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462 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what metabolism goes on in the mitochondria?
- fatty acid oxidation (beta-oxidation)
- acetyl-CoA production
- TCA cycle
- oxidative phosphorylation
what metabolism goes on in the cytoplasm?
- glycolysis
- fatty acid synthesis
- HMP shunt
- protein synthesis (RER)
- steroid synthesis (SER)
what metabolism goes on in both the cytoplasm & mitochondria?
"HUGs take 2"
- heme synthesis
- urea cycle
- gluconeogenesis
rate determining enzyme of glycolysis
phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
rate determining enzyme of gluconeogenesis
fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
rate determining enzyme of TCA cycle
isocitrate dehydrogenase
rate determining enzyme of glycogen synthesis
glycogen synthase
rate determining enzyme of glycogenolysis
glycogen phosphorylase
rate determining enzyme of HMP shunt
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
rate determining enzyme of de novo pyrimidine synthesis
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (CPS2)
rate determining enzyme of de novo purine synthesis
glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase
rate determining enzyme of urea cycle
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS1)
rate determining enzyme of fatty acid synthesis
acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC)
rate determining enzyme of fatty acid oxidation
carnitine acyltransferase I
rate determining enzyme of ketogenesis
HMG-CoA synthase
rate determining enzyme of cholesterol synthesis
HMG-CoA reductase
rate determining enzyme of heme synthesis
aminolevulinic synthase
rate determining enzyme of bile acid synthesis
7-alpha-hydroxylase
results in excess NH4+ which depletes alpha-ketoglutarate, l/t inhibition of the TCA cycle
hyperammonemia
tx for hyperammonemia
- limit protein in diet
- to tx urea cycle enz def: benzoate or phenylbutyrate (both bind AA & l/t excretion)
- to tx liver dz: lactulose
MOA of lactulose
lactulose+bacteria creates acidic pH → traps ammonia in gut

also pulls NH4 from blood to excr
DNA is (pos/neg) charged.
negative
histone octamers consist of what amino acids?
lysine & arginine
Histone octamers are (pos/neg) charged.
positive
histone octamer consists of...
2 sets of:
- H2A
- H2B
- H3
- H4
cytosine→ uracil is a ___ reaction
deamination
(A-T/G-C) has a higher melting temp
G-C (3 H bonds)
purine sources of carbon
- CO2
- Glycine
- N10-formyl-tetrahydrofolate
pyrimidine sources of C
- Aspartate
- CO2 + glutamine → carbamoyl phosphate
glutamine + CO2 + ATP → (CPS2) → ??
carbamoyl phosphate
(RLE for pyrimidine synth)
RLS of pyrimidine synthesis
Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase 2 (CPS2) making Carbamoyl Phosphate
RLS of purine synthesis
glutamine PRPP aminotransferase converting PRPP →→→ IMP
hydroxyurea inhibits...
rubonucleotide reductase
(a part of pyrimidine synth; UDP→dUDP/CTP)
6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) blocks...?
de novo purine synthesis
(blocks PRPP synthetase that makes the PRPP)
5-fluorouracil (5-FU) inhibits...?
thymidylate synthase
(part of pyrimidine synthesis; ↓dTMP)
methotrexate (MTX) inhibits...
dihydrofolate reductase
(part of pyrimidine synthesis; ↓dTMP)
trimethoprim inhibits...
bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
(part of pyrimidine synthesis; ↓dTMP)
clinical findings of orotic aciduria
- ↑ orotic acid in urine
- megaloblastic anemia (doesn't improve w/B12/folate)
- failure to thrive
- NO hyperammonemia! (vs OTC deficiency)
defective enzyme in orotic aciduria
- orotic acid phosphoribosyltransferase
- OR orotidine 5'-phosphate decarboxylase

(messes up pyrimidine synth; can't convert orotic acid→UMP)
orotic aciduria tx
oral uridine
defect in Lesch-Nyhan
defective purine salvage

no HGPRT
(which converts hypoxanthine→IMP & guanine→GMP)

l/t excess uric acid production
retardation, self-mutilation, aggression, hyperuricemia, gout, choreoathetosis
Lesch-Nyhan
common enzyme deficiency resulting in SCID
adenosine deaminase deficiency
SCID adenosine deaminase deficiency mechanism of pathology
- ↑ATP & dATP imbalances nucleotide pool via feedback inhib of ribonucleotide reductase
- this prevents DNA synth & thus ↓ lymphocyte count
transition
sub'ing purine for purine, etc
transversion
sub'ing purine for pyrimidine & vice versa
"unamniguous" refers to...
each codon specifying only 1 AA
"degenerate" refers to...
>1 codon coding for the same AA
"universal" refers to...
genetic code being conserved throughout evolution
"missense" refers to...
changed AA
"nonsense" refers to...
change resulting in an early stop codon
(stop the nonsense!)
helicase
unwinds DNA template @repli fork
ss-binding protein
prevents strands from reannealing
DNA topoisomerases
creates a nick in the helix to relieve supercoils
(aka DNA gyrase)
BREED: CAVALIER KING CHARLES SPANIEL

