Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
256 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
clastogen
|
material that causes breaks in chromosomes via deletion, addition or rearrangement.
|
|
caspases
|
intracellular proteases that fuction as initiators and effectors of apoptosis. They cleave the aspartate-cysteine bonds in proteins.
|
|
oncosis
|
cell death characterised by mitochondrial swelling in ischemic cell death.
|
|
MMP
|
matrix metallo-proteinase (endopeptidase which is a prodeath protein released when TNF / FAS factors bind.
|
|
mitotic catastrophe
|
A type of cell death- abnormal activation of CYCLIN B/CDK1-
Occurs in meta/anaphase - cellular checkpoints ignored / damage = caspases activated. signs are multi and micro nucleation leading to aneuploidy and apoptosis. |
|
TNF
|
tumour necrosis factor - Induces inflammation, cell death and is activated by macrophages.
|
|
Death receptors are..?
|
FAS / TNF
|
|
DIABLO
|
direct IAP binding protein with low pl
Binds to and inhibits IAP (inhibitor apoptosis protein) |
|
IAP
|
inhibitor apoptosis protein -> inhibits caspase 3 = no apoptosis
|
|
pyknosis
|
chromatin condenses next to the nuclear membrane in apoptosis
(irreversible) |
|
karyorrhexis
|
destructive fragmentation of the nucleus, the nuclear membrane becomes permeable.
|
|
PARP
|
"poly - ADP - ribose polymerase" A nuclear protein involved in DNA repair, it can induce AIF (apoptosis inducing factor) to mitochondria to START APOPTOSIS
|
|
AIF
|
apoptosis inducing factor (stimulates mitochondria)
|
|
P53
|
A tumour suppressor protein
conserves the genome & prevents mutations. Activates DNA repair, induces growth arrest and starts apoptosis |
|
CAD
|
"caspase activated deoxyribonuclease"
hydrolyses dna to 180-200 bp fragments |
|
APO-1
|
apoptosis antigen 1 = FAS receptor = TNF receptor
synonyms of each other |
|
Specimen used in apoptosis?
|
"Caenorhabditis Elegans" a nemutoda, it has 1030 cells and 131 die during development via apoptosis
|
|
Specimen used in cytoplasmic streaming?
|
Elodea.
cyclosis due to actin microfilaments. |
|
Specimen to see flagella?
|
Euglena.
movement of microtubules |
|
Specimen to see cillary beating?
|
Paramecium
movment of microtubules |
|
cytochrome c
|
normal= part of the ETC inner membrane of M
apop= released from M, binds to APAF-1 and ATP to form the apoptosome |
|
APAF-1
|
"apoptotic protease activating factor" binds to ATP and cytochrome c to form the apoptosome
|
|
Apoptosome
|
cleaves procaspase 9 = caspase cascade! Initiates apoptosis
|
|
Annexin V
|
Is a PHOSPHOLIPID, used to stain phosphatidyl serine with FITC to see protein makers on the cell surface.
FITC = "fluorescein isothiocyanate" |
|
FITC
|
"flourescein isothiocyanate" flourochrome LABEL used to bind to annexin v
|
|
microflourimetry
|
Quantitative test to tag cell components with flourescent molecules.
|
|
microscopy
|
qualitative test of a specimen under magnification
|
|
flourescence
|
absorption of light by flourochrome, electrons promoted, return to ground state and longer wavelengths of light are emmited with heat.
The emmision energy is flourescence |
|
epi-illumination
|
light goes through the objective and illuminates the specimen
|
|
fluorescein
|
Direct fluorochrome with unchanged quantum yeild
|
|
Acridine orange
|
A METACHROMATIC direct flurochrome probe with unchanged quantum yield.
DNA = yellow RNA = orange |
|
Autoflourescence
|
natural emission of light-
chlorophyll, lipofuscin, Hb, myoglobin, phytochromes, flavins, tryptophan |
|
direct flourescence
|
flourochromes change QY after binding to cellular structures.
