syndrome
How are genetic defects caused?
By inheritance of an allele (such as in hemophilia) or It can be caused by chromosomal abnormalities
How do chromosomal abnormalities occur?
They result when the inherited genome is missing a chromosome or has an extra chromosome (both from nondisjunction), or when one or more chromosomes have portions deleted (called a DELETION), duplicated (DUPLICATION), moved to another chromosome (TRANSLOCATION), or rearranged in reverse orientation on the same chromosome (INVERSION)
What are the 5 main ways chromosomal abnormalities can occur?
nondisjunction
deletion
duplication
translocation
inversion
What is the classic case of nondisjunction?
Down Syndrome: which is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21.
True or false: Most monosomies and trisomies are lethal?
True
What is monosomy and trisomy?
Monosomy = A Zygote that has one copy of a chromosome (2N-1)

Trisomy = A Zygote that has three copies of a chromosome (2N +1)
What are mutations?
Are changes in the genetic information of a cell, coded in DNA.
Mutation that occur in somatic cells lead to....

2) Mutations that occur in sex cells (gametes) will be transmitted to ______
1) lead to tumors
2) transmitted to the offspring
T or F: Most mutations occur in regions of DNA that do not code for proteins and are silent (not expressed in the phenotype)
True
Mutations that do change the sequence of amino acids in proteins are most often _____ and _______
recessive and deleterious
What are mutagenic agents and what are the types? ANd most agents are _______
Mutagenic agents induce mutations.

- cosmic rays
- x-rays
- radioactivity
- chemical compounds like colchicine (which inhibits spindle formation, therby cuasing polyploidy), or mustard gas

THey are usually carcinogenic
What are mutations types?
IN a gene mutation, nitrogen bases are :
1) added
2) deleted
3) or substituted
This genetic disorder is the inability to properly break down the amino acid-Phenylalanine. Accumulation of phenylalanine in untreated children causes mental retardation. Symptoms can be avoided with diets low in phenylalanine.:

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Duchenne's muscular
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Down Syndrome

State the patter on inheritance
C. Phynalketonuria

Pattern =autosomal recessive
This is an anbnormal hemoglobin
A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Duchenne's muscular
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Down Syndrome

State the patter on inheritance
A. Sickle-Cell Anemia

Pattern = Autosomal recessive
This is the inability to properly break down certain lipids. Accumulation of the lipids in brain cells causes progressive nervous system dysfunction an dis usually fatal by age four.

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Duchenne's muscular
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Down Syndrome
E. Tay-Sachs disease

State the patter on inheritance
E. Tay-Sachs

Pattern = autosomal recessive
THis genetic deffect is the expression begins in middle age with mild mental illness and loss of motor control progressing to total physical and mental incapability.

A. Huntington's Disease
B. Duchenne's muscular
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Down Syndrome

State the patter on inheritance
A. Hungtingon's disease

Pattern = autosomal dominant
This is the inability to code for clotting factor requried to from normal blood clots

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Duchenne's muscular
C. Phenylketonuria
D. hemophilia

State the patter on inheritance
D. hemophilia

sex-linked recessive
This is the inability to distinguish red from green

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Duchenne's muscular
C. red-green color blindness
D. hemophilia

State the patter on inheritance
C. red-green color blindness

sex-linked recessive
This is the absence of an essential muscle protein. Results in dystrophy deteriorating muscles and loss of coordination

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Duchenne's muscular
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Down Syndrome

State the patter on inheritance
B. Ducheene's

sex-linked dominant
This genetic defect is the trisomy 21 (three copies of chromosome 21). Physical abnormalities, mental retardation

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Duchenne's muscular
C. Tay-Sachs
D. Down Syndrome

State the patter on inheritance
D. Downs

nondisjunction of chromosome 21
This is XO and female. Union of gamete missing the sex chromosome with a normal egg or sperm bearing an X chromosome.

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Duchenne's muscular
C. Turner Syndrome
D. Down Syndrome

State the patter on inheritance
C. Turner Syndrome

nondisjuction of sex chromosomes
XXY and male. Union of XX gamete and normal Y gamete. Sterile and often mentally retarded

A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Down Syndrome

State the patter on inheritance
B. Klinefelter syndrome

nondisjunction of sex chromosomes
Physical and mental retardation and catlike cry.

A. Cri du chat syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Down Syndrome

State the patter on inheritance
A. Cri du chat syndrome

deletion in chromosome 5
Suppose that in sheep, a dominant allele (B) produces black hair and a recessive allele (b) produces white hair. If you saw a black sheep, you would be able to identify

a. its phenotype for hair color
b. its genotype for for hair color
c. the genotypes for only one of its parents
d. the genotypes for both of its parents
e. the phenotypes for both its parents
A. Its phenotype for hair color

All you know that the sheep will be black b/c either of the parents could all types of genotypes and phenotypes.
From the cross CCSS x ccss, what is the probability of having an offspring that is CcSs?
100% or 1

recognize this type of pattern
From the cross CcSs x CcSs, what is the probability of having offspring that is ccss?
know that 9:3:3:1 ; the whole is 16

And you know that 1 is completeltly recessive (ccss).
So... 1/16 is your answer
From cross CcSs x CcSs, what is the probability of having an offspring that is normal for both traits? (knowing that C and S will yield normal)
know that 9:3:3:1

So 9/16 are normal
The inheritance of skin color in humans is an example of which of the following?

A. Pleiotropy
B. Codominance
C. Epistasis
D. Polygenic inheritance
E. Gene linkage
D. Polygenic inheritance; since the range of skin colors in humans shows continuous varation from very pale to very dark, it is most likely coded by many genes (polygenic inheritance)
Red-headed people frequently have freckles. What best explains this?
The genes for these two traits are linked on the same chromosome.

When two traits frequently occur together, then they are probably linked. Sometimes, a red-headed person my not hvae freckles, or a freckled person may not have red hair. IN these cases, there wsa probably a crossover event, exchaning one of the two genes with an alele that did not code for freckles or red hair.
True or false: In domestic cats, two alleles of a sex-linked (x-linked) gene code for hair color. One allele codes for yellow hair, and the other allele codes for black hair. Cats can be all yellow or all black, or they can be calico, a coat characterized by randomly arranged patches of yellow and black hair. With repsect to this gene, this is true:

A Calico female and a yellow male can produce a male calico cat.
False: In order to be calico you must have both X^B (black) and X^Y (yellow) alleles. Males can only have one X allele. Therefore they can only be yellow or black; never calico.
DNA and RNA are polymers of what?

A, Amino Acids
B. Nucleotides
B. Nucleotides
A nucleotide is a:

monomer or polymer

And what does it consists of?
A monomoer consisting of a nitrogen base, a sugar, and a phosphate group.
For DNA label the following components:
1) Nucleotide components (sugar and nitrogen bases)
2) Function
3) Structure
1) Sugar = deoxyribose
Nitrogen bases=CTAG
2) contains hereditary information (genes) of the cell
3) double helix
For RNA label the following components:
1) Nucleotide components (sugar and nitrogen bases)
2) Function
3) Structure
1) Sugar = ribose
Nitrogen bases = CUAG
2) 3 Functions of RNA and their structure

1) mRNA-provies the instructions for assembling amino acids into a polypeptide chain. STRUCTURE = LINEAR

2) tRNA = delivers amino acids to a ribosome for their addition into a growing polypeptide chain. STRUCTURE = "clover leaf" shaped

3) rRNA - combines with proteins to form ribosomes. STRUCTURE = globular
How many kinds of DNA are there?

How many kinds of RNA are there?
1

3 (mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA)
In DNA replication semiconservative means that____
Each new daughter helix contains an intact strand from the parent helix and a newly synthesized strand
Walk through the 9 abbreviated steps of DNA synthesis
1) Helicase = separates DNA into two strands (leading (3->5) lagging (5->3()
2) SSB's coat string to DNA from reforming
3) Topoisomers = straighten out kinks
4) RNA Primase = synthesize RNA Primer
5) DNA polymerase = extends DNA strand (always builds 5 -> 3) direction
6) Sliding clamp = increase processivity
7) RNAse H = remove RNA primer (nucleotides)
8)DNA polymerase = fills in gap with DNA nucleotides
9) ligase = connects short DNA strands, created by Okazaki fragments.
DNA replication occurs where and during what phase? be specific
Occurs in nucleus, during interphase durin the S phase.
The language of DNA consists of how many "LETTERS"?

THe language of PROTEINS (amino acid language) consists of how many "WORDS"?
four: ATCG

PROTEINS: 20 words: the 20 amino acids
How is the DNA language translated to produce 20 words in the amino acid language?
The DNA language must be translated my "mRNA" in such a way as to produce the 20 words in the amino acid language; hence, the triplet code.
How is the base sequence of mRNA translated? And what are these called?
mRNA is translated in a series of triplets called "codons"
How do mutations occur in DNA?
If a DNA error is not reparired = mutation
What kinds of mutations are there?
incorrect nucleotide = substitution

2) a missing nucleotide = deletion

3) an additional nucleotide not present in the original DNA molecule = insertion
What happens when an insertion occurs in DNA?
it causes all the subsequent nucleotides to be displaced one position, producing a frameshift mutations.
Radiation or chemicals that cause mutations are called
mutagens
_________are mutagens that activate uncontrolled cell growth (cancer)
carcinogens
What types of instructions does DNA contain?
DNA in chromosomes contains instructions that regulate development, growth, and the metabolic activities of cells.

THe DNA instructions tells whether a cell will be that of a pea plant, human, or something specific to that organism.
How does DNA control the cell?
it contains codes for polypeptides. Many polypeptides are enzymes that regulate chemical reactions, and these chemical rxns influence the resulting charatersitic of the cell.
The process that describes how enzymes and other proteins are made from DNA is called...
Protein synthesis
What are the three steps to protein synthesis? briefly describe each of the steps (generally)
1) transcription = RNA molecules are created by using the DNA molecule as a template.
2) RNA processing = RNA processing modifies the RNA molecule with deletions and additions
3) translation- the processed RNA molecules are used to assemble amino acids into apolypeptide.
during which phase of protein synthesis are the three kinds of RNA molecules produced? What are those three?
Transcription

1) mRNA
2) tRNA
3) rRNA
RNA kind be found where?
in both the nucleus and cytoplasm and is usually single stranded unlike DNA.
DNA -> DNA is known as...
2) DNA -> RNA
3) RNA -> Protein

WHich direction are they all synthesized?
replication
transcription
Translation

DNA synthesized 5' -> 3' direction
2) new RNA synthesized in 5' -> 3' direction
3) mRNA read in 5' -> 3' direction
Where are each of these synthesized?
1) tRNA
2) mRNA
3) rRNA
tRNA and mRNA = synthesized in the nucleus

rRNA = synthesized in the NUCLEOLUS
What is
1) mRNA
2) tRNA
3) rRNA
1) mRNA = is a single strand of RNA that provides the template used for sequencing amino acids into a polypeptide.

2) tRNA = is a short RNA molecule that is used for transporting amino acids to their proper place on the mRNA template.

3) rRNA molecules are the building blocks of ribosomes.
What are the characteristics of mRNA?
A. FUNCTION: Acts as a template used for sequencing amino acids

B. STRAND: single
C. SYNTHESIZED: Nucleus
D. monocistronic = one mRNA strand codes for one polypeptide
E. PROMOTER REGION: T-A-T-A
F. SYNTHESES DIRECTION: 5'->3'
G. TERMINATION in eukary: AAAAAAA
H. Has 5'-cap (-P-P-P-G-5). Purpose is to provide mRNA stability and a point of attachment for small RNA subunit.
I. Has poly-A tail. purpose provides stability and helps move mRNA through nuclear envelope out to cytoplasm.
J. mRNA has segments: exons and introns (snRNP's delete out introns)
What are the characteristics of tRNA?
A. FUNCTION: is a short RNA molecule that is used for transporting amino acids to their proper place (code) on the mRNA template
B. SHAPE: 'three-clover = 3-dimensional
C. SYNTHESIZED: Nucleus
D. Contains Anti-codon
E. Has amino acid attachment
F. In cytoplasm, amino acids attach to the 3' end of the tRNAs, forming aminoacyl-tRNA. The reaction requires an enzyme specific to each tRNA (aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase) AND the energy from one ATP.
G. The amino acid-tRNA bond that results is a high-energy bond, creating and "activated' amino acid-tRNA complex.
What are the characteristics of rRNA?
A. FUNCTION: rRNA molecules are the building blocks of ribosomes.
B. SYNTHESIZED: nucleolus
C.
How are ribosomes made and what is there part in protein synthesis?
Ribosomes are made within the nucleolus. In there, various proteins are imported from the cytoplasm and are assembled with rRNA to from large and small ribosomal subunits. Together, the two subunits form a RIBOSOME, which coordinates the activities of the mRNA and tRNA during translation.

