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149 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
What two chains make up the antibody structure?
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The heavy and light chain
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Does the heavy or light chain make up the variable region?
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Both do
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The antibody structure is a tetramer made up of two light chains and two heavy chains. What connects the polypeptides together?
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The disulfide bond
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What region of the antibody is recognized by other immune cells?
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The constant region; usually most antibody functions are determined by this region
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What are the two types of light chains?
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Kappa and Lambda
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Do the light chains have an identical amino acid sequence to each other?
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Yes, the heavy chain does as well
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What is the site on the antibody where the antigen binds?
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The epitope. This is on the variable region and an antigen typically has many different epitopes.
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What are the five isotypes for human antibodies?
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M,A,D,G,E
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The antibody Ig_ comes in four different forms and the antibody Ig_ comes in two forms. This allows us to have 9 different isotypes in total.
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G,
A |
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When an individual has been previously exposed to an antigen there will be an increase in what isotypes of antibodies?
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G,M
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In class switching what part of the antibody will change, the variable or constant region?
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The Constant region
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What is the purpose of the RAG1 & RAG2?
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These mediate the recombination in mammalian immune cells. What occurs is the flanking sequence will be recognized by the RAG1 & RAG2 and will (using enzyme mediated ds breaks in DNA and rejoining the DNA).
The sequence in btween the recombination sites will then be converted into a circular form and this sequence is then lost. |
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The absence of RAG1 and RAG2 can prevent what in B and T cells?
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Recombination and these cells won't develop.
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Recombination isn't always effective (1/3 of time it works) so that means that 2/3 of the time it doesn't work. Meaning there is a ______ _____ in the new reading frame.
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Stop Codon
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In VDJ recombination what is joined first?
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D-J=1st
V-DJ=2nd |
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Each segment of the VDJ recombination has 3 possible reading frames and typically _ of these frames will contain stop codons.
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2
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Which of the VDJ has its own promoter?
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The V region
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Following VDJ recombination, the transcription for the IgH locus will begin upstream the successfully recombined V region. Upstream (non-recombined V regions) might be transcribed but _____ produce ____ ____ __
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Don't produce full length mRNA
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Unrecombined J regions are transcribed but aren't ______
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Translated
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What are the specific VDJ(#'s) that recombine?
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DH3-JH2
VH2-JH2 |
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To make a deltamRNA what must happen during processing?
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The mu sequence must be treated as an intron and spliced out during processing.
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Newtonian Mechanics (KapCH2)
Torque |
τ = r*F*sinθ
THINK Work |
W=F*d*cos0
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Describe the early stages of B cell maturation
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The B cell will recombine its VDJ region and then shortley after recombine the light chain (Either Vlambda-Jlambda or Vkappa-Jkappa).
Failure at any of these steps will cause the B cell to apoptose. This will then express the IgM |
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During B cell maturation, the naive Ig will bind antigen and then what happens to the antibody?
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The helper T cells and dendritic cells will activate the B cells, the B cells will undergo clonal expansion.
If the antibody doesn't bind then the antibody will undergo apoptosis |
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During B cell maturation, specifically at the onset of B cell clonal expansion, there is variable region hypermutation. What is this hypermutation and what is the purpose of the hypermutation?
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This is a process where point mutations occur at a high rate within the variable region (VDJ and VJ regions)
Selection and propagation of progeny with highest affinities for antigen It’s just like (or is) evolution |
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What are some factors for determining what isotype undergoes a class switch in B cell maturation?
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Which isotype it switches to depends on location, cytokines, etc
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If the B cell avoids negative selection in B cell maturation, what are the two fates?
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Plasma cell: an “antibody factory,” large cytoplasm, condensed nucleus – produces large amounts of secreted Ig (up to 20K antibody molecules/second). Plasma cells may produce any isotype (B cells don’t always switch – you can have IgM expressing memory cells)
Memory cells are long lived and may also produce any isotype. They tend to produce low amounts of Ig until (re) stimulated by antigen/T helper cells |
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Where do memory B cells reside?
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In the bone marrow, lymph nodes or spleen
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The B cells will make both secreted and membrane bound forms of whatever isotype it’s making.What is another name for the membrane bound B cells?