DAPI - DNA BLUE Hoechst stain |
|
DAPI
|
4'6'- diamidino-2-phenylindole
A direct flourescent stain. DNA = BLUE |
|
Flourescent label
|
covalently binds to specimen
Phalloidin, DAPI |
|
Flourescent probe
|
non-covalent binding to specimen
acridine orange |
|
Unchanged quantum yield direct flourescent stains
|
Acridine orange
Flourescein |
|
Changed quantum yield direct flourescent stains.
|
DAPI
HOECHST DiOC6 |
|
Phalloidin
|
labels F actin microfilaments, when conjugated with a flurophore
|
|
Flourescence advantages
|
High sensitivity, speed, safety,
good contrast, fixed specimen |
|
Indirect flourescence
|
Antibody sandwich, FISH labeled oligonucleotides
another molecule between cellular target and flourescent molecule |
|
FISH
|
flourescence insitu hybridization
|
|
Flourescence disadvantages
|
Photobleaching, expensive, resolution limit, toxic to cells
|
|
BRET
|
bioluminescence resonance energy transfer
LUCIFERASE railroad worm, squid, bacteria, fireflies (LUCIFERIN) |
|
GFP
|
Green flourescent protein
Aequorea victoria jelly fish. Transduces blue chemiluminescence to green flourescent light. |
|
cyropreservation compounds
|
polyethyleneglycol
glycerol dimethyl sulfoxide |
|
native stains
|
DO NOT KILL CELLS
acridine orange, neutral red, janus green |
|
Anti-apoptotic proteins
|
Bcl-2 (B-cell lymphoma 2)
activates or suppresses based on conc. on the mitochondrion membrane, regulates the release of cytochrome c. IAP / XIAP (x-linked) survivin (BIRC5 gene) |
|
Activation genes of A
|
BAX family
(Bcl-2 associated X protein) promotes apoptosis |
|
Intrinsic A pathway
|
Injury to the cell
1. Mitochondria -> cyto C -> APAF-1 activates caspase 3 2. Diablo/smac -> counteract IAP = +caspase 3 & cleavage of PARP 3. ER stress -> mitochondria stress etc... |
|
Extrinsic A pathway
|
FAS ligand binds to FASr
Fas associated death domain (or TNF) Procaspase 8 cleavage process ends with CASPASE 3 cleavage of PARP and A |
|
Effects of A on mitochondria
|
Cyto C released + AIF, -ATP, Ca2+ released,
Activation of endonucleases (caspases) production of O2 radicals, + permeability. |
|
Effects of A on plasma membrane
|
Externalisation of phosphatidylserine
stain with Annexin v + FITC |
|
Effects of A on cytoskeleton
|
microfilaments = actin forms blebs
intermediate filaments = cytokeratin fragmentation microtubules not affected |
|
Regulation of apoptosis?
|
cytokines - TNF, FAS, GF
|
|
necrosis characteristics:
|
groups of cells
swelling of M, cell, organelles inflammation! Random & diffuse DNA degeneration plasma membrane smoothing |
|
apoptosis characteristics:
|
single cells - shrinkage
blebbed plasma membrane - phosphatidyl serine clumped and fragmented chromatin (pyknosis) apoptotic bodies |
|
heat shock proteins
|
protein chaperons (ubiquitin) aid the correct folding of proteins in response to heat, cold, stress (oxidative or reductive).
examples = HSP90 cardiovascular and HSP70 immunity |
|
Effects of inc temp on cells
|
+ thermal movement, HSP produced, protein coagulation, cell death, membrane defects and
depolymerisation of the mitotic spindle |
|
Effects of dec temp on cells
|
- termal movement, HSP produced, metabolic processes retarted, ICICLES = freeze/ thaw. cell death
|
|
Activation of apoptosis (4)
|
DNA damage (PARP -> AIF)
mitochondrial malformation Caspases Death ligands (Fas / TNF) |
|
Activation of necrosis
|
cell membrane damage...
|
|
Damage to DNA synthesis possibly results in... (4)
|
point mutation, chromosomal breaks (addition, deletion, rearrangement), cross links, mitosis defects
|
|
Photobleaching effect
|
irreversible decomposition of fluorochromes due to interactions with molecular oxygen. Light induces the excited state required for the reaction.
|
|
human body cells that can autoflouresce?
|
myoglobin
retinal cells - rhodopsin haemoglobin |
|
Name 5 components of a flourescence microscope
|
Light source - UV/Blue/Green
Excitation filter (only excitated light) objective lens dichromatic mirror Emmision filter (only emitted light) |
|
Advantages of laser confocal M over flourescence M (4)
|
1- more sensitive
2- 3D reconstruction 3- no photobleaching 4- signal to noise ration is better |
|
Principle of Agar diffusion?
|
substance placed in the middle of an agar plate with cell culture spread evenly on it.
