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421 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Catabolism
1. Degradative reactions of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins into usable or storage forms of energy.
2. Conversion of complex molecules into smaller molecules
Anabolism
1. Chemical reactions leading to the formation of large, complex macromolecules from smaller precursors.
2. Requires expenditure of energy in the form of ATP or NADH.
Examples of anabolism
1. synthesis of macromolecules
2. muscle contraction
3. active ion transport
4. thermogenesis
Examples of catabolism
1. energy production
2. carbohydrates
3. lipid
4. protein
Catabolism usually requires ____
oxygen
Exergonic reactions release ____
ATP
Many exergonic reactions are ____
oxidative
Liver and pancreas do ____ and _____ reactions
secretory, biosynthetic
Skeletal and cardiac systems take metabolic energy and convert it to ____ energy
mechanical
ATP is a critical link and uses ____ as a cofactor
Mg 2+
ATP stands for _____
adenosine 5'-triphosphate
hydrides are transferred from substrates to NAD+ by ______
dehydrogenases
Cycles are more efficient and require less E than linear (T/F)
true
NAD+ stands for _____
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
Thermodynamics of biological systems
the relationship of the concentration of reactants and products in combination with the environment to determine if a rxn will proceed spontaneously or if it will require an input of energy to proceed
the first law of thermodynamics
the total energy of a system and its surroundings are constant
equation representing the first law of thermodynamics
delta E=Eend-Estart
=Q(heat)-W(work)
Delta E can be used to predict if a reaction will proceed spontaneously b/c the equation does not take into account the surrounding (T/F)
False, it cannot be used
Relationship b/w entropy and Free E
the first law shows that the change in energy as a function of a rxn depends solely on the difference b/w the E at the end of the process minus the E at the beginning of the process. It is independent of the path of the transformation.
The second law of thermodynamics
A process can occur spontaneously only if the sum of the entropies of the systems and its surroundings increases
Delta S (system) _ delta S (surroundings _____ 0
>
Spontaneous delta S (system) can increase if ______ increases
delta S (surroundings)
Formation of highly ordered biological structure is feasible b/c the decrease in the system is more than offset by an increase in ____
entropy of its surroundings
Two problems using entropy as a predictor of spontaneity:
1. entropy changes are not readily measured
2. requires the knowledge of the entropy change of the surroundings as well as the system of interest
Instead of using entropy as a predictor of spontaneity, use ____
free E (combines delta E and delta S)
Delta G = ____
change in free energy of a system undergoing a transformation at constant pressure (P) and temperature (T)
Delta H=_____
change in enthalpy of the system
Delta S = _____
change in entropy of the system
Do properties of surroundings enter the Gibbs Free E equation?
no
Gibbs Free E equation
Delta G = Delta E - TdeltaS
What do we use instead of delta H? What is left out of the equation?
Delta E
PdeltaV is left out because delta V is small for all biochemical reactions
The change in free E of a reaction depends on both ____ and _____ of the system
change in internal E and entropy
Celsius to Kelvin
C + 273 = K
A reaction can occur spontaneously only if delta G is _____
negative
A system is at equilibrium and no net change can take place if deltaG = ___
zero
An input of energy is required to drive the reaction if deltaG is ____
positive
Delta g depends on the path of transformation (T/F)
F, does not depend on the path, only the free E of the products-Free E of reactants
Delta G provides no info about the rate of the reaction (T/F)
True
standard state for biochemical reactions
ph=7
Activity of H = 1
value of water = 1
standard free E = 0
Relationship of deltaG to Keq
DeltaG=deltaGprime + RT Ln (Keqprime)
to convert delta G equation from lnQ to LogQ, multiply RT by ____
-2.303
R is the gas constant, values are____
1.987 cal/mol K
8.134 j/mol K
How do you make a rxn with a (+) delta G proceed?
Couple it with a favorable rxn (-) deltaG
Energy Rich Compound
1. ATP has a _____ bond
2. creatine phosphate has a _____ bond
3. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate has a ____ bond
1. phosphoric acid anhydride
2. phosphoguanidine
3. phosphoric-carboxylic acid anhydride
Energy Rich Compound
1. acetyl phosphate has a ____ bond
2. cAMP has a ____ bond

3. phosphoenolpyruvate has a _____ bond
4. acetyl-coA has a _____ bond
1. phosphoric-carboxylic acid anhydride
2. phosphoric acid anhydride
3. enol phosphate
4. thiol ester
Which high energy compound does not have a phosphate bond?
acetyl-CoA
Which enzyme converts 1,3-DPG to 3-phosphoglycerate?
phosphoglycerate kinase
Which enzyme converts phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate?
pyruvate kinsase
Which enzyme converts creatine to creatine phosphate?
creatine kinase
Which enzyme converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
hexokinase
These two reactions cleave a phosphate group___and ____
1,3 DPG -> 3-phosphoglycerate
phosphoenolpyruvate -> pyruvate
These two reactions add a phosphate group___and ____
creatine ->creatine phosphate
glucose -> glucose-6-phosphate
Acetyl CoA exists in a ___ form which forms high energy thioester bonds with acyl groups
reduced (CoASH)
Three precursors to formation of acetyl CoA. What is the process called for each of the precursors?
1. glycogen--glycogenolysis
2. triglyceride--lipolysis
3. protein--proteolysis
Pyruvate dehydrogenase: two cofactors
1. TPP=thiamine pyrophosphate
2. SH-Lip-SH =lipoamide (with Sulfur-hydrogen)
equation for pyruvate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate + NAD+ +CoASH -> acetyl CoA + NADH + H+ +CO2
insulin ____ activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase and hormones ____ activity
increase
decrease
____ and ____ are competitive inhibitors of the pyruvate dehydrogenase rxn
Acetyl CoA
NADH
Pyruvate dehydrogenase is regulated by ____ by protein kinase and phophoprotein phosphatase
covalent modification through phosphorylation
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
____ and _____ activate protein kinase
Acetyl CoA and NADH
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
____ is a potent inhibitor of the kinase
pyruvate
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
____ is a potent activator of the phophoprotein phosphatase
Ca 2+
Mitochondrial ATP Synthesis
1. The substrate of the TCA cycle (citric acid cycle or Krebs cycle) is the _____
2 carbon unit of Acetyl CoA
One complete turn of the TCA cycle yields_____
2 CO2
1 GTP
3 NADH
1 FADH2
___ NADH and ___ FADH2 are oxidized by the ETC to yield ___ ATP
3
1
9
___ and ____ can make acetyl CoA that can then enter the TCA cycle
pyruvate, fatty acids
1. glycogen -> glucose process
2. glucose -> pyruvate process
3. pyruvate ->acetyl CoA process
1. glycogenolysis
2. glycolysis
3. oxidation
1. triglyceride -> free fatty acid process
2. free fatty acid -> acetyl CoA
1. lipolysis
2. B-oxidation
1. protein -> amino acids process
2. amino acids -> Acetyl CoA process
1. proteolysis
2. deamination and oxidation
pyruvate dehydogenase is active when ____ adds phosphate (step requires ___ and ___).