Division: Toy
Origin: England
Purpose: Companion
Helath problems: Heart disease, ear infection, eye problems and dislocating kneecaps
Behavior problems: Friendly and social with both people and other dogs. easy to train.
Characteristics:
Life Span: 9 to 11 years.
Color: Blenheim: rich chestnut markings on a clear, pearly white ground; Tricolor: jet black markings on a clear pearly white ground; Ruby: solid rich red; Black and Tan: jet black with rich, bright tan markings.
Coat: Moderate length, silky, free from curl; feathering on ears, chest, legs and tail
Grooming: Brushing two to three times weekly, more often in shedding season; bathe every four weeks or as needed; trim nails monthly.
Height: 12 to 13 inches at the withers.
Weight: 13 to 18 pounds; as proportionate to height.
DNA polymerase I
- proks only
- degrades RNA primer & fills w/DNA
DNA poly III adds in a ___ fashion.
5'→3'
(adds to the 3' end)
DNA poly III "proofreads" w/...
3'→5' exonuclease
DNA ligase
seals
DNA polymerase I excises RNA primer w/...
5'→3' exonuclease
1000x ↑ risk of skin cancer
xeroderma pigmentosum
problem in xeroderma pigmentosum
messed up nucleotide excision repair → prevents repair of thymidine dimers
problem in hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)
messed up mismatch repair
(can't remove mismatched nucleotides)
types of RNA
rRNA = most abundant (rampant)
mRNA = longest (massive)
tRNA = smallest (tiny)
Protonix
Pantoprazole
AUG codes for ___ in eukaryotes
methionine
AUG codes for ___ in prokaryotes
formyl-methionine (f-Met)
mRNA stop codons
- UGA (U Go Away)
- UAA (U Are Away)
- UAG (U Are Gone)
functional organization of a gene
5'--[promoter]--[repressor/enhancer]--[-75 CAAT]--[-25 TATA]--[transcription initiation site]--[CODING REGION w/INTRONS & EXONS]---AATAAA--3'
transcription factors must do what for transcription to take place?
bind the promoter region
promoter mutation commonly results in...
dramatic ↓ in amount of gene transcribed
makes rRNA / mRNA / tRNA (in eukaryotes)
rRNA = RNA poly I (in nucleolus)
mRNA = RNA poly II (in nucleoplasm)
tRNA = RNA poly III (in nucleoplasm)

(but has NO proofreading functions!!)
makes rRNA / mRNA / tRNA (in prokaryotes)
1 RNA poly makes all 3
causes acute liver failure if ingested
alpha-amanitin (in death cap mushrooms)
alpha-amanitin
inhibits RNA poly II
(death cap mushrooms; causes liver failure if ingested)
inhibits RNA poly II
alpha-amanitin / death cap mushrooms
inhibits RNA polymerase RNA production in prokaryotes
rifampin
3 things that happen to get RNA out of nucleus after transcription
1) capping on 5' end (7-methylguanosine)
2) polyadenylation on 3' end (~200 A's)
3) splicing out of introns
ONLY ___ RNA is transported out of the nucleus.
processed
before a transcript becomes mRNA it is called:
heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)
a capped & tailed transcript is called:
mRNA
polyadenylation signal:
AAUAAA
poly-A polymerase (does/does not) require a template.
does not
enzyme that does pre-mRNA splicing
spliceosome
patients w/lupus make antibodies to what proteins used in mRNA synth?
spliceosomal snRNP's
introns vs exons
INtrons stay IN
EXsons EXit & are EXpressed
the AA is put on what end of the tRNA?
3' OH end!!
what enzyme puts the AA on the tRNA?
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
what med binds to tRNA & prevents the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA?
tetracyclines
(bind the 30S subunit)
aminoacyl-tRNA binds to __ site.
A site
(tetracyclins bind to the 30S subunit to block this)
catalyzes peptide bond formation & transfers growing polypeptide to AA in A site
(protein synth)
ribosomal rRNA (aka "ribozyme")
(the transfer is by peptidyl transferase)
peptidyl transferase
transfers growing polypep to AA in A site during protein synth
eukaryotes: __S + __S → __S ??
40S + 60S → 80S
(Euks = Even)
prokaryotes: __S + __S → __S ??
30S + 50S → 70S
(prOks = Odd)
eukaryotes vs prokaryotes
(simple mnemonic)
- U are Eukaryote
- Pro has No nucleus
movement through sites during protein synth
"APE"
site A → site P → site E

A = incoming Aminoacyl tRNA
P = growing Peptide
E = Exits
where are ribosomes synth'd?
in the nucleus
(transported out to cytoplasm)
4 types of antibiotics that act as protein synthesis inhibitors
1) AG's
2) chloramphenicol
3) macrolides
4) clindamycin
inhibit formation of the initiation complex & cause misreading of mRNA (in protein synthesis)
aminoglycosides
(inhibit 30S)
inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase
(protein synth)
chloramphenicol
(also, streptogramins)
bind 50S & blocks translocation
(protein synth)
- macrolides
- clindamycin
- (& lanezolid)
in the 23S RNA of the 50S subunit (of bacteria)
peptidyltransferase
(involved in protein synth)
"trimming" refers to:
removal of N/C terminal peptides from zymogens to generate mature proteins
(posttranslational modification)
covalent posttranslational alterations
- phosphorylation
- glycosylation
- hydroxylation
3 mechanisms of proteolysis:
1) proteasomal degrad by tagging w/UBUQUITIN
2) degrad in lysosomes
3) Ca2+-dept enzyme mech.
cell cycle is regulated by...
1) CDK's (cyclin-dept kinases)
2) cyclins (activate CDK's)
3) cyclin-CDK complexes
4) tumor suppressors (Rb, p53)
all cyclins are degraded by what?
UBIQUITIN PROTEIN LIGASE!
controls activation of p21
p53
p21, p27, p57 → bind to ?
inativated cyclin-CDK complex
Rb gene mut results it ?
Rb normally (-) G1-to-S progression...
mut = unrestrained growth

l/t:
- retinoblastoma
- osteosarcoma
stable cells enter ___ when stimulated
G1
(from G0)
labile cells
- never go to G0
- divide rapidly
- short G1
- most susceptible to cancer drugs
examples of labile cells:
- bone marrow
- gut
- epithelium
- skin
- hair follicles
Rb & p53 control what?
what goes into S phase
components needed for progression thru S phase:
- cyclin E
- DNA polymerase
- thymidine kinase
- dihydrofolate reductase
RER in neurons
nissl bodies
(synth enzymes / NT's)
(in DENDRITES, NOT axons!)
site of synthesis of cytosolic & organellar proteins
free ribosomes
site of steroid synthesis
smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)

(steroid horm-producing cells of the adrenal cortex are rich in SER)
site of detoxification of drugs / poisons
smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)