Cell death is proportional to the toxicity of the substance in a circle arrangement as the substance diffuses out and kills the cells |
|
Role of mitochondria in apoptosis?
|
Bcl-2 proteins on M membrane surface
+ permeability, cytochrome C released, APAF + ATP = apoptosome. |
|
define a gene
|
a specific length of dna that codes for a protein or rna
|
|
explain the term FRAP
|
"flourescent recover after photobleaching" - proves the fluid mosaic model of the bilipid membrane. Damaged proteins are replaced with fuctional ones via membrane diffusion.
|
|
Extrinisc pathway of apoptosis (basic)
|
Fas ligand -> FADD -> procaspase 8 -> caspase 3 etc...
FADD = Fas associated death domain (intracellular process) |
|
what is REACH?
|
registration, evaluation, authorisation and restriction of chemicals
aim is to improve protection of human health and environment. EU chemicals industry 2006 |
|
what is a terminator?
|
a dna sequence at the end of a gene operon used to terminate transcription.
Rhoe factor or intrinsic hairpin loop |
|
What kind of dna is in mitochondria?
|
circular, not associated with histones, maternal origin in humans.
mtDNA though to derive from bacteria which were englufed by eukaryotic cells. |
|
what is the osmolarity of human plasma?
|
290 mOsm/kg
mili-osmoles per kg |
|
three phases of cell culturing?
|
lag, log, plateau phase
|
|
three chemicals in cyropreservation
|
glycerol
polyethyleneglycol dimethyl sulfoxide |
|
what is a cell strain?
|
it is a subline or clone of the original cell line.
|
|
what is HeLa?
|
Henretta lacks cervical cancer, continuous cell line.
|
|
primary culture?
|
dissaggregation of cells and placed on a cultivation surface (Eagles MEM)
|
|
Enzymatic disaggregation of cells?
|
Trypsin, EDTA, collagenase
ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid |
|
secondary culture?
|
PC dispersed in cell suspension and reseeded into fresh vessels = passage
Cell line produced. |
|
Fate of cell lines?
|
normal= growth and death (lag, log, plateau)
Cell strain= selected by cloning, subline of original cell line produced Continuous cell line = transformation invitro |
|
What is a stem cell line?
|
A continous cell line (SC transform invitro) with stem cell properties to still differentiate.
|
|
Explain histiotypic culture...
|
Cells are reaggregated in suspension then infiltrated onto a 3D tissue like structure matrix.
|
|
Explain organotypic culture
|
reassociation of cells from DIFFERENT lineage. (many cells make up a tissue, many tissues make up an organ)
|
|
What is a hybridoma?
|
a hybrid cell resulting from the fusion of a lymphocyte and a tumor cell; used to culture a specific monoclonal antibody.
|
|
advantages of tissue culture?
|
precise control of physiologic conditions
better biological standardisation of experiements cyropreservation = years of work on the same cell line invitro culture = cheaper than animals no ethical and legal problems |
|
disadvantages of cell tissue cultures
|
cells dissociated from 3D geometry and ECM = loss of cell interactions
lack homeostatic mechanisms that you would find invivo. PCC are not stable due to overgrowth or dedifferentiation. |
|
five types of bio-modelling?
|
computer programs
3D models cell cultures laboratory animals human volunteers |
|
Explain FRAME
|
fund for the replacement of animals in medical experiments
|
|
what is a xenobiotic?
|
a chemical found in an organism which is not normally produced or expected to be present.
|
|
How did we induce cell death (necrosis) in paramecium?
|
eosin
|
|
cell culture environment includes what? (4)
|
substrate, culture medium, gas phase, temperature
|
|
what is hayflick's limit?