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BCR
B cell receptors |
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Concerning B cells: Surface vs. _________ antibody is controlled by the presence of two alternative _______ _________ sites within each ____ ______ segment
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secreted
poly adenylation constant region |
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Surface vs. secreted antibody is controlled by the presence of two alternative poly adenylation sites within each constant region segment. What makes these two sites different?
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The two molecules differ in that the membrane-bound antibody has a small membrane-spanning portion, so it’s a slightly larger protein.
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What are the two multimeric antibodies?
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IgA and IgM
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What is valence in regard to IgA and IgM?
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This is talking about how IgM can bind 10 epitopes at once ang IgA can bind 4 epitopes at once
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What antibody is found primarily in the mucosal secretions?
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IgA
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What antibody is found primarily in serum?
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IgG
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What holds together antibodies which are multimers?
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The J chain
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Regarding antibodies what is opsonization?
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Promotion of phagocytosis
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Regarding antibodies what is neutralization?
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The antibody binding to and inactivating toxins or the antibody binding to pathogen and preventing it from entering cell or attaching to substrate
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What antibodies can complement?
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IgM and IgG
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What IgG cannot complement?
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IgG
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Regarding antibodies what is complementation?
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Once the antibody has bound to the antigen, the constant region of these antibodies undergo conformational change. Complement C1 will then bind to antigen:antibody complex and initiate the complement cascade
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Just know
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All Ig’s will serve as the BCR for the cell that makes them. Binding of antigen to BCR causes an activation signal (increase in cell division and increase in Ig production)
Secreted IgE will bind the surface of basophils and mast cells and serve as receptors for that cell (basophils and mast cells have a receptor for IgE constant region). |
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What is the first antibody made by a B cell?
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IgM;
May be found in secreted form as a monomer and a pentamer (five antibody molecules joined to together by a peptide known as “J chain” Pentameric form is very good at “fixing” complement |
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IgD is found with Ig_ in mature B cells?
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M
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IgG is the primary _______ antibody and there are ______ different kinds of IgG. Also to note IgG can cross the ______ which is important in immune defense of ________
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serum
four placenta fetus |
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What antibody is protease resistant and is primarily found in mucus?
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IgA
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What is the least common isotype in serum and may cause allergic reactions?
(people with allergies to Mountain Cedar pollen will have Ig_ antibodies specific for antigens found in Mountain Cedar pollen) |
IgE
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What factors increasing diversity in the variable regions of antibodies?
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VDJ joing and light chain association
Functional flexibility- VDJ joining isn't precise P addition Nucleotids may be added between segments due to mechanism of the recombination process N addidtion Following the clevage event in recombination, TdT may add nucleotides to end of cleaved DNA strands Somatic hypermutation Usually happens after B cell activation, within germinal centers of lymph nodes |
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What is a mitogen?
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Something that stimulates cell growth
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What are the molecules usually acting as antigens in T independent antigen and B cell activation?
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Large, polymeric molecules such as LPS.
LPS does this to B cells through TLR 4. |
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Which illicits a stronger memory response, T dependent or T independent antigens and B cell activation
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T dependent
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Why does carbohydrates make for poor vaccine targets?
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They will not create a strong memory response but this can be countered by Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV) – capsular polysaccharides from Streptococcus pneumoniae, offers ~80% protection rate, but only against serotypes covered by the vaccine. Protection lasts 5 years and longer. There’s a trick to it: the vaccine is a conjugate of polysaccharide and protein. This allows production of anticapsular antibodies in a T dependent manner
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Describe what happens in T dependent antigen and B cell activation
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BCR will be a receptor for the antigen
Antigen will undergo receptor-mediated endocytosis by the B cell Antigen will be digested in lysozomes and small fragments and then displayed in class II complex CD4 and Thelper cells binds the B cell MHC 11 _ antigen using its TCR and CD4. The B cell is stimulated by the antigen binding to BCR and the CD40 binding to CD40L The T cell is stimulated by CD3/TCR complex and CD28(binds to B7) The T cell will then release cytokines (IL-2) which will stimulate itself, B cells, and other immune cells -NO IL2 NO T CELL ACTIVATION |
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What effects on the B cell being stimulate in T dependent antigen activation?
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Increased antibody secretion
Somatic hypermutation/affinity maturation Class switching (usually, but not always) Differentiation/production of memory cells |
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What is an adjuvant?