(liver hepatocytes are rich in SER)
retrograde vesicular trafficking protein
COPI
(Golgi→ ER)
anterograde vesicular trafficking protein
COPII
(RER→ cis-golgi)
clathrin
- "coats stuff"
- vesicular trafficking protein of golgi apparatus
- trans-golgi → lysosomes, plasma memb → endosomes
- (receptor mediated endocytosis)
disease when the golgi fails to add mannose-6-phosphate to specific lysosomal proteins (to target the protein to the lysosome)
I-cell disease

(inclusion cell; inherited lysosomal storage dz; enzymes are excreted OUTSIDE the cell instead of being targeted to the lysosome!)
I-cell clinical picture
- coarse facial features
- clouded corneas
- restricted joint mvmt
- high plasma lvls of lysosomal enzymes
- often fatal in childhood
(looks like Hurlers/Hunters/Skeies?)
microtubule proteins
dynein & kinesin
drugs that act on microtubules:
1) bendazoles (antihelminthic)
2) griseofulvin (antifungal)
3) vincristine/vinblastine (anti-cancer; blocks polymerization)
4) paclitaxel (anti-breast cancer; makes hyperstable so cells can't divide)
5) colchicine (anti-gout)
microtubule polymerization defect resulting in ↓ phagocytosis
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Chediak-Higashi syndrome defect
microtubule polymerization defect resulting in ↓ phagocytosis
recurrent pyogenic infections, partial albinism, & peripheral neuropathy
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Kartagener's syndrome defect
immotile cilia d/t dynein arm defect
(aka primary ciliary dyskinesia)
what accounts for the coordinated contraction of ciliar cells?
gap junctions
intermediate filaments (cytoskeletal elements) are in:
- Vimentin (CT, fibroblasts)
- Desmin (musc cells)
- Cytokeratin (epith cells)
- Glial fibrillary acid proteins (GFAP; astrocytes, schwann cells, neuroglia)
- Neurofilaments
- nuclear lamins A, B, C
vimentin stains:
CT
(sarcomas)
desmin stains:
muscle
(rhabdo/leio-myosarcomas)
cytokeratin stains:
epithelial cells
(CA's)
GFAP stains:
neuroglia
neurofilaments stain:
neurons
(adrenal neuroblastoma, primitive neuroectoderm)
inhibits Na/K ATPase by binding to K+ site
Ouabain
directly inhibits Na/K ATPase
cardiac glycosides → digoxin, digitoxin

(l/t indirect (-) of Na/Ca exchange = ↑'s intracell Ca2+ = ↑'s dp/dt)
type I collagen:
- bone
- skin
- tendon
- dentin
- fascia
- cornea
- late wound repair
type 2 collagen:
- cartilage (incl hyaline)
- vitreous body
- nucleus pulposus (remnant of notochord)
type 3 collagen:
(reticulin)
- skin
- blood vessels
- uterus
- fetal tissue
- granulation tissue (early wound healing)
type 4 collagen:
- basement membrane
- basal lamina

("type 4, under the floor")
collagen type in bone
type I
collagen type in skin
type 1 & 3
collagen type in tendon
type I
collagen type in dentin
type I
collagen type in fascia
type I
collagen type in cornea
type I
collagen type in late wound repair
type I
collagen type in cartilage
type 2
collagen type in vitreous body
type 2
collagen type in nucleus pulposus (remnant of notochord)
type 2
collagen type in blood vessels
type 3
collagen type in uterus
type 3
collagen type in fetal tissue
type 3
collagen type in granulation tissue (early wound healing)
type 3
collagen type in basement membrane
type 4
collagen type in basal lamina
type 4
deposition of too much collagen
keloid
(use GC to (-) collagen synth)
collagen synthesis inside the fibroblast
1) synthesis (RER)
2) hydroxylation (ER) (scurvy)
3) glycosylation (ER) (osteogen imperf)
4) exocytosis
(5 & 6 are done outside the fibroblast)
hydroxylation of proline & lysine residues in the 2nd step of collagen synthesis requires what?
vitamin C
(if you lack this→ scurvy)
steps of collagen synthesis outside the fibroblast
5) proteolytic processing
6) cross-linking (ehlers-danlos)
can't glycosylate lysine residues in collagen synth→ SO, can't make procollagen
osteogenesis imperfecta
(3rd step of collagen synth)
can't cross-link tropocollagen to make collagen fibrils
ehlers-danlos
collagen type affected in ehlers danlos
type 3
collagen type affected in osteogenesis imperfecta
type 1
collagen type affected in alport's syndrome
type 4
progressive hereditary nephritis & deafness; may be a/w ocular disturbances
Alport's syndrome
("can't see, can't pee, can't hear"; messed up BM of kidney, ears & eyes)
elastin
the stretchy protein in:
- lungs
- large arteries
- elastic ligaments
- vocal cords
- ligamenta flava (connects verts)
elastin is rish in
proline & glycine
elastin is broken down by
elastase!
(inhibited by alpha1-antitrypsin)
2 elastin diseases
1) marfan's (defect in fibrillin)
2) emphysema (a1-antitrypsin deficiency)
defect in fibrillin
marfan's
southern vs. northern vs. western blots
"SNoW DRoP"
- South = DNA sample = DNA probe
- North = RNA sample = DNA probe
- West = Protein sample = antibody probe
3 steps of PCR
1) denature (by heat)
2) anneal (during cooling, premade DNA primers anneal)
3) elongate (replicates DNA seq after each primer→ get 2 dsDNA)