The small ribosomal subunit + mRNA + tRNA = initiates translation.

The Large ribosomal subunit follow shortly. The large has 3 sites: A, P, E
After transcription what three things are transported across the nuclear envelope?
mRNA, tRNA and ribosomal subunits (small and large)
In protein synthesis go through the steps of Transcription for me
1) Initiation:
A. RNA polymerase attaches to promoter regions on DNA = unzips
B. Promoter region for mRNA: T-A-T-A

2) ELONGATION
A. RNA polymerase assembles RNA nucleotides using 1 DNA strand as a template
B. RNA synthesized 5'->3' direction

3) Termination:
A. RNA Polymerase reads termination stop codon on DNA = AAAAAAA
In protein synthesis go through the steps of RNA Processing for me.
Before mRNA leave nucleus it goes through two kinds of alternations

Alteration 1:
Both ends of the mRNA get attachments
A. 5' end gets a 5'-cap which is a guanine nucleotide molecule (GTP). This provides stability and a point of connection for the small ribosomal subunit
B. THe 3' end gets a poly-A tail. Provides stability and helps get through the nuclear envelop.

Alteration #2:
A. mRNA segments are removed
B. entons = coded
C. introns = noncoded
These are deleted by snRNP's before leaving the nucleus.
In protein synthesis walk me through Translation
Before that tRNA is doing is thing out in the cytoplasm, after leaving the nucleus and transcription. tRNA finds amino acids that are floating around and attaches to them (specifically) = forming aminoacyl-tRNA. This specific reaction is helped by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase. tRNA is now Activated and ready to go.

INITIATION:
1. Small Ribosomal Subunit attached to 5' end (GTP) of mRNA.

2. tRNA (with anticodon UAC) carries amino acid Met attaches to mRNA at start codon (AUG), with hydrogen bonds

3. Large Ribosomal Subunit attaches to the mRNA, forming a complete ribosome with the tRNA (bearing Met) occupying the P site.

ELONGATION:
4. A different aminoacyl-tRNA attaches at A site and a peptide bond is formed between Met and the new amino acid that tRNA brought in. The A site turns into peptidyl-RNA. then shifts into the P site, freeing up space for another aminoacyl-tRNA to land on A site. process is repeated.

5. The P site then shifts to the E site where the tRNA (no longer aminoacyl-tRNA) goes back into the cytoplasm to pick up more aminoacids.

TERMINATION:
6. Ribosome encounters one of three stop codons.

Large and small ribosomal subunits and mRNA are released. They can go through this again if they would like.
What energy is used during translation?
GTP
In eukaryotes how is DNA organized?
The DNA is packaged with proteins called Histones to form DNA-histone complexes called NUCLEOSOMES (look likes beads)
How is a nondividing cell organized?
Two ways
1) Euchromatin: describes regions where DNA is loosely bound to nucleosomes. DNA in these regions are being actively transcribed.

2. Heterochromatin: areas where nucleosomes are more tightly compacted, and where DNA is inactive. Stains Darker because more dense.
2) Heterochromatin
List all of the places DNA is found in a eukaryotic cell?
Nucleus
Chloroplasts
Mitochondria
What are viruses?
Parasites of cells
WHat are bacteriophages or phages?
Viruses that ONLY attack bacteria
What parts make up a virus?
- nucleic acid (DNA OR RNA)
- surrounded by coat protein called CAPSID.
- some capsids have ENVELOPE, that helps penetrate hose cell
What are the two basic replication cycles of viruses?
1) lytic cycle
2) lysogenic cycle
Bacteriophages that replicate by the lytic cycle, killing their host cells, are said to be
virulent
Describe the Lytic cycle
Virus penetrates teh cell membrane of the host cell and nused the enxymes of the host cell to replicate viral DNA, transcribes viral DNA into RNA, and translates the RNA into proteins.

Host cell lyses and infects other cells doing the same thing.
Describe the lysogenic cycle
Viral DNA temporarily incorporated in Hosts cell. A virus that is dormant, causing no harm, is a PROVIRUS (OR if a bacteriophage a PROPHAGE)
What is a retrovirus?
A type of virus that uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to make a DNA complement of the virus's RNA. From it can enter either lytic or lysogenic cycle
T or False Bacteria are eukaryotes?
False, Prokaryotes
What is bacteria made of and how does it reproduce?
No nucleus
No spindle apparatus
No microtubules
No centrioles
No histones (proteins invloved with DNA structure)
Yes single Circular DNA Molecule
Yes Plasmids = short, circular DNA molecules outside the chromosome, which contain accessory genes.
What are episomes and who has them?
Bacteria have them. They are plasmids that are capable of integrating into the bacterial chromosome
How is bacteria replicated?
proceeds in both direction. simultaneously. DNA is synthesized in the 5'->3' direction
How do bacteria cells reproduce?
Binary Fission (asexual process)
How does bacteria get genetic variance?
Three ways
1. transformation
2. conjugation
3. transduction
What is transformation related to bacteria?
Method of bacterial genetic variance. Transformation occurs when bacteria absorb DNA from their surroundings.
What is transduction in relation to bacteria?
A method of bacterial genetic variance. Transduction occurs when new DNA is introduced into bacteria by a virus
What is conjugation in relation to bacteria?
Process by which DNA is exchanged between bacteria = like SEXAUL MATING.

A cytoplasmic conjugation bridge is formed between two cells and genetic material is transferred from the donoer male (+) to the recipient female (-) type. Only bacteria containing plasmids called sex factors are capable of conjugating.
What are two examples of conjugation sex factors?
1) F Factor in E. coli.
2) R Factor that provide bacteria with resistance against antibiotics
How do prokaryotes control their metabolism? And is this only found in prokaryotes?
The regulation of gene expression (transcription)

This can also be found in prokaryotes?
What is an operon
In bacteria they contain sequences of DNA that direct certain biosynthetic pathways. Regulation of a gene expression (transcription) enables prokaryotes to control their metabolism.
What are the four parts/regions of an operon?
1) regulatory gene = PRODUCES a repressor protein, a substance that can prevent gene expression by blocking the acton of RNA polymerase
2) promoter = is a sequence of DNA to which the RNA polymerase attaches to begin transcription
3) operator = can block the action of the RNA polymerase if the region is occupied
4) structural genes = contain DNA sequences that code for proteins
If RNA polymerase bind to promotor ->

2) Repressor bind to operator ->

3) Inducer binds to repressor -> A -> B
1) structural genes transcribe

2) structural genes NOT transcribed

3) #1 no binding to operator -> #2 structural genes transcribed
Why are lethal dominant alleles much less common than lethal recessive alleles?
Because the lethal dominant allels usually kill the person, thus the dominant allele dies with them and not passed on. But a person can be a carrier of a lethal allele as long as it is recessive. Those can be passed b/c the host does not die
What are the three differences between DNA and RNA ?
DNA double stranded; RNA singl
2) deoxyribous : RNA ribose
3) DNA: T nitrogen base; RNA U nitrogen base
Walk me through the Hormones and the female reproductive cycle.
1) The hypothalamus and anterior pituitary initiate the reproductive cycle.
2) The follicle develops
3) the follicle secrets estrogen
4) Ovulation occurs
5) THe corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone
6) The endometrium thickens
7) The hypothalamus and anterior pituitary terminate the reproductive cycle
8) The endometrium disintegrates
9) If implantation occurs the implanted embryo sustains the endometrium
How many hours can an oocyte be fertilized after ovulation?

Egg and sperm fused =
12-24 hours

Zygote
In early development the zygote begins a series of rapid______. What is the purpose of that?
rapid CLEAVAGES. This means rapid cell divisions without cell growth. Meaning the total cell cytoplasm is constant
T or F cleavage in embryonic development also increases the surface-to-volume ratio of each cell, thereby improving gas exchange and nutrient exchange
True
What is an intermediate cleavage? WHat is an example?

What is an determinate cleavage?
Indeterminate Cleavages produce blastomeres that if separated results in cells that maintain the ability to develop into a complete organism.
Identical twins are a result of indeterminate cleavage

Determinate cleavage results in cells (blastomeres) whose future differentiation pathways are determined at a an early developmental stage.
At fertilization take me through the cleavage steps through the end.
Fertilized egg
-> 2-cell stage
-> 4 cell stage
-> 8 cell stage
-> 16 cell stage
-> morula
-> Blastula
->Gastrula
What is the a morula?
Blastula?
A solid ball of cells as a result of successive cleavage

Blastula: As cell divisions continue, liquid fills the morula and pushes the cells out to form a circular cavity surrounded by a single layer of cells. This hallow sphere of cells is called the blastula, and the cavity is the BLASTOCOEL
When does gastrulation occur?
Once implanted in the uterus, cell migrations transform the single cell layer of the blastula into a two then three-layered structure called gastrula
What are the three primary germ layers in the blastula?
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Name the parts
State which germ layer these originate from:
hair
thyroid
circulatory system
nails
Hair = ectoderm
thyroid = endoderm
circulatory system = mesoderm
epidermis = ectoderm
State which germ layer these originate from:
epidermis
epithelial linings of digestive and respiratory tracts
excretory system
nervous system
musculoskeletal system
epidermis = ectoderm
epithelial linings of digestive and respiratory tracts = endoderm

excretory system = mesoderm
musculoskeletal system = mesoderm
nervous system = ectoderm
What are the four extraembryonic membranes that develop during development?
chorion
allantois
amnion
yolk sac
What are the two main components to the specialized circulatory system in placental internal development for humans and most mammals?
The placenta and umbilical cord

Placenta: s a blend of maternal and embryonic tissues across which gases, nutrients, and wastes are exchanged.

Umbilical Cord: Transport gases, nutrients, and swastes between the embryo and the placenta
WHat is the chorion and what originates from it?
The chorion is the outer membrane. The chorion with other maternal tissues forms the placenta.
How is the umbilical cord made?
It originates from the allantois
What is the allantois?
It begins as a sac that buds off from the archenteron. It encircles the embryo forming a layer below the chorion. Later it fuses with chorion which leads to the development of the umbilical chord. (note that the chorion turns into the placenta)

- Also The blood vessels of the allantoic wall enlarge and become the umbilical vessels, which will connect the fetus to the developing placenta.
WHat is the amnion?
surrounds the embryo and is filled with fluid that cushions
What is the yolk sac for Placental mammals and for birds and reptiles?
Placental mammals = yolk sac is empty. Nutrition is obtained from placenta. It is also the site of early development of blood vessels.

in Birds and Reptiles: Provide nutrients for them.
What and where are acrosomes? What do they do?
Found on tip of sperm head.
- a lysosome containing enzymes that can penetrate the egg.
How is circulation accomplished with: Protozoans
movement of gases and nutrients is accomplished by simple diffusion within the cell
How is (gas exchange) circulation accomplished with: Cnidarians (is this a Phylum or class etc? Give some organism examples)
Cnidarians = Phylum
Examples = jellyfish, corals

Circulation = They have body walls that are two cells thick. All cells are in direct contact with either the internal or external environments so there is no need for specialized circulatory system.
How is circulation accomplished with: Arthropods ( is this a phylum, kingdom, class, order, family etc? Give some organism examples)
Arthropods = Phylum
Examples = butterfly, centipede, scorpion

Gas exchange = Arthropods have OPEN CIRCULATORY SYSTEMS in which blood (interstitial fluid) is in direct contact with the body tissues. The blood is circulated by boy movements. Blood flows through a DORSAL VESSEL and into spaces called SINUSES where exchange occurs.
How is circulation accomplished with: ANNELIDS ( is this a phylum, kingdom, class, order, family etc? Give some organism examples)
Annelids = Phylum
Examples = segmented worms, earth worms, leeches

Gas exchange = Closed Circulatory system. Blood is confined to vessels. Blood moves towards the head in the dorsal vessel which functions as the main heart by coordinated contractions.
- 5 pairs of vessels called aortic loops connect the dorsal vessel to the ventral vessel and function as additional mumps.
- Earthworm blood lacks any red blood cells. But has hemoglobin-like pigment that is dissolved in aq solution.
The right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood into ______

THe left side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood into ________
1) pulmonary circulation (toward the lungs)

2) systemic circulation (through out the body)
Describe each of the following:
Arteries
capillary
vein
ARTERIES:
thick-walled, muscular, elastic
CAPILLARIES: smallest
VEINS: thin-walled, inelastic, conduct deoxygenated blood towards heart
What is the primary and secondary circulations systems?
Primary = blood vessels
Secondary = lymph vessels
What do lymph vessels do?