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an adjuvant is a non-specific
Immune stimulant, e.g. LPS |
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Describe the experiment of monoclonal antibodies and mice?
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Last slide lecture 26
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What is the difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies?
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Polyclonal:The antibodies are a mixture of many different antibodies from different original (naïve clones) B cells. The antibodies are said to be polyclonal, since they are produced by multiple B cell clones.
Purified antibody from the Monoclonal:All antibodies in the preparation have the exact same amino acid sequence. All antibodies are derived from one single original B cell. Same amino acid sequence, same affinity, same isotype, no other antibodies to other antigens. |
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Class _ MHC genes are expressed on the surface of all nucleated cells, they present antigens to cytotoxic T cells
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I
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Class _ genes are expressed on “professional antigen presenting cells:” B cells, macrophages and dendritic cells.
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II;
They present antigens to T helper cells. |
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Class _ genes encode various secreted proteins (including some complement and inflammatory molecules), heat shock proteins, peptide transporters…
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III
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Why are the MHC genes usually inherited as a set from each parent?
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Because the MHC genes are located in a cluster and are very tightly linked
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The MHC is highly polymorphic due to
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A large number of small variations (akin0
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Can siblings be histocompatible with parents?
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No
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During a transplant if one of the MHC alleles are incompatible with the person will the transplant be sucessful ?
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No;
One mismatch is as good (actually bad) as two. |
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The MHC Protein structure is made up of two and one ?
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Two alpha helices and one beta sheet which form a groove and the linear peptide is bound in a linear form within this groove.
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What holds the peptide inbetween the alpha helices and a beta sheet?
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Non covalent interactions
= H-Bond, salt bridges between acidic and basic residues, hydrophobic interations |
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Which one of the classes have two transmembrane proteins?
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Class II
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Both Class I and II have _ globular domains
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4;
Class I, beta2 microglobulin makes up one of these domains |
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Where are MHC cells expressed?
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They are usually expressed on the surface of cells; Class I is on the surface of most nucleated cells and Class II on APC
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Describe how MHC Class determines between self and non-self?
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Pretty straightforward-sorry don't feel like typing this one:
Virtually all nucleated cells express MHC class I molecules on their surface Each MHC class I molecule will hold a small peptide in a groove. The peptide(s) are derived from whatever proteins the cell is making at that time. A virally infected cell will make some viral proteins (as well as some normal host proteins) and display peptides derived from these proteins in MHC class I. A CTL can recognize this peptide as foreign and kill the cell displaying the foreign peptide. If a cell is displaying only self peptides in MHC class I, it will not be killed by CTLs. |
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APC can express what type of MHC?
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Both MHC I and MHC II
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Describe how the MHC II goes through the exogenous pathway
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The endocytosis or phagocytosis of an antigen occurs.
The endosome/phagosome will fuse with a lysosome This becomes a phagolysosome causing degradation of the contents due to lower pH, hydrolytic enzymes and chemicals. The antigen is degraded The antigen is displayed via class II |
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Class II molecules are initially protected by what?
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A protein called the invariant chain, or CLIP.
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What is the function of CLIP?
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It prevents endogenous proteins from occupying the peptide-binding cleft, and helps MHC II fold correctly.
The invariant chain eventually gets digested, removed and replaced with an exogenous peptide |
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Describe the Endogenous pathway for MHC I
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The protein will be marked for degradation by ubiquitin.
This sends it for degradation by the proteosome. (PROTEOSOME REQUIRES ATP!!!) TAP 1 and TAP 2 heterodimerize and form a channel through the ER membrane through which the peptides pass in an ATP-dependent manner. The peptides associate with Class I in the lumen of the ER The assembled Class I + peptide move to the Golgi then to the cell surface. |
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The TCR recognizes both the MHC _____ itself and the ______ it contains
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molecule
peptide |
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The T cell receptor is a heterodimeric (either _/_ or _/_)
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alpha/beta
gamma/delta Gamma delta predominate early in development alpha-beta T cells are more common in adults. |
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Describe the steps of T cell maturation.
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The T cells originate in the bone marrow and travel to the thymus.
