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226 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The residue bound together by a peptide linkage constitutes what organic chemical functional group?

Amide

Signal sequence encoded within a protein's linear amino acid sequence serves what function?

To mark proteins for transport to other sites within cells following translation

The spatial and stoichiometric arrangement of hemoglobin's tetrameric subunits constitutes what level of its protein structure?

Quaternary structure

Function of the cerebrum (or cortex)?

Largest part of the human brain


Associated with higher brain function (ex. thought and action)


Divided into four sections (lobes)


1. Frontal lobe


2. Parietal lobe


3. Occipital lobe


4. Temporal lobe

Function/location of frontal lobe?

Location: Frontal and upper area of the cortex




Function: Carries out higher mental processes such as thinking, decision making, and planning

Function/location of Parietal Lobe?

Location: Upper, back part of the cortex




Function: Processes sensory information that had to do with taste, temperature, and touch

Function/location of Occipital Lobe?

Location: Bottom, back part of the cortex




Function: Responsible for processing visual information from the eyes

Function/location of Temporal Lobe?

Location: Bottom middle part of cortex, right behind the temples




Function: Responsible for processing auditory information from the ears (hearing)

Function/location of Cerebellum?

Location: Lower area of the brain, below the pons




Function: Responsible for balance and coordination of muscles and the body

Function of the Brain Stem?

Responsible for basic vital life functions such as breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure.

Function of Midbrain?

Function: Body temperature regulation, motor control, and sleep cycles.

Function/location of Pons?

Location: Area of the hindbrain that sits directly above the medulla




Function: Connects upper and lower parts of the brain

Function/location of Medulla?

Location: Lower part of the brain stem




Function: Carries out and regulates life sustaining functions such as breathing, swallowing and heart rate

Function/location of Hypothalamus?

Location: Above the pituitary gland and below the thalamus




Function: Responsible for behaviors such as hunger and thirst, as well as the maintenance of body temperature

Function/location of Amygdala?

Location: Part of Limbic System, at the end of the hippocampus




Function: Responsible for the response and memory of emotions, especially fear

Function/location of Hippocampus?

Location: Part of the Limbic system, in each temporal lobe




Function: Responsible for processing of long term memory and emotional responses

Function/location of Thalamus?

Location: Part of the forebrain, below the corpus callosum




Function: Responsible for relaying information from the sensory receptors to proper areas of the brain where it can be processed

Corpus Callosum

Location: Above the Thalamus, under the cortex




Function: Connects the right and left hemispheres of the brain

All amino acids contain what functional group?

Carboxylic functional group

Which hormone does the cortex of the adrenal glen produce?

Aldosterone

Reabsorption of water at the collecting duct of the nephron is the function of which of the following hormones?

Vasopressin

Where in eukaryotic cells is DNA transcribed?

Nucleus

Where is translation completed for proteins that are to be transported outside the cell?

Rough ER

Where in eukaryotic cells is rRNA formed?

Nucleolus

Microfilaments are made up of?

Actin

What organizes the mitotic spindle during mitosis?

Centrioles

What is a characteristic of facultative anaerobes?

Able to survive in the presence and absence of oxygen

How many chromatids are present after the S phase of mitosis?

92

How many chromosomes are present after the S phase of mitosis?

46

How many chromosomes are present in each spermatozoan after Meiosis II?

23

Before birth, in what phase of meiosis are primary oocytes arrested?

Prophase I

Where is sperm stored and matured before ejaculation?

Epididymis

What secreted testosterone?

Leydig cells

What is the final, fully mature product of meiosis in male mammals?

Spermatozoa

How many polar bodies are made from the complete maturation of 1 oogonium?

2

Where does fertilization usually occur?

Fallopian tube

Totipotent cells differentiate into?

Any type of cells

Umbilical arteries do what?

Carry blood from the fetus's heart to the placenta

During development, when is the embryo considered to become a fetus?

At the end of the first trimester

To maintain the resting potential of a neuron, what is true?

ATP is metabolized

After a signal is received by the dendrites of the post-synaptic neuron, the signal travels immediately through which segment of the neuron?

Soma

Axons of neurons in the CNS are myelinated with what type of cell?

Oligodendrocytes

Sustaining a neuron's resting potential primarily relies on what?

Active transport

What is true immediately following a signal that reaches threshold and causes an action potential?

Sodium gated channels open

The situation in which greater than normal stimulation is required to activate an action potential is called?

Relative refractory period

What is the difference between white and grey matter?

Grey matter has unmyelinated axons

How many hormones does the anterior pituitary gland synthesize?