What are lymph nodes
transport excess interstitial fluid, called lymph, to the cardiovascular system, thereby keeping fluid levels in the body constant.

Lymph Nodes = swellings along lymph vessels containing phagocytic cells (leukocytes) that filter lymph , removing and destroying foreign particles and pathogens
Where where are leukocytes found and what is their main purpose?
found in lymph nodes. They filter lymph, removing and destroying foreign particles and pathogens
WHat is plasma and what is in it?
the liquid portion of blood. An aqueous mixture of:
nutrients, salts, respiratory gases, wastes, hormones, and blood proteins (eg. immunoglobulins, albumin, and fibrinogen)
What are the two components of blood?
liquid (55%) and cellular (45%)
What does the cellular component of blood consist of?
erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets
What are erythrocytes:
Function
Structure
Originate
Where they are recycled:
Erythrocytes = red blood cells

Function: carry oxygen by one of 250 million molecules of hemoglobin on one red blood cell. hemoglobin + oxygen = oxyhemoglobin.

Structure: biconcave, disk-like shape (very efficient)

Originate: formed from stem cell in the bone marrow. They lose nuclei, mitochondria, and membraneous organelles.

Where they are recycled: After about 120 days they are phagocytized by special cells in the SPLEEN AND LIVER
What are LEUKOCYTES:
Function
Structure
Originate
Where they are recycled:
Function: protective
- Phagocytize foreign matter like bacteria
- Migrate to blood tissue and remain stationary = macrophages
- Involved in immune response and the production of antibodies (B cells) or cytolysis of infected cells (T cells)
Structure: larger than erythrocytes
Originate: Bone marrow
Where they are recycled:
What are platelets?
Found in cell component of blood. Platelets are cell fragments that lack nuclei and are involved in clot formation.
WHat are the main functions of:
Blood
Platelets
Leukocytes
Blood: transports nutrients and O2 to tissue, and wastes and CO2 from tissue

Platelets: injury repair

Leukocytes: MAIN component of the immune system.
How many molecules of O2 can each molecule of hemoglobin bond to?
1 hemoglobin can bond to 4 O2 molecules
T or False: Hemoglobin also bind to CO2
True
What types of pathogens can possibly harm our body
bad proteins
bacteria
viruses
fungi
In Immune response what is our first line of defense?
Skin
Antimicrobial agents (in saliva, tears and mucus)
- cilia in lungs
- gastric juice
- symbiotic bacteria found in Vagina that out compete any foreign agent.
WHat is our second line of defense in immune response?
Inflammatory response
Phagocytes
Complement
Interferons
What is the difference between non-specific and specific immune response?
non-specific: is usually our first and second line of defense. They don't remember what type of pathogen they are attacking or know what "specific" type it is. They simply realize that ..."hey, you are not supposed to be here. I am going to kick you out."

Specific immune response. It targets specific antigens
The inflammatory response can be generally termed as...
"bringing weapons to the fight."
What are the most common types of Phagocytes?
Neutrophils = fast and abundant
Monocytes = enlarge into large phagocytic cells called macrophages
Macrophages = versatile, heavy lifters
- Natural killers (NK Cells) attack abnormal body cells (such as tumors) or pathogen-infected body cells
- Dendritic cells good with turning into specific immune response
What are "complement" in the immune response?
is in non-spedific secondary response. is a group of about twenty proteins that "complement" defense reactions.
- proteins help attract phagocytes to foreign particles and help destroy foreign cells by promoting cell lysis (breaking open the cell)
WHat are interferons and how are they involved in the immune system?
non-specific and part of secondary response.
- substances secreted by cells invaded by viruses that stimulate neighboring cells to produce proteins that help them defend against the viruses.
- like calling 911
True or false phagocytes and lymphocytes are leukocytes (white blood cells)
True
Lymphocytes have two other sub lymphocytes called...
B Cells- from the bone marrow (B for bone marrow)

T Cells - come from bone marrow but mature in the thymus
What are B cells and what type of immunity are they involved with?
Humoral Immunity:
Originate and mature in bone marrow
- Have Y-antibodies on them (which are specialized receptors for antigens = foreign particles)
1) Antibodies are also known as
1) immunoglobulins
What are the properties of antibodies:
1) Antibodies are proteins
2) Each antibody is specific to a particular antigen
3) There are 5 classes of antibodies (IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM)
4) Each class is a variation of the basic y-shaped protein that consists of constant regions and variable regions. The variable regions are sequences of amino acids that differ among antibodies and give them specificity to antigens
5) Antibodies inactivate antigens by binding to them -> followed by phagocytosis
Why are there so many variable portions on the membrane-bound antibodies on B cells?
So that at least one will be able to identify a foreign object/antigen. B/c there is so much out there that could harm us so this is our bodies way of preparing us for whatever comes.
What is the process of clottingi?
1) Platelets in contact with exposed collagen
->
2) platelets release thromboplastin
->
3) thromboplastin converts inactive prothrombin -> active thrombin
->
4) Thrombin (converts) -> fibrinogen -> fibrin

5) Fibrin coats the damaged area and trap blood cells to form a clot.
More condensed version of the clotting process
Cut -> platelets release thromboplastin -(conv)> prothrombin -> thrombin -> fibrinogen -> fibrin -> traps blood cells and forms clot

The fluid left after blood clotting = serum
Person who is Rh+ is said to what

A person who is Rh- is said to what?
1) Rh+ = individuals posess the Rh antigen on the surface of their RBC's

2) Rh- = the individual is lacking the Rh antigen on their RBC's surface
Explain the Rh Factor scenario with a mother and child. WHat happens?
Rh- Mom has Rh+ baby
-> Rh- mom, sensitized, develops Rh+ antibodies

Rh- mom has another Rh+ baby
-> The Rh+ antibodies that mom developed from the first child attacks the blood of the second child
killing the fetus or severe anemia called erythroblastosis fetalis
What do the vascular bundles in plants consist of?
xylem, phloem and cambium cells.
What is the purpose of xylem and phloem?
xylem conducts water and minerals UP the and also provides mechanical support

phloem is conducts sugars
What two types of xylem cells can xylem differentiate into?
1) vessel cells: shorter and wider, have less or no taper at ens (have perforations = water moves better on vessels than tracheids)

2) tracheids: long and tapered (passes through one tracheid to another through pits)
What are the three ways that the xylem pulls water up?
1) Transpiration pull - as water evaporates from the leaves of plants, a vacuum is creaetd which pulls water up the stem

2) Capillary action- any liquid in a thin tube will rise due to the surface tension of the liquid and interactions between the liquid and the tube.

3) Root pressure - water entering the root hairs exerts a pressure which pushes water up the stem.
The Phloem cells are living and include two types of cells
sieve tube cells: form sieve-tube members tha form fluid-conducting columns call sieve tubes. L
- Living, but lack nuclei and ribosomes
- Pores on the end walls of sieve-tube member form sieve plates, areas where the cytoplasm of one cell makes contact with that of the next cell.

companion cells:
-living parenchyma cells that lie adjacent to each sieve-tube member.
- connected to adjaent sieve-tube members by tin tubes of cytoplasm called plasmodesmata, maintain physiological support to the nuclei-lacking sieve-tube members.
If a tree is girdled by removing a strip of bark around the trunk, the ______connections are severed and the tree will _____
phloem, die
What are the three main tissues of plants?
1) Ground tissues
A. Parenchyma cells
B. Collenchyma cells
C. Sclerenchyma cells
2) Dermal Tissues
3) Vascular Tissues
A. xylem
B. phloem
Ground tissues include what three types of cells...describe each.
1) Ground tissues
A. Parenchyma cells: the most common component of ground tissue, have thin walls and serve various function including storage, photosynthesis, and secretion

B. Collenchyma cells:
have thick but flexible cell walls, serve mechanical support functions

C. Sclerenchyma cells:
with thicker wall than collenchyma, also provide mechanical support functions
For Monocots:
Cotyledons:
Leaf Venation:
Flower Parts:
VAscular bundles:
Root:
For Monocots: ie corn, wheat, sugar cane

Cotyledons:1 cotyledon
Leaf Venation: parallel
Flower Parts: in 3's or multiples thereof
VAscular bundles: scattered xylem and phloem)
Root:fibrous system ( a cluster of many fine roots)
For dicots:
Cotyledons:
Leaf Venation:
Flower Parts:
VAscular bundles:
Root:
For Dicots:
Cotyledons: 2 cotyledons
Leaf Venation: netted (a branching pattern)
Flower Parts: in 4's, 5's or multiple thereof
VAscular bundles: organized in a circle
Root: taproot (a large single root)
What are the parts to a plant embryo?
1. epicotyl = embryo top portion = becomes root tip
2. plumule = leaves attached to epicotyl
3. hypocotyl = become young shoot
4. In some embryos, a radicle develops below the hypocotyl. The radicle develops into the root
5. In many monocots, a sheath called the coleoptile surround and protect the epicotyl. = appears as leaf
What is the cambium?
Cambium cells (two layers thick) are the actively dividing, undifferentiated cells which give rise to xylem and phloem. Cells close to the xylem form into xylem. cambium cells close to phylum form into phylum.
What is the difference between primary and secondary growth in plants?
Primary growth: occurs in young plants. Growth occurs in the vertical direction

Secondary growth: Plants like conifers and woody dicots not only grow vertically through apical meristems but through lateral meristems = origin of woody plant tissues.

Secondary growth occurs at two lateral meristems: vascular cambium and the cork cambium
Cork cambium gives rise to what?
the periderm = the protective material that lines the outside of woody plants
What are the specialized tissues for the primary structure of a root?
1. Epidermis = lines the outside surface of the root.
- Zone of maturation (or differentiation) epidermal cells produce root hairs, which increase the absorptive surface of the roots.

