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114 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The _____ describes the relation between interatomic distances, electronic charge, solution dielectric and free energies.
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Van der Waals interaction
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Protein _____ defines the relation among subunits in a multisubunit lattice.
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Quaternary structure
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Protein _____ defines the amino acid sequence.
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Primary structure
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Protein _____ defines the packing of helices, sheets, turns, etc.
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Tertiary structure
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Protein _____ defines the motifs formed by short-range interactions between amino acids.
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Secondary structure
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A _____ interaction involves polar O, N, or both and the atom for which it is named, and constitutes one of the important protein stabilization elements.
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Hydrogen bond.
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_____ is used to determine the sequence of a protein based on sequential chemical reactivity.
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Edman degradation
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A _____ induces denatration of proteins by disturbing the hydrophobic effect.
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Chaotrophic agent
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A _____ is a graph of a conformational torsion angles phi psi for the residues in a protein or peptide, a map of the structure of the polypeptide backbone.
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Rachamandran plot
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A _____ had two charges which neutralize each other.
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zwitterion
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The _____ is the primary “force” of protein structural stabilization.
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Hydrophobic effect
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The _____ is the characteristic speed of an enzyme’s kinetics extrapolated to the time when a defined amount of substrate is added to the enzyme solution.
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Initial rate
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An act of _____ does not change the enzyme and lowers the transition state free energy of the associated reaction.
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Catalysis
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The _____ of an enzymatic reaction is the rate achieved when it is saturated with substrate.
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Maximum velocity
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The _____ (or double reciprocal) equation defines parameters that are used to characterize the kinetics of an enzyme.
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Lineweaver-Burk
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Km is the substrate concentration when vo=vmax/2, or _____
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Michaelis-Menten constant
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A _____ is the enzyme-substrate combination formed during an enzyme catalysis event.
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Michaelis complex
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The catalytic rate constant of an enzyme is abbreviated as _____
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Kcat
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_____ of enzyme catalysis occurs when an inhibitor binds to the active site of an enzyme.
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Competitive inhibition
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_____ of enzyme catalysis occurs when an inhibitor only binds to the enzyme-substrate complex.
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Uncompetitive inhibition.
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The _____ postulates that a constant input feed of substrate is supplied whose rate equals that of product formation.
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Steady state approximation
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Two internal factors that limit the velocity of and enzymatic reaction are _____ and _____.
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Hydrophobic effect and H-bonding
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Two external factors that limit the velocity of an enzymatic reaction are _____ and _____.
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pH and temperature
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What amino acid and functional group in the esterase site of acetylcholine esterase reacts with the substrate”
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Serine, hydroxylate
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PAM reactivates acetylcholine esterase, functioning as a _____.
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Nerve gas antidote
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What kind of reaction produces the reactivated enzyme?
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Nucleophilic substitution
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The bisubstrate-enzyme _____ reaction is used by transaminases in the exchange of an amino group for a carbonyl group between two progressively binding substrates.
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Ping-pong
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An _____ works by amplifying the initial signal via several linked protease cleavage reaction stages.
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Enzyme cascade
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A _____ is a protein that is converted from inactive to active forms by a covalent modification, typically protease cleavage.
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Zymogen
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A decrease in the activity of an enzyme as a result of binding of a product from the reaction in question or subsequent reactions is referred to as _____.
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Feedback inhibition
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_____ involves binding of a regulatory molecule at a site other than the active site.
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Allosterism
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_____ and _____ reactions, involving phosphate addition and removal respectively, regulate both qlycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
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Kinase and phosphatase
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_____ regulates entry and exit from mitosis by catalyzing a covalent modification reaction.
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Cyclin kinase
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What two amino acids are modified in the reactions catalyzed by cyclin kinase?
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Tyrosine and threonine
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Two example of reversible factors that control the catalytic capability of an enzyme are:
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Noncovalent modifications, and pH changes
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Two examples of irreversible factors that control the catalytic capability of an enzyme are:
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Covalent modification, and irreversible inhibitors
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The _____ accounts for the temperature dependence of the rate of a reaction.
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Arrhenius equation
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List two “chemical modes of catalysis”
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Acid-base, and covalent
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List two “binding modes of catalysis”
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Proximity effect, and transition-state stabilization
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A _____ attacks an electropositive site in i’s role in a chemical (enzymatic) reaction.
