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361 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Some cells of the central nervous system are located in the
A) spinal cord. B) muscles. C) glands. D) both a and c. |
A) spinal cord.
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What is the function of an axon?
A) Metabolic support for the neuron B) Insulation to speed impulse conduction C) Conduction of an impulse D) Input of signals to the nerve cell |
C) Conduction of an impulse
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Which class(es) of neuron would you expect to find in the peripheral nervous system?
A) Interneurons B) Sensory neurons C) Motor neurons D) Both b and c |
D) Both b and c
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The function of the sodium–potassium pump is to move
A) sodium in and potassium out of the neuron. B) potassium into the neuron and sodium out. C) both potassium and sodium into the neuron. D) both potassium and sodium out of the neuron. |
B) potassium into the neuron and sodium out.
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What event triggers an action potential?
A) Opening of sodium channels B) Opening of delayed potassium channels C) High concentration of negative ions outside the cell D) Activation of the sodium-potassium pump |
A) Opening of sodium channels
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What is the likely effect of a loss of myelin along an axon?
A) It causes the action potential to speed up because more of the membrane is exposed. B) It causes the action potential to slow down. C) It speeds up the transport of the sodium and potassium across the membrane. D) It increases the size of the action potential. |
B) It causes the action potential to slow down.
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Which of the following examples of synaptic integration is most likely to lead to an action potential?
A) All excitatory and no inhibitory synaptic inputs B) An equal mix of excitatory and inhibitory inputs C) A majority of inhibitory inputs with only a few excitatory synaptic inputs D) Both a and b |
A) All excitatory and no inhibitory synaptic inputs
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Which type of nervous system would be responsible for a rapid heart beat?
A) Autonomic B) Sympathetic C) Parasympathetic D) Both a and b |
D) Both a and b
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The part of the human brain involved in coordinating muscle movements is the
A) cerebrum. B) medulla oblongata. C) cerebellum. D) hypothalamus. |
C) cerebellum.
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Which of the following is NOT among the structures that protects the central nervous system?
A) Meninges B) Vertebrae C) Pons D) Cerebrospinal fluid |
C) Pons
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While walking to class on a winter morning without gloves, the sensation of cold in fingertips is detected by the _________________.
A) peripheral nervous system B) central nervous system C) endocrine system D) Both A and B. |
A) peripheral nervous system
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You start to shiver because of the cold and this reaction is a ________________ that occurs after integration.
A) motor neuron B) sensory input C) sensory output D) motor output |
D) motor output
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Which of the following is true about the Na+/K+ pump?
A) It pumps Na+ into a cell. B) It pumps K+ out of the cell. C) It requires ATP. D) It causes a graded potential. |
C) It requires ATP.
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During an action potential, which of the following occurs?
A) K+ rushes into the cell. B) Na+ rushes out of the cell. C) Na+/K+ pump actively transports ions across the cell membrane. D) Both hyperpolarization and depolarization of the cell membrane occurs. |
D) Both hyperpolarization and depolarization of the cell membrane occurs.
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Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disease which attacks the central nervous system. Specifically, MS destroys the cells which are responsible for creating and maintaining the myelin sheath. All of the following are true about the myelin sheath except:
A) The myelin sheath is a type of neuroglia. B) The myelin sheath is composed predominantly of lipids. C) Speed of signal is increased in myelinated neurons. D) Schwann cells form the myelin sheath. E) All nerves are myelinated to increase speed of impulses. |
E) All nerves are myelinated to increase speed of impulses.
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A drug that is considered a stimulant and starts an action potential in the postsynaptic cell would likely have which of the following actions?
A) Decreases the amount of acetylcholine released in the synapse. B) Makes the membrane of the postsynaptic cell impermeable to Na+ and K+. C) Causes a hyperpolarization in the presynaptic membrane. D) Mimics a neurotransmitter such as acetylcholine. E) Destroys the neurotransmitter in the synapse. |
D) Mimics a neurotransmitter such as acetylcholine.
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If a toxin causes problems with digestion and breathing, which system is it affecting?
A) autonomic B) parasympathetic C) sympathetic D) peripheral |
A) autonomic
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Which of the following is not essential in a reflex arc?
A) sensory neuron B) motor neuron C) interneuron D) effector |
C) interneuron
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Which of the following is not part of the hindbrain?
A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) cerebellum D) cerebrum |
D) cerebrum
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From "Investigating Life: Looking into the Mind of Humankind." The findings from this study include:
A) Ka/Ks ratio in genes from different animal nervous systems is always highest in primates. B) New World monkeys have a higher Ka/Ks ratio than Old World monkeys. C) The Ka/Ks ratio in "housekeeping" genes is similar across all animal groups. D) All of the above are correct findings from the study. E) Both A and C. |
C) The Ka/Ks ratio in "housekeeping" genes is similar across all animal groups
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Which of the following statements about the resting membrane potential is TRUE?
A) the exterior of the cell has a net negative charge and the interior has a net positive charge B) the exterior of the cell has a net negative charge and the interior is neutral C) the exterior of the cell has a net positive charge and the interior has a net negative charge D) the exterior of the cell has a net positive charge and the interior is neutral E) the exterior of the cell is neutral and the interior has a net negative charge |
C) the exterior of the cell has a net positive charge and the interior has a net negative charge
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During depolarization, which of the following statements about voltage-gated ion channels is TRUE
A) K+ gates open before Na+ gates B) Na+ gates open before K+ gates C) Na+ and K+ gates open at the same time D) Na+ gates open while K+ gates remain closed E) K+ gates open while Na+ gates remain closed |
B) Na+ gates open before K+ gates
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Depolarization occurs because
A) more K+ diffuse into the cell than Na+ diffuse out of B) more K+ diffuse out of the cell than Na+ diffuse into it C) more Na+ diffuse into the cell than K+ diffuse out of it D) more Na+ diffuse out of the cell than K+ diffuse into it E) both Na+ and K+ diffuse into the cell |
C) more Na+ diffuse into the cell than K+ diffuse out of it
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The sodium-potassium pump is involved in establishing the resting membrane potential.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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The nerve impulse is an electrical current that travels along dendrites or axons.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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An action potential
A) prevents the neuron cell membrane from altering its charge. B) causes the inside of the neuron cell membrane to become positive and the outside negative. C) causes the inside of the neuron cell membrane to become positive and the outside neutral. D) causes the outside of the neuron cell membrane to become positive and the inside negative. E) causes the outside of the neuron cell membrane to become positive and the inside neutral. |
B) causes the inside of the neuron cell membrane to become positive and the outside negative.
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An action potential generates local currents that tend to ________ the membrane immediately adjacent to the action potential.
A) depolarize B) repolarize C) hyperpolarize D) stabilize E) neutralize |
A) depolarize
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The absolute refractory period is the period of time during which
A) a second action potential cannot be generated. B) a second action potential is generated. C) the action potential ceases. D) the action potential decreases in magnitude. E) the action potential changes direction. |
A) a second action potential cannot be generated.
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Action potential propagation occurs in both directions along the axon.
A) True B) False |
B) False
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Threshold is the minimum current required for the cell membrane to generate an action potential.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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An action potential arriving at the presynaptic terminal causes...
A) sodium ions to diffuse into the cell. B) sodium ions to diffuse out of the cell. C) calcium ions to diffuse into the cell. D) acetylcholine to diffuse into the cell. E) ligand-gated sodium channels to open. |
C) calcium ions to diffuse into the cell.
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Acetylcholine has which effect on the post-synaptic neuron?
A) Ligand gated calcium channels open and calcium diffuses in. B) Ligand gated sodium channels open and sodium diffuses in. C) Terminal vessels migrate to the plasma membrane. D) Voltage gated calcium ion channels open and calcium diffuses in. E) Voltage gated sodium ion channels open and sodium diffuses in. |
B) Ligand gated sodium channels open and sodium diffuses in.
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If the post-synaptic membrane potential reaches threshold level, an action potential will be produced.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Acetylcholine is actively transported from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post - synaptic membrane.
A) True B) False |
B) False
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The primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is
A) dopamine. B) adrenaline. C) acetylcholine. D) histamine. E) serotonin. |
C) acetylcholine.
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Arrange the following in the proper order in which they occur at the pre-synaptic side of a neuromuscular junction.
1. Calcium ions are released 2. Action potential arrives at the presynaptic terminal 3. Neurotransmitter is released A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 1, 3 C) 2, 3, 1 D) 3, 2, 1 E) 3, 1, 2 |
B) 2, 1, 3
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Arrange the following in the proper order in which they occur at the post-synaptic side of a neuromuscular junction.
1. Action potential is propagated over the muscle cell membrane 2. Depolarization of the post-synaptic membrane 3. Sodium ions move into muscle cell A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 1, 3 C) 2, 3, 1 D) 3, 2, 1 E) 3, 1, 2 |
D) 3, 2, 1
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The area between the pre-synaptic nerve cell and the post-synaptic muscle cell is termed the synaptic cleft.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Receptors that bind the neurotransmitter at the post-synaptic cell membrane are voltage-gated.
A) True B) False |
B) False
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What is a receptor potential?
A) The potential for a sensory cell to receive a specific type of information B) The graded potential generated from the stimulus received by a sensory cell C) The change in membrane permeability in a sensory cell D) The threshold potential of a receptor |
B) The graded potential generated from the stimulus received by a sensory cell
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What is the relationship between homeostasis and the sensory system?
A) Sensory information is used to help maintain internal conditions of an organism. B) Homeostasis controls which sensory inputs are perceived by an organism. C) Information from the sensory system is used to alter behavior of an organism. D) Both a and c. |
D) Both a and c.
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A ______ is an encapsulated nerve ending that is sensitive to ______.
A) thermoreceptor; pain B) mechanoreceptor; stretch C) pain receptor; pain D) mechanoreceptor; touch |
D) mechanoreceptor; touch
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Which of the following is the most important limit to a human's perception of smell?
A) The size of his or her olfactory epithelium B) The number and type of receptor proteins C) The number of olfactory receptor cells D) All of the above are important. |
D) All of the above are important.
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Which of the following is NOT a primary sensation associated with taste?
A) Spicy B) Sweet C) Bitter D) Sour |
A) Spicy
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How would your vision be affected if your photoreceptor cells only contained rhodopsin?