(repeat for amplification)
what travels further in agarose gel electrophoresis?
smaller molecules
ELISA is testing for:
antigen-antibody reactivity

pt's blood is probed w/either test Ag (does immune syst recog?) or test Ab (is Ag present in pt?)
uses known fluorescent DNA/RNA probe that binds to specific gene site of interest
fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
used for specific localization of genes & direct visualization of anomalies (e.g. microdeletions) at the molecular level (when deletion is too small to see w/karyotype)
fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
knock-out
removing a gene
knock-in
inserting a gene
aerobic metabolism of glucose produces __ ATP via ___
- 32 ATP via malate-aspartate shuttle (heart & liver)
- 30 ATP via glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle (muscle)
anaerobic glycolysis produces __ ATP per glucose molecule
2 net ATP/glucose
can be coupled to energetically unfavorable rxns
ATP hydrolysis
activated carriers: phosphoryl
uses ATP
activated carriers: electrons
uses NADH, NADPH, FADH2
activated carriers: acyl
uses coenzyme A, lipoamide
activated carriers: CO2
uses biotin
activated carriers: 1-carbon units
uses tetrahydrofolate
activated carriers: CH3 groups
use SAM (S-adenosyl-methionine)
activated carriers: aldehydes
use TTP (thiamine pyrophosphate)
NADPH is a product of ?
the HMP shunt
functions of NAD+ & NADPH
- NAD+ = used in CATABOLIC processes to carry reducing equivs away as NADH (to go make energy w/it)
- NADPH = ANABOLIC processes (steroid & FA synth) as supply of reducing equivs

(hint: cat takes things apart...& anaerobic puts 'em together--anabolic steroids build you up)
4 processes that use NADPH
1) anabolic processes
2) respiratory burst
3) P-450
4) glutathione reductase
the 1st step of glycolysis
- phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
- catalyzed by either hexokinse or glucokinase

(keep glucose inside cell!)
hexokinase vs. glucokinase -- location
- hexo = it's everywhere
- gluco = in liver & beta cells of panc
hexokinase vs. glucokinase -- affinity & capacity
HEXO:
- high affinity (low Km)
- low capacity (low Vmax)

GLUCO:
- low affinity (high Km)
- high capacity (high Vmax)
insulin effects on hexokinase
uninduced by insulin
insulin effects on glucokinase
induced by insulin
(can control it w/insulin)
is hexokinase or glucokinase feedback inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate?
hexokinase
phosphorylates excess glucose (e.g. after a meal) to sequester it in the liver; allows liver to serve as blood glucose "buffer"
glucokinase
hexokinase/glucokinase catalyzes...
glucose → glucose-6-phosphate
(reqs ATP)
phosphofructokinase-1 catalyzes...
fructose-6-P→fructose-1,6-BP
(reqs ATP)
inhibits phosphofructokinase-1
ATP & citrate
(↑ citrate = TCA cycle backed up!)
(↑ ATP = you have enough energy!)
stims phosphofructokinase-1
AMP & fructose-2,6-BP
(↑ AMP = you used all your energy & need more!)
(↑ fructose-2,6-BP = your fed & can now make more energy)
inhibits hexokinase/glucokinase
↑ glucose-6-P (neg feedback)
pyruvate kinase catalyzes...
phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate
(makes ATP)
inhibits pyruvate kinase
ATP & alanine
(↑ ATP = neg fb, don't need to make more...)
pyruvate dehydrogenase catalyzes...
pyruvate → acetyl-CoA
(get energy out!)
inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
ATP, NADH & acetyl-CoA
(if ↑ NADH = it's backed up/saturated system)
what happens to glucagon in FASTING state?
↑ glucagon→ ↑ cAMP → ↑ protein kinase A → ↑FBPase-2 & ↓PFK-2

(↑ glucagon b/c you want to get energy from reserves...F-2,6-bisphos is storing energy & FBase-2 releases it by changing it back to fructose-6-P that can go on to glycolysis)
what happens to glucagon in the FED state?
↑ insulin → ↓ cAMP → ↓ protein kinase A → ↓FBPase-2 & ↑PFK-2

(PFK-2 turns fructose-6-P into fructose-2,6-P to "store" energy)
RBC's metabolize glucose [aerobically / anaerobically]?
anaerobically
(no mitochondria; depend solely on glycolysis!)
glycolytic enzyme deficiency is a/w...
hemolytic anemia → RBC's can't maintain Na-K ATPase activity & l/t swelling & lysis

(b/c RBC's NEED glycolysis to maintain this pump & if they are missing glycolysis enzymes, they can't do it)
(95% d/t deficiencies in pyruvate kinase; 4% d/t phosphoglucose isomerase)
most glycolytic enzymes deficiencies are d/t...
pyruvate kinase
(phosphoenolpyruvate→pyruvate)
(95%... 4% are d/t phosphoglucose isomerase)
5 coenzymes required for pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
"Tender Loving Care For Noone"
- pyrophosphate (B1/Thiamine; TPP)
- Lipoic acid
- CoA (B5/pantothenate)
- FAD (B2/riboflavin)
- NAD (B3/niacin)
Activated by exercise
pyruvate dehydrogenase complex!
↑ NAD+/NADH ratio
↑ ADP
↑ Ca2+
pyruvate dehydrogenase complex reaction
pyruvate* + NAD+ + CoA → acetyl-CoA* + CO2 + NADH

(takes pyruvate from glycolysis & turns it into acetyl-CoA to go into TCA cycle!)
inhibits lipoic acid
arsenic
vomiting, rice water stools, garlic breath
arsenic poisoning
causes backup of substrate (pyruvate & alanine) resulting in lactic acidosis
pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
is pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency congenital or acquired?
both!
congenital or seen w/alcoholics (d/t B1 deficiency)
pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency sxs
neurologic defects
tx for pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
↑ intake of ketogenic nutrients
(high fat content or ↑ lysine & leucine - the only purely ketogenic AAs)
4 different metabolite products of pyruvate
1) alanine (carries amino groups from liver to musc; ALT)
2) Oxaloacetate (replenish TCA cycle; used in gluconeogenesis)
3) Acetyl-coA (transition from glycolysis to TCA)
4) Lactate (end of anaerobic glycolysis)
anaerobic glycolysis is a major pathway in...
1) RBCs
2) leukocytes
3) kidney medulla
4) testes
5) lens & cornea
function of the Cori Cycle
allows lactate generated in anaerob. metab to undergo hepatic gluconeogen & become source of glucose for musc/RBCs
(shifts metabolic burden to the liver--RBCs dont have much energy to spare..)
(recycles lactate)
1st step of TCA cycle
acetyl-CoA + OAA →[citrate synthase]→ citrate

