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129 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What type of engines are on the Beechjet? |
Pratt and Whitney JT15D-5 |
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What is the maximum thrust, static and continuous? |
2965 & 2900 |
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What are the max N1 & N2 speeds? |
104% N1 & 96% N2 |
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What is the primary instrument to determine thrust setting? |
N1 |
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What are ITT limits for starting? |
550-600 for 4 secs, 600-700 for 2 secs. |
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What are ITT limits for normal operation? |
700 for takeoff, 680 max continous. |
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What are the starter duty limitations? |
30 secs on 5 minutes off 30 secs on 15 minutes off 30 secs on 60 minutes off |
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What is the single engine ITT limitation? Both? |
700 for 10 minutes Both engines is 5 minutes |
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On the oil pressure gage, what is the difference between the skinny part of the green arc and the larger part? |
Skinny indicates 40-60 psi - ilde thrust only Fat part is normal operating pressure |
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How do you verify you have enough oil for flight? |
Button inside engine panel, push & green if ok. |
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What items are on the accessory gearbox? (6) |
1. DC starter generators 2. N2 tach generator 3. Oil pump 4. Fuel pump 5. Hydraulic pump 6. HMU (Hydromechanical Metering Unit) |
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What does the EFC (Electronic Fuel Control) do? (4) |
1. Engine sync 2. Minimum ground ilde 3. Works in conjunction with HMU for engine start 4. Compressor surge bleed valves |
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What are the memory items for an engine fire? |
1. Throttle ilde 2. Throttle cutoff 3. Engine fire switch push 4. Either bottle armed switch push |
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What 4 things happen when you push the engine fire switch light? |
1. Closes hydraulic valve 2. Closes fuel valve 3. Trips generator 4. Arms the bottles |
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Why turn engine sync off when on single engine? |
Don't want to drag down the good engine. Left is master, right is slave. |
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Why turn fuel boost pump off when the engine is already shut down? |
Don't feed the fire. |
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What would you do if you develop an imbalance? |
Turn the fuel boost pump back on. |
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What is the max fuel imbalance for takeoff and landing? |
1. 100 lbs 2. 300 lbs |
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How much fuel does the Beechjet hold? |
1. 733 gallons or 2. 4912 lbs (depending on fuel density) |
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How many fuel tanks are on the beechjet? |
1. 2 wings tanks 2. 2 forward fuselage tanks 3. 2 mid fuselage tanks 4. 1 aft fuselage tank 5. 1 aft filler tank |
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What is the difference between the wing tanks and the fuselage tanks? |
1. Wet wing and metal tanks for forward fuselage. VS 2. Bladder tanks for mid fuselage and aft tanks, aft tanks also have foam for sloshing. |
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What is the normal fuel flow sequence? |
1. Aft filler tank 2. Aft fuselage tank 3. Forward fuselage tanks 4. Mid fuselage tanks 5. Wing tanks |
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Which tank is depleted first? |
Aft filler tank |
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When do the transfer pumps run? |
When a generator is online and there is fuel in the mid fuselage tanks. |
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What controls the fuel transfer? |
Pilot float valves in outer wing tanks. (Works like a toilet float valve) |
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When do the transfer pumps turn off? |
When the mid fuselage tank is depleted and the transfer pump output pressure drops below 1.3 psi. |
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If the float valve is inoperative, what other sources of protection do you have to prevent too much fuel being put into the wing tanks? |
Sniffle valves to relieve pressure (5.0 psi) and the overpressure switch at 3.5 psi should turn off the transfer pump as long as the switch is in on or auto. |
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What is a sniffle valve and how many are there? |
1. Valves that provide vacuum and pressure relief. 2. 3, each outboard wing & 1 at fuselage fuel filler. |
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How does fuel get from the wingtips to the fuel collector chamber? |
Gravity through the flapper valves. |
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How does fuel get from the collector chamber into the engines? |
Motive flow primarily, with a back up from the boost pumps. |
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What provides Motive flow for the primary jet pumps? |
The engine driven fuel pump. |
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What 4 times do the boost pumps come on automatically? |
1. Fuel pressure less than 5.0 psi 2. Engine starting 3. Crossfeed 4. Fuel feed light (77 lbs of fuel remaining) |
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What do the Jet pump switches control? |
Motive flow valves |
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When does the "fuel level lo" annunciator illuminate? |
