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ARE BDCS - Sample Problems

Are Bdcs - Sample Problems

by begutier, Dec. 2015

Subjects: ARE BDCS

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	1. The primary purpose of panic hardware on exit doors is to: a. allow an alternate method of opening the door b. allow easier access for disabled occupants c. provide a method of controlling exit doors d. provide easy release of the latch on the door	d. provide easy release of the latch on the door
	2. Which of the following toilet partition finishes has the LOWEST initial cost? a. baked enamel b. laminated plastic c. stainless steel d. porcelain enamel	a. baked enamel
	3. What is shown at X in the drawing above? a. a cricket b. base flashing c. cap flashing d. gable flashing	a. a cricket
	4. To prevent it from deteriorating, copper should be isolated from direct contact with which of the following roofing materials? a. Asphalt shingles b. Red-cedar shingles c. Built-up roofing d. Mineral-fiber felts	b. Red-cedar shingles
	5. Which of the following are desirable qualities of windows to be selected for a new commercial building? Check the four that apply. a. High visible light transmission value b. High air leakage rate c. Low solar heat gain coefficient d. Low heat transfer coefficient e. Low R value f. High condensation resistance factor	a. High visible light transmission value c. Low solar heat gain coefficient d. Low heat transfer coefficient f. High condensation resistance factor
	6. Which of the following occupancy classifications requires panic hardware at the required exits? a. Manufacturing facility b. Motel guest room c. Movie theater d. High-rise office suite	c. Movie theater
	7. Accessible ramp handrails shall extend beyond the top and bottom of the ramp a minimum of: a. 6 in b. 9 in c.12 in d. 15 in	c. 12 in
	8. Based on the table above, the minimum number of water closets required for women in a theater with a seating capacity of 4,000 is: ______	29
	9. In the detail above from an air-conditioned building located in a hot, humid climate, where should the vapor barrier be located? a. At A b. At B c. At C d. At D	d. At D
	10. A client is proposing to build a residence in an area where there is a high probability of the presence of radon gas. Which of the following are acceptable techniques of achieving radon-resistant construction for the building? Check the three that apply. a. Automatic vent damper devices b. Sub-slab depressurization systems c. Drain tile loops d. Soil-gas retarders e. Mat foundation f. Dry well	b. Sub-slab depressurization systems c. Drain tile loops d. Soil-gas retarders
	11. The type of door hinge indicated above is a: a. full mortise b. full surface c. half mortise d. half surface	a. full mortise
	12. Which of the following types of portable fire extinguisher is appropriate for fires generated by electrical equipment? a. Loaded stream water base only b. Pressure water base only c. Carbon dioxide and dry chemical d. Loaded stream water base, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical	c. Carbon dioxide and dry chemical
	13. In a fast-track, single-story industrial project, which of the following schematic design and design development considerations is most likely to have a significant effect on the successful sequencing of the construction? a. Foundation design b. HVAC systems design c. Roofing materials selection d. Window design	a. Foundation design
	14. Which of the following basic structural systems would be appropriate for a high-tech building with equipment and functions that are extremely sensitive to vibrations? s. Poured-in-place concrete beam-and-slab system b. Heavy steel frame with composite floor slab with rubber insulators c. Heavy (12) gauge metal studs with a long-span steel joist with a 5-inch-thick concrete slab d. Masonry bearing walls with wood joists and wood deck with a 4-inch-thick gypsum concrete topping slab	a. Poured-in-place concrete beam-and-slab system
	15. Which of the following is the most effective method to control indoor air quality? a. Exhaust air b. Source reduction c. Air cleaning and filtration d. Increased temperature and lowered humidity	b. Source reduction
	16. Which of the following diagrams best indicates an exterior self-supporting non-load-bearing wall design?
	17. Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting the type of elevator to use in a new building? Check the four that apply. a. Weight capacity of the elevator b. Cab finishes c. Height of the building d. Speed of the elevator e. Number of building occupants f. Hoistway size	a. Weight capacity of the elevator c. Height of the building d. Speed of the elevator f. Hoistway size
	18. When designing a residential development, which of the following is an example of the “Crime Prevention through Environmental Design” strategy of encouraging natural surveillance? a. Reducing the overall amount of site lighting b. Visually screening parking areas with tall landscaping c. Placing the majority of windows to the rear of residences d. Providing a primary living space with a view of the street	d. Providing a primary living space with a view of the street
	19. Which of the following types of fasteners is at high risk of corrosion when used with wood treated with inorganic waterborne preservatives? a. Aluminum b. Stainless steel c. Hot-dipped galvanized d. Hot-tumbled galvanized	a. Aluminum
	20. When compared to a steel beam-and-bar joist floor system, the use of composite construction will likely result in which of the following? Check the two that apply. a. Stiffer floor b. Heavier frame c. Lighter frame d. More expensive system e. Increased fabrication time f. Faster erection time	a. Stiffer floor c. Lighter frame
	21. The figure shown above represents which of the following types of insulating concrete form (ICF) system? a. Waffle-grid b. Waffle-core c. Waffle-cast d. Waffle-slab	a. Waffle-grid
	22. Which of the following actions can achieve the most significant cost reduction in value engineering a precast concrete warehouse? a. Removing reveals in the panels b. Changing the exposed aggregate in the concrete c. Maximizing and standardizing the panel sizes d. Removing the integral color from the concrete mix	c. Maximizing and standardizing the panel sizes
	23. A waterproofing treatment should be specified in lieu of a damp proofing treatment for subsurface masonry when which of the following conditions is present? a. Hydro static pressure b. A low frost line c. Sandy subsurface soils d. Expansive subsurface soils	a. Hydrostatic pressure
	24. The passage of water under pressure through concrete cracks is defined as: a. capillary action b. seepage c. saturation d. leakage	d. leakage
	25. An elevator hoistway would be constructed to which of the following model code standards for walls? a. Shaft enclosure b. Occupancy separation c. Area separation d. Demising	a. Shaft enclosure
	26. The two-inch gap at the perimeter of the wood athletic floor shown above is provided to: a. allow for proper alignment of the flooring system b. allow air circulation c. accommodate expansion and contraction d. increase resiliency of the floor	c. accommodate expansion and contraction
	27. Which of the following is the most appropriate flashing detail for the design of brick veneer (cavity) wall construction?
	28. Which jamb anchor should be used for installation in a masonry wall?
	29. The terms “scratch coat,” “brown coat,” and “finish coat” refer to: a. painting b. parging c. paving d. plastering	d. plastering Parging: is coating applied to the visible portion of your homes foundation walls.
	30. Which of the following types of concrete construction is reinforced with tensioned high-strength steel-wire strands? a. Tilt-up b. Pre-stressed c. Cast-in-place d. Precast	b. Prestressed
	31. Locating footings at or below the frost line is important because doing so: a. promotes good drainage b. makes perimeter insulation unnecessary c. helps to stabilize the foundation system d. simplifies excavation during winter construction	c. helps to stabilize the foundation system
	32. Which letter in the figure above indicates a muntin? a. A b. B c. C d. D	d. D
	33. Which of the following brick veneer patterns is the most expensive per square foot?
	34. What type of lock set is pictured below? a. Mortised b. Unit c. Cylinder d. Lever	a. Mortised
	35. Efflorescence on masonry walls is caused by water-soluble salts that are present in which of the following? Check the two that apply. a. Mortar b. Sheathing c. Masonry flashing d. Masonry units e. Masonry ties f. Rigid insulation	a. Mortar
	1. Baker House dormitory at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, designed by Alvar Aalto, represents which type of organizational scheme? a. radial b. linear c. clustered d. grid	b. linear Baker House Dormitory (1948) has a basically linear organization, even though it bends and curves along its length. The rooms were organized along a single corridor, with support spaces on the opposite sides of the corridor.