2. Cortex = bulk of the root, main function is the storage of starch

3. Endodermis= ring of tightly packed cells.
- suberin- a fatty substance that creates a water-impenetrable barrier called the casparian strip.
= Result = all water must go through endodermal cells.
= means = endodermal cells can control movement of water

4. Vascular cylinder, or stele: Tissues inside endodermis
identify these structures
Cork cambium produces ->
vascular cambium produces ->
the periderm = bark
xylem and phloem
What plant vascular tissue makes up the wood of the plant?
2) The xylem that is produced during the more recent years remains active in the support of water =
3) Older xylem, located toward the stem =
1) the xylem
2) sapwood
3) heartwood = provides support
THe annual rings of a tree are from what?
the xylem
Identify the different layers and components
What is a leaf covered witih?
waxy cuticle (material is called cutin)
WHat is palisade mesophyll
consists of parenchyma cells equipped with numerous chloroplasts and large surface areas, specializations for photosynthesis. Photosynthesis in leaves occurs primarily in this tissue. The parenchyma cells are usually tightly packed in one or more layers at the supper surface but can occur at both surfaces in leaves of plants adapted to dry habitats.
What is spongy mesophyll?
consists of parenchyma cells loosely arranged below the palisade mesophyll. THe numerous intercellular spaces provide air chambers of plants that provide CO2 to photsynthesizing cells (and O2 to respiring cells)
What are guard cells?
are specialized epidermal cells that control the opening and closing of the stomata. Stomata are openings in the epidermis that allow gas exchange between the inside of the leaf and the external environment
WHat are the two ways that water moves toward the center of the root?
1) apoplasts = nonliving = water moves through cell walls from one cell to another

2) symplasts = living = moves the cytoplasm of one cell to the cytoplams of the next through pasmodemsmata, small tubes that connect the cytoplasm of adjacent cells
How is the opening and closing of the stomata regulated?
1) Stomata closes when Temps are high (closed photosynthesis stops)
2) Stomata opens with CO2 is low (photosynthesis starts)
3) Stomata close at night and open during the day
4) Stomatal opening accompanied by diffusion of potassium ions (K+)
What are the 5 classes of plants hormones?
1) Auxin (IAA)
2) Gibberellins
3) Cytokinins
4) Ethylene
5) Abscisic acid (ABA)
What is the the function of auxin?
Plant hormone
- promotes plant growth by facilitating the elongation of developing cells
- produced at the tips of roots and shoots and, along with other hormones, influences phototropism and geotropism.
- auxin is active in leaves, fruits and germinating seeds
- Actively transported (requiring ATP) from cell to cell.
What is phototropism and geotropism?
Phototropism = plants repsone to light

geotropism = plants response to gravity
What are gibberellins?
Plant hormone
- similar to auxin, by promoting plant growth etc.
- Main difference: has HIGH conc. of GA which causes rapid elongaton of stems called BOLTING.
-bolting occurs in rice plants when a fungus that produces GA attacks the plant.
What are cytokinins?
Plant Hormone:
- stimulate cytokinesis
- produced in roots
- can influence direction of organ development (organogenesis)
- can stimulate growth of lateral buds = apical dominance
- can delay senescence (aging) of leaves
What does ethylene do for plants?
- A Gas that promotes the ripening of fruit
What is abscisic acid (ABA)
Plant hormone:
growth inhibiter
- helps in dormant
Since plants can't move they can only change their growth patterns. A growth pattern in response to an environmental stimuli is called
tropism
What are the three types of tropism?
1) Phototropism
2) geotropism
3)Thigmotropism: is a response to touch. When vines and other climbing plants contact some object, they respond by wrapping around it.
What is photoperiodism?
Photoperiodism is the response of plants to changes in the photoperiod, or the relative length of daylight and night.
How do plants respond to changes in photoperiod?

What type of mechanism is this?
plants maintain a circadian rhythm, a clock that measures the length of day and night.

Endogenous mechanism: it is an internal clock that continues to keep time even if external cues are absent. It uses dawn and dusk to accurately reset its clock to account for any error
Describe the role of Phytochrome in a plants circadian clock?
1) Pfr appear to reset the circadian-rythm clock

2) Pr is the form of phytochrome synthesized in plant cells

3) Pr and Pfr are in equillibrium during daylight

4) Pr accumulates at night

5) At daybreak, light rapidly converts the accumulated Pr to Pfr

6) Night length is responsible for resetting the circadian-rythm clock
In response to stress what does the adrenal cortex synthesize and secrete?
The adrenal cortex synthesizes and secretes steroid hormones collectively known as CORTICOSTEROIDS.
Where are corticosteroids derived from and what do they include?
They are steroid hormones, derived from cholesterol.

Include:
glucocorticoids
mineralcorticoids
cortical sex hormones
Posterior Pituitary
Location:
Hormone(s):
Target :
Action:
Posterior Pituitary
Location: Base of the brain. but get's its hormones from Hypothalamus. PP only stores them.
Hormone(s): oxytocin and ADH
Target :
-oxytocin = mammary glands
- ADH = Kidneys
Action:
- oxytocin = stimulates release of milk
- ADH = increases reabsorption of water
Anterior Pituitary
Location:
Type of Hormone:
Hormone(s):
Target :
Action:
Extra (overall) result:
Anterior Pituitary
Location: base of brain
Type of Hormone: Direct (PEG) and Tropic (FLAT)
Hormone(s): FLAT PEG
TARGET :
FLAT (Tropic)
- FSH = ovary, testes
- LH = ovary, testes
- ACTH = adrenal cortex
- TSH = thyroid
PEG (Direct)
- Prolactin = mammary glands
- Endorphines = general
- GH = bone, muscle

ACTION:
FLAT (Tropic)
- FSH = regulates oogenesis (maturation of ovarian follicles = estrogen secreted) and spermatogenesis
- LH = regulates oogenesis (simulates ovulation and formation of the corpus luteum) and spermatogenesis (tell males to synthesis testosterone)
- ACTH = secretion of glucorticoids (cortisol)
- TSH = secretion of T4 and T3
PEG (Direct)
- Prolactin = production of milk
- Endorphines = inhibit pain
- GH = stimulates growth
Extra (overall) result:
Hormones:
1) What can be said about a person with stunted growth?
2) What can be said about a person with gigantism
1) Dwarfism = under production of GH

2) Gigantism = Over production of GH
A disorder characterized by a disproportoinate overgrowht of bone, localized especially in the skull, jaw and feet and hand is
Acromegaly:

Over production of GH
Pancreas
Source:
Location:
Hormone(s):
Target:
Action:
Pancreas
Source: Alpha Cells ad B cells
Location:Next to kidney
Hormone(s):
- glucagon (a-Cells)
- insulin (b-cells)
Target:

- glucagon (a-Cells) = liver
- insulin (b-cells) = liver, muscles, fat
Action:
- glucagon (a-Cells): increases blood glucose
- insulin (b-cells): lower blood glucose
What are all of the hormones that increase plasma glucose?
Pancreas = glucagon
AP = GH
AC = glucorticoids (cortisol)
AM = epinephrine
Adrenal Cortex
Location:
Hormone(s):
Target:
Action:
Adrenal Cortex
Location: ON top of kindeys
Hormone(s):
-glucorticoids -> cortisol
-mineralcorticoids ->aldosterone
sex hormones -> androgens

TARGET:
-glucorticoids -> general
-mineralcorticoids -> kidney
sex hormones -> testes
Action:
-glucorticoids -> increase blood glucose
-mineralcorticoids -> increases reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+ (increases blood volume and pressure)

sex hormones -> male physiological effect
Adrenal Medulla (MEN)
Location:
Hormone(s):
Target:
CONTROLLED:
Action:
Adrenal Medula
Location:above kidneys
Hormone(s):
- epinephrine
- norepinephrine

Target:
- epinephrine = blood vessels, liver, heart
- norepinephrine = same

ACTION:
- epinephrine: increases blood glucose, constricts blood vessels (fight or flight response)
- norepinephrine: SAME

CONTROLLED: regulated by ACTH from the AP
Thyroid
Location:
Hormone(s):
Target:
Action:
CONTROLLED:
Thyroid
Location: on trachea
Hormone(s):
-thyroxin (T4)
-triiodothyronine (T3)
-calcitonin

Target:
-thyroxin (T4) = gen.
-triiodothyronine (T3) = gen.
-calcitonin = bone

Action:
-thyroxin (T4) = Both T4 and T3 increase rate of metabolism necessary for growth
-triiodothyronine (T3)
-calcitonin = decreases Ca+2 in blood
CONTROLLED:
1) Thyroid hormones are undersecreted or no secreted at all is
hypothyroidism
1) Common symptoms of hypothyroidism is:

2) Hypothyroidism in new born infants is called______. How is it characterized?
1) slowed heart rate and respiratory rate, fatigue, cold intolerance, and weight gain

2) cretinism: characterized by mental retardation and short stature
The thyroid is over stimulated resulting in over secretion of thyroid hormones _____
hyperthyroidism
WHat are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism?
increased metabolic rate, feelings of excessive warmth, profuse sweating, palpitations, weight lose, and protruding eyes.
What do hyperthyroidism and hypthyroidism have in common most times?
Both often have enlarged thyroid, forming a bulge in the neck called a goiter
Parathyroid
Location
Hormones:
Target
Action
Parathyroid
Location: on posterior surface of thyroid

Hormones: PTH

Target: bone, kidneys

Action: increases blood Ca+2 levels by stimulating Ca+2 release from bone and decreasing Ca+2 excretion in the kidneys
Testes
Hormones:
Target
Action
Testes
Hormones: testosterone

Target:testes, general

Action: spermatogenesis, secondary sex characteristics
ovary
Hormones:

Target
Action
ovary
Hormones:
-estrogen
-progesteron

Target:
-estrogen: uterus, general
-progesteron: uterus

Action:
-estrogen: menstrual cycle, secondary sex charact.

-progesteron: menstrual cycle pregnancy
Pineal
Location:
Hormones:
Target:
Action:
Pineal
Location: in the head
Hormones: melatonin
Target: body
Action: circadian rhythms
Kidneys
Location:
Hormones:
Target:
Action
Kidneys
Location: next to pancreas
Hormones: renin
Action:
an enzyme that converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I -> angiotensin II ->which, stimulates AC to secrete aldosterone.
Stomach
Location:
Hormones:
Target
Action
Stomach
Location:
Hormones: gastrin
Target: stomach
Action: ingested food stimulates the stomach to release gastrin. Gastrin tells gastrin glands to secrete HCL
Small Intestine
Location:
Hormones:
Target
Action
Small Intestine
Location:
Hormones:
- secretin
- cholecystokinin

Target:
- secretin = pancreas
- cholecystokinin = gall bladder

Action:
- secretin = released by small intestine when acidic food enters from the stomach. Secretin stimulates the secreation of alkaline bicarbonate solution from the pancreas which neutralizes the acidity of the chyme.

- cholecystokinin = is released from the small intestine in response to the presence of fats and causes the cnotractoin of the gallbladder and release of bile into the small intestine.

Bile is involved in the digestion of fats.
What is the difference between peptide hormones and steroid hormones
Peptide hormones:
- surface receptors
- generally act via secondary messengers (ie cyclic AMP)

Steroid hormones:
- intracellular receptors
- hormone/receptor binding to DNA promotes transcription of specific genes
What are the parts of the neuron?
cell body = has the nucleus and other cellular organelles.

dendrite = short , branched lots, receives stimuli

axon = long, SENDS nerve impulses
What produces myelin in the CNS and PNS?
CNS = oligodendrocytes
PNS = schwann cells
1) gaps between myelin are =
2) gaps between the axon terminals of once cell and the dendrites of the next cell =
3) what communicates between the axons and dendrites?
1) nodes of Ranvier
2) synapse
3) neurotransmitters
My finger gets pricked. What happens to the neuron? Go through the steps
Neuron receive signals from sensory receptors from other neurons
->
info is transferred along axon
->
Action potentials = impulses travel the length of the axon and invade the nerve terminal,
-> causing the release of neurotransmitter into the synapse.
The potential difference between the extracellular space and the intracellular space is called....
resting potential
1) neurons that receive initial stimulus?