phosphatase
Mg2+
Ca2+
pyruvate dehydogenase is inactive when ____ cleaves ATP to form ADP (which requires ____)
kinase
Mg2+
when pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA, ___, ___, and ____ are also formed
NADH, H+, CO2
What units regulate the TCA cycle?
pyruvate and fatty acids because they make the Acetyl CoA to go into the cycle
The TCA cycle is ____ ATP synthesis
primary
The first enzyme of the TCA cycle is ____ and it catalyzed the condensation of ____ and ____ (called ____ after as condensation is happening) that forms ____
citrate synthase
acetyl CoA, oxaloacetate
enzyme-bound citroyl-SCoA
citrate
____ enzyme catalyzes the condensation of an acetyl group with the alpha-keto carbon of oaloacetate yielding citrate
citrate synthase
Citrate synthase rxn is exergonic (T/F)
true
concentration of oxaloacetate in the mitochondria is ____, well ____ the Km of the enzyme
low
below
Conversion of citrate to isocitrate by aconitase is ___, but ____ is favored
reversible
citrate
Aconitase positions an ___ next to the carboxyl group allowing oxidative decarboxylation
-OH
Isocitrate undergoes oxidative decarboxylation to yield _____.
This reaction is endergonic (T/F).
alpha-ketoglutarate
False, exergonic
alpha-ketoglutarate uses ____ enzyme to form succinyl CoA, which converts CoASH to ____ and NAD+ to ____ and ____
alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
CO2
NADH, H+
alpha-ketoglutarate is a single peptide enzyme (T/F)
False, multienzyme complex
Alpha-ketoglutarate is analagous to _____
pyruvate dehydrogenase
Coenzymes for alpha-ketogluterate dehydrogenase
thiamine pyrophosphate, lipoic acid, CoASH, FAD and NAD+
alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is exergone (T/F)
True
_____ is an energy rich-thiol ester similar to acetyl CoA
succinyl CoA
Succinyl CoA is converted to succinate by succinyl CoA synthetase using ___ and ___ (coupled to make it exergonic).
____ is a second product
GDP
Pi
CoASH
Succinate is converted to fumarate by oxidizing _____ to _____
FAD
FADH2
succinate dehydrogenase has 4 subunits containing FAD covalently attached to a ____ plus 1 subunit containing 3 _____
histadine
iron sulfur centers (nonheme iron)
Electrons are transfered from succinate thru ____ to ____ centers that undergo oxidation/reduction. Electrons are eventually transferred to ____ in the ETC
FAD
Fe-S
Coenzyme Q
Coenzyme Q is also called ____
ubiquinone
1 Fumarate plus _____ are converted to L-Malate by the enzyme Fumarase.
2 Reaction is a ____ rxn.
3. Rxn is ______.
4. Enzyme is stereoselective for the ___ form of substrate
1 water
2 hydration
3 freely reversible
4 trans
Malate dehydrogenase converts L-Malate to oxaloacetate and vice versa.
1 ____ is favored because the reaction is endergonic.
2 To make oxaloacetate, reducing equivalents must be trasfered to ___ to yield ___ and ___.
1 malate
2 NAD+, NADH, H+
Why is any oxaloacetate formed the the rxn is endergonic?
1 citrate synthase removes all oxaloacetate, which pushes rxn foward
2 NADH + H+ is rapidly oxidized to NAD+, which furthur pulls rxn foward
1 In the TCA cycle, two carbon moeties are oxidized completely to ___ and ____
2 ___ reducing equavilents are produced (____, ____, and ___)
1 CO2, H2O
2 4 (3 NADH, H+, FADH2)
TCA
oxidation of each NADH + H+ = ____ ATP
2.5
TCA
oxidaiton of FADH2 formed in succinate dehydrogenase rxn = ___ ATP
1.5
GTP formed in succinyl-CoA synthetase will convert to ___ ATP
1
One turn of the TCA cycle yields ____ ATP
10
In the TCA cycle, ___ and ___ have to be reoxidized or respiration will fall
NADH, FADH2
TCA internediates serve as precursors for ___, ___, and ____
amino acid, fatty acid,and glucose synthesis
TCA
1 citrate can be used for ____ synthesis
2 alpha ketoglutarate can be used for ____ synthesis, which can then be used for _____ synthesis
1 fatty acid and sterol
2 amino acid, neurotransmitters
TCA
1 succinyl CoA can be used for ____ synthesis
2 malate can be used for ____
3 oxaloacetate can be used for ____ synthesis
1 heme
2 gluconeogenesis
3 amino acid
3 most regulated enzymes in TCA cycle:
1 citrate synthase
2 alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
3 isocitrate dehydrogenase
____ drives the TCA cycle
oxygen
gluconeogenesis
produces glucose
glycolysis
breaks down glucose
change in CO2 amount coming out of TCA has effect on TCA cycle (T/F)
true
____ and ___ are electron carriers in the TCA cycle
NADH, FADH2
TCA
higher ATP/ADP ratio correlates to decreased _______, and the TCA cycle ____
NADH, FADH2
is inhibited
What is the commitment step in TCA?