	2. Selection of an earth-sheltered building design can be a representation of: a. cost efficiency b. defensible space c. sustainability d. territoriality	c. sustainability Earth-sheltered buildings represent sustainability primarily because they are energy efficient and use low-cost, plentiful materials as part of their exterior covering.
	3. The honest expression of the nature of brick as a structural material is to utilize it: a. to support horizontal lintels b. in barrel arches c. as a fine texture on large walls d. in modular compositions	b. in barrel arches Brick is a compressive material with very little tensile or bending strength, so its basic nature would best suit it for use in compression applications, such as arches. Brick is also modular and creates a fine texture in large areas, but the question specifically refers to its use as a structural material.
	4. The Crystal Palace in London was the first building to utilize: a. steel arches b. concrete ribbing c. large glass panels d. prefabricated iron parts	d. prefabricated iron parts Prefabricated iron parts were first used Lo erect the Crystal Palace for the Great Exhibition of 1851. The use of standard prefabricated parts made it possible for the building to be dismantled and re-erected in a different location. Although the Crystal Palace also made extensive use of glass, this was not the first use of large glass panels. Steel was not used in construction until later. Concrete ribbing was not used in the superstructure of the Crystal Palace.
	5. The concept of combining architecture with ecology to develop alternate urban habitats with greater density while using solar energy was advocated by: a. Frank Lloyd Wright b. Kenzo Tange c. Le Corbusier d. Paolo Soleri	d. Paolo Soleri Paolo Soleri developed the concept of arcology, or the fusion of architecture with ecology, to develop ecological human "habitats" as an alternative to existing urban development. These habitats depend on population density Lo eliminate the need for automobiles in the city and are also located close to undeveloped land that can be used for raising food. One of Soleri's distinctive structural forms is the half dome, facing south to capture solar energy. His Arcosanti project in Arizona is a living laboratory of his ideas.
	6. What variable is used to measure the rate of heat transfer in any given thickness of material? a. conductivity b. coefficient of heat transmission c. resistance d. conductance	d. conductance Conductivity is the amount of conductance for exactly 1 in(25) of material. Conductance is the amount of heat loss through a material of any thickness. Resistance is the amount of time it takes a certain amoum of heat to pass through a material. The coefficienL of heat transmission is the overall rate of heat flow.
	7. When selecting a fire extinguisher cabinet, the most critical design feature is the: a. projection distance from the wall b. size of the glazing c. height of the cabinet enclosure d. finish	a. projection distance from the wall The ADA/ABA Guidelines limit the projection of any construction element to a maximum of 4 in (100) from a wall when the element is located between 27 in (685) and 80 in (2030) above the floor. Because extinguisher cabinets fall within this range, they must be recessed or semi-recessed to meet the 4 in (100) requirement. Glazing is not necessarily required, and if it is used there are no requirements for size. The height of the cabinet itself depends on what is installed within it. The type of finish is not critical. For example, painted stainless steel or bronze can be used. However, local j urisdictions may have requirements for the color and lettering type used for identification.
	8. According to stair dimension model codes, which of the indicated stair dimensions is a code violation? a. handrail height of 36 in b. headroom height of 6 ft 8 in c. total rise height of 14 ft d. handrail extension of 12 in	c. total rise height of 14 ft The maximum allowable height between landings or doors rise height) is 12 ft (3658) All of the other dimensions are correct. The height from the nosing to the top of a handrail must be bel\Neen 34 in (864) and 38 in (965).
	9. What is the minimum length of the following toilet compartment at the end of a row of stalls, according to ICC/ANSI All 7.1? The water closet is floor mounted. a. 90 in (2285) b. 92 in (2335) c. 95 in (2415) d. 96 in (2440)	c. 95 in (2415) Section 604.8.2 of ICC/ANSI All 7.1 states that the minimum clear floor space for a floor-mounted water closet is 60 in (1525) wide by 59 in (1500) long. The minimum space permitted at the door is 36 in (915).
	10. According to model codes, the minimum width of an office exit corridor serving an occupant load of 55 is: a. 36 in (914) b. 42 in (1067) c. 44 in (1118) d. 48 in (1219)	c. 44 in (1118) Model codes prescribe a minimum corridor width of 44 in (1118), with various exceptions. Corridors in residential occupancies or those serving an occupant load of less than 50 may be 36 in (914) wide. Other occupancies require wider corridors, but B occupancies (offices) require the 44 in (1118) width.
	11. What agency originally set requirements for safety glazing in buildings? a. ASTM International b. Consumer Product Safety Commission c. Glass Association of North America d. International Code Council	b. Consumer Product Safety Commission The Consumer Product Safety Commission originally set requirements for safety glazing, which are codified in the Code of Federal Regulations, CPSC 16 CFR 1201.
	12. According to model codes, interior finish requirements for woodwork are most stringent for: a. recessed shelving b. cornice molding c. built-in furniture d. wainscoting	d. wainscoting Model building codes regulate wainscoting as an interior finish material subject to a Class A, B, or C (sometimes called I, II , or Ill) flame spread rating, depending on occupancy, location in the building, and presence or absence of sprinklers. Since wainscoting could be restricted to a Class A flame spread rating, it is the most stringently regulated items listed Generally, codes do not regulate wood when it is used in furniture, shelving, molding, handrails, or other trim. Some codes only limit the flammability of wood trim to a Class C flame spread and limit the amount of trim to no more than 10% of the aggregate wall or ceiling area in which it is located.
	13. For accessible doors, the MINIMUM dimension of the distance x, as indicated in the drawing, is __ in (mm). (Fill in the blank.)	The answer is 18 in ( 445).
	14. A fire-rated gypsum board partition must always consist of: a. Type X gypsum board b. full-height construction c. attachment according to testing laboratory standards d. all of the above	d. all of the above Fire- rated partitions must be constructed according to tested and approved methods that include using Type X gypsum board , the method of attachment to the framing, how the joints are finished, the type and size of studs, and other details. In addition, the fire separation must extend from the slab to the rated slab above, not just to a suspended, finish ceiling.
	15. What is the building code requirement for pairs of exit doors with astragals: a. weather stripping b. door stop c. coordinator d. flush bolts	c. coordinator A coordinator prevents the door leaf with the astragal from closing before the other leaf, so the pair of doors seals properly.
	16. How much fire protection-rated glazing (wire glass) is permitted in a 1 1/2-hour rated door in an exterior wall: a. 100 in2 (645 cm2) b. 1296 in2 (8362 cm2) c. The amount of glazing is not limited. d. No glazing is permitted.	d. No glazing is permitted. According to the IBC, Table 715.5.4, no glazing is permitted in a 11/2-hour rated door in an exterior wall. All glazing in fire-rated doors must be either 1/+ in (6.35) wire glass or ceramic glazing. This problem addresses only wire glass. A 11/i-hour rated door that is not in an exterior wall is permitted to have 100 in2 (645 cm2) of glazing. A 3/+-hour rated door may have 1296 in2 (8362 cm2) of glazing per leaf. The amount of glazing is not limited in a 20-minute rated door. Ceramic glazing must comply with NFPA 80, Standard for Fire Doors and Other Opening Protectives
	17. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers? a. Fire extinguisher cabinets must have a vision panel or be clearly marked with a sign. b. Fire extinguishers must be tested regularly and have an approved label. c. Fire extinguisher cabinets may not protrude into the hallway more than 4 in (102). d. When fire extinguishers are required, no occupant may be more than 75 ft (22 .9 m) from a fire extinguisher.	c. Fire extinguisher cabinets may not protrude into the hallway more than 4 in (102). NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers is referenced in many codes to provide additional requirements for this type of fire-suppression system. When required, extinguishers must be clearly marked and visible; located no more than 75 ft (22 .9 m) from each building occupant; properly maintained, tested, and labeled; and readily accessible in case of an emergency. A fire extinguisher cabinet must not protrude more than 4 in (102) into the hallway, but this is a requirement of the ADAIABA Guidelines, not NFPA.