2) target cells that produce some kind of response

3) located in the spinal cord or brain and receive impulses from sensory neurons or send impulses to motor neurons
1) sensory or afferent neurons

2) motor or efferent (efferent = means doing something)

3) association or internerons
When a neuron is at rest which side is more positive/negative. And which side to the Na+ and K+ ions reside?
Outside cell = Na+, more positive

Inside cell = K+, more negative
What ultimately contributes to the over negative charge in a neuron?
the large, negatively charged ions (proteins or nucleic acids), contribute to the over all negative charge of the cell membrane
True or false, a neuron is depolarized at rest?
False
What is the approximate mV of a resting potential?
-70mV
True or false, the neuron membrane is selectively permeable?
True
Walk me through a stimulus from start to finish
1) Neuron Resting potential at -70mV, is polarized. Inside cell is negative with K+ and outside cell is positive with Na+

2) stimulus comes ->create action potential

3) Action potential:
-> gated ion channels open
-> Na+ rush IN
->cell is depolarized (more positive on the inside)(from -70 to 0)
-> if stimulus is above THRESHOLD LEVEL
-> more Na+gates open
-> more Na+ flows in
-> causes a ACTION POTENTIAL
-> more Na+ gates are stimulated down the axon
Side NOTE: This is an ALL-OR-NOTHING EVENT: when a the stimulus fails to produce a depolarization that exceeds the threshold value, no action potential proceeds)

3. REPOLARIZATION
-> as Na+ flows in...
-> K+ ion channels open
-> K+ rushes OUTSIDE the cell
-> repolarizing the cell.

4. HYPERPOLARIZATION
-By the time the K+ channels close more K+ is outside the cell than in
-> causes hyperpolarization, more negative than resting potential (-80 mV)

5. Refractory period:
-> we are at the opposite from where we started: more K+ is outside than inside.
-> the neuron will not respond to any more stimuli until it is back to normal = REFRACTORY PERIOD
-> Na+/K+ pumps use active transport (use ATP) to get the K+ back inside and the Na+ back outside
-> 3Na+ are pumped out for every 2K+ that are pumped in

Done: Everything is reset and the neuron is now at resting potential (-70mV)
Okay...now an action potential is coming from the dendrite through, axon ending at the axon terminal. What happens next?
neurotransmitters must cross the synapse between the axon terminal end and a different dendrite.
Walk me through what happens at between the terminal axon and neighboring dendrite, given there was a sufficient action potential.
1) Calcium (Ca+2) gates open:
-> action potential reaches end of axon
-> depolarization of membrane causes gated channels to open allowing Ca+2 to enter the cell

2) Synaptic vessels release neurotransmitter:
-> influx of Ca+2 into the terminal end causes synaptic vesicles to merge with presynaptic membrane
-> vesicles release neurotransmitters into synaptic cleft

3) Neurotransmitter binds with postsynaptic receptors (note: different proteins are used for different receptors)

4) The postsynaptic membrane is excited or inhibited:
-> depending on the kind of neurotransmitter and the kind of membrane receptors, there are two possible outcomes:

OUTCOME 1: If
->Na+ gates open at the new neuron
-> membrane is depolarized
-> = excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
-> the reaction continues down the axon

OUTCOME 2:
-> if K+ gates open,
->membrane become more POLARIZED (hyperpolarized)
-> = inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
-> become more difficult to generate a action potential on down the line.

5) The neurotransmitter is degraded and recycled.
-> neurotransmitter is broken down by enzymes

Common example:
-> neurotransmitter, acetylcholine is broken down by an enzyme
-> cholinesterase
List some common neurotransmitters:
1) Acetylcholine = commonly secreted at neuromuscular junctions, the gaps between motor neurons and muscle cells, where it stimulates the muscles to contract

2) Epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin. (from CNS)

3) GAmma aminobutyric acid (GABA) = inhibitory transmitter among neurons in the brain.
What do each of these drugs do?
A. Curare
B. Botulism toxin
C. Anti-cholinesterase
A. Curare:
-> blocks postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors
-> Result: paralysis

B. Botulism toxin:
-> prevents release of acetylcholine from the presynaptic membran
-> Result: paralysis

C. Anti-cholinesterase:
-> used as nerve gases and in the insecticide Parathion
-> inhibits the cholinesterase from breaking down acetycholine.
-> Result: no coordinated muscular contractions can take place
What the nervous systems like in each of the following phylum?

A. Protozoa
A. Protozoa (heterotrophic : like little animals)
-> no organized nervous system
-> single celled organisms may respond to
a. touch,
b. heat
c. light
d. chemicals
What the nervous systems like in each of the following phylum?

Cnidaria
B. Cnidaria (jellyfish, corals)
-> Nerve net = simple nervous system
What the nervous systems like in each of the following phylum?
Annelida
C. Annelida (Earthworms)
-> Primitive Central Nervous System:
-> ventral nerve cord
-> anterior brain of fused ganglia
-> definite nerve pathways lead from receptors to effectors.
What the nervous systems like in each of the following phylum?

Arthropoda
D. Arthropoda (roaches, bugs)
-> brains similar to annelida
-> BUT have more specialized sense organs are present
-> ie: compound or single eyes, tympanum for detecting sound
1) Nerves are _____
2) Network of nerve fibers are called _______
3) Neuronal cell bodies often cluster together; these clusters are called ______
1) bundles of axons
2) plexus
3) ganglia
Neuronal cell bodies that are clusters are called ____in the periphery and _______in the CNS
ganglia
nuclei
The nervous system of humans and other vertebrates is broken down into two major systems:
1) Peripheral nervous system
-> consists of sensory neurons that transmit impulses to the CNS and motor neurons that transmit impulses from the CNS to effectors.

2) Central Nervous system: consists of
-> Brain
-> spinal cord
name the parts
WHich can be broken down further: CNS or PNS?

Break it down.
PNS:
1) somatic nervous system (voluntary)
-> controls skeletal muscle

2) autonomic nervous system (involuntary)
-> controls activities of organs and various involuntary muscles, such as cardiac and smooth muscles
Which can be broken down further somatic or autonomic NS?

Break it down
Autonomic NS:
1) sympathetic
-> fight or flight

2) parasympathetic
-> tranquil functions, stimulating secretion of salive or digestion
Break down the brain for me
Part I: Forebrain (Prosencephalon)
A. Telencephalon
-> cerebral cortex
-> hippocampus
-> amygdala
B. Diencephalon
-> Thalamus
-> Hypothalamus

Part II: Midbrain (Mesensephalon)
-> relay center for visual and auditory impulses.
-> also important in motor control

Part III: Hindbrain (Rhombencephalon)
A. Cerebellum
B. Pons
C. Medulla
The brainstem consists of:
midbrain, pons, + medulla = brainstem
Name the functions of each of the following:
1) Cerebral cortex
2) Corpus Callosum
3) Olfactory bulb
4) Thalamus
5) Hypothalamus
6) Midbrain
7) Cerebellum
8) pons
9) medulla
10) Hippocampus
11) Amygdala
1) Cerebral cortex (TEX; E=mc^2) = top of brain, place of complex thinking

2) Corpus Callosum (plus, +,Sum): connect the right and left hemisphers

3) Olfactory bulb (Old Factory stinks): = relays smell

4) Thalamus (Hal and Amos are traffic directors): direct information for TEX (cerebral cortex) and spinal cord

5) Hypothalamus (Hypo and Llamas) My llama is hot, sexy, needs water, and is hungry

6) Midbrain = relay center for visual and audio impulses also helps out motor control (bells)

7) Cerebellum (Athletes wearing BELLS have a ton of motor skills) = motor skills, balance and kind eye coordination

8) pons (pond relaxing)= relay center between TEX and CereBELLum

9) medulla (tons of medals in my heart) = controls breathing, heart rate and gastrointestinal activity

10) Hippocampus (A hippo using a compass to remember his way) = seat of memory

11) Amygdala ( "A MIG is coming at me!!!") = controls fear
True or false. The spinal cord can integrate motor responses without going directly to the brain first?
True. Reflexes
What are the main parts of the spinal cord? Describe each
1) white matter: contain motor and sensory axons

2) grey matter: contains nerve bodies
3) dorsal horn: where sensory information enters

4) ventral horn: where all information exits
What are your mnemonics for remember the disorder of the eye.

1) myopia
2) hyperopia
3) astigmatism
4) cataracts
5) glaucoma
1) myopia: My Pee I can see up close = nearsightedness

2) hyperopia = Hyper pee can shoot far = farsightedness

3) astigmatism = the gmat has an irregular shape than the DAT = irregularly shaped cornea

4) cataracts = cadavers white eyes can't see = lens become opaque; light cannot enter the eye and blindness results

5) glaucoma = this glue in my eye is causing a lot of pressure = increase pressure in the eye due to the blocking of the outflow of the aqueous humor.
What is shortened version of the path of sound?
Sound enters
- external canal
- vibrates eardrum
- vibration moves through ossicles
a. mallet (malleus) -> anvil (incuds) -> stirrup (stapes)
- stapes vibrates oval window of cochlea
- creates pressure wave of the fluid inside
Label the outer ear:
Label the Middle ear:
-Pinna/auricle
- meatus/outer ear canal

Middle Ear:
- Eardrum (air pressure transmitted to auditory ossicles)
- ossicles: mallet, anvil, stirrup
(mechanical movement of the eardrum and convey it to the inner ear -> oval window
- Eustachian tube: (narrow tube connecting pharynx and middle ear. Equalizes air pressure differences between outer and middle ear
- Oval window (interface between middle and inner ear. transmits mechanical movement)

The Inner ear:
- Cochlea coil-like structure terminating in a window w/a flexible membrane at each end. Filled with cochlear fluid. converts mechanical movement into neural singals
- basilar membrane
- organ of corti ( responsible to transform membrane displacement into neural signals)
- Auditory nerve ( picks up the neural signals from the organ of Corti. -> sends signals to the brain where the information is processed and interpreted
For humans does respiration mean?

What is the chemical equation for this process?
it is the process of extracting stored energy from glucose to form ATP (from ADP and Pi).

C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

If you replace energy with light you get the process of photosynthesis.
Where does conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the Krebs cycle occur?
In the mitochondrial matrix (most inner part of the mitochondria
Where is the electron transport chains located?
in the crista
Where does glycolysis occur?
in the cytoplasm
NADH and FADH2 go through what process once they reach the electron transport chain?
oxidative phosphorylation
What are the three areas of the mitochondria that are the most important for understanding respiration?
1) inner mitochondrial matrix
2)ETC
3) Outer mitochondrial membrane (outer compartment)
Describe the oxidative phosphorylation process beginning with NADH and FADH2
1) H+ accummulate in the outer compartment. T
-> Krebs Cycle produces 10 NADH and 2 FDH2 (glycolysis produces 2NADH)
-> NADH and FADH2 start from the mitochondria matrix and move through the electron transport chain.
-> Each NADH gives a proton and electron to the electron transport chain (cristae).
-> H+ is pumped from into the outer compartment (between cristae and the mitochondrial outer membrane)

2. A pH and electrical gradient across the crista membrane is created:
-> a bunch of H+ in outer membrane creates proton gradient (equivalent to pH gradient). This is kind of like water stored behind the dam.
-> an electric charge is also created.

3. ATP synthase generate ATP.
-> Channel proteins (ATP synthase) in the cristae allow the protons in the outer compartment to flow back into the matrix.
-> protons moving through the channel generate the energy for these channel proteins to produce ATP.
-> It is similar to how turbines in a dam generate electricity when water flows through them.
What doe the electrons pass through in the ETC?

What happens in the end
Electrons travel through ETC by electron carrying molecules called Cytochromes.

The terminal cytochrome, last carrier of these electrons, passes the electrons to the final electron acceptor O2. This makes water.
Which one has more stored energy and which one produces more ATP?

NADH or FADH2
NADH = higher energy state, produces 3ATP/NADH

FADH2 = Lower energy state,
produces 2ATP/FADH2
All of the following processes produce ATP EXCEPT:
A. glycolysis
B. The Krebs cycle
C. lactate fermentation
D. oxidative phosphorylation
E. photophosphorylation
C. lactate fermentation
the conversion of pyruvate to lactate, removes electrons from NADH to make NAD+. No ATP is generated by this step.

NAD+ is important to make so that your body can continue to make ATP through glycolysis in anaerobic conditions.
What is the main purpose of oxygen during cellular respiration/
The purpose of O2 is to accept the electrons at the end of the electron transport chain in oxidate phosphorylation
All of the following proesses release CO2 EXCEPT:
the Krebs cycle
alcoholic fermentation
oxidative phosphorylation
the conversion of pyruvate to ethanol
the conversoion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
oxidative phosphorylation
What is the value of alcoholic fermentation pathway?
It replenishes NAD+ so that glycolysis can produce ATP
What does acteyl CoA combine with to make _______. how many carbons to they each have?
Acetyl CoA (2C) + oxaloacetic acid (4C) = citric acid (6C)
How does citric acid get back to oxaloacetic acid?
by giving 2CO2 during the citric acid cycle. Oxaloacetic acid has 4C.
What happens when glucose supplies run low during respiration?
THe body can use other sources
A. Carbohydrates: disaccharides can be broken down to monosaccharides, most of which can be converted to glucose and start the respiration process.

B. Fats: Fat molecles are stored in adipose tissue in the form of triglyceride. When needed, they are hydrolyzed by lipases to fatty acids and glycerol

- glycerol can be converted to PGAL then to Acetyl CoA

C. Proteins: last things to go. most amino acids can undergo transamination reactoin, in which they lose an amino group to form a a-keto acid. The carbon atoms of most amino acids are converted into acetyl CoA, pyruvate or one of the intermediates in the citric acid cycle.
Under the Phylum Cnidaria give me two organism examples what their respiration type.
Protozoa and Hydra
every cell is in contact with the external environment (H2O)
- respiratory gases can be exchanged between the cell and the environment by simple diffusion through the cell membrane
Under the phylum Annelids what is there respiration like?
Mucus secreted by cells on the external surface of the earthworm's body provides a moist surface for gaseous exchagne by diffusion.