In the Thymus they are CD4- and CD8- After a while they will express RAG1 and RAG2 and rearrange the TCR beta gene. Cells that don't rearrange the TCR beta gene and they are kiled. The survivors will then become CD4+/CD8+. Then there will be a rearrangement of the TCR alpha gene and this will cause either CD8 or CD4 to become positive. Positive selection occurs and this selects for T cells with receptors that are capable of binding self MHC. Negative selection then eliminates T cells with overly high affinity receptors for self MHC molecules |
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Binding of the MHC by the TCR recruits __/___ (and thus __) to the binding site.
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CD4/CD8
Lck |
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Lck/Fyn which are tyrosine kinases are activated by the phosphatease activity of ____
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CD45
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What is the function of Lck and Fyn?
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Lck and Fyn will phosphorylate the cytoplasmic tail portions of CD3 (they each phosphorylate a different tyrosine – both are necessary for full activation.
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Just Know
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The subsequent signal transduction pathway of T cell activation is highly complex… there are many results, varying over time.
Resting T cells start the cell division cycle An immediate rise in cytosolic calcium concentration (this isn’t simply a by product of activation, it’s a necessary step for full activation – artificially causing an increase in calcium can promote activation) Immediate early genes will be expressed (~30 minutes), including NF-kB, c-myc and c-fos Early genes (1-2 hours) include IL-2 and IL-2R Late genes (1-2 days) include various adhesion molecules. |
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What is the co-stimulatory signal necessary for T cell activation?
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CD28-Tcell with B7 of APC to make CTL-A
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CD28 activation causes production of CTLA-4. CTLA-4 is also a receptor for B7, but it ____(is ____, rather than _____) of CD28. This is regarded as a “braking” effect. CD28 and CTLA-4 will compete for binding to B7.
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antagonizes
inhibitory activating |
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Upregulation of IL-2 and IL-2R is only accomplished when both ( ____ and ____ ) stimulatory signals occur.
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TCR
CD28 |
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Stimulation of TCR alone may result in ______of the T cell
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apoptosis
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What makes superantigens so distinct from antigens?
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Superantigens are proteins that will simultaneously bind a class II MHC and the β chain of the TCR.
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Naive CTL's probably require what for activation?
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Probably requires dendritic cell activation
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CTL's can kill a cell by using Fas-FasL interaction, how is this done?
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The nucleated cells have Fas and will bind to FasL on the CTL. This will cause the activation of FADD and FADD will cleave a caspase, initiating an apoptotic pathway in target
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Besides the Fas-FasL interaction, how else can the CTL kill a cell?
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Perforin/Granzyme
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What is responsible for some issues regarding transplant rejection?
Hint CD8 |
CTLs are also responsible for many (not all) of the issues regarding transplant rejection. Transplanted tissue with a different set of MHC alleles (particularly at MHC class I) will be rejected – that is, the CTLs will recognize these different MHC class I molecules as foreign, regardless of what peptides they might be displaying. Host CTLs will then kill the transplanted cells. Put another way, CTLs are capable of recognizing either the peptide or the MHC molecule itself as foreign. In this case, they recognize the MHC alone.
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TH1 cells promote ________ immunity
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Cell-mediated
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TH2 cells promote __________ immunity
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Humoral
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TH1 cells:
Activate CTLS,macrophages and productiion of opsonins such as ____ Cytokines produced by TH1 T cells include IFN gamma, TNT Beta, __-___ |
IgG2
GM-CSF |
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IFN gamma inhibits expansion of _____ cells
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TH2
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TH2 cells promote:
Production of ________ and ______ Cytokines produced include IL-4,IL-10 and _______ IL-4 stimulates switching of Ig_ to Ig_ |
Mast cells and eosinophils
IL-13 E to G |
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IL-4 and IL-10 both suppress proliferation of ____cells
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TH1
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The TH3 subset has only recently been identified, they induce B cell production of IgA and suppress both __ and ___cells. They probably play a role in development of ___ _____.
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TH1 and TH2
Oral Tolerance |
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Trego (aka T suppressor cells). Come in many different forms, function is largely _________________. Helps prevent autoimmunity, shutdown of immune reaction after infection has been cleared.
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Immunosuppressive
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What is an superantigen and what is an example of a bacteria that can create a superantigen?
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Superantigens not only bind to the MHC II but they also bind to the beta chain of TCR.