A) There would be no effect—your vision would be normal. B) You would only perceive the color red. C) You could only see at night. D) You would only perceive black and white—no colors. |
D) You would only perceive black and white—no colors
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The region of the ear associated with the sense of balance is the
A) semicircular canals. B) cochlear canal. C) basilar membrane. D) auditory canal. |
A) semicircular canals.
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Why is the basilar membrane of the cochlea wide at one end and narrow at the other?
A) In order to fit within the spiral of the cochlea. B) The wide end responds to loud sounds while the narrow end responds to soft sounds. C) Because the different widths of membrane vibrate at different frequencies. D) Because the number of hair cells vary along its length. |
C) Because the different widths of membrane vibrate at different frequencies.
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In dim light it is difficult to clearly see an object that is off in the distance. This is because:
A) sensory receptors do not receive any information under low light. B) depolarization in the sensory receptors does not reach the threshold for an action potential. C) it takes a while for the graded potentials to reach the receptors action potential threshold. D) there can never be any signal transduction under low light conditions. |
B) depolarization in the sensory receptors does not reach the threshold for an action potential.
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A young boy wears a tie for the first time to his uncle’s wedding. When his mother first sets the tie in place he complains that it is too tight and he feels like he is choking. However, half an hour later, he is playing with his cousins and no longer notices the tie around his neck. This is an example of:
A) a graded potential B) signal transduction C) threshold potential D) sensory adaptation |
D) sensory adaptation
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The female moth Bombyx mori (see Fig. 29.5), has antennae that are just a single strand. What is the likely the best functional explanation for the males’ larger, comb-like antennae?
A) The antennae are used for visual recognition. B) The larger antennae produce more pheromones. C) The comb-like structures provide a large surface area-to-volume ratio. D) The odor molecules only trigger an action potential if the antennae are large enough. |
C) The comb-like structures provide a large surface area-to-volume ratio.
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All of the following are true except:
A) Taste buds can be found inside the mouth as well as on the tongue. B) Each taste bud has many papillae containing sensory receptors. C) Humans have 4 primary taste sensations. D) Taste buds typically sense all 4 primary tastes. |
B) Each taste bud has many papillae containing sensory receptors.
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Cats and other nocturnal predators have a high proportion of rod cells.
A) True, because rod cells provide vision in dim light. B) True, because only rod cells can convert light energy to action potentials. C) False, because rod cells are associated with color vision during the day. |
A) True, because rod cells provide vision in dim light.
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What is the optic nerve?
A) A single optic ganglion. B) Many light receptors that work to integrate the signal. C) Axons of many rod and cone cells. D) Axons of interneurons of the retina. |
D) Axons of interneurons of the retina.
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Glaucoma is a general term for a group of diseases that involve the loss of retinal ganglia. Which of the following occurs as a result of glaucoma?
A) Rod and cone cells will not transmit a signal. B) Rod and cone cells will not reach their threshold potential. C) Ganglion cells will undergo a hyperpolarization. D) Fewer action potentials will reach the optic nerve. |
D) Fewer action potentials will reach the optic nerve.
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Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
A) auditory canal – sound and pressure waves B) middle ear – amplify sound C) hair cells – release neurotransmitter D) semicircular canal – equilibrium E) auditory nerve – tectorial membrane |
E) auditory nerve – tectorial membrane
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How are different frequencies interpreted?
A) The higher the frequency of sound, the faster the vibrations of the stapes against the oval window. B) With lower frequencies, fewer action potentials are triggered in the basilar membrane and this stimulus is interpreted by the brain. C) Different frequencies vibrate different parts of the basilar membrane and the brain interprets this input from different regions. D) At different frequencies, the hair cells in the semicircular canal are deflected to different degrees and this deflection is interpreted by the brain. |
C) Different frequencies vibrate different parts of the basilar membrane and the brain interprets this input from different regions.
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During hearing, which of the following is the first to vibrate?
A) basilar membrane B) tympanic membrane C) hair cells of spiral organ D) oval window E) stapes |
B) tympanic membrane
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During hearing, which of the following is the last to vibrate?
A) basilar membrane B) tympanic membrane C) hair cells of spiral organ D) oval window E) stapes |
C) hair cells of spiral organ
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The foot plate is part of the
A) malleus. B) spiral organ. C) incus. D) tympanic membrane. E) stapes. |
E) stapes.
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The middle ear has four bones.
A) True B) False |
B) False
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Short wavelengths, from high pitched sounds, cause displacement of the basilar membrane near the oval window.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Where does light that is passed through the lens end up focusing on?
A) The iris B) The cornea C) The choroids plexus D) The retina |
D) The retina
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The retina is comprised of specialized cells called:
A) cones and rods B) fibroblasts and chondrocytes C) osteocytes and squamous cells D) melanocytes and astrocytes |
A) cones and rods
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What is the leading cause of blindness today?
A) cataracts B) age related macular degeneration C) astigmatism D) near-sightedness |
B) age related macular degeneration
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What is the general principle of the retinal implant?
A) Stem cells are implanted into the deteriorating retina where they can become cones and rods. B) The implant is able to conduct the light directly to the brain. C) Converting images into electrical impulses that can stimulate any remaining healthy cells in the retina. D) The retina is removed and the implant replaces it entirely. |
C) Converting images into electrical impulses that can stimulate any remaining healthy cells in the retina.
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Which of the following would best depict the progress made on this retinal implant research?
A) It has only been tried on rabbits at this point in the study. B) It has been implanted in a few individuals who were severely blind and can now see light and dark and differentiate between three objects. C) It has been widely used for patients with macular degeneration with tremendous success. D) It has the promise of being a viable research effort when funding comes available. |
B) It has been implanted in a few individuals who were severely blind and can now see light and dark and differentiate between three objects.
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What is thought to be a principle reason why birds migrate at night?
A) To use the daylight hours to procure food. B) To avoid predators. C) The air is colder and thinner so it is easier to fly at night. D) There is less danger of mixed signals with no sunlight available. |
B) To avoid predators.
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What is the term Cluster N referring to?
A) A galaxy of stars that have just recently been discovered to aid in navigation. B) A nerve network found in the wings of migrating birds. C) A brain region that can process magnetic fields and visual cues and turn it into an internal compass. D) A deposit of iron found in the nose of birds, fish and many mammals. |
C) A brain region that can process magnetic fields and visual cues and turn it into an internal compass.
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Which of the following was not a part of the research that was conducted to make the determination about Cluster N function?
A) Migrating birds and non-migrating birds were placed in identical environments. B) During the day, both migrating and non-migrating birds responded similarly. C) At night the migrating birds made attempts to orient themselves toward a Southern flight. D) Both migrating and non-migrating birds showed similar activation in Cluster N at night. |
C) At night the migrating birds made attempts to orient themselves toward a Southern flight.
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What was the critical finding of this research?
A) The dependency on a birds ability to actually see at night using this Cluster N region. B) Migration is independent of light cues. C) Navigation is too complex to research. D) The birds that were non-migrating actually had the potential to use the same magnetic and visual cues, they just don’t. |
A) The dependency on a birds ability to actually see at night using this Cluster N region.
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The current hypothesis around the value of night vision cues is that:
A) they are not critical to navigation. B) they are only used when magnetic cues can’t be picked up by the birds in flight. C) it activates a molecule called chryptochrome that excited nerves and converts this into a visual image. D) they help to encourage birds to flock which assists in determining flight paths. |
C) it activates a molecule called chryptochrome that excited nerves and converts this into a visual image.
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A hydrostatic skeleton
A) is only found in invertebrates. B) is filled with fluid. C) changes shape due to muscle contraction. D) All of the above. |
D) All of the above.
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Exoskeletons differ from endoskeletons in
A) the material that they are composed of. B) their ability to change as an organism grows. C) their role in forming a framework for muscle attachment. D) both a and b. |
D) both a and b.
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The bones of your hand are part of the ______, whereas your backbone is part of the ______.
A) axial skeleton; pectoral girdle B) appendicular skeleton; axial skeleton C) axial skeleton; appendicular skeleton D) axial skeleton; vertebral column |
B) appendicular skeleton; axial skeleton
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Which cell type is most likely to cause the bone loss associated with osteporosis?
A) Osteoblasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteoclasts D) Both a and b |
C) Osteoclasts
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Which type of joint connects movable bones?
A) Fibrous joint B) Synovial joint C) Cartilaginous joint D) Both b and c |
B) Synovial joint
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Muscle tissue is made up of what type of cells?
A) Sarcomeres B) Myofibrils C) Myomeres D) Muscle fibers |
D) Muscle fibers
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How does a muscle change from being contracted to being relaxed?
A) The myosin heads of the thick filaments work in reverse. B) The actin thin filaments stretch. C) The sarcomeres of an antagonistic muscle contract. D) Both a and b. |
C) The sarcomeres of an antagonistic muscle contract.
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What is the source of energy for muscle contraction?
A) ATP B) Acetylcholine C) Creatine phosphate D) Calcium |
A) ATP
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Why do slow-twitch muscle cells have a high concentration of myoglobin?
A) To provide oxygen to the mitochondria to promote ATP synthesis B) To help promote the growth of the muscle cells in response to exertion C) To prevent tetanus D) To slow down the rate of ATP hydrolysis by the myosin |
A) To provide oxygen to the mitochondria to promote ATP synthesis
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Which of the following is NOT a value of exercise?
A) Increased bone density B) Enhanced muscle cell metabolism C) Increase in the number of muscle cells D) Increase in the size of the muscle cells |
C) Increase in the number of muscle cells
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Tarantulas have flexor muscles which allow them to grab prey quickly. However, to extend their legs, they do not have extensor muscles but rely instead on water pressure for this movement. This is an example of a(n) _______________.
A) endoskeleton B) exoskeleton C) hydrostatic skeleton |
C) hydrostatic skeleton
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The axial skeleton includes the skull and vertebrae.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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_______________ bone has many closely packed ___________ each of which have many _____________.
A) Spongy; osteocytes; osteons B) Compact; osteocytes; osteons C) Spongy; osteoclasts; osteons D) Compact; osteons; osteocytes E) Spongy; osteons; osteocytes |
D) Compact; osteons; osteocytes
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In the calcium regulation process, what would be considered the effector?