The circulatory system:
- brings O2 to the cells and waste products such as CO2 back to the skin for excretion
What is the arthropod repiratory system like? Give an example of an orgaism
Grasshopper:
Open circulatory system:
- Tracheae = series of respirtory tubes
->branches reach almost everycell
- spiracles = are the surface openings to the tubes.
- no carrier of oxygen is needed
In respiration for humans which is a passive process inhilation or exhalation?
exhalation
- diaphram and intercostal muscles relax
-> decrease in volume
-> air pressure to increase
-> cuases the lungs to deflate, forcing air out of the alveoi
What are the two muscle involved in respiration for humans?
diaphram and intercostal muscles
What is the respiratory center for humans? How does it do this?
Medulla oblongata
- rhythimac discharges stimulate the intercostal muscles and/or the diaphram to conctract
- partial pressure of CO2 rises -> medulla stimulates an increase in the rate of ventilation
Gas exchange in humans: What are the dense network of minute blood vessels called?
pulmonary capillaries
In gas exhange in humans gases move from regions of ____partial pressure to regions of _____partial pressure
high to low
What is the net reaction for glycolysis (starting and ending materials) and TCA
Glycolysis:
1 glucose + 2 ATP + 4ADP + 2Pi + 2NAD+ -> 2pyruvate + 2ATP + 2NADH + 4ATP + 2H+ + 2H2O

2Acetycl CoA + 6NAD+ +2FAD + 2GDP + 2Pi + 4H2O ---> 4CO2 + 6NADH + 2FADH2 + 2GTP + 4H+ +2CoA
How is NAD+ regnerated and why is this important?
Two ways
1) Aerobic: In the ETC the NADH goes through oxidation -> NAD+

2) Anaerobic: In glycolysis through alchohol or lactic acid fermentation

This is important so that glycolysis can continue if oxygen is not present.
What is an autotroph?
any organism that manufactures its own organic molecules (glucose, amino acids, fats) from inorganic materials (CO2, H2O, mineral salts)
True or false All green plants use photosynthesis to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen?
True
What is the general equation for photosynthesis?
light + 6CO2 + 6H2O -> glucose + 6O2
1) In plants where does photosynthesis take place?
2) Who usually goes through photosynthesis?

3) True or false: photosynthetic bacteria have chloroplasts so that they can go through photosynthesis?
1) chloroplasts
2) alga and multicellular green plants
3) False: Bacteria lack chloroplasts but have membranes that function in a similar manner.
Name the structure of a chloroplast:
In green plants photosyntheis takes place in the chloroplast
Contains:
- chrlorphyll = green pigment (great at aborbing blue, red next)
- chloroplast are bound by two membranes
- Thylakoid membranes: They are the site of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis

-Chlorophyll resides in thylakoid membranes

- Grana = columns of stacked thylakoid sacs

- stroma = fluid matrix of chloroplasts
What is the chorlophyll comlexed with?
- very complex containing over 100 atoms
- complexed with metal magnesium
What happens when chlorphyll absorbs light?
At what wave lengths does chorolphyll absorb light?

3) What are the principle typs of chlorphyll?"
- electrons in the ground state are boosted to an excited state and can be harnessed to drive the rxns of phosynthesis.

2) Red and blue wavelenghts

3) Chlorphyll a and cholophyll b
What is a photosystem?

2) What are the two types of photosytems and which chlorphyll resides in what?

3) What names do chlorophyll a and b receive?
1) photosystem = the light capturing unit of the thylakoid membrane.

2) two types:
Photosystem 1 has cholophyll a = P700

photosystem II has chlorphyll a = P680
Photosynthesis is a reduction or oxidation? What gets it?
CO2 gets reduced
What two rxns can photosynthes be divided in ?

Where to both of these rxns take place?
Light and dark

2) both in chloroplasts
Breifly describe the light and dark rxns.

What is the other name for light and dark rxn?
Light rxn:
- convert solar energy into chemical energy
-> in the form of ATP and NADPH
- other name = photolysis

Dark rxns:
-coupled to the light rxns
- they incoprorate CO2 into organic molecules in a process called CARBON FIXATION
- they are also callec reduced synthesis b/c carbohydrates are produced by reducing CO2.
What is oxidative deamination?
removes an ammonia molecule directly from an amino acid. A way to break down amino acids to use for ATP generation.

Ammonia is toxic substance in vertebrates.
- fish can excrete ammonia while insects and birds convert it into uric acid
- mammals convert it to urea for excretion
Name the parts of noncyclic photophosphorylation.

Where does it begin?
1) Photosystem II. Electrons trapped by P680 in PSII are energized by light.

2) Primary electron acceptor. Two energized electrons are passed to a molecule called the primary electron acceptor.

3) Electron transport chain: Electrons pass through an electron transport chain.
-> consists of proteins that pass e- from one carrier to the next
-> i.e Ferredoxin and cytochrome

4) Phosphorylation. As the two electrons move "down" the electron transport chain, they lose energy, pumping H+, from stroma to luma (making a charged gradient)
- The energy lost by the electrons as they pass along the e- transport chain is used to phosphorylate, on average, about 1.5 ATP molecules

5) Photosystem I. The electron transport chain terminates with PS I (with P700).
-> energized by light again

6) NADPH: The two electrons reduce NADP+ with H+ = NADPH, forming a energy-rich molecule

7) Photolysis: The two e- that originated in PS II is replaced when H2O is split into two e-, 2H+ and 1/2O2.
-Photolysis = decomposition (lysis) by light (photo).
-> A manganese-containing protein complex catalyzes the rxn.
-> the two e- from H2O replace the lost e- from PSII. One of the H+ provides the H in the NADPH.
Where does the calving cycle get its fuel from?
It gets it from the noncyclic cycle: ATP and NADPH
Remember the calvin cycle must turn 6 times. The steps below shows all 6 turn in one

1) Carboxylation: 6CO2 combine with 6RuBP to produce 12PGA
-> 6CO2 merges with RuBP (5 C)
-> Enzyme Rubisco catalyzes the merg of CO2 and RuBP.
-> This produces 12PGA

2) Reduction: 12ATP and 12NADPH are used to convert 12 PGA to 12 PGAL

3) Regeneration: 6 ATP are used to convert 10PGAL to 6 RuBP (So that it can be used to repeat the Calvin cycle by fixing 6CO2 again)

4) Carbohydrate synthesis: THe remaining two PGAL are used to form glucose, or some other type carbohydrate that stores energy.
What is the purpose for C4 synthesis?
To increase efficiency of photosynthesis by moving CO2 to bundle sheath cells.

- b/c rubisco can fixate both oxygen and CO2. fixating O2 does not yield the desired products.

Very little oxgyen reaches bundle sheath cells. That is why it is important to transport CO2 to those sheath cells so that CO2 and O2 do not compete as much. Rubisco can then focus on fixating just CO2
What types of plants might specialize in C4 photosynthesis?
Those found in the desert or dry places.

Examples aer: sugarcane and crab grass.

The stomata is open as little as possible so as not to let H2O escape.
Walk me through C4 photosynthesis:
1) CO3 enters the leaf
2) usually as CO2 is fixed by rubisco into PGA (straight to calvin cycle) But
-> the CO2 combines with PEP (catalyzed by PEP carboxylase)
-> makes OAA This is a 4 carbon = thus the name C3 photosynthsis

3) OAA convertes to malate
4) malate is shuttled to bundle sheath cells.
5) Malate converts to CO2 and pyruvate
6)pyruvate gets shuttled back to mesophyll cell
-> 1 ATP (ATP -> AMP)brakes down pyruvate back to PEP.
-> So that the process can repeat

7)The CO2 , in the mean time, rubisco begins the Calvin Cycle (C3 photosynthesis).
True or false, both C4 and C3 photosynthesis takes place in a plant?
True

C4 helps with CO2 fixation efficiency and C3 is the Calvin Cycle
Which one of these is considered and "add-on" feature?

A. C3
B. C4
C. CAM
D both B and C
E. Both A and B
D.
Describe the steps of CAM photosynthesis:
It is very similar to C4 photosynthesis

1) PEP still fixes (+) CO2 to (=) OAA
2) OAA convertes to malic acid (instead of malat)
3) Malic acid is shuttled to vacuole of the cell (not moved out of the cell to bundle sheath cells as in regular C4)
4) Stomata are open at night (reduces amount of H2O escaping). During the night
-> PEP carboxylase is active and malic acid accumulates in the cell's vacuole

5) Stomata close during day (the reverse in other plants). At this time, malic acid is shutted out of the vacuole and converted back to OAA (requiring 1 ATP to ADP), releasing CO2.
-> The CO2 is now fixed by rubisco, and the Calvin Cycle proceeds
What the advantage for having CAM? What are some examples?
Photosynthesis can occur during the day even when the Stomata are closed
-> When stomata are closed this reduces H2O loss.
-> Most often found in plants in the desert like cactus
WHich of the following molecules contains the most energy?
A. ADP
B. ATP
C. NADPH
D. Glucose
E. Startch
E. Starch

Here is the order in decreasing energy:
1) Starch (polymer of glucose)
2) Glucose (can provide 36 ATP)
3) NADPH (Can provide 3 ATP)
4) ATP
5) ADP
What is the difference between cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation?
Both have electrons that move along the electron chain
- both have electrons in chlorophyll that become excited
- Both produce ATP
- Both absorb light energy (photons)
- Only NADPH is produce in non cyclic photoposphorylation.
WHat are the primary difference between cyclic electron flow and non cyclic electron flow?
Cyclic:
- In PS i
- Chlorophyll a = P700
- e- are recycled to produce ATP they don't go to NADP+ to form NADPH

Non-Cyclic:
- in PS II
- Chlorophyll a = P680
- key pathway of photosynthesis
- produces NADPH to yield more ATP later = 3ATP/NADPH
How do you unicellular organisms move? Give some examples first then describe what they do
Phylum: Protozoans and Primitive Algae
Move by beating cilia or flagella.
Structure of cilia and flagella:
- similar structure through out all eukaryotic organisms
- Each has cylindrical stalk of 11 microtubules
- Flagella:
-> achieve movements by
A. Power stroke: a thrusting movement by sliding action of microtubules
B. Recovery Stroke: return of the cilium or flagellum to its original position

Amoeba:

Kingdom: Protista
Phylum: Tubulinea
Order: Tubulinida
Family: Amoebidae
Genus: Amoeba

motion: extend pseudopodia for locomotion; the advanced cell membrane extends forward, allowing the cell to move.
Describe how the invertebrate, flatworms, go through locomotion
- They have muscles within the body wall arranged in two antagonistic layers
-> longitudinal and circular
- muscles contract against the resistnace of the incompressible fluid within the animal's tissues = hydrostatic skeleton

Annelids also have a hydrostatic skeleton
How do Annelids move?
they have hydrostatic skeleton
- setae, bistles in the lower part of each segment anchor the earthworm temporarily in the earth while muscles push ahead.
How do arthropods move?
They have exoskeleton made of chitin
- composed of noncellular material secreted by the epidermis
- molting and deposition allow organism to grow
What are the two main components of the skeleton?
cartilage and bone

Cartilage: type of connective tissue
location examples: external ear, nose, wall so of the larynx and trachea, skeletal joints contain cartilage
Wat are the two types of bone?
Compact and spongy
Describe the characteristics of compact bone:
-dense bone that does not appear to have any cavities to the naked eye.
-Osteons = structural units of the bony matrix (Haversiarian systems)
- Haversarian canal = microscopic channels in the osteon that are surrounded by a number of concentric circles of bony matrix called lamellae
WHat are the characteristics of spongy bone?
- less dense
- interconnecting lattice of bony spicules (trabeculae)
- cavities in between spicules are filled with yellow and/or read bone marrow.
-Yellow marrow = inactive and infiltrated adipose tissue
- Red marrow = blood cell formation
What is the difference between yellow and red bone marrow? Where are they both located?
-Yellow marrow = inactive and infiltrated adipose tissue
- Red marrow = blood cell formation

In between the spicules of spongy bone
What are the two types of cells found in bone?
osteoblasts = build bone
osteoclasts = destroy bone (bone reabsorption)
How are bones formed?
1) endochondral ossification or
- cartilage is replaced by bone
- long bones primarily arise through endochondral ossification

2) intramembranous ossification
- mesenchymal (embryonic, undifferentiated) connective tissue is transformed into, and replaced by, bone.
What is the basic framework of the body and what does it consists of?
Axial skeleton
Consists of :
- skull
- vertebral column
- rib cage
What is the appendicular skeleton?
attaches to axial skeleton
- bones of the appendages
- pectoral and pelvic girdles
How are bones held together?
- Sutures = hold bones of the scull together
- ligaments = bone to bone connectors
- tendons = attach skeletal muscle to bone and bend the skeleton at movable joints
What are movable joints?
bones that do move relative to one another are held by movable joints,
-> strengthed and supported by ligaments
What is the origin and insertion when talking about the skeleton?