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Nucleophile
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A common process used to produce a nucleophile is _____.
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Acid-base catalysis
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Probably the most common amino acid used by enzymes to carry out acid-base catalysis is _____.
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Histidine
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A “catalytic triad” of amino acids is typically present in (enzyme class name) _____
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Serine proteases
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The amino acids “collaborate” to accomplish _____.
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Acid-base catalysis (or protein cleavage)
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The most typically cited currency of energy in metabolism is
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ATP
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_____ is typically required to achieve optimal activity with ATP-cosubstrate enzyme reactions.
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Mg2+
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A coenzyme is either a loosely bound cosubstrate of a tightly bound _____.
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Cofactor
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He heavy metal molybdenum is used to facilitate the biochemical reaction in _____, a key enzyme in purine catabolism.
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Xanthine oxidase
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When ATP is used I some biochemical applications it yields AMP and _____.
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pyrophosphate
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The (vitamin) _____ is required to synthesize coenzyme NAD+ for use in metabolic redox reactions.
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Nicotinamide
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The other key redox coenzyme is abbreviated _____
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FAD
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The coenzyme _____ often forms a Schiff base with the ε-amino group of a lysine residue in the enzyme.
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Pyroidoxal phosphate
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What chemical group does CoA typically carry in the course of its biochemical function?
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Acetate
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The _____-avidin noncovalent binding interaction is used to capture ligand-binding entities in the “affinity capture” technique.
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Biotin
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The coenzyme _____ is required to incorporate the methyl group into thymidine, a necessary prerequisite for the production of DNA.
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N5, N10 tetrahydrofolate
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Our understanding of this function can be used in a strategy for (treatment technique) _____.
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Anti-cancer chemotherapy
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The coenzyme-bound carbohydrate _____ and glucose are required to synthesize lactose.
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UDP-galactose
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Cis-retinal functions in _____ the signal of a photon of light into a chemically recognizable form.
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Transducing
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The two important straight-chain forms of carbohydrate structure are the _____ and _____.
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Ketose and aldose
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The two important ring forms of carbohydrate are the _____ and _____.
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Pyranose and furanose
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The two important ring conformations of β-D-glucopyranose are the _____ and _____.
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Chair and boat
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The cyclohexane ring containing compound _____ is released by phospholipase C in the phospholipids signal transduction mechanism.
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Inositol triphosphate
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The acronym NAG is used to abbreviate the name of the compound _____.
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N-acetyl galactosamine
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The key polysaccharide in starch is _____.
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Amylopectin
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The key polysaccharide in the liver is _____.
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Glycogen
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The antibiotic_____ selectively inhibits cell wall peptidylglycan synthesis in bacteria.
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penicillin
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Extra-cellular surface _____ regulate the osmotic pressure around cells.
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Carbohydrates
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Phospholipase C produce two second messengers in the phospholipids signal transduction pathway. The lipid-containing second messenger is _____.
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Diacylglycerol
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The compound chondroitin sulfate _____ cartilage and skeletal joints.
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Lubricates
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_____ fatty acids of the same length have a lower melting temperature (Tm).
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Unsaturated
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Lipid Tm values monitor the transformation from _____ to dispersed forms.
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Liquid crystal
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The most popular model for a biological membrane is called the _____ model.
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Fluid mosaic
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Liquid _____ are composed of two face-to-face monolayers while lipid _____ form a biphasic sphere.
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Bilayers, micelles
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The four nucleic acid bases in RNA are _____, _____, _____, and _____.
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Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil
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The normal base pairs in DNA and RNA are called _____ base pairs.
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Watson-Crick
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The _____ bond in a nucleoside connects the base to the sugar.
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Glycosidic
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The _____ can be used to determine if a double helix forms from 2 single strands of DNA or RNA.
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Absorbance at 260nm
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The face-to-face interaction between nucleic acid bases is called______.
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Base stacking
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Counterions bind all nucleic acids and are required to neutralize the _____.
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Phosphodiester phosphates.
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The proteins called _____ serve this function in the case of most chromosomal DNA’s.
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Histones
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_____ base pairs are less stable than _____ base pairs.