7

Glucagon is produced by what cells?

Alpha cells

Which layer of tissue prevents food from entering the trachea?

Epiglottis

What normally occurs after the diaphragm contracts?

Inspiration

The diaphragm is considered which of the following types of muscle?

Skeletal muscle

How does alkalosis affect the rate of respiration?

It decrease to increase the buildup of carbon dioxide

What is the pH considered to be when the individual has acidosis?

Abnormally low

Which valve separates the atria of the heart from the ventricles?

Atrioventricular valves

The tricuspid valve separates?

Right atrium and right ventricle

Tie bicuspid valves separates?

left atrium and left ventricle

What valve separates the left ventricle from the aorta?

Aortic valve

What valve separates the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery?

Pulmonary valve

How are ventricular muscle cells connected?

Intercalated discs

What is the Vagus nerve?

The vagus nerve is either one of two cranial nerves which are extremely long, extending from the brain stem all the way to the viscera. It acts to slow down the heart rate. The vagus nerves carry a wide assortment of signals to and from the brain, and they are responsible for a number of instinctive responses in the body.

How many portal systems exist in the human body?

3

Erythrocytes do not have what organelles?

Nucleus


Mitochondria


Lysosomes

Red blood cells obtain their ATP from which processes?

Glycolysis

What is hematocrit?

The percentage of red blood cells in a sample of blood

White blood cell with granulocytes?

Neutrophils


Eosinophils


Basophils

Which two cell classes are agranulocytes?

Lymphocytes


Monocytes

Lymphocytes that mature in the thymus are called?

T cells

Which cell is responsible for the production of antibodies?

B cells

Platelets are known as?

Thrombocytes

From what organ is erythropoietin released and what is this hormone's primary function?

Kidney, stimulation of red blood cell development

What organs secretes thrombopoietin and what is this hormone's primary function?

Liver & kidney, stimulation of platelet development

Where in the body do we find the highest partial pressure of oxygen in the blood?

Lungs

Which inhibitor can be overcome by increasing the concentration of substrate?

Competitive inhibitor

A cell is placed in a hypertonic environment. What can be said about the osmotic pressure?

The environment has a higher osmotic pressure

Innate immunity is also called?

Nonspecific immunity

As part of adaptive immunity, b-cells can turn into which one of the following cell types?

Plasma cells

Which cells is part of cell mediated immunity?

T-cells

Which drives humoral immunity?

Antibodies

Cells infected with viruses produce what to protect against viral infection?

Interferons

Types of T-cells?

Helper T-cells


Memory T-cells


Suppressor T-cells

Where are lacteals located?

Small intestine

Chief cells in stomach secrete?

Pepsinogen

Protein digestion is started in the?

Stomach

What is the storage from of glucose?

Glycogen

How can fat-soluble compounds be transported through the body?

Insoluble chylomicrons act as carriers

Where is ammonia converted to urea?

Liver

In which part of the nephron is glucose primarily reabsorbed?

Proximal convoluted tubule

The defending loop of Henle is only permeable to?

Water

What is the direct function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

To store and release calcium ions

What role does calcium play in muscle contraction?

Works to expose myosin-binding sites of actin

Many different species arising from a common ancestor can be explained by?

Adaptive radiation

Amphoteric species can?

Accept and donate a proton

Peptide bond formation can be further classified as a?

Dehydration reaction

Disulfide bonds do not form an essential part of a protein's?

Primary structure

The class of enzymes that cleaves a functional group from one molecule and incorporates it into another is called?

Transferases

How is an endergonic reaction described?

Energy is required

If deltaG>0, how is the reaction described?

Non-Spontaneous

How can Vmax be increased if an enzyme is saturated in a given reaction?

Increase the concentration of an enzyme

Where do noncompetitive inhibitors bind?

Allosteric site of enzyme

An inhibitor that essentially locks the substrate into the active site of the enzyme is?

An uncompetitive inhibitor

The linear sequence of small proteins is best analyzed using?

Edman degration

Mannose can be classified as?

Aldohexose

How is galactose related to glucose?

Galactose is the C-4 epimer of glucose

Describe diastomers?

They have different densities


Molecules are not mirror images of each other. Ex: cis and trans isomers are Diastereomers.

A reducing sugar can be described as?

Sugars with a hemiacetal

Where is cholesterol normally found?

Ribosomes

How do nucleosides differ from nucleotides?

Nucleosides lack a phosphate greoup

Explain Chargaff's rule

The total number of purines must equal to the total number of of pyrimidines in DNA

Histones are?

