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87 Cards in this Set

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Name the 3 genes in the lac operon.
LacY-lactoase permease- creates the transporter for uptake of beta gal
LacZ-beta galactosidase-
LacA-thiogalactoside transacetylase - acetylates nonmetabolic beta gal
What is it called where the repressor binds?
how many does lac have? and where are they
the operator 2 -- 1. adjacent to the promoter 2. within the coding region of lacZ
Since lac operon has 2 operators how many repressors does it need?
1 - the repressor - encoded by lacI binds to both operators
What happens when the repressor binds in lac operon?
causes the DNA to form a stable loop which blocks initiation because it binds to both operators
What does beta galactosides act as?
as inducers to cause the repressor to dissociate
What is the inducer for lac operon?
allolactose -- binds to lac repressor, causes conform change and it dissociates from operator
When is the lac operon transcribed at max?
When beta galactosides are the only carbon source
What is method which glucose represses lac operon? how does it work? what is the activator?
catabolite represssion- a weak promoter is promoted to a stronger one by an activator in the absence of glucose --- activated by CRP(cAMP regulatory protein) or CAP
What is the signal for the activator to bind to the operator?
the presence of cAMP -- cAMP binds to CRP which becomes the activator and bind to the operator
How is cAMP produced?
main C source w/o glucose - Enzyme III (a glucose transport enzyme) transfers a phosphate to adenylate cyclase and -CRP-cAMP increase
What is the pathway for the production of cAMP and the CRP activator?
low glucose -- activates EIII to phosphoralate andenylate cyclase -->cAMP cAMP then binds withe CRP to create the activator!
What does CRP/cAMP do/fit?
the alpha helix of each monomer of the cAMP/CRP dimer fit into the major groove of DNA
When does the activator/repressor bind to the operator in lac operon?
activator - when there is no glucose
repressor - when there is no lactose
What are 3 RNA processing --post transcriptional modification
1. removal 2. additon of nuc
3. covalent modification of bases
tRNA processing-
mature tRNA molecules are generated by processing the primary transcripts
What cleaves the primary transcripts to mRNA?
RNAases
What are the 3 steps in tRNA processing.
1. RNAaseP cleaves the primary sequence forming the 5' end of tRNA
2. RNAaseD cleaves the primary sequence froming the 3' end of the tRNA
3. tRNA nucleotidyl transferase - adds CCA to the 3' end
What does ribosomal RNA processing include?
1. methylation and cleavage by endonucleases
What is the length of prokaryotic rRNA primary transcript? -what does it includE?
30S
includes 16S, 23S, 5S
Does pro do mRNA processing?
No - because they happen at the same time --translation and transcription
Why are euk mRNA processed?
to add stuff the ends so its doesnt get degraded as fast
What are the 2 mRNA processing that happens?
1. 5' end cap (which is required for splicing and when the rib binds)
2. 3' poly A tail
How do you form the 5' cap?
1. remove the 5' Phosphate 2. The phosphate created forms GTP which is added to the 5' end (cap)
3. N-7 base and others methylated
How do you create the poly A tail?
poly A polymerase adds up to 250 A -- 1. RNA pol II synthesis a pol A signal 2. CPSF binds with RNA endonuclease, cleaves transcript and poly A pol binds
How far to genes normally span? how long is mRNA
3400 base pairs - mRNA wiht poly A =1050
How long is the poly A tail?
up to 250 A
What is similar is all mRNA precursors?
nucleotide sequence at splice sites
What is the spliceosome made out of/
45 proteins and 5 snRNA
What are snRNPs made out of?
protein and snRNA
Genetic code - meaning of unambiguous and degnerate
unambiguous - each codon only codes for 1 AA
degenerate - each aa can be coded for more than 1 codon
How many nucleotides are typically needed to code for an AA?
usually 2 but 3 definately
What are the stop codons?
UGA, UAA UAG
What is the structure of tRNA?
4 arms and 1 acceptor stem --when aa attaches , 1 anticodon arm - contains the anticodon
Where is the wobble position? What is its funciton?
the 5' end of the anticodon -- allows a tRNA to recognizes more than 1 sequence -so you might not have to have 20 tRNAs
isoacceptor tRNA molecules-
needed because several condons call for the same aa
aminoacyl -tRNA - What catalyzes this reaction? how many different ones do we have?
tRNA with aa attached to the 3' end of the tRNA -- aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases =20 1 for each aa
What enzyme puts together the activated tRNA?
synthetase - binds to ATP and the AA and then finds the correct tRNA based on structure - may recognize anticodon and acceptor stem
What is a special property of active tRNA synthetases -
some can proofread --common error - valine instead of isoleucine
What direction does the ribosome move? what direction is protein madE?
5--3 along mRNA
N to C direction
Polysome--
mRNA that is translated by more tha n 1 ribosome at a time
What does the initaition complex in translation consist of/
1. ribosome subunits (2)
2. mRNA template
3. tRNA - initiator
4. protein initiation factors
What amino acid has to have 2 tRNAs/
met -- 1. for initiation 2. for internal met
What is the names of the initiator for pro and euk?
pro -N-formylmethionyl
euk -methionyl
What does the SD sequence bind to?
the 30S ribosome and complementary base sequence at 3' end of 16S rRNA
What can multiple SD sequences in one mRNAresult in?
polycistronic -- mRNA carries more than one gene like operons
What are required to form the initiation complex? how many does pro and euk have
initiation factors
pro -3
euk - 8 or more
--they catalyze assembly of protein synthesis complex at initiation condon
Where is the Shine-Dalgarno seq?
upstream of initation and only in Pro
What does euk IF 4 do?/ What is its name?