	18. A grocery store parking lot has 100 parking spaces. According to the ADA/ABA Guidelines, at least ___ accessible spaces must be provided. (Fill in the blank)	The answer is 4. According to the ADAIABA Guidelines, the ratio of accessible parking spaces to total parking spaces is 1:25 up to 200 spaces, with an additional accessible space for each additional 100 parking spaces up to 500. Above 500 spaces, accessible spaces are determined as a percentage of the total parking spaces provided. Local zoning ordinances or codes may differ from ADNABA recommendations, so all applicable guidelines should be consulted.
	19. What does it mean when a building material is noncombustible? a. It will not ignite and burn when subjected to fire b. IL will withstand flame impingement. c. It will not readily spread fire once ignited. d. It has a minimum 1-hour fire rating.	The answer is A. A noncombustible building material will not ignite and burn when subjected Lo fire.
	20. Restrictions on surface finishes in all model codes are based primarily on: a. occupancy and construction type b. occupant load and location in the building c. location in the building and occupancy d. occupancy group and sprinkle ring	c. location in the building and occupancy The primary restrictions on surface finishes given in model codes (such as in IBC Table 803.5) are the occupancy group and the location in the building according to exiting requirements. Having a building with a sprinkler system only modifies the basic requirements and allows the required name-spread rating to be dropped one class in some instances.
	21. Construction type refers to the: a. major materials used to construct a building b. fire-resistance ratings of various building components c. maximum area and height of a building d. use of a building and fire-protection methods used	b. fire-resistance ratings of various building components The hourly ratings of major building components, such as the structural frame, bearing walls, exterior walls, door, structure, and roof structure, together determine the construction type according to Tables 601 and 602 in the IBC.
	22. What is the minimum clear width for an accessible door? A. 30 in (760) B. 32 in (815) C. 34 in (865) D. 36 in (915)	B. 32 in (815) According to the ADAIABA Guidelines, a door that is required to be accessible must have a minimum clear width of 32 in (815). For a hinged door, this is measured with the door open to 90 degrees; a folding or sliding door is measured when fully open.
	23. In surveying an existing corridor to see if it met accessibility guidelines, an architect discovers the following two items that are questionable. I. a small fire-hose cabinet extending 5 in (127) from the wall II. a 1/4 in (6) high threshold below a pair of normally open doors Which item must be modified to make the corridor barrier free? a. neither I nor 11 b. I but not II c. II but not I d. both I and II	b. I but not II No objects greater than 4 in (100) can protrude into an accessible route if the lower edge of the object is greater than 2 7 in (685) above the floor. It is reasonable to assume that a small fire-hose cabinet would have its lower edge higher than this distance, so it would be limited to a maximum 4 in (100) protrusion. Therefore, item I would have to be modified. Any change in level of 1/4 in (6) or less does not require any edge treatment, so item 11 would not have to be modified.
	24. A soils report has indicated that the water table is 5 ft 0 in (1 500) above the basement level of a planned three story building. What type of construction technique will most likely be required? a. dampproofing b. surcharging c. waterproofing d. water stopping	c. waterproofing Waterproofing is the control of water and moisture that is subject to hydrostatic pressure. It can refer Lo the application of watertight membranes, waterstops, or bentonite panels when building below Lhe water table. Dampproofing is the control of water and moisture when hydrostatic pressure is not present. Surcharging is the preloading of the ground with fill material to cause consolidation and settlement of the underlying soil. Surcharging is used to increase the bearing capacity of soil or to decrease possible settlement, or both. A waterstop is a preformed piece of material used to seal construction joints. Although waterstops would be used in this situation, they are a subset of the larger requirement lo waterproof the entire basement slab and a portion of the basement walls.
	25. A building with a basement is being designed in a wet climate. Which of the following water-control materials and/or methods should the architect recommend for the foundation and basement walls? i. cementitious coatings ii. geotextiles iii. French drains iv. sloping soil away from the building a. ii and iii only b. iii and iv only c. i, ii, and iv only d. ii, iii, and iv only	d. ii, iii, and iv only Geotextiles, French drains, and sloping soil away from the building would all be appropriate means of draining water from a building in a wet climate or where groundwater was present. Item I is incorrect because cementitious coatings are only used for dampproofing, and if they were used the other three choices would also have to be used.
	26. A deep excavation for a high-rise building in an urban area would require: a. battered walls b. needle beams c. steel sheeting d. tiebacks	d. tiebacks A deep excavation would require the use of vertical soldier beams supporting horizontal timber breast boards or cribbing. The vertical soldier beams must be anchored into the adjacent earth with grouted tieback rods. Even steel sheeting would require tiebacks for support. A battered wall is simply a type of retaining wall using a material, such as stones or brick, slightly angled to support the adjacent earth. IL is not appropriate for a deep excavation wall in an urban area where space is limited. Needle beams are used to temporarily support a structure when its foundation is repaired or deepened. Steel sheeting requires the use of rakers that extend into the excavation site, limiting the depth of the excavation and interfering with construction activities in the excavated area.
	27. A soils report indicates that bentonite is present below the site of a proposed two-story manufacturing building. What type of foundation system should be used? a. drilled piers with grade beams b. raft foundation c. caissons with pile caps d. extended spread footings	a. drilled piers with grade beams Benlonile is an expansive type of clay that can push foundations and floor slabs upward when it gets wet. To prevent this, drilled piers are used to support the building weight on bedrock or stable soil below the bentonite. Grade beams span continuously between the piers and transmit building loads from the superstructure to the piers. Voids are left below the grade beams to allow the bentonite to expand without transmitting uplift forces. A raft foundation is used to distribute a building load over a large area of low-bearing capacity soil. Caissons with pile caps are used to distribute a load from one column to two or more caissons or piers and would only be appropriate if there was a void below the pile cap. Spread footings placed on bentonite would be subject to the uplift of the swelling clay soil and would not be appropriate.
	28. Which of the following pedestrian walk materials provides the best positive grade-level drainage away from a building? a. asphaltic concrete b. brick pavers c. cobblestones d. concrete	d. concrete A safe pedestrian walk should not have a slope exceeding 1/, in/ft (20 mm/m) perpendicular to the direction of travel. This allows for drainage without creating a dangerous cross slope. Of the materials listed, concrete could be finished to provide a con tinuous, uniform slope for drainage in conjunction with a smooth walking surface. Asphalt could be used, but it is more difficu lt to smooth unifo1mly at such a low slope. Minor dips and surface irregularities in the asphalt might cause ponding of water against or toward the building. Both brick pavers and cobblestone would allow water to seep into the joints near the building.