Positively charged

A repeating unit of nucleotides at the end of DNA is called?

Telomere

The small amount of chromatin that remains condensed and is late in replication is called?

Heterochromatin

Because more than one codon can code for a single amino acid, the genetic code is described as?

Degenerate

A mutation the results in a premature stop codon is known as?

Nonsense mutation

Post-transcpiptional processing in eukaryotes splices out non-coding sequences known as?

Introns

How does mRNA, post processing, exist from the nucleus?

Through nuclear pores

Phosphorylation can?

Both activate and deactivate proteins

Prenylation of a protein can be defined by?

Addition of lipid groups

How can a operon be described?

A number of genes that are transcribed into one mRNA strand

Why does acetylation of histones occur?

To allow for DNA transcription

Proteins that pass completely through the phospholipid bilayer of a cell can be classified as?

Transmembrane proteins

Osmotic pressure is a colligative property, meaning?

Only the concentration of dissolved solute particles must be known to deduce a solution's osmotic pressure

The phenomena in which the energy released as one substrate goes down its concentration gradient is used to drive another substrate up its concentration gradient is named?

Secondary active transport

Glycolysis of one molecule of glucose yields?

2 ATP


2 NADH


2 pyruvate molecules

NADH and FADH2 act as reducing agents needed for the proper function of?

The electron transport chain

The formation of ketone bodies is a result of?

Lipid catabolism

The complete combustion of fat gives?

9 kcal/g

When the stomach is empty what is secreted by the stomach?

Ghrelin




One of the main hormones to stimulate hunger


A hormone produced by specialized cells that line the stomach and the pancreas.

What is a carbohydrate made of?

A molecule composed primarily of carbon and hydrogen

Is sucrose a carbohydrate?

Yes

What are the components go lactose?

One galactose and one glucose

What are the components of sucrose?

One fructose and one glucose

Is maltose a monosaccharide or a disaccharide?

Disaccharide

Is xylose a monosaccharide or a disaccharide?

Monosaccharide

What element is found in some carbohydrates?

Oxygen

What is most commonly referred to as a sugar?

Disaccharide

What is the mail purpose of carbohydrates in the body?

Energy storage

Which classification does glucose fall under: aldohexose, ketohexose, aldopentose, ketopentose?

Aldohexose

Which classification does fructose fall under: aldohexose, ketohexose, aldopentose, ketopentose?

Ketohexose

The structure of glucose is?

Glucose is a D sugar because its OH group furthest from the carbonyl group goes to the right in the Fischer projection

Where dos transcription occurs?

Nucleus

Which classification does glucose fall under: pyranose, furanose, pyrulose, ketoacetal?

Pyranose

Which classification does ribose fall under: pyranose, furanose, pyrulose, ketoacetal?

Furanose

What is the systemic name for lactose?

B-D-galactopyranosyl-(1,4)-D-glucopyranose

What is a fatty acid?

A carbohydrate with a long amphipathic tail

Where are triglycerides primarily digested?

Duodenum

What picks up fats from the small intestine?

Lacteals

Where are lipids found in the cell?

The cell membrane

What is the name of a spherical drop formed by a bilayer of lipids?

Liposome

In what phase of protein structure would disulfide bonds NOT be involved?

Primary structure

What is quaternary structure?

The interaction of two polypeptides

What is the bond that joins two amino acids?

Peptide bonds

What is eliminated in the formation of a bond between two amino acids?

H2O

Trinucleotide codon directly code for how many alpha amino acids?

20

What are the components of nucleic acids?

Ribose and Nitrogenous base

What are the components of a nucleotide?

A phosphate


A sugar


A nitrogenous base

What two components are linked together between adjacent nucleotides in DNA?

A sugar and a phosphate group

Which are purines?

Guanine and Adenine

Which are Pyrimidines?

Cytosine


Thymine


Uracil

What are the products of glycolysis?

Pyruvate


ATP


NADH

Where does glycolysis occur?

Cytoplasm

Where does pyruvate become first in the process of aerobic respiration?

Acetyl CoA

What are the products of the Krebs cycle?

ATP


Acetyl CoA

Where does the Krebs cycle occur?

Mitochondrial membrane

Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?

Inner mitochondrial membrane

Which enzyme is responsible for the creation of ATP during oxidative phosphorylation?

ATP synthase

During anaerobic respiration, where does the ATP come from?

Glycolysis

What molecule yields the most ATP per molecule when oxidized in the electron transport chain?

NADH

Where does NADH drop its electrons in the electron transport chain?