A) bone B) kidney C) thyroid and parathyroid D) intestine E) Both C and D. |
C) thyroid and parathyroid
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As a muscle contracts, _____________________.
A) the z line shortens B) overlap between myosin and actin filaments increases C) overlap between myosin and actin filaments decreases D) myosin filament becomes thicker as it shortens E) overlap between myosin and actin filaments causes the myosin to become thicker |
B) overlap between myosin and actin filaments increases
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Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
A) ATP – provides energy for contraction B) calcium – binds to protein on actin filament forming a crossbridge C) acetylcholine – transmits signal from nerve to muscle D) endoplasmic reticulum – releases calcium ions into cytoplasm |
B) calcium – binds to protein on actin filament forming a crossbridge
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Which of the following provide energy to the leg muscles of a sprinter at the end of her 100m race?
A) creatine phosphate B) fermentation C) aerobic respiration D) oxygen debt |
B) fermentation
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The sprinter in the previous question will likely have which of the following?
A) Equal levels of fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers. B) Higher proportion of slow-twitch muscle fibers. C) Higher proportion of fast-twitch muscle fibers. |
C) Higher proportion of fast-twitch muscle fibers.
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Bones in the legs, arms, spine and pelvis grow
A) at different rates. B) at the same rate. C) until age 18, then they stop. D) strongest after age 30. |
A) at different rates.
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Which of the following is not considered a weight bearing activity?
A) walking B) running C) swimming D) jumping rope |
C) swimming
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Trusses and arches which help form an internal scaffolding network, are found in
A) bone marrow. B) children only. C) adults only. D) trabecular bone. |
D) trabecular bone
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At which of the following ages would calcium loss from bone be more than calcium deposits into bone, even when a high calcium diet is eaten?
A) 18 months old B) 10 years old C) 18 years old D) 50 years old |
D) 50 years old
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Which mineral is most important throughout life to assist in maintaining strong bone?
A) potassium B) calcium C) sodium D) phosphorus |
B) calcium
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During contraction of a muscle, calcium ions bind to...
A) the actin myofilament. B) the troponin molecule. C) the tropomyosin molecule. D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) the sarcolemma. |
B) the troponin molecule.
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The bond between the actin and myosin head is broken when...
A) an ATP molecule binds to the myosin head. B) an ATP molecule binds to the actin molecule. C) an ATP molecule breaks down on the myosin head. D) an ATP molecule breaks down on the actin molecule. E) ADP and phosphate bind to the myosin head. |
A) an ATP molecule binds to the myosin head.
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Energy is released when...
A) ADP is broken down into ATP and phosphate. B) ATP is broken down into ADP and phosphate. C) ADP and phosphate combine to form ATP. D) ATP and phosphate combine to form ADP. E) AMP and two phosphates combine to form ATP. |
B) ATP is broken down into ADP and phosphate.
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The sequence of cross bridge formation and myofilament movement will be repeated as long as calcium ions are present.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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When cross bridges form and the muscle fibers contract, the actin myofilament slides past the myosin myofilament.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Each actin filament is composed of
A) a single strand of actin molecules. B) two strands of actin molecules wrapped together. C) three strands of actin molecules wrapped together. D) four strands of actin molecules wrapped together. E) hundreds of strands of actin molecules wrapped together. |
B) two strands of actin molecules wrapped together.
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As actin and myosin filaments slide past each other during muscle contraction,
A) actin filaments shorten, while myosin filaments do not. B) myosin filaments shorten, while actin filaments do not. C) either actin or myosin filaments shorten, but not both at the same time. D) both actin and myosin filaments shorten. E) neither actin nor myosin filaments shorten. |
E) neither actin nor myosin filaments shorten.
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Which of the following statements about the "heads" of the myosin molecules is TRUE?
A) they form permanent links with actin filaments B) they can attach to different sites on the actin filament C) they straighten the myosin filaments D) they allow the myosin filaments to wrap around each other E) none of the above |
B) they can attach to different sites on the actin filament
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Each myosin protein has a globular head that extends outward from the myosin filament.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Unflexing of the myosin head requires ATP.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Muscle contraction is caused by
A) actin filaments sliding past each other. B) myelin filaments sliding past each other. C) myosin filaments sliding past each other. D) actin filaments sliding past myelin filaments. E) actin filaments sliding past myosin filaments. |
E) actin filaments sliding past myosin filaments.
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Which of the following statements about H zones and I bands is TRUE?
A) the H zones contain only myosin, while the I bands contain only actin B) the H zones contain only actin, while the I bands contain only myosin C) the H zones contain only myosin, while the I bands contain both actin and myosin D) the H zones contain both actin and myosin, while the I bands contain only actin E) the H zones and the I bands each contain both actin and myosin |
A) the H zones contain only myosin, while the I bands contain only actin
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During muscle contraction
A) the A band remains the same and the I band narrows. B) the I band remains the same and the A band narrows. C) both the A band and I band remain the same. D) both the A band and I band narrow. E) both the A band and I band become wider. |
A) the A band remains the same and the I band narrows.
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In a contracting muscle the Z lines come closer together.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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In a relaxed muscle, the H zone is at its narrowest width.
A) True B) False |
B) False
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In humans, what happens to bones with decreased physical activity?
A) Bones become brittle and break more readily B) Bone’s become rubbery and are susceptible to bowing. C) Bone production slows and breakdown increases. D) There is no impact on bones detected. |
C) Bone production slows and breakdown increases.
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What area of research on bear metabolism is being studied to better understand the methods used to keep their bones strong during inactivity?
A) They are interested in the type of REM sleep bears have which continues to stimulate their muscles during hibernation. B) Examining how hormones influence how bears recycle calcium. C) How their blood temperature is maintained as a homeothermic animal. D) They are interested in determining how type of diet impacts a bear’s available calcium levels. |
B) Examining how hormones influence how bears recycle calcium.
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What are the two hormones that are involved in bone development and found in both bears and humans?
A) oxytosin and thyroid hormone B) adrenalin and insulin C) estrogen and testosterone D) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone |
D) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
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Where do bears obtain their calcium for bone rebuilding when they are hibernating?
A) from their body fat reserves B) the calcium is conserved from their feces and urine C) they get up occasionally and forage for food, then return to their den D) they store a cache in their den for an occasional feeding |
B) the calcium is conserved from their feces and urine
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What disease has attention been directed toward with this new knowledge of bone maintenance in bears?
A) osteoporosis B) muscular dystrophy C) dental carries D) bone cancer |
A) osteoporosis
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One of the key age related diseases facing the baby boomers generation is:
A) degeneration of bone integrity B) severe acne C) tonsillitis D) infrequent urination |
A) degeneration of bone integrity
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What is the downside to knee replacement surgery?
A) the metal materials require periodic oiling to lubricate B) it can only be performed once in a lifetime C) pain and discomfort in bending the joint across the skin D) minimal scarring |
C) pain and discomfort in bending the joint across the skin
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A current research alternative to knee replacement involves
A) growing new bone that is both fibrous and strong. B) homografts from willed body donors. C) electrotherapy on the muscles around the knee joint. D) cessation of all exercise strain on the joint. |
A) growing new bone that is both fibrous and strong.
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Nanotubes are made of
A) nine pieces of thin titanium molded into the needed knee parts B) carbon atoms linked to each other to resemble collagen C) coral harvested from warm ocean waters D) finite particles of heated silicon |
B) carbon atoms linked to each other to resemble collagen
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In the carbon nanotube joint replacement alternative, what would provide the bone strength?
A) The titanium metal inserted into the knee cap B) The carbon atoms themselves C) Pieces of titanium are woven between the fibers to give it both strength and compression ability. D) Calcium ions that are attracted to the carbon fiber |
D) Calcium ions that are attracted to the carbon fiber
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What group of the amputee population experience particular difficulties in walking with prosthetics?
A) Those below the knee B) Those at the toes C) Those at the ankle D) Those above the knee |
D) Those above the knee
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The microprocessor in this new “Robo” knee has the advanced features of all the following except:
A) measuring how far the knee is bent B) determining the amount of force the user applies to it while walking. C) analyzes the users walk D) adapts the movement and resistance according to the users terrain conditions E) sending a signal to sensory neurons in the brain about the position of the knee |
E) sending a signal to sensory neurons in the brain about the position of the knee
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The magnetic fluid used for the robo knee is comprised of:
A) iron and oil. B) steel and brake fluid. C) copper and mineral oil. D) zinc and Vaseline. |
A) iron and oil.
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The microprocessor sends signals to the joint causing:
A) the knee to bend. B) a magnetic field that causes the fluid to adjust in stiffness and resistance. C) an electrical field that if not careful can cause a shock while walking. D) the joint to respond to motor neurons from the brain. |
B) a magnetic field that causes the fluid to adjust in stiffness and resistance.
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How is the knee re-programmed?
A) Manual hyper-extension of the robo knee joint B) New magnets periodically replaced into the joint C) Hand-held PDA that can be taken anywhere with the individual D) Re-chargeable batteries |
C) Hand-held PDA that can be taken anywhere with the individual
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What material is being used to make an artificial muscle?
A) transplanted mice muscle fibers B) nanotubes C) magnets D) plastic |
C) magnets
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These muscles provide the strength of about what percent of human muscle?
A) .1% B) 1 % C) 10% D) 100% |
C) 10%
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What does changing and adding magnetic fields do to the magnets in this study?
A) It causes the magnets to pulse like a flexing muscle. B) It produces an electrical current that can now serve as a nerve. C) It grounds the magnet material to stop nerve signal conduction. D) It stimulates surrounding muscle to contract. |
A) It causes the magnets to pulse like a flexing muscle.
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These muscle powered machines being researched have applications on board NASA spacecraft for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) replacement of muscle cells that atrophy in zero gravity B) repair C) exploration D) build things as needed |
A) replacement of muscle cells that atrophy in zero gravity
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What type of cells were used in this study?
A) rat heart cells B) monkey nerve cells C) rabbit retinal cells D) mice bone cells |
A) rat heart cells
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Why were these cells specifically chosen?
A) they are able to spontaneously contract B) they are easy to grow C) they are not sensitive to gravitational pulls D) they are easy to obtain |
A) they are able to spontaneously contract
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Fuel of the muscle cells?