	29. For a large building being planned with a two-level basement used for meeting rooms, which of these water related soil problems would be the most important to solve? A. uplift pressure on the lowest slab B. moisture penetration caused by hydrostatic pressure C. deterioration of foundation insulation D. reduced load-carrying capacity of the soil	B. moisture penetration caused by hydrostatic pressure All of the answer options listed would need to be addressed, but because the question asks which is most important, a judgment call is required. Option D is unlikely because a large building would probably utilize piers or caissons for the foundation, so the load-carrying capacity of the soil would not be as critical. Foundation insulation could be easily se lected to avoid deterioration problems, so option C is an unlikely answer. Of the two remaining answers, hydrostatic pressure could cause the most problems, so this is the primary problem to be solved.
	30. If a soil is analyzed as being primarily silty, how should it be characterized? a. very fine material of organic matter b. rigid particles with moderately high bearing capacity c. particles with some cohesion and plasticity in their behavior d. smaller particles with occasional plastic behavior	d. smaller particles with occasional plastic behavior Option A describes organic material, option B describes gravels, and option C describes clays.
	31. In the partial plan of a concrete basement shown, what would be the best way to improve the economy of the concrete formwork? a. make the column square b. Separate the pilaster at A2 from the wall. c. Form the pilaster at Al with the diagonal. d. Make the wall along grid line 1 a uniform thickness.	d. Make the wall along grid line 1 a uniform thickness. Forming corners in concrete always adds to the cost, so making the wall a uniform thickness would be most economical even though more concrete would be required. Making the column square would decrease the amount of concrete but would still require the same amount of forming. Separating the pilaster from the wall would actually increase the cost of formwork. Forming the pilaster with a diagonal would not be appropriate because of the structural problems caused by decreasing the column area and placing reinforcement
	32. In the illustration shown, what is the purpose of the gravel? a. to reduce hydrostatic pressure b. to keep the soil from direct contact with the concrete c. to provide a firm base for concrete bearing d. to hold the membrane in place and protect it	a. to reduce hydrostatic pressure The gravel provides open spaces for any water under hydrostatic pressure to lose its pressure and drip Lo drains near the footing. Although it does this by preventing direct contact of the soil with the wall, preventing contact is not the sole purpose.
	33. Which of the following building areas is excluded from a calculation of the architectural area of a building? a. a mechanical penthouse with 6 fl (1.8 m) headroom b. an open courtyard c. a duct shaft d. a porch	b. an open courtyard The architectural area of a building is the sum of the areas of all of the Doors. However, certain spaces within the building are treated differently from others for the purposes of this calculation. Some are excluded entirely, such as courtyards and other open areas like fire escapes and exterior stairs. Others, such as rooms with less than 6 ft (1.8 m) of headroom and porches, are multiplied by 0.5.
	34. Which of the following factors accounts for the highest cost of a lighting system over time? b. luminaires c. installation d. operation	d. operation Over the life cycle of a lighting system, the continuing operating cost for electricity is the single largest expense. For nonresidential applications, maintenance (such as the replacement of lamps and cleaning of luminaires) is the second greatest expense.
	35. Which of the following installed suspended ceiling systems is the least expensive? a. concealed spline set in a grid with 12 in by 12 in (300 by 300) mineral-fiber tiles b. gypsum wallboard attached to furring channels attached to l 1h in (38) cold-rolled channels c. metal pan with acoustic pads set in 2 ft by 2 ft (600 by 600) exposed grids d. mineral board tiles set in 2 ft by 4 ft (600 by 1200) exposed grids	d. mineral board tiles set in 2 ft by 4 ft (600 by 1200) exposed grids Of the choices listed, a standard 2 ft by 4 ft (600 by 1200) exposed grid with mineral fiber ceiling tile is the least expensive. It is followed, in increasing order of cost, by gypsum wallboard, concealed spline mineral fiber, and metal an with acoustic pads. Study Note: Problems related to material costs and construction methods generally ask one of two questions: "Which is the least expensive?" or "Which is the most expensive?" Although you do not need to know specific costs, you should have a general idea of the relative costs of similar materials and systems.
	36. Which of the following wood flooring types has the lowest material cost? a. maple strip over sleepers b. oak strip, no. 1 common c. oak plank d. white oak parquet	b. oak strip, no. 1 common Oak strip flooring is one of the least expensive wood flooring types. White oak parquet and oak plank are the most expensive.
	37. Which of the following door frame materials would provide the greatest durability at the lowest possible cost? a. aluminum b. hollow metal c. stainless steel d. wood (e.g., oak)	b. hollow metal A wood frame would be the least expensive option but would not provide the same durability as a metal door frame. Of the metal door frames listed, standard hollow metal (steel) would be the least expensive. Study Note: Although most problems regarding costs of materials and methods are objective, some may require a judgment call or the setting of priorities.
	38. Which of the following wall coverings has the highest material cost? a. acrylic glazed coating b. cork tile c. commercial-grade grass cloth d. medium-weight vinyl wall covering	b. cork tile Cork tile is the most expensive material listed. Acrylic glazed coatings have the lowest cost of those listed, followed by medium-weight vinyl wallcovering and grass cloth.
	39. Which of these statements about reinforcing bar (rebar) sizes is FALSE? a. American and metric sizes are now based on a unit less number. b. American bar numbers equal the number of eighths of an inch across the diameter. c. Soft metric numbers approximately equal the diameter in millimeters. d. Hard metric numbers are based on the cross sectional area in square millimeters.	a. American and metric sizes are now based on a unit less number. The designation system for American standard sizes of rebar is based on the number of eighths of an inch in the nominal diameter of a bar, up to 1 in. The soft metric sizes are based on the approximate number of millimeters in the nominal diameter. For example, a no. 5 bar in the American designation is 5/s in, which in soft metric is 15.9 mm or a no. 16 bar. In hard metric, the actual size is different, and the numbering system is based on round numbers of the cross-sectional area, using the letter "M" as a suffix. For example, the nearest size to an American no. 5 bar is a ISM with an area of 200 mm2.
	40. One nondestructive test used to measure the strength of concrete after it has hardened in its final form is the: a. core cylinder test b. cylinder test c. impact hammer test d. Kelly ball test	The impact hammer test involves snapping a spring-loaded plunger against a concrete surface and measuring the amount of rebound. The amount of rebound gives an approximate reading of concrete strength. A cylinder test requires that a sample be taken at the time the concrete is poured, before it has hardened. A core cylindertest can give the strength of hardened concrete, but the test is destructive to the concrete, and the sample needs tobe tested in a laboratory. Both the core cylinder test and the Kelly ball test require the use of fresh concrete.
	41.If too much water is placed in aconcrete mix, which ofthe following problems might develop: a. laitance b. efflorescence c. hydration d. segregation	a. laitance Laitanceis a surface deposit of low-strength material containing cementand fine aggregates (sand) broughtto the surfaceof concrete. It is caused by havingtoo much water inthe concrete mix, which results in water bleeding to the top. F, floresccnccis a white, crystalline deposit ofwater-soluble saltson the surface of masonry and sometimes concrete. It iscaused when water seeps into the masonry and dissolves solublesalts, which are brought to thesurface. When the waterevaporates, the salts are left on the surface. Hydration is simply thechemical process of the hardening of concrete whenwater mixes with cement. Segregation is the separation ofthe constituent parts of the concrete when the concreteis eitherdropped too far or moved excessively in the horizontal directionwhile it is being placed.
	42. A section of a precast concrete panel attached to a cast-in-place concrete structure is shown. Which connection point should allow for both vertical and lateral movement? a. point a b. point B c. point C d. point D	b. point B A precast panel should have only two points of bearing on the structure. These are indicated at point C. One point should be a rigid connection and the other should provide for lateral movement. The remaining points of connection to the structure, or tiebacks as they are often called, should allow for both vertical and lateral movement of the panel due to differential movement of the structure and panel, and clue to expansion and contraction caused by temperature differences.