pyruvate dehydrogenase
3 steps of TCA that produce reducing equivalents
1. 2 decarboxylation steps
2. succinate ->fumerate
3. malate ->oxaloacetate
____form pyruvate, which can be made into____ or ____ to enter the TCA cycle
amino acids, oxaloacetate, acetyl CoA
1 amino acid (______) can be made into oxaloacetate
2 amino acid (______) can be made into alpha-ketoglutarate
3. amino acids can also be made into _____ to enter the TCA
4. ____ and ____ amino acids make propionyl CoA that is made into succinyl CoA to enter TCA
1 aspartate
2 glutamate
3 fumarate
4 valine and isoleucine
Depletion of _____ by other biosynthetic pathways impacts TCA function
TCA intermediates
1 Functional TCA requires source of _____.
2 Rxns that suppy that and also ____ are termed ____ rxns.
3 The most important is ______.
1 4-carbon atoms
2 5 carbon atoms, anaplerotic (filling up)
3 pyruvate carboxylase
____ in TCA is inhibited by ATP, NADH, succinyl CoA, long chain acyl CoA derivatives
citrate synthase
isocitrate dehydrogenase is stimulated by ____ and inhibited by ___ and ____
ADP
ATP
NADH
_____ is inhibited by ATP, GTP, NADH and Succinyl CoA. It is activated by Ca 2+
Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
citrate synthase in TCA is inhibited by:______
ATP, NADH, succinyl CoA, long chain acyl CoA derivatives
_____ is stimulated by ADP and inhibited by ATP and NADH
isocitrate dehydrogenase
Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is inhibited by _____ . It is inactivated by ____
ATP, GTP, NADH, succinyl CoA
Ca2+
The inner mitochondrial membrane is ____% protein, rich in ____ fatty acids, and has a high concentration of _____
80
unsaturated
cardiolipin
The inner mitochondrial membrane is where ____ and___ take place
ETC
oxidative phosphorylation
1 all of the enzymes for metabolism (except 4) in the mitochondria are located in the ____
2 What are the 4 exceptions, and where are they located?
1 matrix
2 1. succinate dehydrogenase
2. fatty acid oxidation enzymes
3. porforin synthesis enzymes (some)
4. urea synthesis enzymes (some)
located in or on the inner mitochondrial membrane
The outer mitochondrial membrane is rich in _____, ____% lipid, _____% protein
porin
30-40
20-70
Green sphere in the picture of the mitochondria are _____
F1 portions of ATP synthase
cristae
invagination of the inner membrane increasing surface area
Molecules up to ____ KD can move in and out of the inner mitochondrial membrane
10,000
Electron donor =
reducant
Electron acceptor =
oxidant
redox rxn =
transfer of electrons from one chemical species to another
electrochemical half cell
oxidized plus the reduced form of each chemical species
_____ with one common ____ comprise a redox rxn
two half cells, intermediate
coupled half cell reactions can drive ____ reactions in the same way that thermodynamically coupled reactions do
energetically unfavorable
redox potential
how easy an electron donor will give up electrons
redox potential can be determined by measuring the electromotive force generated by a half cell with respect to to a ____
standard reference half cell
what is the standard reference half cell? defined as ___ volts?
H+ + E- -> 1/2 H2
defined as 0 volts
negative redox potential
compound has lower e- affinity than H2
positive redox potential
compound has higher e- affinity than H2
____ strong reducing agent,
____ strong oxidizing agent
NADH
O2
Is the redox reaction concentration dependent?
yes
Nernst equation
E=Eo' + 2.3 RTnF log ([oxidant]/reductant])
Using the nernst equation, if the [oxidant] goes up, E _____
goes up
Using the nernst equation, if the [reducant] goes up, E _____
goes down
Nernst equation
E is observed potential when all reactant are at ____
1M
Nernst equation
Eo' is the standard potential at pH ___
7
Nernst equation
R is the ____ (____)
gas constant
8.3 J/Kmol
Nernst equation
T is measured in ____
Kelvin
Nernst equation
n = ___
number of transferred electrons
Nernst equation
F=______ (_____)
faraday constant
96,500 J/Vmol
The calculated ATP from NADH and FADH2 is what?
The actual value is what?
3 mol ATP/1 mol NADH
2 mol ATP/1 mol FADH2
2.5 mol ATP/1 mol NADH
1.5 mol ATP/1 mol FADH2
Which complex is the most complicated?
Complex I
The MW of complex I is ____
1 million daltons
Reske-Fe-S center is a ____ protein that is part of the mitochondrial ____
trans-membrane
ETC
If the oxidation potential is highly (+) it will likely
be reduced (accept electrons)
If the oxidation potential is highly (-) it will likely
be oxidized (donate electrons)
_____ catalyzes transfer of electrons to ubiquinone
NADH-ubiquinone oxidoreductase
Where does the ETC occur?
between the matrix and intermembrane space
In complex I, the electrons go to the ____
Fe-S centers
Complex I results in the overall oxidation of NADH and transfer of two electrons to _____
Ubiquinone (Coenzyme Q)
Equation of Complex I
NADH + H+ + FMN -> NAD+ + FMNH2
In Complex I, NADH is in the ____ side, and it reduces FMN, which then reduces ____ that then reduce(___), which is a specific Fe-S cluster, which then transfer electrons to ubiquinone
matrix
Fe-S
N2
Ubiquinone can accept and transfer ___ or ___ electrons due to the ____
one
two
semiquinone
______ makes CoQ lipid soluble for shuttling electrons b/w complexes I and II
hydrophobic isoprene (oxidized coenzyme Q)
What are the three forms of coenzyme Q? Is conversion between structures reversible?
oxidized Coenzyme Q
semiquinone form
reduced Coenzyme Q
yes
Ubiquinone reduction is by all _____and includes ____, _____, _____, and _____
flavoprotein dehydrogenases
Complex I
Complex II (succinate DH)
Glycerol-3-Pi DH
Electron transferring flavoprotein-ubiquinone oxidoreductase
Complex II consists of: ____, which reduces ____, which reduces ____, which reduces _____
Succinate, FAD, FeS, UQ
How many protons are pumped out of Complex I?