This will result in activationof T cells regardless of specificity of the TCR for antigen in the MHC. Staph. aureus causes toxic shock by production of a superantigen called TSST1. |
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Regarding TH subtypes why is HIV/AIDS effective?
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HIV will progress more rapidly to AIDS if/when the response shifts from TH1 to TH2. Antibodies (humoral response) are not effective against it as it can reproduce and spread intracellularly
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Describe how Onchocerciasis causes blindness
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Infection of a small parasite. When the parasites within a human host die, an immune response is mounted against the dead pathogen (living parasites tend to generate very little immune response). Most individuals mount a TH1 response and the consequent inflammation causes destruction of numerous tissues, including the eyes; this causes blindness. Some individuals show a very large increase in IL-10 when the immune reaction starts. They develop a TH2 response and usually do not go blind.
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Give an example of how a virus manipulates the TH subtypes
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Epstein-Barr virus encodes an IL-10 analog. i.e. a cell infected with EBV will secrete a virally encoded protein that binds to and activates IL-10 receptors. The virus directly manipulates the immune response of the host.
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CD1:
There are five CD1 molecules (CD1a-e), all are similar to MHC class I, and associate with ___ microglobulin. CD1 proteins are expressed in antigen presenting cells (B cells, macrophages) They can present hydrophobic antigens such as ____ acid and _____ derived from bacterial membranes and cell walls Some T helper cells can recognize and activate in response to antigen presented in CD1 |
Beta2
mycolic glycolipids |
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What are cluster of differentiation markers used for?
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They are used to differentiate between antibodies and other things
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CD molecules are cell surface proteins and ___________.
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Glycoproteins
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CD4 is for and CD16 is for?
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CD4 is for Th cells (MHC II)
CD16 is for neutrophils, NK cells, Macrophages, receptor for IgG Fc |
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When a B cell progresses from the mature stage to the plasma cell stage, it goes from CD_______- to CD____+
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138
138 |
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B cells, T cells and NK cells are lymphoid or myeloid?
all of WBC's are myeloid or lymphoid? |
Lymphoid
Myeloid |
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Dendritic cells may be lymphoid or ______ in origin
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Myeloid
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What are the suppressor T cells cluster of differentiations numbers?
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CD4+, CD8+ CD25+
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Lymphoid cells have an agranular cytoplasm, usually have a small nucleus, large cytoplasm. True or False?
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False
agranular cytoplasm, usually have a large nucleus, small cytoplasm |
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What are the three Granulocytes?
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Eosinophils, Neutrophils, and Basophils
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Natural Killer Cells target kind of infections?
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Viral infections, bacterial infections and tumors
NK are important early responder to virus and intracellular bacterial infections. |
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What is an important early responder to virus and intracellular bacterial infections.?
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NK CELLS
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In the early infection of a cell there is a release of IFN alpha and beta, these will cause the growth of what kind of cells?
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NK cells, and then viral specific CTL's eventually take over killing function
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What makes NK cells different from CTL's despite the fact they share a common ancestor?
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NK cells are nonspecific
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The presence of MHC Class I will inhibit what kind of cells?
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NK Cells
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What kind of cells use the ADCC?
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NK cells
Mediated through CD16 (an Fcγ receptor) on NK cell surface |
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If a NK cells kill one tumor infected cell, once they respond to another tumor infected cell is the second response stronger than the first?
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NOPE.
NK cells are non specific and don't learn to kill. |
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How do NK cells kill other cells?
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They will use perforins to cause pores to form in the target cell.
Then use Granzymes, these are serine proteases that will specifically cleave caspases activting the apoptotic pathway |
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The activators for NK cells are:
CD16 (IgG Fc receptor), CD28 (receptor for B-7 family of molecules) and many others AND the inhibitory factors is MHC I. If there is both inhibitory and activating, what will occur. |
The NK Cell will be inhibited.
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In a blood cell what makes the most of WBC?
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Neutrophills (50-70%)
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What has these characteristics?
Have a distinct polymorphic (more than two lobes) nucleus and granulocytic cytoplasm....the granules are predominantly glycogen. Short lived – released from bone marrow, circulate for 7-10 hours and migrate to tissues where they live for a few days Have few mitochondria Most of energy production is glycolysis Constitute the majority of circulating WBC in healthy adults |
Neutrophils
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What is often the first responder to bacterial infection?