	43. Which of the concrete joints shown connects two successive pours of concrete?	b. Option B shows a construction joint, which would be used to physically connect a new ppur of concrete to a previously poured section. In most cases the two sections are connected with a keyed joint. Reinforcing bars across the joint are also commonly used. The drawing in option A shows a control joint. Option C shows an isolation joint, which can be used for successive pours of concrete but does not connect the two pairs. Option D shows an expansion joint used to allow two sections of a building Lo move independently.
	45. When the architect is on the job observing concrete placement, what is most likely to be of LEAST concern? A. height of a bottom-dump bucket above the forms as the concrete is being placed B. type of vibrator being used C. location of the rebar in relation to the forms D. method of support of the forms	B. type of vibrator being used The height of the dump bucket is important because dropping concrete too far causes segregation, which should not be allowed. The location of rebar is important because of the minimum coverages required to protect the steel from moisture. The method of form support is important because unstable forms can affect the final appearance and size of the concrete. They can also be a safety hazard, but this is the contractor's responsibility.
	46. What cement would be used in slip form construction? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV	C. Type III Type Ill cement is high-early-strength-the type needed for rapid slip form construction. Type I is normal cement. Type 11 is low heat and sulfate resistant, and Type IV is slow setting and low heat for massive structures.
	47. What is used to minimize corner chipping of concrete? A. chamfer strips B. hardeners C. rustication strips D. walers	A. chamfer strips A chamfer st1ip is a small , triangular piece of material placed in the corners for forms to prevent sharp 90° corners, \.vhich are difficult to cast and have a tendency to break off during use or when the forms are removed.
	48. What is the primary purpose of the voids in a cored slab? A. to allow electrical services to be concealed in the slab B. to make a more efficient load-carrying member C. to make erection easier D. to minimize weight	B. to make a more efficient load-carrying member As with any beam, the deeper the member, the more efficient the beam. Using a cored slab rather than a solid slab allows the depth to be increased without increasing the weight in the center of the beam where it is not needed. Options A and D are partially correct, but option B is the best choice.
	49. Which of the vertical joints shown would be appropriate for a concrete basement wall?	a. Option A shows a strong keyed joint with a waterstop to prevent water penetration. The other selections show joints that are weak structurally or that do not provide for adequate waterproofing.
	50. At what temperature do workers need to take steps to protect concrete when cold weather is predicted? A. 0°F ( - l8°C) B. 32°F (0°C) C. 40°F ( 4°C) D. 45°F (78°C)	C. 40°F ( 4°C) Construction operations generally discontinue or switch from regular activity to cold-weather mode at 40°F (4°C). A concrete pour can proceed at temperatures below 40°F (4°C). However, the water and sand must be heated to ensure that none of the constituents have frozen, and the concrete must be heated for at least seven days after placement, during the early curing stage. Other temperature-seusitive lllaterials, such as sealants, should not be applied when the mercury dips below 40°F (4°C).
	51. When specifying small batches of concrete, what does a 1:2:5 mix mean? A. 1 pan cement, 2 parts sand, and 5 parts coarse aggregate B. 1 part coarse aggregate, 2 parts sand, and 5 parts cement C. 1 part water, 2 parts cement, and 5 parts aggregate D. 1 pan cement, 2 parts water, and 5 pans aggregate	A. 1 pan cement, 2 parts sand, and 5 parts coarse aggregate Concrete mixes specified by volume fo llow the standard nomenclature of three values expressed in proportion to one another. The first number expresses the proportion of cement; the middle number expresses the proport ion of fine aggregate (sand); and the last number expresses the proportion of coarse aggregate (gravel). The amount of water to be added to the mix is not included in the mix ratio.
	52. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Type Ill cement (high-early-strength) is often used for precast concrete members. B. Precast concrete members can be a maximum of 14 ft (4.3 m) wide. C. Concrete used in precast members is typically 3000 psi (20 684 kPa). D. Condi tions are more controlled during the production of precast concrete members than they would be for similar structural systems built in the field.	C. Concrete used in precast members is typically 3000 psi (20 684 kPa). Concrete used in precast members is generally a higherstrength mix than the 3000 psi (20 684 kPa) concrete typically used for site cast applications. Type Ill (high-early-strength) cement and steam curing allows prestress plants Lo get finished beams and tees out of the beds and into the yard more quickly so that production can continue. They are then warehoused in the yard until they have passed 28-day cylinder testing. Precast members are generally transported over the highway, so their width is limited to the width of a travel lane. ln general, conditions can be better conLrulleu production of precast concrete than they can in the field. Forms can be used repeatedly, and curing can take place under shelter and in controlled conditions, making precast concrete products both economical and consistent.
	53. Which type of masonry cement mortar has the highest compression strength? A. Type M B. Type N c. Type 0 D. Type S	A. Type M Type M mortar has a minimum average 28-day compressive strength of 2500 psi (17.2 MPa). Type 0 has the lowest compressive strength, 350 psi (2.4 MPa). Study Note: For exterior walls and inte1i or walls under normal loads, Type N mortar is commonly used. Type S mortar is used for heavier loading on interior walls and for exterior walls at or below grade, such as foundation walls, retaining walls, pavements, walks, and patios. When high-strength mortar is required for heavy loads or for cases where the mortar will be exposed to severe, saturated freezing, Type S or M mortar is used. Type 0 mortar is used only for light loads and where freezing is not expected.
	54. Which of the following orientations is used in a soldier course of brick? (Shading sides face forward.)	c. Option C is used in a soldier course of brick. Option A is used in a stretcher course of brick. Option B is used in a header course. Option D is used in a sailor course. Study Note: Know the various types of brick courses, bonding patterns, and mortar j oints, especially the mortar joints that give maximum protection against weathering and waler penetration (concave). Tenns to Know collar joint: the vertical joint between masonry withes
	55. In masonry walls, water is prevented from seeping back into the wall through capillary action by using: A. base flashing B. coping c. drips D. weep holes	c. drips Drips are extensions of Lhrough-wall flashing or projections below masonry units that extend beyond the primary plane of the wall. The purpose of a drip is to force water that is draining off flashing or a sill to fall down and away from the wall rather than to adhere to the wall and possibly flow back into the wall through capillary action or cracks below the flashing. The question asks for the solution that will prevent water from seeping back into the wall, so it can be assumed thaL the water is already outside, precluding options A and D. Option B is incorrect because coping simply covers a parapet and may include drips. Study Note: Study the basic components of masonry construction, includi ng multi-wythe construction, flashing, reinforcing, opening details, and connections to backup walls or 1he .superstructure. Also know the methods of repairing masorny walls and groUL for renovations.
	56. Under wind pressures of 20 psf (958 Pa), the maximum area allowed for individual exterior wall panels using standard unit glass block is __ ft2 (m2). (Fill in the blank.)	The answer is 144 ft2 (13.4 m2 ). A standard unit glass block is hollow and has a specified Lhickness of Y/s in (98). Model codes limit the areas of the individual exterior wall panels using this glass block to 144 ft2 (13.4 1112). Solid unit glass block is limited to 100 ft2 (9.3 m2) for both interior and exte1ior walls. Interior standard unit glass block walls are limited Lo 250 ft2 (23 .2 m2 ) .