|
is the number of times a normal cell population will divide before it stops, presumably because the telomeres shorten to a critical length.
|
|
Two main constitutes of culitvation medium?
|
Eagles MEM (minimum essential medium)
Bovine/calf SERA (serumalbumin) 10%: contains a wide range of minor components which effect cell growth |
|
Explain conditions for the GAS PHASE of culture experiments
|
5% CO2 with Ph at 7.4, in equilibrium with sodium bicarbonate in the medium
Organ culutures require 95% O2 |
|
What signs of a cell culture show it needs a medium change?
|
A Ph drop below 6.5
Morphological deterioration - nucleus granulates, vacuolisation of the cytoplasm, rounding up of cells. |
|
what is the 3R concept?
|
Refinement, reduction and replacement
of laboratory animals with other toxicological testing methods. = invitro mammalian cells. |
|
Name three "targets" of measurement to asses proliferation in a cytotoxicity test.
|
Cell protein count (coomasie blue test)
DNA count ATP / ADP ratio (best one) - ratio is constant in proliferating / live cells |
|
Give an example of a metabolic activity - cytotoxic test
|
Viable cells reduce TETRAZOLIUM salts (MTS/MTT) to coloured FORMAZEN compounds.
Focus is on bio functions inside intact cells. |
|
Give an example of four cytotoxicity methods.
|
Viability - Trypan blue
Proliferation - ATP/ADP ratio Metabolic assay - tetrazolium -> formazen DNA chips / microassays- gene expression level determined |
|
How do DNA chips / microassays work?
|
DNA sequences are applied to a slide / nitrocellulose membrane.
DNA's are used to probe target sequences. the effects of a toxicant increases or decreases the level of gene expression. |
|
what were we testing when we used Iodonal B? What is its active ingredient?
|
cell viability and the compound was iodophor
|
|
Which three things are most desirable in microscopy?
|
Magnification - magnified image of the specimen
Resolution - separate the details Contrast - to make the details visible |
|
Focus length and resolution of human eye?
|
10cm and 0.1mm
|
|
Microscope magnification & resolution?
|
1000x and 0.2um (micrometers)
|
|
Why cant you increase the magnification of a LM beyond 1000x?
|
The resolution would not improve rendering the image blurry
|
|
Why is oil immersion sometimes used.
|
It creates a continuous film between the coverslip and the lens so light rays do not refract away.
|
|
What kind of microscope do we use?
|
NIKON SE COMPOUND LIGHT MICROSCOPE
|
|
what is the numerical aperture at 10x?
|
10X = 0.25 NA
|
|
what is the numerical aperture at 40x?
|
0.65 NA
|
|
what is the numerical aperture at 100x?
|
1.30 NA
|
|
Describe bright field microscopy
|
Sample illumination is transmitted, via objective to be viewed from above
several objective lenses limited resolution dark image on clear background |
|
What does "parafocal principle" mean?
|
When an object is in focus with the course adjustment knob it will still be in focus at all other magnifications.
corresponding focal points in the same plane |
|
what does "paracentral principle" mean?
|
the object must be in the center of the field of view before increasing the magnification, or it will be left out.
|
|
what is the "field of view"?
|
the circle of light you see when you look into the microscope. Inc Mag = smaller FOV
|
|
What is the condenser and how does it affect resolution and contrast?
|
condenser ensures that all parts of the specimen are evenly lit via the iris diaphragm.
inc light = + resolution / poor contrast dec light = + contrast / poor resolution |
|
what are the "vernier scales"?
|
the vertical and horizontal readings on the mechanical stage of the M.
used to find the same spot on a slide. |
|
If at 1000x, 10 cells fit in the FOV what size are they?
|
18um
|
|
If 30 cells fit in your FOV at 400x what is the cell diamter?
|
15um
|
|
FOV diameter at 100x?
|
1.8mm
|
|
FOV diameter at 1000x?
|
180um
|
|
FOV diameter at 40x?
|
450um
|
|
size estimation is what?
|
field of view (mm or mm)
divided by estimated no of cells in transect of FOV. |
|
Explain what "phase contrast" means
|
The PC-M exploits interference effects that take place when two types of light recombine.
|
|
What is numerica aperture?
|
it is a dimensionless number characterising the number of angles of which a system can accept or emit light. inc mag = + NA
|
|
what is Dark Field microscopy?