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A-T (or A-U), G-C
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Two differences between A and B forms of DNA are:
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A= 3’endo sugar confirmation, shorter, fatter helix
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The 2’-hydroxyl group catalyzes _____ of RNA, a good example of anchiomeric assistance in a non-protein bimolecular mechanism.
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Alkaline hydrolysis
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An antisence oligonucleotide functionally inactivates an mRNA for use in translation by a ribosome by forming a double helix with it and precluding _____ binding.
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tRNA anticodon
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Name the two most prevalent of the 4 classes of RNA.
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Ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA
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Two distinctive features of most eukaryotic mRNAs are _____ and _____.
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7-Methyl G cap, poly A tail
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A _____ is used to detect the presence of a specific complementary nucleic acid sequence.
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DNA probe
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_____ are required to produce, manipulate, and clone specific pieces of DNA.
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Restriction endonucleases
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Two functional ends of transfer RNA are the anticodon and _____.
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Amino acid acceptor
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The three most central catabolic pathways of intermediary metabolism are _____, _____, and _____.
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Glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, and electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation
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The four major compounds in which energy is captured in a chemically usable form by metallic reaction pathways are _____, _____, _____, and _____.
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ATP, NADH, FADH2, and coenzyme Q
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The _____ (Q) corrects for deviations from standard stat concentrations (1M)
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Mass action ratio
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_____ (number) steps in glycolysis control most of the flux through the pathway under actual cellular conditions.
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3
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What do the 3 reactions that control most of glycolysis have in common?
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They are metabolically irreversible
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What do the reactions other than the 3 controlling reactions in glycolysis have in common?
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They are near equilibrium
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The kinetics of an enzyme reaction are most easily controlled when Km is approximately equal to _____.
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The actual concentration of the reactant
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The enzyme Triose phosphate isomerase converts ______ into glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate.
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Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
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When citrate negatively regulates (discourages) the phosphofructosekinase-1 reaction, the general name for this phenomenon is _____
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Feedback inhibition
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When fructose-1,6-bisphosphate stimulates the pyruvate kinase reaction, the general name for this phenomenon is _____.
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Feedforward activation
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The three possible catabolic fates of pyruvate are _____, _____, and _____.
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Acetyl CoA, lactate, and ethanol
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The enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase converts _____ to ethanol.
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acetaldehyde
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_____ uses the coenzyme lipoic acid in “fueling” the Kreb’s Cycle.
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Dihydrolipoamide acetyl transferase
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What “synport” reaction accompanies import of pyruvate into the mitochondrion and what enzyme catalyzes the reaction? (enzyme name)
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Pyruvate translocase
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The two “oxidative decarboxylation” reaction of the Krebs Cycle are catalyzed by _____ and _____.
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Isocitrate dehydrogenase and α-ketogluterate dehydrogenase
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List the reactions, coenzymes, cofactors, and enzymes involved in the “substrate-level phosphorylation” reaction of the Krebs Cycle.
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Succinyl CoA synthetase
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The enzymes _____ and malate dehydrogenase “fix” a carbonyl group on succinate in the production of oxaloacetate.
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fumarase
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What crucial 2 carbon compound is then “fixed” to OAA?
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acetate
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What amino acid and what product of pyruvate metabolism are the principle substrates for gluconeogenesis in mammals?
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Alanine and lactate
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What energy sources are used to produce the “proton motive force”?
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NADH, FADH2, CoQH2
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What enzyme complex uses proton motive force as the driving energy for ATP synthesis in oxidative phosphorylation?
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F0F1ATPase
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How does electron transport drive production of the proton motive force?
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Exports H+ from mitochondrion (which creates a gradient, making them predisposed to flowing back in)
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How many reactions of each round of β-oxidation of a fatty acid require?
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4
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A set of coupled cofactor regeneration cycles siphon off reducing equivalents then fix them into coenzyme Q in reactions that are coupled to the first oxidative steps of fatty acid β-oxidation. Name the four cofactors involved in this “siphon.”
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CoA, FAD/FADH2, Fe-S, CoQ/CoQH2
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Which three steps of the Krebs Cycle do the first three steps of β-oxidation resemble?
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Succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, malate dehydrogenase
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