225 lbs of fuel remaining |
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When does the "Fuel Feed" annunciator illuminate? |
77 lbs fuel remaining |
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What do you do if you are developing a fuel imbalance? |
Crossfeed. Select left for both engines to draw fuel from left tank and vice versa. |
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What annunciator may illuminate if an excessive amount of fuel is transferred to the wing tanks; what would you do? |
"Wing Tank Overpressure"-checklist |
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What are the aircraft power sources? (4) |
1. 24V Battery 40 amp 2. 28V DC 400 amp generators 3. 28V GPU, 1000-1500 amp Standby battery, AHRS battery, emergency light batts. |
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What does an inverter do? |
Converts DC to AC |
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What happens to the #2 inverter when DC power on the RH load bus fails? |
#2 inverter will be powered by the emergency bus. |
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Additionally, if the #1 inverter fails, what would happen? |
1. #2 inverter (now powered by emergency bus) picks up the primary 115V and 26V primary buses. 2. Then sheds the primary shed buses, the secondary buses are unpowered. |
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What have you lost if the AC BUS SHED light is on? (3) |
1. Flap position indicator 2. L & R oil pressure 3. Flap asymmetry protection |
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What is the minimum voltage for Battery start? |
22 Volts |
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What are the single generator operating limits? (5) |
1. 400 amps (below 29,000 ft) 2. 440 amps (in icing) 3. 525 (transient) 4. 280 (up to FL410) 5. 260 (above FL410) |
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What protection does the GCU provide? (5) |
1. Over voltage and under voltage 2. Feeder-fault (ground fault) 3. Controls start cycle 4. Parallels generators 5. Disconnects the GPU relay if either generator is brought online |
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What happens if the Red Guarded Master Gen Switches are turned off with everything working? |
Everything goes dark - you lose all electrical power. Note - that's why you always want to turn the battery switch to Emergency first to access standby power (Battery) |
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Memory items for electrical fire or smoke. (Checklist under FIRE tab) (9) |
1. O2 masks - On 2. Goggles - On 3. Mic - Mask 4. SPKR - On 5. INTPH - On 6. Smoke removal - If necessary 7. Faulted circuits - Isolate 8. Battery - EMER 9. Master Generator Switches - EMER |
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After the memory items, what 3 DC buses are still powered. |
1. Hot battery bus 2. Emergency bus 3. Standby bus |
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How much time do you have in this situation? (Emergency Electrical Power) |
30 mins |
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How can you extend battery life? |
Turn off non essential lights. Reference E-48 & E-49 |
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What powers the Normal Pitch Trim? What powers the EMER pitch trim? |
1. RH load bus 2. Emergency bus |
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Step 11 in the checklist says icing environment - Avoid. Why? |
1. Engines fail open 2. Wings fail closed 3. No H stab 4. No windshield heat, etc.. |
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What is electrically heated? (6) |
1. T0 probe 2. AOA vanes 3. Pitot tubes 4. Static ports 5. H stab & H stab horn 6. Windshield |
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What is pneumatically heated? (5) |
1. T1 probe 2. Engine inlet 3. Bullet nose 4. Stator vanes 5. Wings |
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What other in-flight situation would require placing both master generators to EMER? |
1. Lost of both generators. 2. Electrical some in Cockpit. |
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What situations on the ground would require placing both masters generators to EMER? (3) |
1. Starter fails to cutout. 2. Emergency evacuation 3. Ditching |
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(Step 17 Flaps - Will not extend) Why not? |
Flaps require electrical controlled, hydraulically actuated. |
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How much will you have to increase your Vref speed for no flap approach? |
Vref + 20 KIAS |
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How much is the distance increased for zero flap landing? |
40%, note is at bottom of checklist |
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What causes a "Flap Asymmetry" annunciation? |
5-7 degrees between the main flaps No asymmetry protection for the aft flaps. |
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If this occurs, what happens to the flaps? Can they be moved? |
They stop and can't be moved. |
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(Step 19 checklist says Landing gear - Alternate Gear Extension) why is that? |
Gear is electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated. |
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(Alternate Gear Extension - E-60) Why do you pull the landing gear circuit breaker? |
Sequencing switches are electrical |
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What does the "systems" mean in regard to CBs? |
Tells you which panel the CB are located on. |
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Why 150kts for alternate gear extension? |
Gear loading for nose wheel. |
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What does pulling the emergency landing gear down handle do? |