(enzyme is irreversible)
2nd step of TCA cycle
citrate → isocitrate →[isocitrate DH]→ alpha-ketoglutarate

(enzyme is rirreversible)
3rd step of TCA cycle
a-KG →[a-KG DH]→ Succinyl-CoA

(enzyme is irreversible)
cofactors of a-KG DH complex
B1, B2, B3, B5, lipoic acid

"Tender Loving Care For Noone"
- Thiamine (B1, pyrophosphate/TPP)
- Lipoic acid
- CoA (B5/pantothenate)
- FAD (B2/riboflavin)
- NAD (B3/Niacin)
function of electron transport chain
pumps H+ into cell → to make gradient (w/energy from NADH)
what complexes in the electron transport chain pump H+?
complex I, III, & IV
(complex V uses the created H+ gradient to turn & create energy/ATP)
aka Complex V
ATP synthase
(releases energy)
1 NADH makes __ ATP via ATP synthase.
3 ATP
1 FADH2 makes __ ATP via ATP synthase.
2 ATP
electron transport inhibitors
- rotenone (complex 1)
- CN- (complex 4)
- antimycin A (complex 3)
- CO (complex 4)
MOA of electron transport inhibitors
directly (-) electron transport causing ↓ proton gradient & block of ATP synthesis

(they each block a specific complex in the chain)
ATPase inhibitors
oligomycin
MOA of ATPase inhibitors
directly (-) mitochon. ATPase, causing ↑ proton gradient→ no ATP produced b/c electron transport stops
3 types of oxidative phosphorylation poisons
1) electron transport inhibitors
2) ATPase inhibitors
3) uncoupling agents
MOA of uncoupling agents
↑ permeability of memb→ causing ↓ proton gradient & ↑ O2 consumption→ ATP synth stops but elec transport continues→ produces heat/hyperthermia (instead of ATP! not an efficient use of energy...)

(basically makes a 2nd hole)
uncoupling agents
- 2,4-DNP (wood preservation agent)
- aspirin (fevers occur w/OD)
- thermogenin in brown fat (hibernating animals)
gluconeogenesis irreversible enzymes
1) Pyruvate carboxylase
2) PEP carboxykinase
3) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
4) Glucose-6-phosphatase

("Pathway Produces Fresh Glucose")
where is pyruvate carboxylase?
in mitochondria (primarily in liver)

(gluconeogenesis: pyruvate → OAA)
where is PEP carboxykinase?
in cytosol (primarily in liver)

(gluconeogenesis: OAA→ phosphoenolpyruvate)
where is fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase?
in cytosol (primarily in liver)

(gluconeogenesis: fructose-1,6-bisphosphate→fructose-6-P)
where is glucose-6-phosphatase?
in ER (primarily in liver)

(gluconeogenesis: glucose-6-P→glucose)
pyruvate carboxylase conversion of pyruvate→OAA requires:
biotin & ATP
(& activated by acetyl-CoA)
(takes energy b/c you're MAKING glucose)
pyruvate carboxylase conversion of pyruvate→OAA is activated by:
acetyl-CoA
PEP carboxykinase conversion of OAA→phosphoenolpyruvate requires:
GTP
(takes energy b/c you're MAKING glucose)
gluconeogenesis takes place in:
- primarily in liver
- also in kidney
- also in intestinal epithelium
deficiency of key gluconeogenic enzymes causes ____.
hypoglycemia

(enzs: Pyruvate carboxylase, PEP carboxykinase, Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, Glucose-6-phosphatase)
why can't muscle participate in gluconeogenesis?
b/c it lacks glucose-6-phosphatase, one of the key enzymes...
how can odd-chain fatty acids serve as a glucose source?
they yield 1 propionyl-CoA during metabolism→ can enter TCA cycle (as succinyl-CoA) & undergo gluconeogen
function of HMP shunt (aka pentose phosphate pathway)
- makes NADPH from glucose-6-phosphate!
- NADPH = req for reductive rxns (like glutathione reduction in RBCs)
- yields ribose for nucleotide synth & glycolytic intermeds
cellular location of HMP shunt
cytoplasm
energy required for HMP shunt
no ATP used or produced
(energy neutral..)
location(s) of HMP shunt
- lactating mammary glands
- liver
- adrenal cortex (sites of FA or steroid synth)
- RBCs
phases of HMP shunt
1) oxidative (irreversible)
2) nonoxidative (reversible)
key enzyme of HMP shunt oxidative reaction
Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase (RLS)

(glucose-6-Pi→CO2 + 2NADPH + Ribulose-5-Pi)
(irreversible)
key enzyme of HMP shunt nonoxidative reaction
Transketolases

(Ribulose-5-Pi→Ribulose-6-Pi + G3P + F6P)
(reversible)
NADPH oxidation→
reduces things (gives them H+)

(LEO goes GER)
respiratory burst function(s)
- uses NADPH oxidase (in PMNs, macs)
- plays role in immune response
- results in rapid release of reactive oxygen intermediates