Differential / Normaski M uses the same principle |
DF-M is a technique used to increase the contrast of unstained transparent specimens.
|
|
Phase contrast other details
|
the phase annulus (clear) must match the phase plate (darker)
phase differences of light passing through an object are converted to the changes in intensity (amplitude) |
|
How is the best phase contrast achieved?
|
one has to shift the phase of light by 1/4 lambda in the +/- sense.
high refractive index = darker |
|
What kind of light is used in phase contrast microscopy
|
monochromatic yellow-green light which is most sensitive to our eyes.
|
|
what is a telomere?
|
it is a length of repetitive DNA at the 3' end of the chromosome with a TTAGGG sequence.
It protects coding genes from shortening which occurs during mitosis |
|
what is CAAT?
|
the "center for alternatives to animal experimentation"
|
|
what is overtons rule?
|
Increases lipid solubility of a molecule increases its diffusion rate across a plasma membrane.
|
|
when does haemolysis occur?
|
when red blood cells are placed in a hypotonic solution.
cell swelling and burst. |
|
what makes the fluid mosaic model unique?
singer & nicolson 1972 |
the dynamic interspersed relationship between the phospholipid bilayer and membrane proteins (integral and peripheral)
|
|
which part of the plasma membrane confers antigenic specificity to the cell
|
carbohydrate chains from integral glycoproteins.
|
|
what is the thickness / are the basic functions of the plasmamembrane?
|
7.5nm (nanometers).
surrounds protoplasm and regulates which substances enter and exit the cell. |
|
define osmosis
|
the diffusion of water across a membrane in response to a concentration gradient
|
|
what will be the result if a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution?
|
plasmolysis - water leaves the cell by osmosis, plasma membrane shrinks away from the cell wall.
|
|
define hypertonic solution
|
The concentration of solute in an external solution is greater than that of inside a cell.
|
|
define a hypotonic solution
|
The concentraion of solute in an external solution is lower than that of inside a cell.
|
|
Four characteristics of continuous cell lines.
|
- loss of contact inhibition
- "imortal" - transformed invitro / tumour derived - dedifferentiation. |
|
Four characteristics of primary cell lines.
|
- diploid karyotype
- terminal differentiation - contact inhibition of growth & proliferation - senesence and death |
|
Structure and function of aquaporins
|
six transmembrane alpha helices in circular fomation create a selective water pore which regulates water inflow to a cell.
|
|
what happens if you place a red blood cell in a hypertonic solution?
|
crenation / plasmolysis as water moves out of the cell by osmosis.
|
|
give six examples of INTRACELLULAR movement
|
-cytoplasmic streaming (cyclosis due to actin microfilaments)
-vesicle trafficing between vesicles and cell surface - cell division for cytokinesis - movement of chromosomes in mitosis - pigment movement for colouration - discharge of vesicle content |
|
Genetic microtubule defects (3)
|
anosmia (loss of olfaction
hyrdocephalus kartagner syndome (primary cillary dyskinesis) |
|
aquired microtubule defects (3)
|
-hydrocephalus (lack of vit D)
- cillary beat arrest (toxins, bacteria) - cancer |
|
MOA of Taxol
|
prevents dissasembly of microtubules
= mitotic arrest |
|
MOA of nocodazole
|
depolymerises the mitotic spindle
|
|
MOA of colchicine
|
inhibits microtubule polymerisation
|
|
MOA of vinblastine, vincristine
|
binds to tubulin preventing dynamic instability at both ends
|
|
New sea sponge derived microtubule inhibitors
|
Eribulin - prevents dynamic instability
Discodermolide - prevents depolymerization in the G2/M phase |
|
what is kinesin?
|
motorprotein which caries vesicles towards the + end of the microtubule.
|
|
what is dynein?
|
motorprotein which caries vesicles towards the - end of the microtubule
|
|
what is a topoisomerase?
|
an isomerase enzyme that acts on the unwinding or overwinding of DNA in 3D space.