	57. According to most building codes, horizontal masonry reinforcement is required every: A. 8.0 in (200) B. 16 in (400) c. 24 in (600) D. 32 in (800)	B. 16 in (400) Most building codes require horizontal reinforcement in both brick and concrete masomy walls a minimum of every 16 in (400). The reinforcing may be a continuous truss or ladder type laid in the mortar joints.
	58. Which mortar type has the highest compressive strength? A. M B. N c. 0 D. S	A. M Solution Type M masonry has a compressive strength of 2500 psi (17 237 kPa). Types S and N have strengths of 1800 psi (12 411 kPa) and 750 psi (5171 kPa), respectively, and Type 0 is the lowest with a compressive strength of 350 psi (2413 kPa).
	59. What type of brick would most likely be specified for an eastern exposure in New Hampshire? A. NW B. FBX C. MW D. SW	D. SW SW stands for severe weathering and would be the type that should be specified for Lhe northeasLern United States. NW is normal weathering, and MW is moderate weathering. FBX re fers to the finish appearance.
	60. Which area in the masonry wall assembly shown would be most susceptible to water penetration?	a. A raked joint like thal shown in Lhe masonry wall above the ledge (area A) is not a good one to use because water running down the wall can seep into the joint by capillary action. The details at areas B and C are correctly executed. The flashing and sealant at area B would keep water out, and the drip at area C would prevent water from running under the ledge and into the masonry joint at area D.
	95. Architectural woodwork for installation in the southwestern United States should have a moisture content of: A. less than 5% B. 4% to 9% c. 5% to 10% d. 0. 8% to 13%	B. 4% to9% The southwestern portion of the United States is the driest.so moisture conlenl should approximate the condilions inwhich the lumber will be used However, it is difficull LOreduce the moisture content much below 5%, so oplion Ais an unrealistic answer.
	96. As a general rule, the length of the three sides of the work triangle in a residential kitchen should not exceed: A. 20 ft (6.1 m) B. 23 ft (7.0 m) C. 26 ft (7.9 m) D. 30 fl (9 1 m)	C. 26 ft (7.9 m) The worh triangle is an imaginary line drawn from Lhe refrigeralorworkstation to the sink workstation to the cookingworkstation and back again . The Lhree sides of the triangleshould add up Lo no more than 26 ft (7.9 m). A larger worktriangle results in an inefficienl use of space, and the distancesbetween work areas are too great.
	97. Which of the following is the best sealant to use between exterior, precast concrete wall panels? A. acrylic B. butyl C. latex D. polyurethane	D. polyurethane Polyurethane sealant, either one-pan or lwo-part, providesexcellent resistance Lo wealher and is capable of 25% to50% movement. lt can span Lhe wide joints typical of precastconcrete, is available in colors, and can be painted.Actylics are unsuitable for Lhis siluation because of Lheirlimiled potential for joint movement and their inability tofill the large-width joints thal are typical of precast concrete.Butyls are unsuitable because of their limited joint movemenland because they are only available in darker colors.They are generally used for areas under water. Latexsealants also have limited joint movement capability and aretypically used for joints with no expected movement, suchas those around door and window frames.
	98. The minimum suggested pitch for a normal-slope asphalt or composition shingle roof is: A. 2:12 B. 3:12 C. 4:12 D. 5:12	C. 4:12 A normal-slope asphalt or composition shingle roof shouldhave a minimum pitch of 4:12.Study Note: A low-slope asphalt or composition sh ingleroof can be as low as 2:12, but a double layer of roofingfelt is required, and most manufacturers do not recommendthis slope. Most questions relating to shingle roofingwill probably deal with the standard type of roof.
	99. Many problems associated with exterior insulation and finish systems (EIFS) can be solved using which of the following design techniques? A. Design the wall using the rain screen principle. B. Use expansion joints at a maximum spacing of 10 ft 0 in (3000). C. Increase the thickness of the finish coat. D. Provide extra flashing at window and door joints.	A. Design the wall using the rain screen principle. A standard EIFS is designed as a barrier against moisture.The level of moisture prevention depends on the finish andthe proper construction of joints and details. An EIFS canexperience problems if water leaks behind the finish andinsulation and becomes trapped , damaging framing andother building components. Some p roprietary systems areavailable that incorporate the rain screen principle by usinga mesh or some other means of allowing pressure to equalizeoutside and inside of the system. Any water that doesleak through is drained to the outside through weep holes.Study Note: The other common problem with a standardpolymer-based (PB) EIFS is puncturing or denting. Thiscan be addressed by using a polymer-modified system(PM) or by using a high-impact PB system vvith fiberglassmesh and an extra layer of base coat.
	100. Which of the following materials provides the highestinsulation value (R-value)? A. expanded perlite B. expanded polystyrene C. fiberglass D. polyisocyanurate	D. polyisocyanurate Polyisocyanurate has the highest R-value. For a 1 in thickness,its R-value ranges from 6.25 ft2-h r-°F/Btu to 7 .20 ft2-h r-0F/Btu (43.8 m2·K/W to 51.8 m2·KIW). Polystyrene hasthe next highest value, at 5.00 ft 2-hr-°F/Btu (34. 7 m2• K/W).
	101. A vapor barrier placed on the exterior side of the insulation in a wall would be MOST appropriate in a: A. cold climate B. temperate climate C. hot, humid climate D. hot, dry climate	C. hot, humid climate Vapor barriers should be placed on the "warm" side of insulation,to p revent water vapor from condensing to liquidwater when its temperature drops below the dew point. Incold or temperate climates, the warm side of the insulationis towa rd the inside of the building. However, in hot, humidclimates, the "varmer, moister outside air vapor can condensewhen it reaches the cooler, air-conditioned interior ofthe buildi ng, which is why the vapor barrier is placed onthe exterior side of the insulation in this case.
	102. The sketch shown is of a wall in a cold climate. Where should the vapor barrier be located?	B. Vapor barriers should always be located on the warm sideof insulation (area B) to prevent moisture from condensingwhen it cools and reaches the dew point. Moisture penetratingthe insulation can reduce the insulation's effectivenessand damage other materials.
	103. Asphalt-impregnated building paper is used undersiding primarily to: A. improve thermal resistance B. increase the water resistance of the wall C. act as a vapor barrier D. all of the above	B. increase the water resistance of the wall Although asphalt-impregnated paper can act as a vapor barrier,the fact that it is placed on the outside of the sheathingprecludes options C and D from being correct. It does adda little to the thermal resistance, but its primary purpose isto prevent any water that seeps behind the siding from gettinginto the structure. IL also serves to prevent air infiltration.
	104. Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate for insulating a steel stud wall? A. polystyrene boards B. rock wool C. fiberglass batts D. perlite boards	B. rock wool Rock wool is a loose insulation poured or blown into cavities.It is usually not used in commercial construction andcan settle when installed in any type of cavity wall. Theother types of insulation listed would be more appropriate,although fiberglass batts would be difficult because theusual method of attaching them is stapling the flanges of theinsulation to wood studs. However, fiberglass bans could befit in steel stud cavities by friction.
	105. Which of the following would be most appropriate for damp proofing an above-grade concrete wall with a moderately rough surface? A. cementitious coating B. bitum inous coating C. synthetic rubber D. silicone coating	D. silicone coating Silicone coatings would provide the best coverage for roughwalls because they can be sprayed, painted, or rolled on. Ifthe wall was below grade, the correct choice would be acementitious coating or a bituminous coating.