4
The enzyme in complex II is ____, which has 2 subunits. Subunit 1 is ___KD and has ___ covalently bound to _____. Subunit 2 is ____KD and has ___Fe-S centers and 2 small ____
succinate dehydrogenase
70
histadine
3
hydrophobic subunits
cytochrome B has ___ hemes and cytochrome C has _____ heme
2
1
Complex III has ____ subunits with ____ prosthetic groups that act as redox centers
11
3
Complex III
Membrane anchoring domain contains ____ plus ____ protein
heme
Fe-S
Complex III
transmembrane domain contains ____ heme plus ____ protein
2
Fe-S
Part of Complex III extends into the _____
mitochondrial matrix
How are cytochrome hemes different from hemoglobin heme?
they undergo oxidation-reduction reactions
The part of complex III that extends into the matrix has a lot of ____
alpha helices
What is the enzyme in Complex III?
cytrochrome c oxidoreductase
Cytochromes c and b are in complex ____
III
Cytochrome B contains two heme groups: a ____ heme and a ____ heme
high potential +.5 V
low potential -.1 V
cytochrome c contains one ____ heme
type c
Complex III
Q-cycle mechanism accounts for transfer of ___ protons across per two electrons transferred from ___ to cytochrome c
4
ubiquinol
Complex III
____protons are taken up on the matrix side of the inner membrane to reduce the ______
2
ubiquinone
Complex III
____ protons are released on the ____ side of the membrane during the transfer of 2 e- to the Fe-S proteins and cytochrome ____
4
cytosilic
c1
Cytochrome A has heme ___ and Iron ____ and Proforin ____ with formal groups and an isoprenoid side chain, which makes it variation of the basic structure
A
A
9
Cytochrome B has the same Fe complex as ____ and ____ but it is buried so far in the membrane that it can't bind O2
hemoglobin
myoglobin
cytochrome c has heme covalently bound to two ___ residues and is a mobile electron carrier
cysteine
cytosolic fluid is everything except ___ and ____
organelles
insoluble compounds
Each complex exists independently in the mitochondrial matrix (T/F)
true
Complex I is inhibited by what?
Rotenone
Amytal
Complex III is inhibited by what?
antimycin A
myxothiazol
stigmatellin
Complex IV is inhibited by what?
carbon monoxide
sodium azide
potassium cyanide
____ can be used to reduce cytochrome c in the presence of tetramethylene phenylene diamine
ascorbate
Complex IV has cytochrome ____
a1a3 (Cu)
What are the 3 TCA byproducts that produce NADH?
What non-TCA product produces NADH?
Malate
alpha-ketoglutarate
isocitrate
pyruvate
What TCA byproduct is used in Complex II?
succinate
_____ contains FAD and is used to transfer one or two electrons to coenzyme Q in b/w Complex I and Complex II
alpha-glycerol phosphate
___ and ____ are fatty acid and ketone bodies that are oxidized to form NADH, which reduces FMN in Complex I
B-hydroxybutyrate
B-hydroxyacl CoA
____ is a fatty acid and ketone bodies that is oxidized to form FAD, which can reduce Coenzyme Q in b/w Complex I and Complex II
fatty acyl CoA
Overall reaction is ____ +____ in a reversible step into cytochrome a1a3, which forms ____
1/2 O2
2H+
H2O
The Kreb's cycle takes place in the ____
mitochondrial matrix
Complexes ___ and ___ work to reduce UQ?
I, II
Complex III has a cytochrome ____ complex, what special Fe-S centers are in this complex?
bc1
Rieske
What complex has Cu?
Complex IV
Which complex has 2 b-type hemes?
Which complex has 2 a-type hemes?
Which other complex has b-type hemes?
III
IV
II
There is phosphorylation in the ETC (T/F)
true
Complex I
The first step in the ETC is the oxidation of ____ to ____, the electrons are transferred to ___, producing ____
NADH
NAD+
FMN
FMNH2
Complex I
The reduced FMNH2 is oxidized back to FMN by transferring the electrons to an _____
Fe-S center
Complex I
Electrons are transferred to a tightly-bound ______ molecule, reducing it to form _____
coenzyme Q
ubiquinol
Complex I
The electrons from bound ubiquinol are tranferred to moblie ______ located in the inner Mito Matrix. These molecules can then shuttle around in the membrane to pass the e- to another protein complex. Net result is ____ protons pumped out of the matrix and into the intermembrane space for each molecule of ____ which is oxidized.
ubiquinone
4
NADH
Complex II
electrons are passed through an Fe-S center before being transferred to moble ubiquinone in the _____
mitochondrial membrane
Complex III
the first half of this rxn is the migration of ubiquinol to the Qp site of ______. ____e- and ____ protons are released, resulting in an oxidation to a ____, which can leave the site and enter the membrane pool
cytochrome c reductase
2
2
ubiquinone
Complex III
one electron is passed to mobile ____ in the intermembrane space. the other electron is passed to a _____ in the Qn site of the enzyme
cytochrome c
semiquinone intermediate
Complex III
A second CoQ enters QP site and is oxidized. What is different from the first time this happened?
the second e- reduces semiquinone to ubiquinol returning it to the membrane pool.
Complex III
Net result: ____ protons are pumped out of the matrix for each molecule of ubiquinol which is oxidized. The purpose is to transfer the two electrons from _____ to two molecules of the one-electron carrier, ______
4
ubiquinol
cytochrome c.
after cytochrome c is reduced in complex ____, it is oxidized by complex ____, in a process which results in _____ protons being pumped out of the mito matrix
III
IV
2
what enzyme oxidizes cytochrome c in complex IV?
cytochrome c oxidase
Complex IV
two molecules of the reduced form of cytochrome c pass their electrons to a ______ complex and then to a ____ group. This last group is responsible for the reduction of oxygen to produce water in a multi-step rxn which uses ____ e- and ____ protons for each molecules of oxygen that is reduced.
copper-heme a
copper-heme a3
4
4
electron transport through Complex III is also known as the ____
Q cycle
is the copper-heme a and the copper-heme a3 far away from each other?
No, 1.5 angstroms apart, this gives rapid transport
_____ allows protons back into the matrix and produces ___ in the process
ATP synthase
ATP
What two ways do protons being pumped across a membrane develop potential energy?
separation of charge
pH gradient
Alternate name for ATP synthase
F1/F0 ATPase
What is F0?
channel through membrane in ATP synthase
Terminal oxidation and oxidative phosphorylation gives ___ ATP
3
NAD and FAD are ____ in the TCA, which allows them to be ____ in the ETC, which gives energy to make ____
reduced
oxidized
ATP
Electrons move through the membrane in the ETC (T/F)
false, only protons move through the membrane
____ is transported from the cytosol into the matrix in exchange for an ____ transported from the matrix to the cytosol. This is happening by a ____, which follows Michaelis/Menton Kinetics
ADP
ATP
Adenine nucleotide translocator
Phosphate utilizes the ___ to be transported from the cytosol to the matrix. This is happening by a ____
proton gradient
phosphate translocator
How are reducing equivalents shuttled across the mito inner membrane?