A) Liquid oxygen B) Amino acids C) Calcium D) Sugar |
D) Sugar
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The artificial muscles created by the scientists are made up of:
A) plastic B) metal C) rubber D) human muscle cells |
B) metal
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The artificial muscles in the article:
A) are 10,000 times stronger than human muscle B) are fueled by ATP energy C) run on biodiesel fuel D) none of the above |
D) none of the above
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The contraction of the artificial muscle:
A) depends upon a catalyst coating the muscle components B) is powered by the addition of alcohol C) occurs due to heating of the metallic muscle components D) a and b E) all of the above |
E) all of the above
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In the article, the scientists suggest that the artificial muscles could one day:
A) be powered by biodiesel fuel B) be used to create enhanced prosthetic devices C) power artificial hearts D) all of the above |
D) all of the above
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A property of an open circulatory system includes
A) the absence of a heart. B) movement of fluid into spaces in the tissues of an organism. C) the absence of vessels. D) All of the above. |
B) movement of fluid into spaces in the tissues of an organism.
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What is the advantage of a four-chambered heart?
A) It can support blood flow through a larger organism. B) It separates the blood from the pulmonary and systemic circulation. C) It enhances the mixing of blood from the pulmonary and systemic circulation. D) Both a and c. |
B) It separates the blood from the pulmonary and systemic circulation.
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The function of the pericardium is to
A) prevent the flow of blood back into an atrium. B) contract, causing the blood to move. C) allow blood to flow into a ventricle from an atrium. D) protect the heart. |
D) protect the heart.
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Which chamber of the heart collects the oxygenated blood from the lungs?
A) Left atrium B) Left ventricle C) Right atrium D) Right ventricle |
A) Left atrium
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How would the sinoatrial node of an athlete at rest differ from that of a sedentary person?
A) It would establish a higher rate of contraction. B) It would not be any different. C) It would establish a lower rate of contraction. D) It would trigger a stronger contraction. |
C) It would establish a lower rate of contraction.
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Which type of blood vessel uses a thick layer of smooth muscle contractions to control blood flow?
A) A capillary B) A venule C) A vein D) An arteriole |
D) An arteriole
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If a person suffers from high blood pressure, then it is possible that
A) his blood vessels are abnormally dilated. B) his blood vessels are abnormally constricted. C) his kidneys are removing too much fluid. D) his medulla is underactive. |
B) his blood vessels are abnormally constricted.
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Why are people with type O blood considered to be universal donors?
A) Because type O cells do not carry surface antigens. B) Because there are more people with type O than any other blood type. C) Because everyone has the O antigen. D) Because type O cells lack an Rh group. |
A) Because type O cells do not carry surface antigens.
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Which type of blood cell is responsible for clot formation?
A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Plasma D) Platelets |
D) Platelets
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How is lymph fluid related to blood plasma?
A) They are both protein-rich fluids. B) Blood cells are transported in both. C) Lymph is plasma that has leaked out of blood vessels. D) Only lymph carries white blood cells |
C) Lymph is plasma that has leaked out of blood vessels.
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In which group of organisms does blood flow directly to systemic circulation after passing through the respiratory organs?
A) fishes B) amphibians C) birds and mammals |
A) fishes
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In mollusks blood is pumped through a heart into an open-ended dorsal artery. This is an example of ______________.
A) open circulatory system B) closed circulatory system |
B) closed circulatory system
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Which is true about arteries?
A) They always carry oxygenated blood. B) They experience the highest blood pressure and have the largest cross-sectional area. C) They carry blood toward the heart. D) They are surrounded by a large layer to smooth muscle to help regulate blood pressure. E) They have valves to prevent blood from flowing backward into the heart. |
D) They are surrounded by a large layer to smooth muscle to help regulate blood pressure.
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As blood pressure drops, which of the following occurs to restore normal pressure?
A) Arterioles in skin dilate. B) Arterioles in skin constrict. C) Heart rate decreases. D) Pressure receptors in aorta detect changes in artery walls. E) Both A and D. |
E) Both A and D.
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Which is the most prevalent molecule in blood plasma?
A) red blood cells B) water C) white blood cells D) salts |
B) water
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A person with AB- blood can receive a transfusion of which of the following?
A) A- B) B+ C) AB+ D) A+ E) All of the above. |
E) All of the above.
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Which of the following initiate blood clotting?
A) neutrophil B) lymphocyte C) thrombocytes D) eosinophil E) hemoglobin |
C) thrombocytes
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All of the following are true about the lymph system except:
A) The chemical composition of lymph is very different from that of blood plasma. B) Lymph nodes contain infection fighting white blood cells. C) The spleen and thymus are part of the lymph system. D) The lymph system removes bacteria and debris from the circulatory system. |
A) The chemical composition of lymph is very different from that of blood plasma.
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In the heart, an action potential originates in the...
A) Purkinje fibers. B) bundle branches. C) atrioventricular bundle. D) atrioventricular node. E) sinoatrial node. |
E) sinoatrial node.
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The sequence of travel by an action potential through the heart is...
A) sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, atrioventricular bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers. B) atrioventricular node, sinoatrial node, atrioventricular bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers. C) atrioventricular bundle, atrioventricular node, sinoatrial node, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers. D) Purkinje fibers, atrioventricular bundle, atrioventricular node, sinoatrial node, bundle branches. E) atrioventricular node, sinoatrial bundle, atrioventricular node, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers. |
A) sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, atrioventricular bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers.
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Which of the following is true concerning the heart conduction system?
A) action potentials pass slowly through the atrioventricular node. B) action potentials pass slowly through the atrioventricular bundle. C) action potentials pass slowly through the Purkinje fibers. D) action potentials pass slowly through the ventricle wall. E) action potentials pass slowly through the bundle branches. |
A) action potentials pass slowly through the atrioventricular node.
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In the ventricles, the action potential travels along the interventricular septum to the apex of the heart, where it then spreads superiorly along the ventricle walls.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Action potentials are carried by the Purkinje fibers from the bundle branches to the ventricular walls.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Which of the following is not true for ventricular systole?
A) the ventricles contract. B) the atrioventricular valves close. C) the semilunar valves open. D) the ventricles relax. E) blood flows through the aorta and the pulmonary trunk. |
D) the ventricles relax.
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The semilunar valves close during...
A) ventricular systole. B) ventricular diastole. C) atrial systole. D) atrial diastole. E) both atrial and ventricular systole. |
B) ventricular diastole.
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The atrioventricular valves open during...
A) ventricular systole. B) ventricular diastole. C) atrial systole. D) atrial diastole. E) both atrial and ventricular systole. |
B) ventricular diastole.
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Atrial contraction accounts for most of the ventricular filling.
A) True B) False |
B) False
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The ventricles begin to fill during ventricular diastole.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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What is the untreatable after effects of a heart attack?
A) elevated blood pressure B) damage to the muscle tissue that was deprived of oxygen C) an increase in pulse rate for several months D) change in color to the skin |
B) damage to the muscle tissue that was deprived of oxygen
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Treatments after a heart attack include which of the following?
A) Monitoring blood glucose levels B) Drugs to control kidney filtration rate C) Measures to maintain open blood vessels D) Complete bed rest |
C) Measures to maintain open blood vessels
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What type of tissues can adult mesenchymal bone stem cells give rise to?
A) bone B) fat C) muscle D) two of the above tissues E) all of these tissues |
E) all of these tissues
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What are the advantages in using adult bone stem cells over embryonic stem cells?
A) easier to produce in culture B) can differentiate into varieties of cell lines C) avoid the ethical controversies D) two of the above E) all of the above |
D) two of the above
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How does the adult bone marrow stem cells find their way to the damaged heart tissue?
A) They are surgically implanted in the heart tissue where the specific damage occurred. B) They are delivered by a biopsy needle directly into the heart. C) A virus vector injected into the blood stream then carries the stem cell genetic information body to the heart. D) Intravenously administered and attracted to chemical injury signals from the damaged heart cells. |
D) Intravenously administered and attracted to chemical injury signals from the damaged heart cells.
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The direction of gas movement is determined by
A) temperature. B) size of the gas molecule. C) solubility of the gas in blood. D) partial pressure differences. E) pH. |
D) partial pressure differences.
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Which of the following statements about partial pressures of gases is TRUE?
A) PO2 in lung is greater than PO2 in blood ; PCO2 in lung is greater than PCO2 in blood B) PO2 in lung is greater than PO2 in blood ; PCO2 in lung is less than PCO2 in blood C) PO2 in lung is greater than PO2 in blood ; PCO2 in lung = PCO2 in blood D) PO2 in lung is less than PO2 in blood ; PCO2 in lung is less than PCO2 in blood E) PO2 in lung is less than PO2 in blood ; PCO2 in lung is greater than PCO2 in blood |
B) PO2 in lung is greater than PO2 in blood ; PCO2 in lung is less than PCO2 in blood
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Which of the following statements about partial pressures of gases is TRUE?
A) PO2 in blood is greater than PO2 in tissues ; PCO2 in blood is greater than PCO2 in tissues B) PO2 in blood is greater than PO2 in tissues ; PCO2 in blood is less than PCO2 in tissues C) PO2 in blood is greater than PO2 in tissues ; PCO2 in blood = PCO2 in tissues D) PO2 in blood is less than PO2 in tissues ; PCO2 in blood is less than PCO2 in tissues E) PO2 in blood is less than PO2 in tissues ; PCO2 in blood is greater than PCO2 in tissues |
B) PO2 in blood is greater than PO2 in tissues ; PCO2 in blood is less than PCO2 in tissues
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Oxygen-rich blood is carried through pulmonary arteries from the lungs to the heart.
A) True B) False |
B) False
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Oxygen-poor blood is carried through systemic veins from the body tissues back to the heart.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Why do organisms breathe?
A) To eliminate CO2 B) To support aerobic respiration in mitochondria C) To support ATP production through glycolysis D) Both a and b |
D) Both a and b
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What is a common feature of tracheae and gills?
A) Countercurrent exchange B) High surface area C) Gases diffuse through water D) Lungs |
B) High surface area
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Which of the following organisms do NOT have lungs?
A) Earthworms B) Amphibians C) Lizards D) Birds |
A) Earthworms
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Gas exchange in a human lung occurs at the
A) bronchioles. B) alveoli. C) bronchi. D) trachea. |
B) alveoli.