|
|
what are topoisomerase inhibitors?
|
drugs which prevent unwinding of DNA during replication = damaged replication (quinolones)
|
|
what does permeability of a molecule depend on throug a PM?
|
size, charge, concentration, solubility
|
|
name 5 online information sources
|
EBESCO
pubmed nature.com science direct medscape |
|
during A mitochondira release
|
Diablo / smac
AIF cytochrome C endopeptidase G |
|
what is the photochemical effect?
|
When light hits phototoxic compounds inside the cell
eosin / porphyrin |
|
what is porphyria?
|
it is a rare genetic disease characterised by dysfunction of heme metabolism and deposition of porphyrins in teeth, skin and bones.
|
|
Two ways of DNA isolation?
|
phenol based
phenol free |
|
what is PDT?
|
PHOTODYNAMIC THERAPY
- a photosensitizer is exposed to a group of cells. - when light is shone on the area, the cells react with molecular oxygen and initiate apoptosis/ necrosis. cancer: light wavelengths and PS are specific to each other! |
|
basically describe the phenol based extraction of DNA
|
transfer of nucleic acid into a water phase of a solution. Removal of acid associated proteins and lipids in phase separation.
|
|
How would you dissociate DNA/RNA in a cell?
|
Degredation via mechanical force- chemicals- then enzymes:
Proteinase K or PRONASE or detergent solutions. |
|
What are the best conditions for enzyme digestion of cells to extract DNA?
|
37*C with proteinase k or pronase
left over night. |
|
what does SDS stand for?
|
sodium dodecyl sulfate - emulsifies lipids and enables the dissociation of DNA and proteins (the histone complex)
|
|
What does EDTA stand for and what does it do?
|
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
deactivates metal dependant enzymes and DNA associated ions by chelating the metal ions. |
|
what is the ideal PH for DNA extraction?
|
pH 8
|
|
which buffer is used to keep the pH (8) stable during extraction.
|
TRIS - buffer capacity of 6.5 -> 9.7
trishydroxymethylaminomethane |
|
What is PCR?
|
polymerase chain reaction, used to exponentially amplify DNA with the use of primers and polymerase enzymes. (in vitro method)
|
|
what is a DNA dipstick?
|
a kit used for measuing nucleic acid concentration and yield
|
|
what is NONIDET solution?
|
it is a solution used in DNA extraction to breakdown membranosus structures
|
|
what is IF?
|
impact factor -
it is a measure of citations to science journals, a proxy for the importance of a journal to its field. |
|
Give an example of:
positive taxis Negative taxis |
plants growing towards light
protective reflex (hand withdrawl) |
|
define kinesis
|
Reflex - LIKE - activity.
stimulus = change in speed/direction away from noxious stimulus. |
|
when a cell exhibits ameboid movement name the four changes of actin-PM interactions.
|
stress fibers, ruffling membrane, lamellipodia, filopodia
|
|
Describe the motility seen in Euglena
|
positive phototaxis as a result of photoreceptors at the base of the flagellum (microtubule movement)
|
|
What is depth of field in microscopy?
|
The area infront and behind of the specimen that will be in the acceptable area
|
|
Define the mechanism and occurance of bioluminescence
|
A biochemical oxidative process that results in the release of energy as emitted light.
Luciferin + molecular oxygen catylased by luciferase. |
|
In the DNA isolation practical which two solutions were used?
|
EDTA
Sodium dodecyl sulphate |
|
Which of the following represent molecular motor proteins?
|
A. Gelsolin
B. Myosin + C. Kinesin + D. Actin E. Dynamin + |
|
What is gelsolin?
|
Gelsolin is an actin-binding protein that is a key regulator of actin filament assembly and disassembly.
|
|
What is wiskott-aldrich syndrome?
|
An X-linked recessive genetic disease characterised by thrombocytopenia (lack of platelets)
|
|
What is a chaperone protein?
|
Chaperone proteins aid in the non-convalent folding or unfolding of other macromolecules
|
|
What is YFP?
|
yellow flourescent protein
|
|
Cyclosis is an example of movement of...