Releases 5 uplocks 1. 3 for the gear 2. 2 for the main landing gear doors |
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Why push the emergency landing gear down handle back in? (Step 7) |
To reset the mechanical door uplocks in preparation for the next step. |
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Why pull the emergency door close handle? (Step 8) |
Raises the doors using nitrogen pressure. |
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Why do you push the emergency door close handle back in? |
To save nitrogen pressure, otherwise it may bleed off; for emergency braking. |
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What is the red guarded "Land Sel" switch for and when would you place it in Flap 10 position? |
1. When the "Land Sel" switch is set to 30 and the flaps are extended beyond 20, the gear warning horn will sound regardless of thrust position. - When set to 10, it will sound when flaps are set to 10. 2. You would set it to 10 for Flaps 10 approach & landing or speedbrakes remain extended. |
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What Flight instruments will you have remaining while on emergency electrical power? |
Peanut gages. 1. Standby attitude, airspeed, & altimeter 2. Whiskey compass |
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What nav instruments will you have remaining while on Emergency electrical power? |
1. Pilot's SDU 2. #1 RTU/NAV |
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What COMM instruments will you have remaining while on emergency electrical power? |
#1 RTU/COMM |
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What are the primary flight controls? |
1. Spoilers 2. Rudder 3. Elevators |
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How are the primary flight controls actuated? |
Mechanically through control cables, push-pull rods, mechanical linkages. |
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If the speed brakes are extended, do you still have roll authority? |
Yes |
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When do the speed brakes automatically retract? |
Flaps beyond 10 and throttles advanced to takeoff power. |
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How does the rudder boost detect asymmetric engine thrust. |
Compares engine bleed pressure. |
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When must the Yaw Damper be on & operating? |
1. Flight above 28,000 ft 2. Icing conditions. 3. Approach |
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What are the 5 hydraulically operated components and do any work without electrical actuation? |
1. Speedbrakes 2. Thrust reversers 3. Flaps 4. Gear 5. Brakes You lose all of them except for power brakes. But you need electricity for anti-skid capability. |
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What is normal hydraulic pressure? |
Green arc: 1350-1500 psi |
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Why is engine bleed used in the hydraulic system? |
15 psi to prevent foaming in the reservoir |
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How much hydraulic fluid does the reservoir hold? |
1.1 gallons |
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With the gear handle UP, three green lights extinguished, and a red light in the handle, what does this mean? |
At least one of the gear doors did not close. |
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We've just taken off and can't raise the gear, what is the problem? |
Failed squat switch. (Refer to E-61 in checklist for all squat switches? |
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What are 4 different modes of braking? |
1. Manual - setting the parking brake 2. Power brake - hydraulics w/o anti-skid. 3. Anti-skid - everything working 4. Emergency braking - using the nitrogen bottle. |
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What is the purpose of the accumulator? |
Dampen surges from the hydraulic power package. |
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When should the hydraulic pressure relief valve start to open? |
Starts at 1650 psi, fully open at 1850 psi. |
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You see 1900 psi on the hydraulic gauge. What would you do? |
Refer to checklist and HYD PRESS REL switch - Guard Up/Rel |
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When it comes time to lower the flaps and gear, what would you do? |
If hydraulic pressure above 1850 psi: - Flaps zero, alternate gear extension, use emergency brakes. - Checklist tells you not to move switch back to NORM. |
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How long will this increase your landing distance? |
90% (40% increase for no flaps and 50% increase for emergency brakes) |
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When would you perform Step 2 & 3 in the high hydraulic pressure checklist? |
Whenever the original hydraulic pressure was below 1850 psi. |
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When does the L or R Pump Press Lo illuminate? (hydraulic pump) |
Below 750 +/- 100 psi for more than 15 seconds. |
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Why the time delay? |
To allow for drop in pressure when actuating multiple hydraulic components (high demand), otherwise it would be a nuisance light. |
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What is the max pressure differential? |
9.1 psi +/- 0.1 |
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What is the difference between the manual pressurization control and the cabin dump valve? |
Cabin dump valve (CDV) dumps to aircraft altitude and manual pressure control is 12,500 +/- 1500 feet. |
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What causes a BLD AIR DCT FAIL light? |