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The voice is produced at the
A) olfactory epithelium. B) bronchioles. C) larynx. D) trachea. |
C) larynx.
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How many O2 molecules does a saturated hemoglobin carry?
A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Eight |
C) Four
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What happens to CO in the blood?
A) It is carried in form of carbonic acid and bicarbonate. B) It competes with O2 for binding to hemoglobin. C) It is used instead of O2 to generate ATF. D) Both a and c. |
B) It competes with O2 for binding to hemoglobin.
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Which reaction would most likely occur near the alveoli of the lung?
A) Formation of CO2 and water from carbonic acid B) Conversion of bicarbonate into carbonic acid C) Formation of carbonic acid from CO2 and water D) Conversion of carbonic acid to bicarbonate |
A) Formation of CO2 and water from carbonic acid
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The release of O2 from hemoglobin is triggered by
A) an O2 concentration gradient. B) an acidic environment. C) a warmer temperature. D) all of the above. |
A) an O2 concentration gradient.
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What regulates the breathing rate?
A) Level of O2 B) Level of CO2 C) Hemoglobin content of blood D) Demand for ATP |
B) Level of CO2
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Which of the following improve efficiency of respiratory systems?
A) large surface area to volume ratio B) moist surfaces C) countercurrent exchange D) All of the above. E) Both A. and B. |
D) All of the above.
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Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
A) fish – gills B) flatworms – body surface C) birds – lungs D) insects – lungs |
D) insects – lungs
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When underwater frogs exchange oxygen across their ______________ while on land they use _______.
A) gills; lungs B) skin; lungs C) skin; gills D) gills; skin |
B) skin; lungs
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How is breathing different from respiration?
A) Mammals and birds breathe while insects respire. B) Breathing is an active process that requires energy whereas respiration is passive. C) Breathing moves gases into and out of the body whereas respiration refers to ATP production. D) Respiration occurs in the alveoli whereas breathing requires inhalation and exhalation which involves the diaphragm. |
C) Breathing moves gases into and out of the body whereas respiration refers to ATP production.
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If the blood pH is 8.2, which of the following will occur?
A) Carbonic acid will be formed. B) Bicarbonate will be formed. C) More carbon dioxide will be exhaled. D) Carbonic acid will dissociate. E) Both B and C. |
E) Both B and C.
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The term hyperventilation typically refers to a state of breathing faster and more deeply than necessary. This results in a reduction of carbon dioxide concentration in the blood. Will this cause an increase or decrease in the blood pH?
A) increase B) decrease |
A) increase
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Why does carbon monoxide poisoning cause illness or death?
A) Carbon monoxide can dissociate to form carbon dioxide which changes blood pH. B) Carbon monoxide can dissociate to form carbonic acid which is lethal in high concentrations. C) Carbon monoxide can bind to hemoglobin which reduces oxygen availability to cells. D) In high quantities carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin and prevents carbon dioxide from binding so it cannot be exhaled. |
C) Carbon monoxide can bind to hemoglobin which reduces oxygen availability to cells.
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Which of the following are most important for regulating changes in breathing rate in humans?
A) levels of CO2 B) levels of O2 C) pH D) All of the above. E) Both A and C. |
D) All of the above.
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At which stage does organism's cells gain nutrients?
A) Ingestion B) Digestion C) Absorption D) Elimination |
C) Absorption
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A human is a
A) filter feeder. B) deposit feeder. C) fluid feeder. D) bulk feeder. |
D) bulk feeder.
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A flat worm has a(n) __________.
A) incomplete digestive tract. B) alimentary canal. C) mouth and anus. D) Both b and c. |
A) incomplete digestive tract.
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Which of the following parts of a human's digestive tract is NOT directly involved in digestion?
A) The mouth B) The small intestine C) The large intestine D) Both b and c |
C) The large intestine
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Making the pH of the stomach closer to neutral (pH7) would inhibit the
A) digestion of proteins. B) prevent chyme from moving to the duodenum. C) absorption of nutrients. D) Both a and c. |
A) digestion of proteins.
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What is the function of bile?
A) To break proteins into amino acids B) To digest fat molecules C) To break fat into small droplets D) To digest nucleic acids |
C) To break fat into small droplets
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How do the normal intestinal microflora prevent infection by pathogenic bacteria?
A) Pathogens cannot find a place to grow. B) Pathogens are degraded by digestive enzymes. C) Pathogens are decomposed by the existing prokaryotes. D) Pathogens are killed by B vitamins. |
A) Pathogens cannot find a place to grow.
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An amino acid that can only be obtained from the diet is an example of
A) an essential nutrient. B) a macronutrient. C) a micronutrient. D) both a and b. |
D) both a and b.
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What is the value of dietary fiber?
A) It is a carbohydrate source. B) It helps material move along the digestive tract. C) It helps trigger the production of gastric juice. D) All of the above. |
B) It helps material move along the digestive tract.
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A person's body mass index is calculated based on
A) caloric intake. B) height. C) weight. D) Both b and c. |
D) Both b and c.
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A scientist studies a South American tortoise that eats fresh fruits and vegetables as well as insect larvae and earthworms. This is an example of a ___________________.
A) substrate feeding herbivore B) deposit feeding omnivore C) bulk feeding omnivore D) filter feeding herbivore |
C) bulk feeding omnivore
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Animals with a large cecum eat lots of _____________.
A) protein B) fats C) plant material |
C) plant material
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Sandra is eating a candy bar which has lots of carbohydrates and fats. Which of the following are involved in the chemical breakdown of the candy?
A) salivary glands B) liver C) stomach D) All of the above. E) Both A and B. |
D) All of the above.
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Which processes occur in the mouth?
A) Chemical breakdown of all foods. B) Mechanical breakdown of all foods. C) Peristalsis D) Production of gastric juices. |
B) Mechanical breakdown of all foods.
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What is the function of the epiglottis?
A) Prevents food from entering the lungs. B) Connection between the stomach and the mouth. C) Allows passage of food into the esophagus. D) A ring of muscle that closes the opening to the trachea. |
A) Prevents food from entering the lungs.
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Where does most water absorption occur?
A) small intestine B) large intestine C) liver D) pancreas |
B) large intestine
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People with celiac disease cannot eat foods that contain a protein called gluten. If they do eat gluten, their immune system destroys the villi of the small intestine. What process will be most affected by this destruction?
A) nutrient absorption B) enzyme production C) mineral absorption D) water absorption |
A) nutrient absorption
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Which of the following are benefits of a high fiber diet?
A) reduced blood cholesterol B) blood sugar regulation C) low incidences of colorectal cancer D) All of the above. |
D) All of the above.
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All of the following about BMI are correct except:
A) To calculate BMI you need to know a person’s height and weight. B) Everyone with a BMI greater than 30 is considered obese. C) A BMI of 20-25 is considered healthy. |
B) Everyone with a BMI greater than 30 is considered obese.
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Involuntary muscle contractions which move a bolus through the gastrointestinal tract are called
A) mastication. B) peristalsis. C) defecation. D) chime. |
B) peristalsis.
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Hydrochloric acid is secreted in the
A) esophagus. B) stomach. C) small intestine. D) large intestine. |
B) stomach.
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Most nutrient absorption occurs in the
A) esophagus. B) stomach. C) small intestine. D) large intestine. |
C) small intestine.
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What organ produces bile?
A) liver B) small intestine C) pancreas D) stomach |
A) liver
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Which of the following is the correct order for the major parts of the gastrointestinal tract?
A) esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, mouth B) mouth, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine C) mouth, small intestine, stomach, esophagus, large intestine D) mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine |
D) mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
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Why is the information on a Nutrition Facts Label standardized?
A) to be sure the serving size is the amount a person really eats B) so it can be used in other countries C) so consumers can compare similar foods D) to confuse consumers |
C) so consumers can compare similar foods
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Which of the following do not have a % Daily Value listed.
A) Total fat and Sodium B) Trans fat and Protein C) Trans fat and Sodium D) Total fat and Total Carbohydrate |
B) Trans fat and Protein
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The established daily value for total fat is based on the recommendation that total fat be no more than what percent of total calories?
A) 10% B) 20% C) 30% D) 40% |
C) 30%
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What happens to your upper limit of cholesterol recommendation when you eat more calories?
A) it stays the same B) it increases C) it decreases D) there is no upper limit recommended |
A) it stays the same
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What is the recommended upper limit for sodium per day?
A) 460 mg B) 4600 mg C) 240 mg D) 2400 mg |
D) 2400 mg
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Body Mass Index is a method of comparing
A) age and weight. B) age and height. C) muscle mass and weight. D) height and weight. |
D) height and weight.
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A person with a BMI of 20 would be considered
A) underweight. B) normal range weight. C) overweight. D) obese. |
B) normal range weight.
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In August 2001, when Mark McGwire broke the home run record in baseball, his BMI classification was
A) underweight. B) normal range weight. C) overweight. D) obese. |
C) overweight.
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BMI is often used as a screening test because it is
A) very accurate in determining obesity. B) inexpensive and quick. C) the best way to tell if you are morbidly obese. D) the best way to determine muscle growth. |
B) inexpensive and quick.
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A person with a BMI of 12 would be considered
A) underweight. B) normal range weight. C) overweight. D) obese. |
A) underweight.
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How many calories in the Burger patty by itself?
A) 24 B) 432 C) 220 D) 268 |
D) 268
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Which of the following sandwiches has the most calories? (All sandwiches have a top and bottom bun.)
A) Chicken breast, cheese, mayonnaise, lettuce B) Chicken breast, mayonnaise, lettuce, tomato C) Burger patty, lettuce, tomato, mustard D) Burger patty, lettuce, tomato, mustard, pickle, ketchup |
A) Chicken breast, cheese, mayonnaise, lettuce
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Which of the following sandwiches has the least calories? (All sandwiches have a top and bottom bun.)
A) Chicken breast, cheese, mayonnaise, lettuce B) Chicken breast, mayonnaise, lettuce, tomato C) Burger patty, lettuce, tomato, mustard D) Burger patty, lettuce, tomato, mustard, pickle, ketchup |
B) Chicken breast, mayonnaise, lettuce, tomato
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Which of the following sandwich ingredients has the most fat?