Complex I

Where does FADH2 drop its electrons in the electron transport chain?

complex II

How many NADH and FADH2 are produced in the Krebs cycle per glucose molecule?

6 NADH


2 FADH2



What is the last thing to be reduced in oxidative phosphorylation?

O2

What is the last thing to be oxidized in oxidative phosphorylation?

ADP

In which direction is the lagging strand of DNA replicated?

5' to 3'

What are characteristics of RNA folding?

Hairpin loop


Interior loop


Bulge

What is the function of helicase?

Separating strands of DNA

What is the function of ligase?

Joining Okazaki fragments

What is the function of DNA polymerase?

Adding complementary bases

What is the function of primase?

Initiating replication

What is the function of telomerase?

Attaching to the end of chromosomes to aid in replication there

What is the function of topoisomerase?

Ensuring that DNA does not wind too tight

Where does DNA replication occur?

Nucleus

Which enzyme is the primary DNA proofreader?

DNA polymerase

Would reduction of a nitrogenous base be considered a type of DNA damage?

No

What type of RNA aids in the processing of pre-mRNA in the nucleus?

snRNA

Which enzyme transcribes tRNA from DNA?

RNA Polymerase III

Which enzyme transcribes mRNA from DNA?

RNA Polymerase II

Which enzyme transcribes rRNA from DNA?

RNA Polymerase I

What is translation?

Reading mRNA strands to produce a peptide

How many subunits does a ribosome have?

2

In which direction is the leading strand of DNA replicated?

5' to 3'

In which direction is DNA read by RNA polymerase?

3' to 5'

In which direction is RNA synthesized from DNA by RNA polymerase?

5' to 3'

In which direction are peptides synthesized by ribosomes?

N terminus to C terminus

What are types of mutations?

Insertion


Point deletion


Substitution

What is a missense mutation?

A mutation that results in a substitution of one amino acid for another

What are some stop codons?

UAG


UGA


UAA

What is a bacteriophage?

A virus that infects bacterial cells

What is true of lytic infection?

The virus hijacks host machinery for reproduction




Virons are made within the cell




The cell eventually lyses

Prokaryotes do not have?

Mitochondria

A cell into which water flows can be said to be?

Hypertonic to its surroundings

Hypotonic Solution

Solution - Less solutes, more water




Cell - More solutes, less water




Water travels passively down the concentration gradient through the cell membrane into the cell. This influx of water causes the cell to swell and maybe lyse.

Hypertonic Solution

Solution - More solutes, less water




Cell - Less solutes, more water




Water travels passively down the concentration gradient through the cell membrane out of the cell. This influx of water causes the cell to shrivel.

Isotonic Solution

Solution - "Equal" solutes, "equal" water




Cell - "Equal" solutes, "equal" water




The "net" concentration of solutes and water remains equal, so there is no net change in cell membrane shape. However, there is technically still the travel of water into and out of the membrane--there is just no net result.

What can be said about the membrane of gram-positive bacteria?

It has two exterior membranes

The cell wall of fungi are called?

Septa

Chitin is a?

Polysaccharide

Fungi are mostly found in which developmental stage?

Haploid

What is an autotroph?

Any organism capable of self-nourishment by using inorganic materials as a source of nutrients and using photosynthesis or chemosynthesis as a source of energy, as most plants and certain bacteria and protists.

Which of the following houses DNA in prokaryotes?

Nucleoid

What is the role of most antibiotics?

Destroy bacteria

When a virus binds to a host cell and before its nucleic acid is injected, what must occur?

Viral enzymes must break down a part of the host plasma membrane

A temperate virus is one that?

Can undergo the lysogenic cycle

Is a archaea considered a prokaryote?

Yes

Chemotroph

Any organism that oxidizes inorganic or organic compounds as its principal energy source.

Phototroph

Any organism that uses light as its principal source of energy.

Heterotroph

An organism requiring organic compounds for its principal source of food.

What catabolic process allow chemotrophs to claim their energy?

Oxidation

Spirilla are what shape?

Helical

Bacterial transformation is defined as?

DNA from the environment is incorporated into the genome

Is a virus considered to be a living organism?

No

Which part of a bacteriophage first attaches to the host?

Tail fibers

What is one advantage to the lytic cycle?

Rapid viral reproduction

What can destroy the bacterial cell walls?

Lysozyme

A coating of polysaccharides that surrounds a bacterial cell is called?

Capsule

The ability for flagella to rotate is dictated by the amount of?

ATP

Bacterial pili are used to?

Attach to objects