(reduces oxygen→making it really reactive→stores up for killing shit)
NADPH oxidase deficiency
chronic granulomatous disease
chronic granulomatous dz is susceptible to what kind of infection?
catalase-(+) b/c they neutralize their own H2O2
(S. aureus, Aspergillus...)
↓ NADPH in RBCs l/t:
hemolytic anemia
(b/c RBCs can't defend against oxidizing agents w/o NADPH which is req to keep glutathione reduced which in turn detoxifies free radicals & peroxides → G6PD deficiency)
oxidizing agents
- fava beans
- sulfonamides
- primaquine
- TB drugs
why is G6PD deficiency bad?
can't make NADPH→ can't reduce glutathione → cant protect against free radicals & peroxides → hemolytic anemia (in response to oxidizing agents)
MC human enzyme deficiency
G6PD deficiency
G6PD inheritance
XLR
what is a Heinz body?
oxidized Hgb precipitated w/in RBCs
(see in G6PD deficiency)
what do bite cells result from?
phagocytic removal of Heinz bodies by macrophages
(see in G6PD deficiency)
deficiency of aldolase B
fructose intolerance!
accumulates w/fructose intolerance
fructose-1-phosphate
(causes ↓ in available phosphate→ inhibs glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis!)
hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis, vomiting (hereditary)
fructose intolerance
tx for fructose intolerance
↓ intake of fructose & sucrose (glucose+fructose)
defect in fructokinase
essential fructosuria
(benign)
fructose in blood & urine
essential fructosuria
(benign)
enzyme defect of essential fructosuria
fructokinase
enzyme a/w fructose intolerance
deficiency of aldolase B
absence of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
classic galactosemia
enzyme a/w classic galactosemia
absent galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
failure to thrive, jaundice, hepatomegaly, infantile cataracts, MR
classic galactosemia
mechanism of damage of classic galactosemia
accum of toxic substances
(incl galactitol, which accums in lens of eye→ infantile cataracts)
tx for classic galactosemia
exclude galactose & lactose (galactose+glucose) from diet
hereditary deficiency of galactokinase
galactokinase deficiency
(mild condition)
what accums w/galactokinase deficiency?
galactitol
(relatively mild condition)
galactose in blood & urine
galactokinase deficiency
(can have infantile cataracts)
infantile cataracts
classic galactosemia or galactokinase deficiency
may initially present as failure to track objects or to develop a social smile
galactokinase deficiency
alternative method of trapping glucose in the cell
convert it to its alcohol counterpart→ sorbitol (via aldose reductase)
some tissues convert sorbitol to fructose using:
sorbitol dehydrogenase
tissues that have both aldose reductase & sorbitol dehydrogenase
- liver
- ovaries
- seminal vesicles
tissues that only have aldose reductase (& no sorbitol dehydrogenase)
- Schwann cells
- lens
- retina
- kidneys

(in danger of sorbitol accum!! → ↑H2O = cell swell = damage!)
what leads to sorbitol accumulation?
prolonged hyperglycemic states
(e.g. diabetes! → damage causes cataracts, retinopathy, & peripheral neuropathy)
what pathway is responsible for cataracts, retinopathy, and peripheral neuropathy of diabetics?
prolonged hyperglycemic state→ ↑glucose → converted to sorbitol by ALDOSE REDUCTASE!

sorbitol damages eyes, nerves & kidneys b/c it cant be broken down to fructose in those organs.. (b/c no sorbitol dehydrogenase)
lactase deficiency is d/t loss of what?
brush-border enzyme
(can follow gastroenteritis)
bloating, cramps, osmotic diarrhea
lactase deficiency
rate limiting step of urea cycle
carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS1)
(CO2 + NH4+ → carbamoyl phosphate)
enzyme that enters carbamoyl phosphate into the urea cycle
ornithine transcarbamoylase
how is excess nitrogen (NH4+) generated from formation of common metabolites (like pyruvate, acetyl-CoA) gotten rid of?
enters urea cycle→ NH4+ converted to urea → excreted in urine
urea is composed of:
NH4+ + CO2 + aspartate
sxs of ammonia intoxication
- tremor (asterixis/hand flapping)
- slurring speech
- somnolence
- vomiting
- cerebral edema
- blurring of vision
cause of hyperammonemia
acquired = d/t liver disease

hereditary = d/t urea cycle enzyme deficiency
mechanism of hyperammonemia damage
excess NH4+ depletes a-KG→ l/t (-) of TCA cycle
tx for hyperammonemia d/t enzyme deficiency
benzoate or phenylbutyrate
(bind to AA & l/t excretion)
tx of hyperammonemia d/t liver disease
lactulose
(ammonia trapped in gut & excr)
MC urea cycle d/o
ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC) deficiency
orotic acid in blood & urine
ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency
(cant get rid of urea in urea cycle)
↓BUN & sxs of hyperammonemia
ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency
(can't get rid of urea in urea cycle)
excess carbamoyl phosphate → converted to orotic acid
ornithine transcarbamolase deficiency
(cant get rid of urea in urea cycle)
the only XLR urea cycle enzyme deficiency
ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency
(vs others that are AR)
derivatives of phenylalanine
phenylalanine→ tyrosine→ dopa→ DA→ NE→ Epi

tyrosine→ thyroxine

dopa→ melanin
derivatives of tryptophan
(w/B6 cofactor)→ B3/niacin→ NAD+/NADP+

→ serotonin→ melatonin
derivatives of histadine
(w/B6 cofactor)→ histamine
derivatives of glycine
(w/B6 cofactor)→ porphyrin→ heme
derivatives of arginine
→ creatine
→ urea
→ nitric oxide
derivates of glutamine
(w/B6 cofactor)→ GABA (glutamate decarboxylase--reqs B6)

→ glutathione
enzyme that catalyzes:
phenylalanine→tyrosine
phenylalanine hydroxylase
phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency causes...
PKU
enzyme that catalyzes:
tyrosine→dihydroxyphenylalanine (aka "dopa")
tyrosine hydroxylase
enzyme that catalyzes:
dopa (dihydroxyphenylalanine)→dopamine
dopa decarboxylase
(requires B6)
what enzyme does carbidopa inhibit?
dopa decarboxylase
enzyme that catalyzes:
DA→Norepi
dopamine beta-hydroxylase
(requires vitamin C)
breakdown product(s) of dopamine (via MAO & COMT)
HVA
breakdown product(s) of norepinephrine (via MAO & COMT)
VMA
breakdown product(s) of epinephrine(via MAO & COMT)
metanephrine
d/t ↓ phenylalanine hydroxylase
phenylketonuria (PKU)
(or can be d/t ↓ tetrahydrobiopterin cofactor)
d/t ↓ tetrahydrobiopterin cofactor
PKU
(or can be d/t ↓ phenylalanine hydroxylase)
MR, growth retardation, seizures, fair skin, eczema, musty body odor
PKU
tx of PKU
↓ phenylalanine (contained in aspartame) & ↑ tyrosine in diet
infant w/ microcephaly, MR, growth retardation, congenital heart defects
maternal PKU
(mom w/untx PKU)
excess phenylketones in urine
PKU
tyrosine becomes essential
in PKU (d/t ↓ phenylalanine hydroxylase or tetrahydrobiopterin cofactor)
disease screened for 2-3 days after birth because it is so important to dx & tx w/in 1st 3 wks of life to prevent irreversible sxs
PKU
phenylketones
- phenylacetate
- phenyllactate
- phenylpyruvate
d/o of aromatic AA metabolism
PKU
(must body odor)
deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase
alkaptonuria
(ochronosis)
urine turns black on standing
alkaptonuria
(benign)
dark CT, pigmented sclera, may have debilitating arthralgias
alkaptonuria
(benign besides the arthralgias)
enzyme a/w alkaptonuria
congenital deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase
(in degradative pathway of tyrosine)
deficiencies that lead to albinism
1) tyrosinase (can't synth melanin from tyrosine)
2) defective tyrosine transporters