A) mayonnaise B) cheese C) burger patty D) mustard |
C) burger patty
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Which of the following sandwich ingredients has the most protein?
A) cheese B) burger patty C) chicken breast D) top bun |
C) chicken breast
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How do the number of servings on the Food Guide Pyramid for Children compare to the number of servings on the Adult Food Guide Pyramid?
A) the number of servings are less on the Food Guide Pyramid for Children B) the number of servings are more on the Food Guide Pyramid for Children C) the number of servings are the same on both D) the number of servings are more on the Adult Food Guide Pyramid |
C) the number of servings are the same on both
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What two factors influence a growing child’s energy and nutrient needs?
A) age and weight B) age and gender C) weight and gender D) weight and poverty status |
B) age and gender
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What happens to serving sizes as children grow older?
A) serving sizes get smaller for fats and sweets B) serving sizes do not change C) serving sizes get smaller D) serving sizes get larger |
A) serving sizes get smaller for fats and sweets
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According to the Food Guide Pyramid for Children how many servings of vegetable should a child have?
A) 6 servings B) 3 servings C) 2 servings D) 1 serving |
D) 1 serving
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For a five year old child, the serving size from the vegetable group is
A) 1 to 2 tablespoons. B) 3 to 4 tablespoons. C) 1/2 cup. D) 3 or more |
C) 1/2 cup.
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The white diamonds and yellow dots in the background of the North American pyramid represent
A) sodium and fat. B) sugar and fat. C) sodium and sugar. D) sodium and alcohol. |
B) sugar and fat.
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What is at the base of the North American pyramid?
A) Bread, Cereal, Rice and Pasta group B) Daily Physical Activity C) Fats, Oils and Sweets D) Fruit group |
A) Bread, Cereal, Rice and Pasta group
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What is at the base of the Latin American pyramid?
A) Bread, Cereal, Rice and Pasta group B) Daily Physical Activity C) Fats, Oils and Sweets D) Fruit group |
B) Daily Physical Activity
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What food group is suggested to be eaten monthly on the Asian pyramid?
A) sake B) sweets C) meats D) eggs and poultry |
C) meats
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In the Mediterranean pyramid what oil is given its own group?
A) monounsaturated oils B) canola oil C) vegetable oil D) olive oil |
D) olive oil
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Does a potato or French fries have more vitamin C?
A) potato B) french fries C) They have about the same amount of vitamin C. D) Neither has vitamin C. |
A) potato
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Approximately what % RDA of folate do 2 oranges have?
A) 10% B) 20% C) 40% D) 60% |
B) 20%
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Does a broiled or battered fish stick have more fiber?
A) broiled fish stick B) battered fish stick C) they both have over 50% of the RDA for fiber D) neither has fiber |
D) neither has fiber
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Of all the foods listed which has the highest % RDA of calcium?
A) battered fish stick B) buttered popcorn C) potato D) whole milk |
D) whole milk
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Of all the foods listed which has the highest % RDA of fiber?
A) apples B) hot-air popcorn C) oranges D) milk |
A) apples
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What is the vitamin C requirement for a 20 year old male?
A) 75 mg/d B) 85 mg/d C) 90 mg/d D) 15 mg/d |
C) 90 mg/d
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In adulthood, do males or females generally have higher vitamin A requirements?
A) females B) males C) they both have the same vitamin A needs D) neither needs vitamin A |
B) males
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Which of the following groups have the highest folate requirements?
A) non-pregnant 19-30 year old females B) 19-30 year old males C) 51-70 year old males D) pregnant 19-30 year old females |
D) pregnant 19-30 year old females
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Which of the following groups have the highest iron requirements?
A) non-pregnant 19-30 year old females B) 19-30 year old males C) non-pregnant 14-18 year old females D) 14-18 year old males |
A) non-pregnant 19-30 year old females
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In adulthood, do males or females generally have higher magnesium requirements?
A) females B) males C) they both have the same magnesium needs D) neither needs magnesium |
B) males
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What is the definition of a population?
A) A group of multiple species coexisting within a defined location B) A group of animals that exist within a specific habitat C) A group of organisms of a single species within a specific location D) A group of genetically identical organisms |
C) A group of organisms of a single species within a specific location
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How does population dispersion affect population density?
A) It affects the pattern of density across the habitat. B) It causes the number of individuals to decrease as dispersion increases. C) Individuals become more dispersed as their numbers increase. D) There is no relationship between these two concepts. |
A) It affects the pattern of density across the habitat.
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What process, other than birth, can affect population density?
A) Immigration B) Emigration C) Death D) All of the above |
D) All of the above
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A population that has a consistent survivorship rate is a ______ species.
A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV |
B) Type II
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In a population with exponential growth, how many individuals will there be after four generations if the starting population is 20?
A) 20 B) 40 C) 320 D) 640 |
C) 320
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What determines the carrying capacity of a habitat?
A) The resources available within the environment B) The doubling time of a species C) The birth rate for a population D) Both b and c |
A) The resources available within the environment
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Which of the following is NOT an example of a density-dependent factor?
A) Predation B) Weather C) Disease D) Competition for food |
B) Weather
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The life histories of guppy populations with high predation intensity on adults shifted toward
A) constant survivorship. B) r-selection. C) K-selection. D) a mix of r- and K-selection. |
B) r-selection
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A decline in growth rates can be attributed to a large percentage of a population in its
A) post-reproductive years. B) reproductive years. C) pre-reproductive years. D) Both b and c. |
A) post-reproductive years.
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A scientist is studying the interaction between tadpoles and dragonfly larvae in an ephemeral pond. These organisms constitute a ____________.
A) community B) population C) habitat D) single species |
A) community
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In cow pastures in Oklahoma, tarantula burrows can often be found on warm, south-facing slopes. What dispersion pattern does this represent?
A) Random B) Uniform C) Clumped |
C) Clumped
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Mollusks produce thousands of eggs which are released into the surrounding water. Only a few will survive to reach sexual maturity. These animals have a Type __________ survivorship curve.
A) I B) II C) III D) Not enough information is given. |
C) III
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A student is studying the interactions between deer and wolves in a pine forest. At the start of his study, he counts the number of organisms to include in his study. There are 62 female deer and 45 male deer, a pack of 15 wolves, and 102 pine trees. Thus, in his study there are ______ species, ________ populations, and ________ organisms.
A) 3; 3; 224 B) 224; 4; 4 C) 4; 224; 3 D) 3; 4; 224 E) 224; 3; 3 |
A) 3; 3; 224
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Paula has a 10-gallon fish tank with 5 male and 5 female guppies. After one year, several of the females have babies and the population reaches 25 guppies. What is the population density of the original population (assume no deaths)?
A) 10 fish/gallon B) 1 fish/gallon C) 0.1 fish/gallon D) 2.5 fish/gallon |
B) 1 fish/gallon
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In two years, the population reaches 56 fish. However, over a 5-year period, the average number of fish is 52. This number, 52, would be considered the ______________.
A) survivorship number B) rate of increase C) growth rate D) carrying capacity |
D) carrying capacity
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In the third year, several fish die because they are infected with the parasite "Ick." This is a:
A) density-dependent factor B) density-independent factor |
A) density-dependent factor
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All of the following are true about an r-selected species except:
A) Organisms reproduce at an early age. B) Have a type I survivorship pattern. C) Produce many offspring. D) Provide little parental care. |
B) Have a type I survivorship pattern.
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Birth rates in developed countries have decreased because of:
A) family planning programs B) higher rates of education among women C) improved public health D) All of the above. E) Both A and B. |
E) Both A and B.
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Which state had eradicated wolves entirely by the mid-1950’s?
A) Minnesota B) Wisconsin C) North Dakota D) Montana |
B) Wisconsin
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What effort brought back some of the wolf population?
A) Federal government’s listing of wolf as an endangered species B) Reduction in value of wolf fur C) Less humans live in areas where wolves do D) Increased number of pups born to a litter |
A) Federal government’s listing of wolf as an endangered species
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What was thought to be a way to increase people’s tolerance of wolves in the area?
A) cash compensation for losses B) increased education about wolf behavior C) better fencing available to ranchers D) expanded hunting season |
A) cash compensation for losses
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What was one of the conclusions drawn about human interaction with wolves?
A) The more money that is provided, the easier it is to tolerate wolf presence B) Wolves are naturally afraid of human presence C) Fears of attack override any monetary compensation program D) Wolves and humans can not live in the same area |
C) Fears of attack override any monetary compensation program
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Which of the following statements regarding wolves is true?
A) Wolves are now facing extinction due to human eradication programs. B) Wolves are reducing their predatory behavior. C) There is no record of a wolf attacking and harming a human. D) Wolves have caused much more damage than bears have. |
C) There is no record of a wolf attacking and harming a human.
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Which of the following statements best describes the findings about black rockfish population dynamics?
A) Rockfish populations have stabilized due to fishing regulations on catch size. B) Larvae from older female rockfish grew faster and survived longer without food than the fish that came from young mothers. C) Larvae from younger fish were notably much stronger as they developed. D) Rockfish populations have risen due to the lack of natural predators. |
B) Larvae from older female rockfish grew faster and survived longer without food than the fish that came from young mothers.
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How is the age of rockfish determined?
A) Examining the length of their caudal fin. B) Size of the scales on the ventral side. C) Counting the rings in the fish otilus (ear bones). D) Weighing the fish. |
C) Counting the rings in the fish otilus (ear bones).
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In the controlled study on rockfish, what was the key to larval survival?
A) The temperature of the water that the larvae were raised in. B) The amount of available algae and protozoa for the larvae to feed on. C) The size of the oil droplet given to the larvae by its’ mother. D) The fact that they had no natural predators to endanger them. |
C) The size of the oil droplet given to the larvae by its’ mother.
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What suggestion is being made to help Rockfish populations continue to thrive?
A) Using hook and line fishing rather than trawling. B) Stock the species of fish by cloning them and releasing them into various environments. C) Establishing regulations that set an upper limit, not just a lower limit on the size of fish allowed to be caught. D) Two of the above E) All of the above |
D) Two of the above
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If catching strategies can’t be controlled effectively, what is the other key suggestion being made to manage Rockfish numbers?
A) Prohibit all fishing during the spawning season. B) Ban all rockfish fishing entirely. C) Place a high fee on Rockfish fishing licenses. D) Call on environmental groups to picket and protest the harvesting of Rockfish. |
A) Prohibit all fishing during the spawning season.