Either a bleed air duct rupture in the ACM or a bleed air leak in the wing anti-ice manifold. |
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Looking at the checklist, what does it do? |
Turns off both the cabin pressure source (ACM) and wing anti-ice, tries to troubleshoot and isolate the cause of the problem. |
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What does a door unlock light mean? |
Either the entrance or aft fuselage door is not locked. |
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When will the CABIN PRESS LO annunciation come on? |
9500 +/- 500 feet |
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When will the passenger masks automatically deploy? |
12,500 +/- 500 feet Note: Can be deployed manually with PASS OXY knob. |
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What causes the AIR COND FAIL annunciation come on? |
Overpressure of 53 PSI or overheat 400 degrees Fahrenheit. |
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If the aircraft still being pressurized with AIR COND FAIL? |
Yes |
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Can you change the temperature of the air coming into the cabin in EMER? |
Reduce thrust if its still hot. |
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What is the difference between NORM, 100%, and EMER on the pilot masks? |
1. NORM - Up to FL330 (FL350): Diluted - To FL350 (FL390): 100% - Above FL350 (FL390): 100% +Pressure 2. 100% O2 - EROS: +Pressure above FL350 - PURITAN: 100% all altitudes 3. EMER - 100% at positive pressure at all altitudes. |
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When must the refrigeration air conditioning be off? |
For engine starting, takeoff and landing, above FL 180, below OAT 5 degrees Celsius. |
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You have a red box"IAS" is on your PFD, what does that mean? |
Your ADC has failed. |
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What other red boxed flags would appear if your ADC has failed? |
ALT and VS |
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What action would you take if you had an ADC failure? |
Reversionary switch - which would give you airspeed, altimeter & VSI |
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Can you then rearm the autopilot? |
No - You must transfer autopilot to the other side. |
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You have a red box MAG on your MFD, what does that mean? |
Displayed heading fail due to AHRS failure. |
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What other red boxed flags would appear if you're AHRS has failed? |
ATT |
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What action would you take if you had AHRS failure? |
Reversionary switch |
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What does a yellow USTB on the MFD mean? |
Radar stabilization has failed |
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What is the max ramp, max take off, max landing, and max zero fuel weight? |
1. 16300 lbs (16500 lbs) 2. 16100 lbs ( 16300 lbs) 3. 15700 lbs 4. 13000 lbs |
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What 5 factors may limit takeoff weight? |
1. Available runway length and ambient conditions. 2. Obstacle clearance requirements. 3. Destination landing weight limit. 4. Brake energy. 5. Approach climb. |
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What is the maximum weight you can load into the aft fuselage baggage compartment? |
450 lbs |
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What does ECS OFF for takeoff provide you? |
A little more thrust (about 0.2 to COF) Note: Cannot use engine anti-ice when ECS OFF is planned. |
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What is the standard IFR climb gradient (TERPS). |
200 feet per nautical mile or 3.3%. |
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What are the advantages and disadvantages of various flap setting for take off and what considerations would you use to select one versus another? |
1. Flaps up = greater runway use but better climb performance. 2. Flaps down = decreasing runway length at the cost of lost climb performance. |
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If you lost an engine during take off, which AFM performance chart will tell you whether or not you could make the climb gradient requirements? |
SID climb gradient supplement. |
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To what altitude will you hold that speed? |
Until clear of all obstacles, (400 feet is for part 25 certification, no obstacles, than 400 feet is fine) |
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What speed would you perform a SE go around miss approach? |
Vac = Vref +22 |
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To what altitude would you hold that speed? |
Until reaching a minimum safe IFR altitude. |
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What would be the most appropriate checklist for this SE missed approach? |
"Approach climb" checklist located behind the OPER tab. |
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What is the OPER tab? |
Abnormal approaches and landings. |
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What is the difference between approach climb gradient chart and the balked landing climb gradient chart? |
Balked landing (Vref) is a 2 engine climb chart. Approach climb is a single engine climb chart. |
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Notice that the 2nd segment climb chart refers to net climb gradient. What does that mean? |
Net climb gradient is the actual climb gradient achieve during certification testing. For a 2 engine airplane, the reduction value is 0.8%. |
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What is TOFL? |
Most restrictive of: 1. Accelerated go 2. Accelerated stop 3. Two engine V2 by 35ft + 15% of runway. |