Malate-Aspartate shuttle
aspartate-glutamate transporter
malate-alpha-ketoglutarate transporter
Exogenous glycogen is hydrolyzed to glucose in the GI tract, most is absorbed into the ____vein, then into general circulation to be used by other tissues. Glucose is first exposed to the ____, if the concentration of blood glucose is high it will be removed for _____, if low, it will undergo _____
portal
liver
glycolysis
glycogenesis
____ is the first organ exposed to blood back from the pancreas, and has the highest concentration of glucogon and insulin, which is important in hormonal regulators of blood glucose
liver
glycogen
stored glucose in animals
some cells only use glucose as fuel (T/F)
true, some specialized cells
Respiration
oxidation of organic fuels by molecular oxygen. oxygen is the final electron acceptor
anaerobic fermentation
oxidation-reduction rxn in the absense of oxygen
Overall Rxn of glycolysis
glucose + 2Pi +2ADP -> 2 lactic acid + 2 ATP + 2 H2O
alcohol fermentation
glucose + 2Pi + 2ADP -> 2 ethanol + 2CO2 + 2ATP + 2H2O
Glucose is transported into the RBC by ____. ____ traps the glucose in the cell.
GLUT1
phosphorylation
gluconeogenesis requires ATP (T/F)
true
some enzymes in glucose metabolism and gluconeogenesis are the same (T/F)
true
Preparatory pathway for aerobic metabolism is known as ______
glycolytic pathway
Liver stores glycogen for maintenance of ____ levels for the brain
blood/glucose
glucose -> glucose 6-p what enzyme?
hexokinase
glucose 6-p -> lactate what process?
glycolysis
glucose 6-p -> NADPH what intermediates?
pentose phosphates
What enzyme turns pyruvate into acetyl CoA? In what organ does glycolysis produce pyruvate, which releases CO2 and produces CoA to enter the TCA cycle (which releases more CO2)
pyruvate decarboxylase
brain
In the RBC's glycolysis produces lactate. ___ is a byproduct that is converted into water when 2GSH goes to GSSG.
H2O2
Glucose metabolism in the brain is insulin independent (T/F)
true
Glucose metabolism in adipose tissue involves GLUT___. Glucose 6-P is converted to glycogen by _____. Glycogen is converted to Glucose 6-P by ______. Glucose 6-P can be converted to pentose phosphates. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA, which is converted to fat by _____
4
glycogenesis
glycogenolysis
lipogenesis
GLUT4 exists in membrane vesicles located within the _____ of the cells. Binding of insulin to its receptor on the _____ initiates a signaling cascade that promotes fusion of the cytosolic vesicles which deposits GLUT-4 in the plasma membrane for glucose transport. Occurs in ____ , ____and _____
cytosol
plasma membrane
adipose tissue
muscle
heart
Glucose metabolism in the liver involves GLUT___. Glucose 6-P is converted to glycogen and vice versa. Glucose 6-P can be converted to_____ or_____ . conversion to pyruvate is reversible (_____ in other tissues). pyruvate can be converted to lactate or acetyl CoA, which can then be converted to fat.
2
pentose phosphates
glucuronides
unlike
Glut2 is insulin dependent (T/F)
false, insulin independent
Glut 2 is an insulin independent, ____ affinity, ____ capacity glucose transporters
low
high
The ____ pathway is for the production of NADPH
pentose phosphate
The glucuronic pathway is for ____ and ____ detox, this occurs in the ____
drug
billirubin
liver
Synthesis of fat is by ___ and ___
glycolysis
TCA
In the liver, conversion of pyruvate to glucose 6-P is by the process ____ and uses ____ precursors
gluconeogensis
2 carbon
gluconeogenesis
process in liver of converting pyruvate to glucose 6-P
glycogenesis
process of converting glucose 6-P to glycogen
glycogenolysis
process of converting glycogen to glucose 6-P
what organ has the greatest number of ways to metabolize glucose?
liver
What are the 4 types of reactions in the glycolytic pathway? Which are reversible?
phosphoryl transfer
phosphoryl shift
aldol cleavage
dehydration
All are reversible
What is the priming stage in glycolysis?
input of 2 ATP to convert glucose into fructose-1,6-biphosphate
What is the most important regulatory enzyme of glycolysis?
phosphofructose-1-kinase
What is the commitment step in glycolysis?
conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-phophate (by phosphofructose-1-kinase)
reversible reactions of glycolysis are shared by ____ and ____
gluconeogenesis
glycogenolysis
The priming stage of glycolysis:
_______->_________->_________->
_______
glucose
glucose 6-phosphate
fructose 6-phosphate
fructose-1,6-phosphate
conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is by ____(and requires____) and is ____
hexokinase
ATP
irreversible
All glycolytic enzymes are in the ____
cytosol
Step 2 of glycolysis: fructose 1-6-bisphosphate aldolase catalyzes the cleavage of cyclic or linear form into ___ and ____
dihydroxyacetone
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Is step 2 of glycolysis reversible? Do the products convert with each other reversibly?
yes
yes
Stage 3 of glycolysis involves ____ and ____. Phosphoglycerate kinase uses _______, Before this point net ATP is _____ Pyruvate kinase reaction is ______.
oxidoreduction reactions
synthesis of ATP
zero
substrate level phosphorylation
irreversible
What starts stage 1 of glycolysis? what ends stage 1?
glucose
fructose-1,6-phosphate
What starts stage 2 of glycolysis? what ends stage 2?
fructose-1,6-phosphate
glyceradlehyde-3-phosphate (GAP)
What starts stage 3 of glycolysis? what ends stage 3?
glyceraldehyde 3-Pi-DH
pyruvate (which can convert to lactate reversibly)
stage 3 of glycolysis has enzyme _____ that converts pyruvate to lactate, is this the only rxn in the body that produces lactate?
lactate dehydrogenase
yes
In Stage 3 of glycolysis, the enzyme, __1___ catalyzes 2 exergonic reactions:__2__ and _3___, and one endergonic reaction, __4___. The net delta G prime is ____5_, which indicates a ___6___
1 Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
2 aldehyde oxidized to carboxyl
3 NAD+ reduced to NADH
4 formation of a mixed anhydride 5 b/w the carboxylic acid and phosphoric acid
5 endergonic (1.5 kcal/mol)
6 freely reversible rxn
This pathway is small but efficient, and is used when energy is needed quickly. Is it reversible?