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What is the key issue that face Marine Biology scientific research in this feature?
A) Warming ocean currents B) The cause of disappearing fish populations C) Impact of Tsunami’s on the biomass of the oceans D) The cause of decreased natural predators in ocean food chains |
B) The cause of disappearing fish populations
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Currently, how much of the oceans are estimated to be protected by fishing “no take” bans?
A) .1% B) 1% C) 10% D) 50% |
A) .1%
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What was the critical contributing cause to the decline in fish populations identified in this feature?
A) rise in red algae toxins B) impact of global warming on ocean temperatures C) increased fishing capabilities D) elevated levels of bacteria in marine waters |
C) increased fishing capabilities
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What is the argument against placing limits and bans on fishing?
A) Commercial fishing is a large employer for many people B) Fish populations need to be regulated by humans to stabilize their numbers. C) The impact on the boating industry would be detrimental D) The fish will die of starvation if their numbers become too large |
A) Commercial fishing is a large employer for many people
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What are MPA’s?
A) Monitoring coastal surveillance equipment to detect protected species. B) Saltwater restriction legislation that is being introduced from the federal government. C) Marine protection areas where no fish are allowed to be harvested. D) Banding systems on aquatic fish to tag them as a must release if caught. |
C) Marine protection areas where no fish are allowed to be harvested.
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What is the definition of a community?
A) A group of organisms of a single species within a specific location B) A group of multiple species coexisting within a defined location C) A group of animals that exist within a specific habitat D) The abiotic (physical and chemical) qualities of a defined location |
B) A group of multiple species coexisting within a defined location
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Picocyanobacteria are photosynthetic bacteria that live in the ocean. Two species, isolated from the same habitat, have been found to use different wavelengths of light in photosynthesis. This is an example of
A) competitive exclusion. B) commensalism. C) resource partitioning. D) realized niche. |
C) resource partitioning.
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Why is the example of cellulose-digesting microorganisms in a cow's gut an example of mutualistic symbiosis?
A) Because the cow needs the microorganisms to break down the grass it eats B) Because the microorganisms have a source of food provided by the cow C) Because the microorganisms don't use all of the sugar released from cellulose D) All of the above |
D) All of the above
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Monarch butterflies contain a substance that causes predators to vomit. Viceroy butterflies look like monarchs but lack the substance that sickens predators. This is an example of
A) warning coloration. B) camouflage. C) mimicry. D) structural defense. |
C) mimicry.
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Primary succession would be found
A) on a newly formed volcanic island. B) following a massive fire. C) in an area that has been graded for new construction. D) both a and c. |
D) both a and c.
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What two properties do all ecosystems share?
A) The organisms and the abiotic environment B) A biome and an energy source C) Biogeochemical cycles and an energy source D) A biome and a biogeochemical cycle |
C) Biogeochemical cycles and an energy source
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Primary producers are at the first trophic level because they are
A) autotrophs that do not rely on any other organism for food. B) the least complex organisms in an ecosystem. C) the most abundant life form. D) the first organisms to appear within an ecosystem. |
A) autotrophs that do not rely on any other organism for food.
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A moth that eats plants is a(n) ______ while the bat that eats the moth is a ______.
A) heterotroph; decomposer B) secondary consumer; decomposer C) primary consumer; secondary consumer D) autotroph; secondary consumer |
C) primary consumer; secondary consumer
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The loss of energy between each trophic level accounts for the
A) size of each trophic level. B) biomass at each trophic level. C) observation that large organisms are typically herbivores. D) All of the above. |
D) All of the above.
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Which biogeochemical cycle does not rely on decomposers?
A) Carbon cycle B) Nitrogen cycle C) Phosphorus cycle D) Water cycle |
D) Water cycle
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A biologist is studying the nocturnal behaviors of a predatory beetle, the insects that it eats and the plants that the insect prey in turn eat. What is needed to make this an ecosystem level study?
A) rainfall B) nitrates in the soil around the plants C) night-time temperatures D) All of the above. E) Both B and C. |
D) All of the above.
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A tortoise lives in the grassy areas amongst the mesquite and acacia trees in southern Texas. Which of the following would be considered this animal’s niche?
A) The tortoise eats grasses and prickly pear buds. B) In the hot part of the day, tortoises retreat to underground burrows. C) Female tortoises are sexually receptive during May and June and eggs are laid in shallow burrows in late August. D) All of the above. |
D) All of the above.
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In Florida there are several different species of Anolis lizards that are found living in trees. Each species occupies a different region of the tree and they feed at different times or have different food preferences. This is an example of:
A) the competitive exclusion principle B) resource partitioning C) symbiosis D) coevolution |
B) resource partitioning
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When crab grass becomes established in a yard, it will completely displace all the fescue grass if it is not kept under control or removed. This is an example of:
A) the competitive exclusion principle B) resource partitioning C) symbiosis D) coevolution |
A) the competitive exclusion principle
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The coral snake is a very venomous snake that has striking red, yellow, and black stripes. This is an example of:
A) camouflage B) warning coloration C) parasitism D) symbiosis |
B) warning coloration
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Clown fish (similar to that seen in the “Nemo” movie”) are often found closely associated with sea anemones. Sea anemones have stinging cells that they typically shoot out to deter intruders; however, the clown fish have a developed mucus covering that prevents them from being stung. Thus, when a predator comes by they can hide amongst the stinging tentacles of anemone for protection. The clown fish will often feed on bits of debris around the anemone and thus keep its tentacles clean. This is an example of:
A) symbiosis B) coevolution C) mutualism D) All of the above. E) Both A and C. |
D) All of the above.
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What metabolic process releases CO2?
A) glycolysis B) Calvin cycle C) Kreb's cycle D) electron transport chain |
C) Kreb's cycle
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What is directly compromising the Fraser fir tree species populations?
A) Too cold of conditions for growth B) Over harvesting from tree plantations C) A root fungus D) Competition by other pine tree species |
C) A root fungus
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What option is available to help Fraser fir populations survive this parasitic infection?
A) Grafting Fraser fir seedlings onto the stems of resistant fir populations. B) Development of a much more powerful fungicide to use on the trees. C) Growing the firs only in regions of the United States where the fungus does not thrive. D) Keeping their roots dry, so that the fungi have an unfavorable growing environment. |
A) Grafting Fraser fir seedlings onto the stems of resistant fir populations.
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Why is the fungus attack on firs such an economic detriment?
A) Fraser firs are the most important money crop in North Carolina B) Fraser firs are the key type of wood used in the building industry. C) Fraser firs are the principal tree used in the production of paper. D) Fraser firs are an expensive ornamental tree for people’s yards. |
A) Fraser firs are the most important money crop in North Carolina
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Where was the fungus Phythoptora believed to have originated from?
A) Europe B) Southeast Asia C) South America D) Australia |
B) Southeast Asia
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What recently has caused the fungal spores to invade soil in tree plantations more extensively than in the past?
A) Resistance to fungicides B) Extremely cold temperatures C) Heavy rains with widespread flooding D) Cloud cover producing higher shade amounts |
C) Heavy rains with widespread flooding
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What species were joined together in this integrated aquaculture research project?
A) Trout, snails and algae B) Grouper, squid and elodea C) Salmon, mussels and seaweed D) Snapper, scallops and kelp |
C) Salmon, mussels and seaweed
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Normally commercial aquaculture raises a single species for production. What is the key disadvantage to this type of farming?
A) The species can become susceptible to disease by the accumulation of waste and uneaten food. B) A highly profitable species cannot be raised successfully by themselves. C) The species has the risk of being consumed by predators. D) If the species becomes exposed to a pathogen, only that species dies. |
A) The species can become susceptible to disease by the accumulation of waste and uneaten food.
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Which of the following statements is true about the species relationships involved in this integrated aquaculture approach?
A) The mussels eat the seaweeds. B) The seaweeds combine the dissolved nutrients with solar energy to grow. C) The salmon eat the waste produced by the mussels. D) The seaweeds produce waste products that the salmon consume. |
B) The seaweeds combine the dissolved nutrients with solar energy to grow.
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The findings of this research project indicated all of the following except:
A) The mussels reached commercial size in a much shorter time. B) The seaweeds grew twice as fast as those grown without salmon. C) The nutrient levels in the water were dramatically lowered. D) The salmon population was reduced. |
D) The salmon population was reduced.
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Which of the following is NOT an issue faced by those who want to see integrated aquaculture farming used more extensively?
A) Continued concerns about PCBs and heavy metals gathering in farmed salmon as a result of their diet. B) Uncertainties about the danger of passing any of the toxins from the fish waste into the other two species. C) Research findings suggest that there is little economic gain that can be demonstrated with this farming approach. D) Regulations in some countries that prohibit shellfish and finfish from being raised in close proximity. |
C) Research findings suggest that there is little economic gain that can be demonstrated with this farming approach.
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Which of the following is a biome?
A) A rotting log B) A freshwater lake C) A forest D) Both b and c |
D) Both b and c
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Which abiotic factors likely affect the type of organisms found in Utah's Great Salt Lake?
A) Sunlight B) Salinity C) Temperature D) All of the above |
D) All of the above
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A biome composed of trees that seasonally shed their leaves is a
A) chaparral. B) temperate forest. C) tropical dry forest. D) taiga. |
B) temperate forest.
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What is a distinguishing feature of the tundra?
A) Permafrost B) Infertile soil C) Grasses D) Boreal forest |
A) Permafrost
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What two abiotic factors influence the fertility of the soil of a biome?
A) Temperature and rainfall B) Fire and sunlight C) Sunlight and salinity D) Both a and c |
A) Temperature and rainfall
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Why is use of tropical rainforests for human agriculture impractical?
A) Because it reduces biodiversity B) Because the soil is nutrient poor and erodes quickly C) Because the climate is warm and wet D) Because only a limited number of crop plants will grow |
B) Because the soil is nutrient poor and erodes quickly
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An organism that lives in lake sediment would be found in the __________ zone.
A) limnetic B) profundal C) benthic D) littoral |
C) benthic
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Why can't the photosynthetic phytoplankton of a eutrophic lake maintain deep-water oxygen levels?