2) What is the difference between extension and flexion?
origin: the point of attachment of a muscle to a stationary bone

insertion: the point of attachement of a muscle to a bone that moves

2) extension: indicates straightening of a joint

flexion= to a bending of a joint
Muscle tissue consists of bundles of specialized ______that are held together by ________ _________
contractile fibers, connective tissue
What are the three different types of muscle in animals?
skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle
Characterize each muscle types
skeletal muscle:
- voluntary
- innervated by somatic nervous system
- mutlinucleated
- HAS striations
- Has lots of mitochondria

SMooth muscle:
- involuntary
- innervated by autonomic NS
- One central nucleus
- No striations
- examples: digestive tract, bladder, uterus, and blood vessels

cardiac muscle
- involuntary
- striated (b/c of actin and myosin filaments arranged in sarcomeres)
- NOT multi nucleated (generally only one or two nucei)

both smooth and cardia muscles are myogenic = capable of contracting without stimulation from nerve cells
Name the different parts of a muscle fiber
fiber
-> made of filaments called myofibrils
-> myofibrils divid in contractile units called sarcomeres
-> myofibrils are enveloped by a modified endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium ions called the sarcoplasmic reticulum
-> sarcoplasm = cytoplasm of muscle fiber
-> sarcolema = the cell membrane. ( capable of creating an action potential
-> Sarcolema is connected to Transverse tubules (T system), oriented perpendiculalry to myofibrils.
- T System = provides channels for ion flow through the muscle fibers
-> can also generate action potential
WHat is the sarcomere composed of?
- thick and thin filaments
THin filaments = chains of actin molecules
THick filaments = bundles of myosin molecules.
What are the
Z lines
M line
I band
H zone
A band
Z lines: define the boundaries of a single sarcomere and anchor the thin filaments

M line: runs down the cneter of the sarcomere

I band: is the region containing thin filaments only.

H zone: the region containing thick filaments only

A band: spans the entire length of the thick filaments and any overlapping portions of the thin filaments
During contraction which are reduced in size and which are not
A band = not reduced
H zone and I band = are reduced
Once an action potential is generated how is conducted?
the action potential is conducted along:
- sacrolemma
- T System
- and into the interior of the muscle fiber

-> this causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium ions into the sacroplasm

- calcium ions intiate the contraction of the sarcomere.

- actin and myosin slide past each other and the sarcomere contracts
True or False: the strength of a contraction of a single muscle fiber can be increased?
False
How can the strength of a contraction be increased?
recruit more muscle fibers
What is a simple twitch?
What three periods does it go through?
is the response of a single muscle fiber to a brief stimulus at or above the threshold stimulus

three periods:
1) latent period:
- the time between stimulation and the onset of contraction

2) contraction period:
- during this time lag, the action potential spreads along the sarcolemma and Ca2+ ions are released.

3) relaxation period-
- the muscle is unresponsive to stimulus =
-> this is known as the absolute refractory period
WHat is temporal summation and tetanus?
summation- muscles cannot fully relax
- contractoins begin to cmpbine,
becoming stronger and more prolonged

Tetanus - when muscle cannot relax and is stronger than a simple twitch of a single fiber
WHat is the primary source of energy for muscle contraction?f
ATP
What is creatine and arginine phospate?
A way for animals to temporarily store energy
WHat is myoglobin?
is a hemoglobin-like protein found in muscle tissue
- high oxygen affinity and maintains the oxygen supply in muscle by binding to oxygen tightly
During muscle contractions which regions decrease in length?
sarcomere,
H and I
1) THick filament is
2) thin fiilament is

describe each
1) myosin- each has a protruding head at one end

2) actin arranged in a double helix
- on helix are troponin and tropomyosin molecules that cover special binding sites on the actin
What make up a myofibril and how are they arranged?
Myobfibril = actin and myosin filaments are parallel and side by side.
WHat gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance?
the overlapping filaments of actin (thin) and myosin (thick)
What does heterotrophic mean?
Animals that are unable to synthesis their own nutrients.
How do cnidarians digest their foods?
Use intra and extracellular digestion
1) tentacles bring food to mouth and release particles into a cup-like sac
2) endodermal cells secreate enzymes into cavity
3) once food is in small fragments gastrodermal cells engulf the nutrients and digestion is completed intracellulry
4) any extra food is expelled out the mouth
how to annelids digest their food?
List the path of food in order
1) one-way digestive tract with mouth and anus
2) specialized parts
- mouth
- pharynx
- esophagus
- crop (to store the food)
- gizzard (to grind food)
- intestine
- anus

3) soluble food passes, by diffusion, through the walls of the small intestine into the blood.
How do arthropods digesti their food? List the path in order
Mouth-
- salivary glands
- esophagus
- crop
- gizzard
- digestive glands
- stomach
- large intestines
- rectum
- anus
What is the bath way for food digestion in humans?
- mouth
- pharynx
- esophagus
- stomach
- small intestine
- large intestine
- anus
What are the accessory organs for digestion in humanss?
salivary glands
pancreas
liver
gall bladder
Which enzyme is located in the mouth and what does it break down?f
salivary amylase (ptyalin):
hydrolyzes starch (carbohydrates) to maltose (a disaccharide)
What are the walls of the stomach lined by? THen describe the rest of the stomach from when the foood enters the mouth to when it leaves the stomach
Lined by thick gastric mucosa
-> contain glands
-> glands produce mucus that protects stomach lining from the harshly acidic juices (pH=2)
-> they also secrete pepsin
-> Pepsin = brakes down proteins
-> chyme = partially digested food
-> chyme passes into the first segment of the small intestine, the duodenum through pylori sphincter
What are the three divisions of the small intestine?
duodenum ( I am going to sing a duo with my small intestine then...)

jejunum, (I am going to boogie with the jedi at cafe jejunum, then lastly )

ileum (We are going to speak in high voices with h-"ileum"
Describe the characterisics of the the small intestine
- great for absorption of neutrients
- Villi- finger like projections that contain capillaries and lacteals (vessels of the lymphatic system)
- Amino acids and monosaccharides pass through villi wall into the capillary system.
- Large fatty acids and glycerol pass into lacteals and are converted into fats (3 fatty acid + glycerol)
What types of nutrients are actively absorbed in the small intestine?
glucose and amino acids
Where does most of the digestion occur in the small intestine and why?
occurs in duodenum b/c that is where the secreations of the intestinal glands, pancreas, liver and gall bladder mix together with the acidic chyme from the stomach.
What enzymes do does the small intestine secrete and what is its purpose?
lipases = fat digestion
aminopeptidases = protein digestion
disaccharidases = carbohydrate digestion (maltose, lactose, sucrose)
lactase = brakes down lactose (milke sugar)
What is the role of the pancrease?
produces enzynmes:
amylase = carbohydrate breakdown
- trypsin = protein dig.
- lipase = fit digestion

- Also secreates bicarbonate rich juice that neutralizes the acidic chyme arriving from the stomach
- enzymes work better when there is a high pH
What is the purpose of the large intestine?
Absorption of salts and any water not absorbed by the small intestine
What is the purpose of the liver in digestion?
produces bile , which is stored in the gall bladder
- bile gets released in the small intestine
- Bile has no enzymes; it emulsifies fats, breaking down large globules into small droplets

In the absents of bile, fats cannot be digested
In digestion what brakes down proteins?
pepsin (in stomach)
aminopeptidase (in SI)
trypsin (in Pancreas)
In digestion what breaks down carbs and sugars?
salivary amylase (mouth)
disaccahridase (SI)
lactase (SI)
amylase (pancreas)
In digeston what breaks down fats?
lipases (SI)
lipase (Pancreas)
Bile (liver -> gall bladder)
Is fungus an autotroph or a heteortroph?
Fungus is a heterotroph. It secreates enzymes that breaks down nutrients into smaller simpler molecules that the fungus can use for energy or synthesis into larger molecules.

An example are rhizoids of bread mold, that live off dead organic material. They secrete enzymes to the external environment
WHat is the closest plant to actual ingestion?
venus flytrap
- It still uses photosynthesis but uses insects as a nitrate source, as the flytrap grows in nitrogen-poor soils.
True or false, most of the absorption happens in the stomach?
False, happens in the small intestine.
Where does protein digestion occur?
Stomach (pepsin) and small intestine (aminopeptidase)
What enzymes break down proteins?
Pepsin (stomach)
protease like aminopeptidase (small intestine)
trypsin and chymotripsin (Pancreas)
The intestinal capillaries transport nutrients from the intestines to the
A. large INtestine
B. liver
C. kidney
D. heart
Intestinal capillaries trasnport amino acids and monosaccharides to the liver where initial processing of many nutrients begins.
What are the three hormones involved with digestion?
1) Gastrin: is produced by cels in the stomach linining when foode reaches the stomach or when teh nervou system, through smell or sight, senses the availability of food. Gastrin enters the blood stream and stimulates other cells of the stomach to produce gastric juices.

2. Secretin: producef by the cells lining the duodenum when food enters.
- secretin stimultes the pancreas to produce bicarbonate which, when deposited intot he small intestine, neutralizes the acidity of the cyme

3. CHoleocystokinin = produced by the small intestine to stimulate the gallbladder to release bile and the pancreas to release its enzymes
How does excretion work with the phylums protozoa and cnidarians
- they are always in contact with their external environment
- wastes like ammonia and carbon dioxide can exit cells by simple diffusion (passive)

- Some protozoa, like paramecium, possess a contractile vacuole- an organell specialized for water excretion by active transport.
How does excretion work in annelids?
- CO2 excretion occurs directly through the moist skin
- two paris of nephridia in each body segment excrete water, mineral salts, and nitrogenous wastes in the form of urea
How does excretion work in arthropods?
-CO2 is released through tubes called traceae, opening are spiracles.
- Nitrogenous wastes are excreted in the form of solid uric acid crystals
- Malpighian tubules = where mineral salts and uric acid are stored and then transported to the intestine to be expelled with the solid wastes of digestion.
What are the principal organs of excretion in humans?
lungs, liver, skin, kidneys

Lungs: CO2 leves
Skin: excrete water, salts and small amount of urea
liver: processes nitrogenous wasts, blood pigment wastes and other chemicals.
- Urea is produced by the deamination of amino acids in the liver and diffuses into the blood for ultimate excretion in the kindeys.
How are bile salts and blood pigments excreted?
They excreted as bile andn pass out with the feces
What are the main function of the kidneys?
- maintain osmolarity of the blood
- excrete numerous waste products and toxic chemicals
- conserve glucose, salt and water
Identify numbers
1-17
1.Renal pyramid
2.Interlobar artery
3.Renal artery
4.Renal vein
5.Renal hilum
6.Renal pelvis
7.Ureter
8.Minor calyx
9.Renal capsule
10.Inferior renal capsule
11.Superior renal capsule
12.Interlobar vein
13.Nephron
14.Minor calyx
15.Major calyx
16.Renal papilla
17.Renal column
WHat are the three regions of the kidney?
Going from outside of kidney in

outer cortex
inner medulla
renal pelvis
What does the neprhon consist of?
Bowman's capsule
-glomerulus
-the proximal convoluted tubule
- descending loop
- loop of Henly
- ascending loop
- distal convoluted tubule
- collecting duct
Where is the loop of Henle, convoluted tubules, and bowmans capsule positioned in the kidney?
Loop of Henle runes through teh medulla

conv. tubules and bowmans capsule are in the cortex
What is most of the nephron surrounded by?
surrounded by a complex peritubular capillary network to facilitate reabsorption of amino acids, glucose, salts and water.
WHat are the three processes that lead to urine formation?
1) Filtration:
- blood goes through glomerulus and Boman's capsule
- fluid and small solutes enter nephron called filtrate
- Filtrate = isotonic with blood plasma
- Passive process

2) secretion
- secretes: acids, bases, ions (K+), and posophate ions
- both passive and active process
- Materials are secreted from the peritubular capillaries into the nephron tubule.