2,3-bisphosphatoglycerate shunt
no
in the 2,3-bisphosphatoglycerate shunt, ____ glucose is converted to ____biphosphoglycerate, which is convereted to ____ biphosphoglycerate by 2,3-BPG mutase. The product is converted to 3 phosphoglycerate by _____, and ____ is released. 3 phosphoglycerate is converted to ____, which is then converted to _____
1/2
1,3
2,3
2,3-BPG phosphatase
Pi
2-phosphoglycerate
lactate
Which is more efficient? glycolysis or 2,3-biphophoglycerate shunt?
2,3-biphophoglycerate shunt
___ to ____% of RBC glucose is converted to lactate thru BPG shunt
15-25
If the body has sufficient energy glycolysis stops at step 3 (T/F)
true
The priming step in glycolysis makes ATP (t/f)
false, it consumes ATP
Glycolysis makes overall ____ ATP
2
3 reasons why we store glucose as glycogen?
1. Fat cannot be metabolized as fast as glycogen
2. Fat cannot be used as an E source in the absence of O2
3. Fat cannot be converted to glucose to maintain blood glucose levels needed by brain
All steps of pathways of glycolysis are reversible (T/F)
False, but MOST have reversible steps
All steps of pathways of glycolysis form intermediates and use intermediates (T/F)
true
All steps of pathways of glycolysis if you change one thing you change all things (T/F)
true
All steps of pathways of glycolysis feed into the TCA (T/F)
true
All steps of pathways of glycolysis interact (T/F)
true
Regulation of enzymes occurs by limiting turnover rate from different isoforms (t/f)
true
enzymes are thought to be regulated by compartmentation (t/f)
true
catalytic sites on enzymes flicker b/w having a subrstrate and a product binding site (t/f)
true
how does product inhibition work?
excess product "ties up" the enzyme in one state and slows catalysis
Allosteric activation is more helpful at vmax (t/f)
false, less helpful
highly regulated enzymes can have both allosteric activator and inhibitor sites (t/f)
true
allosteric activator and inhibitor sites can overlap (t/f)
true (but rare)
What is an example of allosteric activator and inhibitor sites overlapping?
phosphofuctokinase-1
What is an example of product inhibition?
hexokinase
In metabolic pathways, regulation can occur at enzyme-limited or substrate-limited sites (t/f)
false, only at enzyme-limited sites
enzyme-limited reactions are far from equilibrium (t/f) and the substrate accumulates (t/f)
true
true
substrate-limited reactions are far from equilibrium (t/f) and the substrate is quickly metabolized so it does not accumulate (t/f)
false, at or near equil
true
Lipitor changes cholesterol metabolism (t/f)
true
Which 3 steps in a pathway are the ones you would want to regulate?
1. entry to the pathway (the committed step)
2. exit from a pathway
3. entry/exit points within one pathway that go to or come from another pathway
Steps you would want to regulate in a pathway, give an example of each, then tell which step is the most difficult but most efficient, then tell which step is the easiest
1. entry to the pathway (the committed step)
2. exit from a pathway
3. entry/exit points within one pathway that go to or come from another pathway
1. 6-phosphofructo-1-kinase
2. pyruvate kinase
3. hexokinase
step 3
step 1
Glucose transporters transport by _____, is this reversible? why or why not?
facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated diffusion)
not reversible in life because glucose is constantly being metabolized and rapid phosphorylation prevents leakage out
In most tissues, ____ is responsible for phosphorylation of glucose
hexokinase
hexokinase is inhibited by _____, which is the _____ of the first reaction of glycolysis. As a result, ___ and ___ are not committed to glycolysis unless necessary
glucose-6-phosphate
product
glucose, ATP
The primary site of regulation in glycolysis is at the enzyme ____
phosphofructokinsase-1
PFK-1 is allosterically inhibited by ____ and ____ and allosterically activated by ____, ___, ____, and ___
ATP, citrate
AMP, ADP, Fructose-2,6-phosphate
Is glucose-6-phosphate ->fructose-1,6-bisphosphate reversible?
no
Fructose-2,6-phosphate is a positive allosteric activator of PFK1 (glucose 6-phosphate to fructorse 1,6-bisphosphate). F-2,6,Pi is formed from adding a ____ group to fructose-6-phosphate, and converted back to this by removing a ____ group
phosphate
phosphate
Glucagon inhibition of hepatic glycolysis is mediated through the ____ cascade, which signals activation of ____ and inhibition of ____. If cAMP goes up, glycolysis ____
cAMP
phosphatase
kinase
goes down
pyruvate kinase catalyzes the last step of glycolysis. The inhibitors are ___, ____, and ____. The activator is _____
ATP, alanine, acetyl-CoA
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
Muscle stores ____% weight as glycogen. ____ in liver. Which has more glycogen in the body?
1-2
10%
muscle (twice that of liver)
glycogen
polymer of glucose used as a energy storage molecule in the liver and muscle
in the muscle, glycogen is a fuel reserve for ____ within that tissue
ATP
In the liver, glycogen is a fuel reserve to maintain ____ concentrations
blood/glucose
Red muscle fibers are ____, they have ___blood flow, large amounts of ____, packed with _____, glucose completely oxidized to __ and ___
slow
rich
myoglobin
mitochondria
CO2, H20
white muscle fibers are ____, ___ myoglobin, ____ mitochondria, glucose metabolism yields ____ as end product, can only function at full capacity for short periods of time
fast
less
fewer
lactate
What does glycogen phosphorylase do?
knocks off 1 glucose each time
what does phosphoglucomutase do?
converts glucose-1-phosphate to glucose-6-phosphate
what does glucose-6-phosphatase do?
convert glucose-6-phosphate to glucose plus inorganic phosphate
glucose-6-phosphatase cleaves at ____ end of glucose molecule
terminal nonreducing end
How is glucose degradation different in the liver vs peripheral tissue?