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Neutrophils
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When there is a bacterial infection there is often a "band shift" what is this in reference to?
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There is a bacterial infection and usually if there is a bacterial infection there is an increase in neutrophils.
‘Band shift’ or ‘left shift’ specifically refers to an increase in banded (immature) neutrophils. The term “left shift” is derived from the fact that most charts showing neutrophil maturation have the immature forms on the left side of the chart |
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Why is there an increase in neutrophils when there is bacterial infection?
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early inflammatory signals at site of infection are chemotactic. Neutrophils are motile and will migrate from blood to site of infection. Neutrophils will attach to endothelial cells (lining of blood vessels) and pass between them to reach site of infection.
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What type of cell has these contents?
Lactoferrin – tightly binds iron Lysozyme – degrades bacterial cell walls Hydrogen ion transporters – leads to acidification |
Neutrophils have within them phagolysosome which has these contents
CD16 (an Fcγ receptor) plays important role in binding/recognition, but is not strictly necessary . |
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What type of cells hold these characteristics?
Bi-Lobed nucleus Granulocytic cytoplasm Have a high affinity receptor for IgE Enzymes are specialized for parasites rather than bacteria? |
Eosinophils
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What Ig_ do neutrophils have a high affinity receptor for?
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IgG
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What cell holds these qualities?
High affinity IgE receptor Degranulation once recognition of antigen by IgE Can also degranulate due to other signals such as bradykinin They are not phagocytic unlike other granulocytes |
Basophils
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What chemicals are released from degranulation of basophils?
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Histamine, heparin, serotonin and other chemicals
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_______ and mast cells are the cause of allergies?
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Basophils
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Some of the released chemicals of basophil may attract _____ and ___________
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Neutrophils and Eosinophil
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In Wright-Giemsa and Hemotoxylin and Eosin staining, the Eosin is the ____ dye and binds to ______ molecules?
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Red
Basic |
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In Wright-Giemsa and Hemotoxylin and Eosin staining, the Azure B in ________-________ and Hemotoxylin in Hemotoxylin and Eosin are the _____ dye and bind to the ______ molecules.
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Wright-Giemsa
Blue Acidic |
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In a In Wright-Giemsa and Hemotoxylin and Eosin staining, the basophil will bind ________ and turn ___________ and the Eosinophil will bind __________ and turn ________ and the Neutrophil will bind ______ and __________.
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Azure B
Blue Eosin Red Eosin and Azure B |
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What cell has these qualities:
Dark granular cytoplasm, bilobed nucleus |
Basophil
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What cell has these qualities:
Large agranular Bilobed nucleus |
Monocyte
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What cell has these qualities:
Polymorphic nucleus Light, granular cytoplasm |
Neutrophil
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What cell has these qualities:
Red granular cytoplasem Bilobed nucleus |
Eosinophil
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What cell has these qualities:
Dark, rounded nucleus Small agranular cytoplasm |
Lymphocyte
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Monocytes mature quickly where?
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The bone marrow
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What tissue in the body have the highest numbers of monocytes?
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Liver and Spleen
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What stimulates macrophages?
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Fixed macrophages are typically dormant or resting, but are strongly stimulated by T helper cells (particularly by secretion of IFN γ)
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Upon activation, macrophages will show increase in:
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Phagocytosis
Ability to stimulate T cells Secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines Expression of MHC class II and therefore ability to present antigen |
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Give a general step by step of phagocytosis
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First there are usually chemotaxis, generated by a variety of substances.
Adherence induces formation of pseudopodia which will extend around the attached material The pseudopodia will fuse and ingest the material into an internal liposome called a phagosome The pH will drop and then it may fuse with lysosome. The fusion product is called a phagolysosome Endocytosis follows a similar pathway; endosomes fuse with lysosomes to form endolysosomes Lysosomes contain acid, hydrolytic enzymes which can degrade the foreign material or pathogen The digested contents of the phagolysosome will be eliminated through exocytosis. In macrophages some of the degraded material will be presented on MHC class II molecules on the cell surface |
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What are opsonins?
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Opsonins are molecules produced by the host that promote phagocytosis
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What protein is toxic to schistosomes and is an enzyme found in Eosinophils?
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Major Basic Protein
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