3) Reabsorption:
- Essential substances (glucose, salts, amino acids) and water are reabsorbed from the filtrate and returned to the blood.
- Primarily occurs in proximal conv. tubule = and is ACTIVE PROCESS
- movement of these particles is accompanied by water = a PASSIVE PROCESS
- Results in concentrated urine, which is hypertonic to the blood
How should you think of the glomerulus?
imagine it like a colander for spaghetti:
- small molecules will be allowed to pass (glucose can be reabsorbed later)
- large molecules like blood and proteins will not go through

=> if blood and proteins are found in the urine then there is a problem with the glomerulus.
What is the main function of kidneys?
regulate salt and water concentration in the blood.
Where does the reabsorption of Na+ Cl- happen and at which region of the kidney? State if passive diffusion or active transport
Cortex region:
PCT = active trans

Inner Medulla:
close to bottom of loop of henle on the ascent. = passive

Outer medulla (middle)
Ascending loop of Henle approaching DCT = Active
Where does the reabsorption of water happen and at which region of the kidney? State if passive diffusion or active transport
Happens at all parts = passive diffusion
Where where does the reabsorption of amino acids, vitamins, and glucose occur? Active or passive?
Cortex region: PCT = Active Transport
What type of solution are these blood cells in? Define it
This does not just apply to blood cells:

A hypertonic solution is one having a larger concentration of a substance OUTSIDE than is found INSIDE the cells themselves
What is happening?
The concentration is higher INSIDE the cell/membrane than OUTSIDE. So water will rush in.
WHat is the absorption and excretion of water and dissolved substances (solutes) so that proper balance ( and osmotic pressure) is maintained between the organism and its surroundings?
osmoregulation
If something is hypo-osmotic to the environment then then means?

If something is hyper-osmotic to the environment then that means?
hypo-osmotic = the solute concentration is less inside the organism than outside. = marine fish

2) the concentration is greater inside the organism than outside. = freshwater fish
How is a simple reflex controlled? Do we see this more in higher or lower animals?
A simple reflex
- controlled at the spinal cord by two neuron pathway from the receptor (afferent neuron) and to the motor (efferent neuron).
- The efferent nerve innvervates the effector, e.g. a muscle or gland.

Examples
moving towards and finding food
moving away and sheltering from predators
moving towards and finding a mate
The "startle response" is an example of what type of animal behavior?

Give the definition
A complex reflex in higher more complex organisms using the brain stem or even the cerebrum.

- The startle response involves interaction of many neurons, a system termed the reticular activating system.
What are fixed-action patterns?
Give examples
are complex, coordinated, innate behavioral responses to specific patterns of stimulation in the environment.
- releaser = stimulus that elicits the behavior
- B/c they are innate they are NOT likely to be modified by learning
- The partic. stimuli that trigger a fixed-action pattern are more readily modified, provided certain cues or elements of the stimuli are maintained.

Examples:
-Birds retrieving their eggs. Some triggers are more specific with specific eggs for that species

- Characteristic movements made by animals that herd or flock together, such as swimming of fish, and the flying actions of locusts
What are examples of behavior cycles?
Circadian rhythms: Daily cycles of eating, maintained by most animals, provide a good example of cycles with both INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL control
How can environmental rhythms determine patterns of behavior?
Periodic environmental stimuli can do this. e.g. a human example of this is the response to a traffic light. Just as environmental stimuli influence many naturally occuring biological rhythms, biological factors influence behavior governed by periodic env. stimuli.
What is habituation?'

What happens if the stimulus is no longer regularly applied?
a simple learning pattern, involving the suppression of the normal startle responses to stimuli.

- Repeated stimulation will result in decreased responsiveness to that stimulus.

= spontaneous recovery: the response tends to recover over time.
Pavlovian conditioning is also known as?
conditioned reflex
What is the difference between classic conditioning and psuedoconditioning?
We must be careful how we want to classiclly condition with a neutral stimulus. For example mere picking up the bell can trigger the dog salivating before it the bell is rung.
What is operant or instrumental conditioning?

What are the to reinforcing categories?
involves the conditioning responses to stimuli with the use of reward or reinforcement.

Positive reinforcement: rewarding to do something

Negative reinforcement: rewarding NOT to do something. e.g. the bird was rewarded for not pressing the yellow button
What is the habit family hierarchy?
A chicken may respond to a light in many ways:
1) if one response is particullarily rewarded the higher probability of repeating that behavior increases.

Reward strengthens a specific behavioral response and raises its order in the hierarchy.

2) Punishment weakens a specific behavioral response and lower its order in the hierarchy.
WHat is extinction in relation to animal behavior?
the gradual elimination of conditioned responses in the absence of reinforcement, i.e. the unlearning of a response pattern.
How does extinction happen in instrumental and operant conditioning?

2) How does extinction occur in classic conditioning?

3) The recovery of a conditioned response after extinction is called:
1) In instrumental and operant cond. extinction occurs when the response is diminished and finally eliminated in the absence of reinforcement.

2) in classical cond. extinction occurs when the US is removed or was never sufficiently paired with the Conditioned Stimulus (CS).

3) spontaneous recovery
What is stimulus generalization?
2) stimulus discrimination?
3) Stimulus generalization gradient?
1) stimulus generalization: is the ability of a conditioned organism to respond to stimuli which are similar, but not identical, to the original conditioned stimulus. (i.e. a bird may react to a sound out 1000Hz or at 900 Hz, which are close) = the response is general to the similar stimuli

2) stimulus discriminiation = involves the ability of the learning organism to differentially respond to slightly different stimuli. ie. if rewars are given to only a very narrow range of sound (ie 990Hz to 1010Hz) but not to stimuli outside this range, the organism will also learn not to respond to stimuli that are very different in tone.

3) a Stimulus generalization gradient: is est. after the organism has been cond., whereby stimuli further and further away from the original cond. stimulus elicit responses with decreasing magnitude
WHat is critical period in animal behavior?
Critical periods are specific time periods during an animal's early development when it is physiologically able to develojp specific behavior paterns.

- the same with visual critical period

I.. e a childs binocular vision develops between 3 and 8 moths.

Or a specific type of finch must hear an adult sing before it can be sexually mature
What are the three general type of behavioral displays?
1) Reproductive displays: Have signals for mating.
2) Agonistic displays: when a dog wags its tail and shows that it is happy.
Or antagonistic : when a dog raises its body and face is straight

3) Dancing, visual etc.:
How do chemicals play a role in animal communication?
olfactory senses

Many animal secrete pheromones that influence the behavior of other members of the same species.
What are the two classifications of pheromones?
1) releaser pheromones:
- trigger a response in the recipient. Some males can respond to very small excretions over a couple of miles away.
- sex attractant pheremones:
- Other releaser pheromones are secreted as alarm and toxic defense substances.


2) Primer pheromones:
- produce long term behavioral and physiological alteration in recipient animals.
- i.e. pheromones from male mice may affect the estrous cycles of females
- Primer pheromones have also been known to limit sexual reproduction in areas of high animal density.
- Social aspects: ants, bees and termites use primer pheromones to regulate role determination and reproductive capacities.
THe cocktail party effect is observed when an individual hears and responds to their name amidst many distractions. This automatic response is coordinated by the ...
The reticular activating system (RAS) is an area of the brain (including the reticular formation and its connections) responsible for regulating arousal and sleep-wake transitions, or when HEARING ONE'S NAME.
What is ecology?

An organisms environment contains two compoenents :
the study of interactions of organisms and their environment.

2) abiotic = physical env. (including climate, temp, aval. light and water, local topology)

biotic = living env. (all living things that directly or indirectly influence the life of the organism, inluding the relat. that exist between organisms
Population is:

species is:

community is:

biotic community is:

Ecosystem is;
a group of organisms of the same species living together in a given location. (i.e. flies in a barn,

2) species is: any group of similar organisms that re capable of reproducing.

3) community: populations of different plants and animal species interacting with each other in a given environment.

4) biotic community: used to include only the populations and NOT their physical environment.

5) ecosystem: includes the community and the environment (usually contains all 5 kingdoms)
A lawn contains dandelions, grasses, mushrooms, earthworms, nematodes and bacteria...this is an example of what?
ecosystem
A biosphere is...
includes all portions of the planet which support life:
the atmosphere
- the lithosphere (rock and soil surface)
- the hydrosphere (the oceans)
What is the major component of the internal environment of all living things?

2) What is the ultimate source of energy for all organisms?
1) water

2) sunlight
What is the photic zone?

2) what is the aphotic zone?
in water, the top layer through which light can penetrate, is where all aquatic photosynthetic activity takes place.

2) aphotic zone : only animal life and other heterotrophic life exist.
How can the substratum affect the nature of plant and animal life?
substratum (soil and rock)
A. Acidity (pH): Rhododendrons and pines like acid soil. Acid rain may lower the pH too much.

B. Texture: the texture of soil and its clay content determine the water holding capacity of the soil. i.e. willow require moist soil..
-> most plants grow well in LOAMS, which contain high percentages of each type of soil

C. Minerals: nitrates and phosphates affect the type of vegetation that can be supported.

D. Humus quantity is determined by the amount of decaying plant and animal life in the soil
omnivores are
animals which eat both plant and animals.
What is an obligatory relationship?
one or both organisms cannot survive with out the other.
define niche and habitat
niche- defines the functional role of an organism in its ecosystem.

habitat - the physical place where an organism lives
Each are examples of what?
1) Remora and Shark
2) Tick bird and rhinoceros
3) barnacle and whale
4) protozoa and termites
5) Intestinal bacteria in humans
6) Worms and animals
7) virus
1) Remora and Shark = commensalism
2) Tick bird and rhinoceros = mutualism
3) barnacle and whale = commensalism
4) protozoa and termites = mutualism
5) Intestinal bacteria in humans= mutualism
6) Worms and animals = parasitism
7) virus = parasitism
What type of relationship does lichen have between fungus and algae
Mutualism
-green algae provide food for itself and for fungus through photosynthesis
- meshes of fungal threads support the algae and conserve water.
-> fungus also provides carbon dioxide and nitrogenous wasts for the algae, all of which are neeed for photosynthesis and protein synthesis.
Why are lichens significant?
pioneer organisms in the order of ecological succession on bare rock
What type of relationship to protozoa and termites have? ANd how does it work out?
mutualism
Termites chew and ingest wood but are unable to digest the cellulose
- protozoa can do that for them
What is the difference between ectoparasites and endoparasites?
ecto = parasitism on the outside
endo = parasitism on the inside
Most bacteria are either ______ or ________
chemosynthetic or saprophytic (bacteria of dekay
True or false: the more dangerous the parasite the more chance it will survive?
False, if the parasite's host dies then so does the parasite
Does predation refer to both herbivores and carnivores?
Yes. Because predators feed on other living organisms
What is saprophytism and who are some examples?
Saprophytes include those protists and fungi that decompose (digest) dead organic matter externally and absorb the nutrients;
-> they are very vital to the ecosystem
-> Examples: mold, mushrooms, bacteria of decay and slime molds
What is an example of just scavenger and what is an example of both scavenger and predator?
just scavenger = vulture
both = snapping turtle
Interaction among animals. What two types of forces influence the relationships between individuals within a species?
disruptive and cohesive forces
disruptive: competition
cohesive: reproduction, protection from predators, and destructive weather
What is the difference between hyperosmotic and hypoosmotic. Given an example of an organism in each