glycogenolysis occurs in the liver and then stops (ATP is neither produced nor used when glucose removed from glycogen), in the peripheral tissue, glycolysis occurs after glycogenolysis, glucose-6-phosphate is degraded to yield lactate (glycolysis) in white muscles and CO2 in red muscle (glycolysis then TCA).
glycogen phosphorylase reaction that removes one glucose from glycogen is called ____
glycogenolysis
glucose 6-phosphate reaction to glucose is called ____
gluconeogenesis
glycogenolysis then glycolysis (which happens in peripheral tissue) gives the net reaction:
(glucose)n + 3ADP +3Pi +H+ -> (glucose)n-1 + 3ATP + 2 H2O
There are two types of glycogen debranching enzymes: the one that makes a branch longer by moving pieces is a _____, the one that makes a branch shorter by removing glucose is a _____
transferase
glucosidase
why is glycogen branched?
to remove glucose quickly
How many units must the main chain of glycogen have? Each branch must be ___ units from any other branch
11
4
Glucose-1-phosphatase is a unique reaction yielding an unactivated ____ glucose. The rxn is made energetically favorable through the hydrolysis of the ____ by _____. This reaction is part of _____
UDP
pyrophosphate
pyrophosphatase
glycogenesis
UDP-glucose adds glucose to glycogen with the enzyme _____, which releases UDP. The bond formed with glycogen is called a ____
glycogen synthase
glycosidic bond
The ___ end of glucose is always added to a ___ end of glycogen
reducing
non-reducing
how is UTP made from UDP?
using ATP and nucleoside diphosphate kinase
Glycogen synthase produces ____ glycosidic linkages yielding linear chains of glycogen (_____)
alpha 1,4
amylose
once 11 residues have been formed in a glycogen branch, ____ branching enzyme removes ___ residues and transfers them to another chain via an _____ glycosidic linkage. Why?
1,4-alpha-glucan
7
alpha-1,6
Gives more available ends of glucose to be activated
What is the primer for glycogen synthesis?_____
It is a _____enzyme that uses _____ to link glucose to a _____ residue (the residue is on the primer)
glycogenin
self glucosylating
UDP-glucose
tyrosine
to achieve glycogenesis, glucose must be active (t/f)
true
Glycogen limits its own synthesis by inhibition of _____
glycogen synthase
glycogen phosphorylase degrades glycogen, the allosteric activator is ___, and the allosteric inhibitors are ___ and ____
AMP
ATP, Glucose
hormones that increase cAMP (___ and ___ are examples) promote activation of glycogen phosphorylase by signaling activation of _____ and inactivating ______.
glucagon, epinephrine
phosphorylase kinase
phosophoprotein phosphatase
The advantage of regulation by a cAMP cascade: activation of _____ by one molecule of epinephrine causes formation of many molecules of cAMP. Each cAMP molecule activates a ____ which in turn activates many molecules of ____ and inhibits many molecules of _____
adenylyl cyclase
protein kinase A
phosphorylase kinase
phosphoprotein phosphatase
glycogen synthase can by phosphorylated by ___ serine residues by ____ protein kinases
9
11
_____converts glycogen synthase from the active form (a) to the inactive form (b). The active from is the ___ form and is G-6-P ______, the inactive form is the ____ form and is G-6-P _____
phosphorylation
I
independent
D
dependent
glycogen degradation is increased by activation in cAMP because phosphylase kinases promote glycogen synthase to become ____ and phosphoprotein phosphatase promotes glycogen synthase to become _______
inactive
active
Phosphorylation of glycogen synthase coverts the enzyme from ___ to ____
active
inactive
Insulin promotes ____ of glycogen synthase
activation
phosphylated glucose will come out of the liver (t/f)
false, it will not come out
____ and _____stimulates glycogenolysis in liver, heart, and skeletal
glucagon, epinephrine
____ stimulates glycogenesis in muscle and liver
insulin
Epiniphrine increases ___ in tissues for flight or fight
glucose
Glycogenolysis regulation is by G-coupled protein, _____, which creates ____ that causes the release of _____, which stimulates glycogenolysis. The agonist is an ____ agonist.
phospholipase C
IP3 (inositol triphosphate)
Ca
alpha (receptor is alpha-adrenergic receptor)
gluconeogenesis
synthesis or formation of glucose from fructose
glycogenesis
formation of glucose-6-phosphate from glycogen
inhibiting fructose-2,6-phosphate slows down conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to _____ (F-2,6,Pi is an activator of the enzyme)
fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
____ inhibits hepatic glycolysis in a G-couple protein reaction by binding to the receptor. Adnylyl cyclase is activated and cAMP is made that decreases _____, which inhibits _____
glucagon
Fructose-2,6-P
glycolysis
two compounds inhibit glycolysis, ___ and ____
glucagon, epinephrine
6-PF-2-K (6-phosphofructae-2-kinase) is regulated by _____by _____ and _____ enzymes. The modification is by _____. This step is found in ____
covalent modification
protein kinase A
phosphoprotein phosphatase
phosphorylation
glycolysis
Epinephrine ____glysolysis in the heart
accelerates
kinase and phosphatase enzyme lengths are different in the heart and liver (t/f)
true
gluconeogenesis has a main pathway of ___ ->____->____->____
pyruvate
oxaloacetate
triose phosphates
glucose
pyruvate is made by ____ and____
oxaloacetate is made by ____ and ___
triose phosphates are made by __ and ____
glucose is made by _____
lactate, AA's
AA's, propionate
glycerol, fructose
galactose
the cori cycle depends on ____, the alanine cycle is regulated by amount of ___ needed
diffusion
glucose
The cori cycle is an inter-organ conversion of ____ released by ____ after excursion, which is converted to glucose and secreted to blood by the ____
lactate
skeletal muscle
liver
The alanine cycle in the liver requires ____ ATP and removes ____ NH2. ___ ATP is produced in the muscle cell. Is O2 required?