	106. What is used to keep water from penetrating an expansion joint at the intersection of a roof and wam: A. base flashing B. counterflashing C. sea lam D. coping	B. counterflashing Base flashing extends from the roof over the cant strip andup the wall, so option A is incorrect. Counter flashing coversthe base flashing to extend from the wall over the baseflashing and to cover any expansion joint that may occurat this point. Coping protects the top of the parapet, so option D is incorrect. Sealants by themselves are not adequateto cover a major expansion joint as would occur atthe roof and wall intersection, so option C is incorrect
	107. Which material has the lowest penn rating? A. 10 mil (0.25) polyethylene B. gypsum wallboard C. 1 mil (0.025) aluminum foil D. exterior oil paint	C. 1 mil (0.025) aluminum foil Perm rating is a measurement of how much moisture passesthrough a certain material in a given amount of time. ASTME96 defines it as "the passage of one grain of water vaporper hour through one square foot of a material at a pressuredifferential of 1 in of mercury." (In SI units, the definition is"one nanogram per second per square meter per pascal ofpressure.")Vapor retarders are selected based on their perm ratings.The best vapor retarders have the lowest ratings. This problemis essentially asking which of the listed materia ls is thehPst vapor retarder, and the answer is option C, aluminumfoil, with a perm rating of zero. Polyethylene is the nextbest, with a perm rating of 0.03 (0.0005). Three coats ofexterior oil paint have a perm rating of 1.6 to 3.0 (0.028 to0.052). Gypsum wallboard allows the most moisture to passthrough, with a perm rating of 50.
	108. The dimension labeled x in the diagram refers to a: A. face B. rabbet C. soffit D. stop	B. rabbet The space in which the door closes in a door frame is calledthe rabbetThe face is the portion of the frame parallel to the wall. Thesoffit is the width of the frame portion serving as the stop.The stop is the portion against which the door shuts.Study Note: Know the basic terminology of all types ofconstruction components.
	109. In wood door frame construction, the function of the shim is to: A. provide the required space for hardware B. prevent sound from leaking through the opening C. hide the gap between the frame and partition D. provide for adjustability in setting the frameplumb	D. provide for adjust-ability in setting the frame plumb A shim is a tapered piece of wood that, when used in pairs,allows the position of a door frame to be adjusted along thedoors height until the frame is plumb.
	110. A slip joint is used in the head of an aluminum store front system to: A. allow for expansion and contraction B. accommodate the detection of the structure C. facilitate the installation of the mullions D. provide a way to install and remove the glazing	B. accommodate the detection of the structure Any denection of the structure above a storefront could possiblybreak the glass or bend the mullions. A slip joint isused to prevent the weight of the structure above from bearingon the framing or the glazing.
	111. Which of the windows illustrated would be best for ventilation during heavy rainstorms?	A. Option A represents an awning window that pivots on thetop. As such, the window could be left open during a rainstormand still keep water out of the building. All three ofthe incorrect choices would allow water to enter more easily.Option B shows a hopper window. Option C illustrates acasement window, and option D illustrates a single-hungwindow.
	112. Which of the following types of glass is the strongest? A. laminated B. annealed C. tempered D. heat -strengthened	A. laminated Laminated glass is the strongest of the four types of glasslisted. It consists of two or more layers of glass with a layerof plastic bonded in between. If the glazing is broken, thepieces of glass will be held together by the layer of plastic.Laminated glass is used in applications such as bulletproofglazing, car windshields, and skylights.Annealed glass, or ordinary window glass, is made by Ooatingmolten glass on top of molten tin. As the liquid movesthrough the production process, it is slowly cooled into aperfectly Oat sheet of solid glass. Annealed glass may besubjected to processes such as tempering and heat strengtheningto change its characteristics.Tempered and heaL-strengLhenecl glass are both formed byheating annealed glass to very high temperatures. Heatstrengthenedglass is heated and then cooled slowly.Tempered glass is heated to higher temperatures andthen cooled quickly. Tempered glass is about twice asstrong as heat-strengthened glass and about four times asstrong as annealed glass. Tempered glass is used in glassdoors and windows, as shelving, and for many other useswhere a safety glass is required.
	113. Tempered glass is required in: A. entry doors B. sidelights with sills below 18 in (457) C. glazing within 1 ft (305) of doors D. all of the above	D. all of the above Safety glazing is required in all areas subject to humanimpact. This includes glass doors and any glass within 24 in(610) of doors. Glass farther than 24 in (610) from doorsand with a sill over 18 in ( 457) above the floor does nothave to be safety glazed.
	114. What type of glass would probably NOT be appropriate for a 10-story building? A. tempered B. annealed C. heat-strengthened D. laminated	B. annealed Annealed glass is the standard glass used in most noncriticalglazing situations. All of the other types of glass listedhave greater strengths and could be used in a tall buildingwith large panels of glass subject to high wind loads andthermal cycling.
	115. Select the INCORRECT statement concerning fire-rated door assemblies. A. Hinges must always be the ball-bearing type.B. Under some circumstances a closer is not needed. C. Labeling is required for both the door and frame. D. The maximum width is 4 ft 0 in (1220).	B. Under some circumstances a closer is not needed. Closers are always required for fire-rated doors. The otherstatements are correct.
	116. Which of the sketches depicts a half surface hinge?	A. Option A depicts a half surface hinge. Option B depicts afull mortise hinge, option C a half mortise hinge, andoption D a full surface hinge.
	117. In what part of a panel door is the lockset mounted? A. stile B. mullion C. keyway D. rail	A. stile The lockset of a panel door is mounted in the stile.
	118. Which type of lock would be most appropriate for an entry door into an office suite? A. cylindrical lock B. unit lock C. mortise lock D. rim lock	C. mortise lock A mortise lock offers the most flexibility in the number ofoperating functions available and is a very durable type oflockset. The next best choice would be a cylindrical lock.
	119. Which of the following windows could be used as an emergency escape and rescue opening?	D. Emergency escape and rescue openings (sometimes referred toas egress windows) must be provided in all sleeping areas inresidential occupancies. They provide a way for inhabitantsto escape or for a fire fighter to enter. Requirements vary forsleeping areas in nonresidential applications, such as dormitoriesand hotels; consult the applicable code in thatjurisdiction.All the following requirements must be satisfied for a windowto qualify as an emergency escape and rescue window,according to the International Residential Code and the In ternationalBuilding Code.minimum width of opening: 20 in (508)minimum height of opening: 24 in (610)minimum net clear opening: 5.0 ft2 (1.5 m2) ground11oor, 5. 7 ft2 Cl. 7 m2) upper floorsmaximum sill height: 44 in (11 18)Awning windows are not acceptable for use as emergencyescape and rescue openings. If a double-hung window isused, the bottom pane must satisfy the dimensional and arearequirements when open. CasemenL windows are a goodchoice, but again , the dimensional and area requirementsmust be satisfied. Tht> window in option D satisfies therequirements with a width of 24 in (610), a height of 36 in(914), and a net clear opening of 6 ft2 (1.8 m2) . In addition,the sill height is within the required range at less than 44 in(1 118) above the finish 11oor. Each of the other three windowshas less than 5 ft2 (1.5 m2) of net clear opening.
	120. Which of these statements are FALSE: l. A fire rating of 1h hours is the maximum possible fora steel door.I I The frames for a steel door are normally 12-, 14-, or 16-gage, depending on use. Ill. Steel doors must be used with steel frames.IV Hinges or offset pivots can be used with steel doors. V The standard thickness of a steel door is 13/8 in (35). A. I and V only B. II and IV only C. I, lll , and V only D. II. lll, and V only	A. I and V only Statement I is incorrect because ratings up to 3 hours arepossible. Statement V is incorrect because the standardthickness is l3/~ in ( 44).