(can also be from lack of migration of neural crest cells)
albinism (d/t tyrosinase deficiency) inheritance
variable inheritance d/t locus heterogeneity (AR)
(v. ocular albinism = XLR)
deficiencies a/w homocystinuria
1) cystathionine synthase deficiency
2) homocysteine methyltransferase deficiency
non-deficiency cause of homocystinuria
↓ affinity of cystathionine synthase for pyridoxal phosphate
excess homocysteine
homocystinuria
cysteine becomes essential
homocystinuria
↑↑ homocysteine in urine, MR, osteoporosis, tall stature, kyphosis, lens subluxation (down & in), & atherosclerosis (stroke, MI)
homocystinuria
tx for cystathionine synthase deficiency (homocystinuria)
↓ Met, ↑ Cys, ↑B12 & folate
tx for ↓ affinity of cystathionine synthase for pyridoxal phosphate (homocystinuria)
↑↑ vitamin B6 in diet
hereditary defect of renal tubular AA transport for cysteine, ornithine, lysine & arginine in the PCT of the kidneys
cystinuria
cystinuria
AR hereditary defect of renal tubular AA transport for cysteine, ornithine, lysine & arginine in the PCT of the kidneys
cystinuria can lead to what renal problem
excess cysteine in urine can lead to precipitation of cystine kidney stones (staghorn calculi)
what can lead to staghorn calculi
cystinuria
tx of cystinuria
acetazolamide (to alkalinize urine)
blocked degradation of branched AA's (Ile, Leu, Val)
maple syrup urine disease
(I Love Vermont maple syrup from trees w/branches = Ile, Leu, Val)
maple syrup urine disease is d/t...
blocked degradation of branched AA's (Ile, Leu, Val) d/t ↓ alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase

(I Love Vermont maple syrup from trees w/branches = Ile, Leu, Val)
causes ↑ a-ketoacids in blood, esp Leu
maple syrup urine dz
hartnup disease
AR d/o of defective neutral AA transporter on renal & intestinal epithelial cells
(leads to pellagra--d/t niacin deficiency)
defective neutral AA transporter on renal & intestinal epithelial cells
hartnup disease
causes tryptophan excretion in urine & absorption from the gut
hartnup disease
glycogen branches have alpha(??) bonds
a(1,6)
glycogen linkages have alpha(??) bonds
a(1,4)
in muscle, glycogen undergoes ___
glycogenolysis (to form glucose)
in hepatocytes, glycogen is..?
stored & undergoes glycogenolysis to maintain blood sugar @ appropriate levels
what is rapidly metabolized in the skeletal muscle during exercise
glucose
deficient enzyme in von Gierke's (type I)
glucose-6-phosphatase
deficient enzyme in Pompe's (type II)
lysosomal a-1,4-glucosidase (acid maltase)
deficient enzyme in Cori's dz (type III)
debranching enzyme (a-1,6-glucosidase)
deficient enzyme in McArdle's dz (type V)
skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase
glycogen storage diseases
1) von Gierke's (type I)
2) Pompe's (type II)
3) Cori's (type III)
4) McArdle's (type V)
cardiomegaly & systemic findings, l/t early death (by 3 yrs)
Pompe's dz
milder form of type I / von Gierke's
Cori's disease (type III)
(normal blood lactate levels)
findings of von Gierke's disease
- severe fasting hypoglycemia
- ↑ glycogen in liver
- ↑ blood lactate (anaerobic metab)
- hepatomegaly
↑ glycogen in muscle, but can't break it down→ l/t painful muscle cramps & myoglobinuria w/exercise
McArdle's
(but longevity not affected)
deficient a-galactosidase A
Fabry's disease
deficient b-glucocerebrosidase
Gaucher's dz
MC lysosomal storage disease
Gaucher's dz
deficient sphingomyelinase
Niemann-Pick disease
deficient hexosaminidase A
Tay-Sachs disease
deficient galactocerebrosidase
Krabbe's disease
deficient Arylsulfatase A
metachromatic leukodystrophy
deficient a-L-iduronidase
Hurler's syndrome
deficient Iduronate sulfatase
Hunter's syndrome
the only 2 XLR lysosomal storage diseases
(1) Fabry's
(2) Hunter's syndrome