Which is based on... we observed the phenomenon in.... |
cyctoplasmic streaming
actin microfilaments Elodea |
|
Monoclonal antibodies are formed from?
|
hybridomas
|
|
Hybridomas arise from?
|
B lymphocytes fused with tumour cells
|
|
Applications of monoclonal antibodies?
|
immunohistochemistry diagnostic tests
cancer treatment, for specific cancer antigens |
|
Transfusion of pt occured with DISTILLED WATER (in a rush) what is the main consequence?
|
RBC's are hypertonic relative to pure water and will burst undergoing haemolysis
serious possibly fatal |
|
FRAP means and is used for?
|
flourescence recovery after photobleaching. It is used to study the fluid mosaic model of plasma membranes with integral and peripheral membrane proteins
|
|
GIve three examples of human cells which use locomotion
|
macrophages - ameboid movement
neurons - growth cones mesenchymal cells - cell crawling (mesenchymal movement) with MT help (4 things there) |
|
The most famous model organism for apoptotic studies is..
|
C. Elegans 1030 cells and 131 undergo apoptosis.
|
|
what are stress fibers?
|
high order structures in the cell containing actin fillaments, myosin motor proteins and crosslinking proteins. Support the cell and have a role in movement
|
|
What is PEG
|
polyethylene glycol
A polyether used in cyropreservation |
|
Define totipotency
|
Cells which are totipotent can differentiate into any cell of the body including the extraembryonic tissues. The zygote is the only source of totipotent cells.
all plant cells are totipotent |
|
FAS
|
is a transmembrane protein related to the Tumour Necrosis Factor family. (it is a receptor) Binding results in the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis.
|
|
In agar diffusion testing of cell viability what is the dye used called?
|
Neutral Red
|
|
MOA of vinblastine
|
prevents depolymerisation of the microtubules
|
|
What does stoke shift mean?
|
It is the difference in wavelength between excitation wl and emission wl.
Emission is always longer than the excitation (energy lost...) |
|
Rough emission spectra wavelenths for colours
blue green red |
B: 420-500
G: 510-560 R: 590- 650 |
|
promidium iodide stains what?
|
intercalates with DNA - red
|
|
ethidium bromide stains what?
|
intercalates with DNA - orange
|
|
Clinical dissorders associated with aquaporins?
|
diabetes insipidus, cataracts of the cornea, cirrhosis (liver inc AQ)
|
|
what is a bibliographic record?
|
A record of an article or book in a database, it includes info about authors, sources and an abstract
|
|
What is botulinum toxin?
|
It is a microtubular poison preventing the transmission of signals at the neuromuscular junction. Produced by a bacterium
|
|
what is crenation?
|
osmotic responce to RBC's being placed in a hypertonic solution - cell shrinkage
|
|
As magnification increases....
|
Numerical aperture increases
Field of view decreases Depth of field decreases |
|
Give an example of a light source for flourescence microscopy...
|
xenon arc lamp
|
|
how does a dichromatic mirror work?
|
It reflects wavelenghts shorther than a specific wavelenght and passes light longer than a specific wavelength
|
|
where does the word caspase come from?
|
Caspase cleaves cysteine/aspartate amide bonds = C-ASPA -ase = enzyme..
|
|
what is ex vivo?
|
Tissue taken from invivo, processed in a lab and then pub back invivo
|
|
name THREE cultivation mediums
|
fibroblast growth medium
melanocyte medium CADMEX growth medium EAGLES MEM growth medium |
|
Name five essentials for cell culturing!
|
incubator, laminar hood flow, fridge & freezer, autoclave (sterilizer), inverted microscope, water purification unit, liquid handelling devices.
|
|
what is the purpose of an inverted microscope?
|
to see cell cultures at the bottom of conical flasks, light source and condenser above the sample with the objective below the sample to the lenses.
|
|
why do RBC's undergo haemolysis whilst in an isotonic solution?
|
because the solution is isotonic to a certain ION, all other ions are thus in an "unbalenced" state in relation to RBC's
Hence we use ISOIONIC solution (ringers) which is specific for RBC's |
|
Where do we use Monoclonal Antibodies in medicine?