Cap binding protien - binds to the 5'' cap of euk mRNA
What proteins form the preinitiation complex? What does it do?
40S rib, active tRNA, and other == searches mRNA 5-3 for initaitor codon (AUG)
What signals the 60S to bind?
when the met-tRNA binds to AUG
What are the 3 steps of elongation?
1.positioning of the correct aa-tRNA in A site
2. formation of peptide bond
3. translocation of mRNA codon by codon
What is bound to all aa-tRNA except initatior aa? -what do they do?
Elongation factors -they help the correct aa get to the a site
What all binds at the a site? when is it stabilized?
ternary complex of EF-Tu-GTP-aa-tRNA -stabilized if the aa-tRNA matches the codon
When is the GTP that is attached to EF-Tu hydrolysed? what does this do?
When it pairs the correct aa-tRNA to the correct codon - this causes a conformational change in EF-Tu and it leaves the ribosome -FUELS THE TRANSLOCATION OF THE EPA SITES
How is EF-Tu recycled?
To recycled EF-Tu you need to replace the GDP with GTP and EF-Ts does this!
peptidyl transferase-
creates the peptide bonds in the aa that are in the A and P site in the 60S -- catalytic activity from 23S rRNA
Where is the growing peptide chain leave the ribo?
through a tunnel in the 50s
How many pro releasing factors are they? what are they used for
3 -- when a stop codon comes up and it doesnt call for a aa - a RF binds and causes hydrolysis of the peptidyl t-RNA to release the polypeptide chain
How many high energy phosphate bonds are cleaved for each amino acid added? how many molecules are used?
4 - But only 3 molecules ATP-AMP (2 Bonds) 2GTP- 2GDP
T/F -- All proteins are translated at the same rate.,
F - it depends on codon usage, sequence at initiation site, and secondary structure in mRNA
What does each operon for ribosomal proteins also encode?
a repressor that inhibits translocation of its operon
What is ribosomal protein syntheis coupled to? how/
ribosomal assembly --because ribosomal proteins that inhibit translation bind more strongly to the RNA and when that proteins concentration increase the translation will stop
How is globin synthesis regulated?
by translation initiation - requires stoichiometric amounts for syntheis to occur -- HCL phosphorlated EF2 when heme is low so globin synthesis cant occur - high heme interferes with HCL
What are miRNAS used for?
regulators of gene expression at the post transcriptional level. -regulate mRNA stability and translation
What are miRNAS made from? where? How do they work?
non or coding regions of DNA -processed in the nucleus and transported to cytoplasm- can produce hairpins
What processes miRNAs and how?
Dicer = one strand is degraded and other complexes with protein to form miRNA - some miRNAs promote translational repression or deadenylation of mRNA
What is the pathway for a newly formed protein in euk?
from cytoplasm to ER to golgi to final location
Where are proteins that leave the cell created?
in the rough ER luman
How does a protein know to leave the cell?
a signal peptide is on the n term and signals the protein to cross a membrane
What is a common glycosyltion reaction/
the covalent attachment of a complex oligosaccharide to the side chain of asp
Recombinate DNA molecules-
constructed with DNA from different sources
What are the 3 types of cloning vectors/
1. plasmids 2. bacteriophages 3. small artifical chromosomes
Plasmid Vectors-
for small inserts - replicate independently -transformation
Bacteriophage Lamda Vectors-
commonly used in bacteria - transfection is more efficient - disadvantage - first have to pack it into viruses
Shuttle Vectors -
Can be used to replicate in pro and euk -can transfer recombinate DNA between pro and euk
Yeast Artificial Chromosomes
Large DNA fragments - must be linear and contain euk origin, centromeres and telomeres
Selection -
Screening-0
Selection -cells grown under conditions where only cells with insert will survive
Screening-transformed cells are tested for the presence of the recomb DNA
insertional inactivation-
insertion of the DNA fragment within the coding region of a gene will inactivate that gene
DNA library-
consist of all recombinant DNA molecules generated by ligating the DNA fragments into vectors- contains both expressed and non expressed DNA
What kind of restriction digestion do you want for forming DNA librarys? what the most common example in humans/
Partial -dont want them to cut a lot - want to make sure each gene is included - BAC
cDNA library=
represents all the mRNA - use reverse transcriptase -- identification by the poly a tail on mRNA - depend on cell type
What is the hardest part of cDNA?
screening for the desired recombinant
prokaryotic expression vectors-
plasmids that have been engineered to contain regulatory sequences for transcription and translation
RFPLs-
genetic analysis based on variations in length of genomic restriction fragments
How are RFPLs detected?
by incubating fragmented DNA of many indivuals with a cloned DNA probe
Site directed mutagensis of cloned DNA-
allows you to change an AA -- can introduce a mutation to a gene
How do you do mutagenesis?
1. anneal primer with mutation to a strand with target gene
2. replicate using primer -want mutation incorporated in to a strand
3. transform in to cell or keep repeating using mutant primers