(X marks the spot for a treasure Hunter)
(the rest are AR)
substrate accumulated in fabry's
ceramide trihexoside
substrate accumulated in Gaucher's
glucocerebroside
substrate accumulated in Niemann-Pick
sphingomyelin
substrate accumulated in Tay-Sachs
GM2 ganglioside
substrate accumulated in Krabbe's disease
galactocerebroside
substrate accumulated in metachromatic leykodystrophy
cerebroside sulfate
substrate accumulated in Hurler's syndrome
heparan sulfate, dermatan sulfate
substrate accumulated in Hunter's syndrome
Heparan sulfate, dermatan sulfate
lysosomal storage diseases in Ashkenazi Jews
- Tay-Sachs
- Niemann-Pick
- some forms of Gaucher's
inability to transport LCFAs into the mitochondria, resulting in toxic accumulation
carnitine deficiency
weakness, hypotonia, and hypoketotic hypoglycemia
carnitine deficiency
where does fatty acid degradation occur
where its products will be consumed--in the mitochondrion
RLS of fatty acid degradation
carnitine acyl transferase
(carnitine shuttle ??)
Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency does what
↑ dicarboxylic acids
↓ glucose & ketones
breath smells like acetone
ketone bodies (fruity)
in the liver, fatty acids & AAs are metabolized to ___ & ____
acetoacetate & beta-hydroxybutyrate (to be used in muscle & brain)
what things cause the shunting of glucose & FFAs toward the production of ketone bodies (by stalling TCA cycle)?
1) prolonged starvation (OAA is depleted for gluconeogenesis)
2) DKA (same as 1)
3) alcoholism (excess NADH shunts OAA to malate)
ketones are made from ___
HMG-CoA
ketones are metabolized by the brain to ___
2 molecules of acetyl-CoA
ketones are excreted in ...
urine
what class of drugs inhibit HMG-CoA reductase?
statins
(RLS of cholest synth)
statins inhibit..?
HMG-CoA reductase
(RLS of cholesterol synth)
1 g protein = ? kcal
4 kcal
(same as carbs)
1 g carbohydrate = ? kcal
4 kcal
(same as protein)
1 g fat = ? kcal
9 kcal
ATP is obtained from where during a 100 meter sprint (seconds)?
- stored ATP
- creatine phosphate
- anaerobic glycolysis
ATP is obtained from where during a 1000 meter run (minutes)?
- stored ATP
- creatine phosphate
- anaerobic glycolysis
- oxidative phosphorylation
ATP is obtained from where during a marathon (hours)?
- glycogen & FFA oxidation
- glucose conserved for final sprinting
during days 1-3 of fasting/starvation, blood glucose is maintained by:
1) hep glycogenolysis & glucose release
2) adipose release of FFA
3) musc & liver shifting fuel use from glucose to FFA
4) hep gluconeogenesis from periph tissue lactate & alanine, and from adipose tissue glycerol & propionyl-CoA from odd-chain FFA metab
after day 3 of fasting/starvation
musc protein loss → maintained by hepatic formation of ketone bodies → supplies brain & heart
main source of energy for brain after several weeks of fasting/starvation
ketone bodies (so ↓ musc protein loss)
catalyzes esterification of cholesterol
Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
(puts cholest on HDL particles)
mediates transfer of cholesterol esters to other lipoprotein particles
cholesterol ester transfer protein (CETP)
(allows HDL to deposit cholest on LDL, VLDL...)
degrades dietary TG in small intestine
pancreatic lipase
degrades TG circulating in chylomicrons & VLDLs
lipoprotein lipase (LPL)
degrades TG remaining in IDL
hepatic TG lipase (HL)
degrades TG stored in adipocytes
hormone-sensitive lipase
5 major apolipoproteins
1) A-I
2) B-100
3) C-II
4) B-48
5) E
activates LCAT
apolipoprotein A-I
binds to LDL receptor, mediates VLDL secretion
apolipoprotein B-100
Cofactor for lipoprotein lipase
apolipoprotein C-II
C3 inhibits --?
lipoprotein lipase
mediates chylomicron secretion
apolipoprotein B-48
mediates Extra (remnant) uptake
apolipoprotein E
apolipoprotein A-I
Activates LCAT
apolipoprotein B-100
- Binds to LDL receptor
- mediates VLDL secretion
apolipoprotein C-II
Cofactor for lipoprotein lipase
apolipoprotein B-48
mediates chylomicron secretion
apolipoprotein E
mediates Extra (remnant) uptake
type I familial dyslipidemia
hyperchylomicronemia
type IIa familial dyslipidemia
familial hypercholesterolemia
type IV damilia dyslipidemia
hypertriglyceridemia
what has elevated blood levels in hyperchylomicronemia
TG & cholesterol
what has elevated blood levels in familial hypercholesterolemia
cholesterol
what has elevated blood levels in hypertriglyceridemia
TG
(↑'d VLDL)
cause/pathophys of hyperchylomicronemia (type I dyslipidemia)
- lipoprotein lipase deficiency
- OR altered apolipoprotein C-II
S/S of hyperchylomicronemia
- pancreatitis (↑TG)
- hepatosplenomegaly
- eruptive/pruritic xanthomas
- NO ↑ risk of atherosclerosis
cause/pathophys of hypertriglyceridemia
hepatic overproduction of VLDL
(can cause pancreatitis d/t ↑TGs)
hereditary inability to synth lipoproteins
Abeta-lipoproteinemia
why can't you synth lipoproteins in Abeta-lipoproteinemia?
d/t deficiencies in apoB-100 & apoB-48
failure to thrive, steatorrhea, acanthocytosis, ataxia, night blindness (sxs in 1st few months of life)
Abeta-lipoproteinemia
(acanthocytosis = spikey RBC)
intestinal biopsy shows accum of lipid w/in enterocytes
Abeta-lipoproteinemia
(can't get rid of chylomicrons)
tx for Abeta-lipoproteinemia
vitamin E
function of chylomicrons
- delivery dietary TGs to periph tissue
- deliver cholest to liver in form of chylomicron remnants (mostly depleted of triacylglycerols)
chylomicrons are secreted by ?
intestinal epithelial cells
chylomicron apolipoproteins
- A-IV
- B-48
- C-II
- E
function of VLDL
delivers hepatic TGs to periph tissue
VLDL is secreted by ?
the liver
IDL function
delivers TGs & cholest to liver, where they are degraded to LDL
IDL is formed by...
degradation of VLDL
LDL function
delivers hepatic cholest to periph tissues
LDL is formed by...
lipoprotein lipase modification of VLDL in periph tissue
LDL is taken up by target cells via...?
receptor-mediated endocytosis
HDL function
- mediates reverse cholest transport from periph to liver
- acts as repository for apoC & apoE (needed for chylomicron & VLDL metab)
HDL is secreted from:
liver & intestine