A) Because oxygen production by photosynthesis only occurs where there is light B) Because high productivity means lots of material for decomposers that use up oxygen C) Because water temperature affects photosynthesis D) Both a and b |
D) Both a and b
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How is an estuary different from a mangrove swamp?
A) The salinity of the water changes with the tides B) The presence of plants that are salt tolerant C) The presence of a benthic zone D) All of the above |
A) The salinity of the water changes with the tides
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The deepest waters of the ocean would be found in
A) the oceanic zone. B) the neritic zone. C) the pelagic zone. D) both a and c. |
D) both a and c.
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Which of the following are biomes?
A) Lake Erie B) Mediterranean Sea C) Mojave desert D) Amazon forest E) All of the above |
E) All of the above
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Meagan lives in an area which experiences beautiful fall colors as the trees begin to lose their leaves. She most likely lives in a:
A) tropical rain forest B) temperate forest C) taiga D) tundra |
B) temperate forest
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All of the following are true about deserts except:
A) Temperatures can be very hot. B) Deserts can only support a few species. C) Temperatures can be cold, sometimes below freezing. D) They receive less than 20 cm of rainfall each year. |
B) Deserts can only support a few species.
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Frogs and toads living around a pond are most often found in which zone?
A) littoral B) limnetic C) profundal D) benthic |
A) littoral
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Brian is visiting National Parks in Montana. One of his hikes takes him to Glacier Lake, a beautiful clear, sparkling blue lake which reflects the trees and mountains around it. This lake is probably:
A) eutrophic B) profundal C) oligotrophic D) an estuary |
C) oligotrophic
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How much of the Earth's surface is covered by oceans?
A) 40% B) 50% C) 60% D) 70% E) 80% |
D) 70%
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A group of fiddler crabs can be found living among the roots of mangrove trees. During the high tide they climb up the trunks of the trees but return to the sandy substrate to forage and mate as the tide retreats. What type of coastal ecosystem are these animals living in?
A) estuary B) intertidal zone C) coral reef D) All of the above are reasonable answers. |
B) intertidal zone
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Which of the following is not one of the main causes of today's biodiversity crisis?
A) Natural disasters, such as earthquakes B) Habitat destruction and degradation C) Overexploitation D) Introduction of nonnative species |
A) Natural disasters, such as earthquakes
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Periodic flooding is beneficial to an ecosystem because it
A) redistributes sediment. B) deposits nutrients. C) creates habitat for migratory birds. D) both a and b. |
D) both a and b.
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Which human activity has had the greatest impact on biodiversity in tropical forests?
A) Housing B) Transportation C) Agriculture D) Tourism |
C) Agriculture
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The burning of fossil fuels produces
A) smog. B) acid deposition. C) particulates. D) all of the above. |
D) all of the above.
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How does destruction of the ozone layer affect life on Earth?
A) It alters global temperatures. B) It leads to DNA damage. C) It changes the spectrum of light reaching the surface of the Earth. D) It reduces the amount of O2 in the atmosphere. |
B) It leads to DNA damage.
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What is the greenhouse effect?
A) The filtering of specific wavelengths of light by Earth's atmosphere B) The increase in global plant growth due to enhanced photosynthesis C) The trapping of heat by certain gases in the atmosphere D) The reduction in the amount of CO2 in Earth's atmosphere. |
C) The trapping of heat by certain gases in the atmosphere
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Why is deforestation associated with global climate change?
A) Because burning forests adds to the CO2 levels in the atmosphere B) Because loss of trees reduces the amount of photosynthesis occurring on the planet C) Because loss of forest frees land for agricultural production D) Both a and b |
D) Both a and b
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An invasive species is one that
A) is introduced into a new habitat. B) causes the destruction of an existing species. C) establishes a breeding population in a new habitat. D) both a and c. |
D) both a and c.
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What limits a captive breeding program for the restoration of endangered species?
A) It relies on a limited gene pool. B) It does not preserve the habitat of an organism. C) Not all animals will breed in captivity. D) All of the above. |
D) All of the above.
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Which of the following contribute to desertification?
A) compacted soil B) drought C) overgrazing D) All of the above. |
D) All of the above.
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What is smog?
A) nitrogen oxides B) particulates C) ozone D) heavy metals |
C) ozone
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How does ozone impact our atmosphere?
A) It is a major component of smog, a harmful pollutant. B) In the upper atmosphere it absorbs harmful radiation that could harm living organisms. C) It is a persistent organic pollutant that contaminates ecosystems. D) All of the above. E) Both A and B. |
E) Both A and B.
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Why are increasing CO2 levels of such concern?
A) The high levels of CO2 lead to depleted levels of O2 which is essential for respiration. B) It is a major factor leading to the depletion of the ozone layer. C) It is one of several gases that trap heat in the lower atmosphere resulting in global warming. D) Increases are due to increased burning of fossil fuels since the 1950s. |
C) It is one of several gases that trap heat in the lower atmosphere resulting in global warming.
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Kudzu is a plant species that was introduced into the United States from Japan in the late 1800s. It was promoted primarily as a forage crop and was planted widely for many years. These plants grow very rapidly once established, extending as much as 20 m (60 ft) per season at a rate of about 30 cm (12 in) per day. In the southeastern United States, kudzu is a pest species and grows almost out of control because it has no native pest species. Millions of dollars are spent each year on control and eradication. Kudzu is an example of a(n):
A) overexploitation B) invasive species C) native species D) unsustainable harvest |
B) invasive species
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Which of the following are likely characteristics of invasive species?
A) They reproduce quickly. B) They have few natural predators. C) They outcompete other species for resources. D) All of the above. |
D) All of the above.
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Approximately how many species are identified on the endangered species list in the United States?
A) 100 B) 500 C) 700 D) 1000 E) 1200 |
E) 1200
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One of the impacts of increased global temperature is:
A) increased ultraviolet exposure B) more available water that is no longer frozen C) a decrease in the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere D) a change in the ratio of snow to rain |
D) a change in the ratio of snow to rain
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What is a key concern for reindeer that global warming creates?
A) production of ice which prevents them from getting to their food supply B) alteration of their hormone cycles involved in mating C) excessive winter fur D) habitat full of ice becomes difficult to move in |
A) production of ice which prevents them from getting to their food supply
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The primary food supply for reindeer is:
A) nuts and berries B) pine needles C) moss and lichens D) various insects |
C) moss and lichens
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What reindeer habitat would be most compromised by excessive ice?
A) tundra B) coniferous forest C) desert D) marshlands |
A) tundra
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If the prediction models hold true, what is one of the likely events that will occur due to the increased rain on snow phenomenon?
A) shift in reindeer migrations to the north B) extinction of reindeer populations C) reindeer migrating south to find warmer climates D) reindeer altering their food choices |
A) shift in reindeer migrations to the north
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What is the key issue that face Marine Biology scientific research in this feature?
A) Warming ocean currents B) The cause of disappearing fish populations C) Impact of Tsunami’s on the biomass of the oceans D) The cause of decreased natural predators in ocean food chains |
B) The cause of disappearing fish populations
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Currently, how much of the oceans are estimated to be protected by fishing “no take” bans?
A) .1% B) 1% C) 10% D) 50% |
A) .1%
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What was the critical contributing cause to the decline in fish populations identified in this feature?
A) rise in red algae toxins B) impact of global warming on ocean temperatures C) increased fishing capabilities D) elevated levels of bacteria in marine waters |
C) increased fishing capabilities
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What is the argument against placing limits and bans on fishing?
A) Commercial fishing is a large employer for many people B) Fish populations need to be regulated by humans to stabilize their numbers. C) The impact on the boating industry would be detrimental D) The fish will die of starvation if their numbers become too large |
A) Commercial fishing is a large employer for many people
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What are MPA’s?
A) Monitoring coastal surveillance equipment to detect protected species. B) Saltwater restriction legislation that is being introduced from the federal government. C) Marine protection areas where no fish are allowed to be harvested. D) Banding systems on aquatic fish to tag them as a must release if caught. |
C) Marine protection areas where no fish are allowed to be harvested.
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Why is rice such an important staple?
A) It is easy to prepare. B) It doesn’t easily become susceptible to spoiling. C) It feeds a major portion of the world population daily. D) It grows very easily in many diverse habitats. |
C) It feeds a major portion of the world population daily.
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What is this particular study on rice concerned over?
A) There is strong evidence of a tight link between rising temperatures that are consistent with global warming and a reduction in rice yield. B) Many countries are now banning the planting of rice since it is not a high economic cash crop. C) The rice fields are being encroached on by rapidly rising human populations that need the areas to live. D) The rice is believed to be contaminated by non-point water pollution sources. |
A) There is strong evidence of a tight link between rising temperatures that are consistent with global warming and a reduction in rice yield.
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Which of the following identifies a major component of the researchers findings?
A) Rice productivity showed no correlation with the temperature that it is grown in. B) Rice yields dropped by 10% for each one degree Centigrade rise in night temperature. C) Rice yields increased as the environmental temperature increased. D) Rice productivity increased when it was grown with a legume like soybeans. |
B) Rice yields dropped by 10% for each one degree Centigrade rise in night temperature.
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Besides sunlight and temperature, what other aspects must be considered when looking at rice yield?
A) water quality B) pests C) soil quality D) two of the above E) all of the above |
E) all of the above
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The conclusion drawn in this particular study was:
A) Rice is a hearty crop for meeting the needs of our growing human population. B) The temperature that rice is grown is has no apparent affect on rice yield. C) Rice should be used more extensively than soy, barley, or corn. D) Simulation models are needed that accurately reflect the differential effects of global warming on day versus nighttime temperatures. |
D) Simulation models are needed that accurately reflect the differential effects of global warming on day versus nighttime temperatures.
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The production of concrete accounts for roughly what percentage of global carbon dioxide emissions?
A) 1% B) 5% C) 10% D) 15% |
B) 5%
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The nanostructure of cement:
A) refers to the arrangement of its atoms B) was determined using atomic force microscopy C) results in its high density D) b and c E) all of the above |
E) all of the above
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Based upon their data, the scientists suggest:
A) using a different mineral in cement would reduce its high density B) using a different mineral in cement would reduce the amount of heat necessary to create cement C) using a different mineral in cement would reduce the emission of carbon dioxide in the cement making process D) b and c E) all of the above |
D) b and c
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