10
2
3-5
yes
the Cori and alanine cycles are only functional in tissues that do not completely oxidize to CO2 and H2O (t/f)
true
The cori cycle occurs in the liver and ____, ___ ATP is consumed and ____ ATP is made
RBC
6
2
In the cori cycle, lactate and glucose enter cells by simple diffusion (t/f)
true
Both the cori and alanine cycle provide a continuous supply of glucose as a primary energy source (t/f)
true
The cori cycle is also called the ____ cycle, the alanine cycle is also called the ____ cycle
glucose lactate
glucose alanine
The peripheral tissues releases ____ and the cori cycle and ___ in the alanine cycle
lactate
alanine
Alanine cycle
NADH generated by glycolysis is not used to reduce pyruvate to lactate (t/f)
true
Alanine cycle
NADH reducing equivalents are shuttled into mitochondria yielding ____ATP
5-7
Alanine cycle
produces ____ that is removed by urea cycle but requires addl ATP
NH4+
Which cycle is more efficient? Cori or alanine
alanine
Why is E consumed in the liver?
to generate storage of E in other tissue
lactate is converted to pyruvate by _____. Reaction is: ___+___->___+___+____+___
lactate dehydrogenase
2-L-lactate + 6ATP -> glucose + 6ADP + 6Pi + 4H+
PEP carboxykinase, pyruvate carboxylase, glucose-6-phosphatase, and fructose-1,60bisphosphatase are only in gluconeogenesis and not glycolysis (t/f)
true
All AA's except ___ and ____ can supply carbon for gluconeogenesis. T his is accomplished by conversion of the AA to pyruvate or oxaloacetate. The generation of ___ requires a close link b/w the urea cycle and gluconeogenesis
Leu, Lys
NH4+
conversion of AA to pyruvate or oxaloacetate is called____
transamination
Activators for glycolysis are inhibitors for _____, and vice versa
gluconeogenesis
Hormonal control for the regulation of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis refers to regulation of ____ to liver, and the activities of enzymes.
fatty acids
Pentose phosphate pathway is also called hexose monophosphate shunt and 6-phosphoglucontate pathway (t/f)
true
The pentose pathway produces the following products: ____ for reductive biosynthesis (fatty acids and steroids), ____ (nucleic acids), ____ and ____ as glycolytic intermediates
NADPH
ribose-5-phosphate
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
fructose-6-phosphate
___ and ___ reciprocally regulate catabolic and anabolic pathways
adenine nucleotides
energy charge
___ and ___ have (-) effects, while ___ has (+) effect in glycolysis and pyruvate dehydrogenase---but the reverse is true for TCA
NADH, ATP
NAD+
Pentose phosphate pathway
when there is a higher requirement for NADPH than ribose-5-phosphate, there is complete oxidation of G6P to ____ and resynthesis of ___ and ___
CO2
G6P
ribulose-5-P
Pentose phosphate pathway
when there is a higher requirement for ribose-5-phosphate than NADPH, G6P is converted to ____ and ___ by glycolysis
fructose-6-P
glyceradehyde-3-P
what enters the pentose phosphate pathway?
G6P
The pentose phosphate pathway works with glycolysis and TCA to produce ____ and ____
reducing equivalents
pentose intermediates
Stage one of the pentose phosphate pathway has all ____ steps
irreversible
In the pentose phosphate pathway, decarboxylation of hexose to peentose yields ____ and is ____
NADPH
irreversible
What are the critical products in the pentose phosphate pathway stage I?
NADPH, CO2, H+
In Stage I of the pentose phosphate pathway, cyclic glucose becomes ____ glucose and 1___ is knocked off
liner
carbon
In stage II of the pentose phosphate pathway all steps are ____ and ____lead to ____
reversible
interconversions
glycolytic intermediates
____ catalyzes the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which is the ____ step, uses ___ as a cofactor, and is highly regulated by the ___/___ ratio
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
rate limiting
NADP
NADHP/NADP
pentose phosphate pathway: high NADPH/NADP _____ G6PD, low "" ___ G6PD
inhibits
activates
NADPH: primarily uses high energy electrons for ____ (__and ___)
biosynthesis
fatty acids
steroids
NADH: uses high energy electrons to ____ (___ via ___)
make energy
ATP
oxidative phosphorylation
____ is used as a cofactor by enzymes that deal with reactive oxygen species (ROS). It also provides high E electrons for reductive biosynthesis, can these functions be replaced by NADH?
NADPH
no
The needs of the cell are determined by NADPH or _____, which give the direction and amount of G6P, this makes NADPH have a ___ role in biosynthesis
sugar intermediate
unique
ROS can hurt ___, ___, and ___
DNA (genetic mutation)
lipids (membrane function)
protein (enzyme inactivation)
ROS can convert cis DB in lipid membrane to ____
toxic epoxide
____ is produced biologically by a variety of reactions most notably by "leaky" mitochondrial e- transfer. electrons can be transferred from the reduced form of coenzyme Q to oxygen, thus generating this molecule
superoxide anion
_____: produced by oxidase enzymes. Very toxic organic peroxides can be formed from 2e- reduction of O2 in compounds containing DB's (unsaturated fatty acids)
hydrogen peroxide
_____: Produced from a metal catalyzed rxn of superoxide and hydrogen peroxide. Very reactive species that can take part in free radical chain rxns.
hydroxyl radical
_____: selenium-containing enzyme that detoxifies H2O2 and other organic peroxides (lipid peroxides).
Glutathione peroxidate
____ generates reduced GSH from GSSG
glutathione reductase
Functions of glutathione: major cellualr reductant and sulfhydryl buffer, conjugated to drugs to make them more ____, ____ transport across membranes, ___ interchanges in proteins
soluble
AA
disulfide
____ detoxifies superoxide
superoxide dismutase
___ is a heme containing peroxidase that detoxifies H2O2
catalase
There are no known enzymatic system to deal with hydroxyl radicals (t/f)
true
liver enzymes detoxify: ___, ___, and ____, and require ___ as a cofactor
drugs
steroids
alcohols
NADPH
You want your ROS production and antioxidant capacity to be ____
equil
G6PD mutations cause ____ decreased life span, but may confer resistance to ____
slightly
malaria
drugs that exacerbate G6PD (3)
antibiotics (sulfamethoxazole)
antimalarials (primaquine, chloroquine)
antipyretics (acetanilide)
_____ is conjugated to endogenous and exogenous compounds producing a strongly acidic compound that is more water soluble at physiological pH, imporant in ___, ___, and ___
glucuronic acid
drug detoxification
steroid excretion
bilirubin metabolism
glucuronic acid is synthesized in a pathway that starts with ____
glucose