|
1 - IHC for cell staining or radiotherapy
2- Tumour marker diagnostics 3- Differential diagnostics of viral, bacterial, parasitic infections. |
|
what is PCR?
|
polymerase chain reaction
it is a method to exponentially amplify DNA invitro using DNA polymerases and primers (variable temp) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension & repeat.... |
|
what is flow cyctometry?
|
A technique used to count & examine microscopic particles in cells / chromosomes > suspended in fluid stream and detected by electronic device by light penetration.
|
|
what is filliopodia?
|
cytoplasmic projections of plasmamembrane in a migrating cell containing bundles of microfilaments.
|
|
what is an enhancer?
|
it is a region of DNA that can bind proteins to enchance trascription of genes
|
|
Agar diffusion principle is a test of what? How does it work?
|
cytotoxicity test on cell viability:
effect of substance on bacteria growth culture. |
|
define passage
|
primary culture dissaggregated and reseeded into a fresh vessel
|
|
confocal lens characteristics:
|
laser / photomultiplier / pinhole filter
|
|
Epiflourescent lens characteristics:
|
xenon arc lamp / ocular detection / diaphragmatic filter.
|
|
phosphorescence
|
emission of light persists after the excitation by light
|
|
epi-flourescence
|
light ot the objective illuminates the specimen and emission light is reabsorbed by the objective to the lenses
|
|
dichromatic mirror
|
efficiently reflects shorter wavelengths of light and efficiently passes longer wavelengths of light (emission)
|
|
stokes law
|
difference in wavelength between excitation and emission spectra
|
|
what is quenching?
|
FRET - flourescence resonance energy transfer - the excited flurophore excites the other molecules around it = other cellular interactions
|
|
light sources for flourescence microscopy>
|
xenon arc lamp
mercury arc lamp argon ion laser |
|
what is CBS
|
chromatic beam splitter (dichomatic mirror)
|
|
light budget is what?
|
3.6x 10^4 photons are emitted before destruction of the flurophore (with molecular oxygen)
|
|
what is CCD?
|
charge coupled device- used to enchance quantum efficiency for detecting emission
|
|
what is TRIF?
|
total internal reflection flourescence - it decreases detector noise and enhances the optical background
|
|
give three examples of physiologically occuring apoptosis
|
1- development of the embryo- formation of all tubular structures
2- homeostasis: postitive and negative selection of B + T lymphocytes inthe thymus 3- deletion of damaged and dangerous cells (DNA damaged) |
|
what is porphyria?
|
it is a hetergeneous group of inherited disorders of haem biosynthesis
|
|
what are the three most common presenting symptoms of porphyria?
|
cutaneous lesions, neuropsychiatric disorder, acute abdominal pain.
|
|
How would you diagnose porphyria?>
|
urine test for increased
1- aminolaevulinic acid 2- porphobilinogen |
|
What is the treatment for porphyria?
|
Avoid risk factors - sunlight/ alcohol/ illicit drugs
haem arginate and glucose (attack) chloroquinine (inc porphyrin excretion in urine) |
|
What is the volume of water in a 70kg human body?
|
42L
65% intracellular 35% ECM |
|
What does AQP mean?
|
aquaporin protein
|
|
what is GLP?
|
aquaglyceroporin
|
|
what is NDI?
|
nephrogenic diabetes insipidis
|
|
what does one osmole mean?
|
The ammount of substance which dissociates in solution to form one mole of osmotically active particles
|
|
when do you find and decrease in AQP2?
|
1 - diabetes inspidius
2 - renal failure 3 - water loading |
|
when do you find an increase in AQP2?
|
1 - thirst
2 - pregnancy 3 - cirrhosis of the liver |
|
Which type of aquaporin is present in the kidney collecting duct?
|
AQP2 regulated by ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
|
|
in what phase of the cell cycle do microtubule inhibitors most likely arrest the process?
|
G2/M phase
|
|
what is NLP?
|
natural language processing -
it converts information from computers into human language (speech / syntax) |
|
what is text mining?
|
Automatic extraction of information about genes, proteins
bioNLP = natural language processing about biological data |
|
what is PMID?
|
the unique identification number of a pubmed citation.
|