	121 . In the window elevation shown , what is indicated by label x?	A. mullion Mullions are members that separate large sections of glass,whereas muntins are the frami ng that separates individualpanes of glass. Sti les are vertical members of doors, and railsare horizontal members of doors.
	122. The pieces that make up an aluminum window are most often formed by: A. rolling B. extruding c. drawing D. casting	B. extruding Most pieces of aluminum door and window frames aremade through a process called extrusion. The metal ispushed through a die to form the desi red shape. For assembliesthat are produced multiple times and with pieces withthe same profiles (such as windows), extrusion is a veryeconomical process. Drawing is similar to extrusion but themetal is pulled rather than pushed through the die. Steel is often formed through rolling. The metal travelsthrough a series of rollers and is fanned into the propershape. Metal can either be hol rolled or cold rolled. Hotrolling eliminates flaws, and cold rolling increases strength.CasU11g is the process of pouring molten metal into a formand allowing it to harden.
	123. A gypsum wallboard ceiling detail is shown. The component labeled x is the: A. channel spacer B. cold-rolled steel channel C. furring channel D. main runner	C. furring channel The illustration shows a standard method of installing gypsumwallboard ceilings. The components shown includethe gypsum wallboard attached to the furring channel. Furringchannels are normally installed 24 in (600) on centerand are attached Lo l 1h in (38) cold-rolled steel channelsplaced 48 in (1200) on center. The cold-rolled steel channelsare suspended from the structure above with wire.
	124. Which of the following types of wood floors would be the LEAST appropriate for a commercial office? A. block B. parquet c. resilient D. strip	c. resilient Resilient wood floors are commonly used for theater stages,dance floors, and gymnasiums. They provide extra bounceand resiliency for these types of uses.
	125. Which of the following flooring types has the highestresilience? A. asphalt B. cork C. linoleum D. vinyl composition	B. cork Cork is a very resilient material. its resilience is similar to that of .Asphalt tile , which is seldom used, has the lowest resilience.Linoleum and vinyl composition tile have low to moderateresilience.
	126. The standardized levels of finish in the gypsum wallboardindustry refer, among other things, to the A. quality of workmanship of the final fin ish B. number of coats of j oi nt compound used C. thickness of joint compound used D. type of texturing used	B. number of coats of joint compound used The Gypsum Association publishes Recom111e11dccl Levels ofGypsum Board Finish, which gives six levels of finish. Onerequirement for these levels is the number of coats of jointcompound used. The levels are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. Level 0requires no taping, finish, or accessories, while Level 5requires three coats of joint compound over joints and fastenerheads, as well as a final skim coal over the entire surfaceof the wall.
	127. Which paint type would serve best as an anti-graffiticoating? A. acrylic B. alkyd C. oil D. urethane	D. urethane Urethane is a high-performance coating and has superiorresistance Lo abrasion, grease, alcohol, water, and fuels. Itresists the adhesion of graffiti to surfaces and allows relativelyeasy removal of graffiti.Study Note: Problems on paints and coatings are commonon the ARE. Review the various types of paints andtheir qualities, uses, and formu lations.
	128. In order Lo achieve the most uniform, s traight-grainappearance in wood paneling, which of the followi ngshould be specified? A. plain slicing B. rotary slicing C. quarter slicing D. half-round slicing	C. quarter slicing Plain slicing produces a figured pattern with a characteristic"cathedral" appearance. Rotary slicing produces the mostvaried grain pattern, and half-round slicing yields a moderateamount of pattern. Because quarter slicing cuts perpendicularto the growth rings, this gives the straightest patternof the choices listed. Rift slicing would also give a very uniformgrain pattern.
	129. The portion of paint that evaporates or dries is calledthe A. binder B. pigmem C. solvent D. vehicle	C. solvent The vehicle consists of two parts: the nonvolatile pan calledthe binder, which forms the final coating, and the volatilepart called the solvent, which evaporates or dries. Pigments,if added, are part of the veh icle and form the color of thecoating.
	130. In determining the width and gage of gypsum boardframing, what are some of the important considerations? I. thickness of the gypsum board II. spacing of studs Ill. height of the wall IV size of piping and other built-in items V number of layers to be supported A. I, II, and V only B. I, Ill, IV, and V only C. II, Ill, and lV only D. II , Ill, IV, and V only	D. II , Ill, IV, and V only The thickness of the gypsum board is not critical becau sethere is little difference in the weights of 3/R,1/i, and 5/s in(10, 13, and 16) boards. The number of layers, on the otherhand, can affect the total weight significantly.
	131. Which of the following statements about veneer stoneis FALSE? A. It can be fabricated 3/~ in (10) thick. B. Copper or steel clamps are used Lo anchor thestone Lo the substrate. C. Only special types of portland cement mortar orsealants should be used in the joints. D. It can be supported on masonry, concrete, steel,or wood framing.	B. Copper or steel clamps are used Lo anchor the stone to the substrate. Only noncorrosive metals, such as stainless steel, should beused to anchor stone. Both copper and steel would deteriorateover time.
	132. Which of the following is the most important considerationin detailing a wood-strip Door? A. Dame-spread rating B. expansion space at the perimeter C. nailing method D. moisture protection from below	D. moisture protection from below All of the choices listed are considerations in detailing woodOoors, so select the most important. Moisture is one of thebiggest problems with wood Ooors, and keeping moistureout in the first place would minimize other problems suchas expansion at the perimeter. Therefore, option D is thebest choice.
	133. Ceramic mosaic tile in a public shower room is bestinstalled over A. water-resistant gypsum board B. a bed of portland cement mortar C. concrete block walls coated with a waterproofingmembrane D. rigid cement composition board made for thispurpose	B. a bed of portland cement mortar A full bed of portlancl cement mortar offers the best durabilityand water resistance for high-use, wet areas.
	134. On doors subject to deflection, both terrazzo andgranite installations should includeA. a membrane B. a latex additive in the mortar C. thinset mortar D. a sand cushion	A. a membrane A membrane is part of a total assembly that also includesreinforcing and a thick bed of mortar on which the graniteis laid or that is part of the terrazzo. The membrane allowsthe structural slab to move independently of the finish flooring so that any deflection does not crack the door.
	135. An architect is writing specifications for a small clothingboutique. The architect has worked closely with the talentedowner and fashion designer to plan an intricatelydetailed tile Ooor for the main showroom. The designerwishes to use a type of marble she saw installed in a friendshome in Rome. Which type of tile specification is mostappropriate? A. prescriptive B. proprietary C. descriptive D. reference standard	B. proprietary A proprielmy specification would be appropriate in this situationbecause it would give the architect the most controlover the product provided and installed by the contractor.The architect and owner would have the opportunity toselect the products they want to use for the Ooor and wouldrefer to those specific products in the specification. A proprietaryspecification is a type of closed, or prescriptive,specification.Desc liptive and reference standard specificati ons are types ofopen specifications. They outline the final results desiredbut do not specifically tell the contractor what materials touse. Descriptive specifications require the architect to list allof the desired characteristics of the material and put theonus on the contractor to find a product that will satisfy therequirements. They can be difficult to write because of thelevel of detail that must be included to ensure that anappropriate product is chosen. A reference standard specificationis much simpler to write. It refers to industry standardsto define the desired characte ristics of materials andinstallation systems.
	136. Materials or assemblies with a high NRC generallyhave a A. high STC B. low STC C. high reverberation Lime D. low absorption coefficient	B. low STC Materials or assemblies with a high NRC generally have alow SIC. The NRC, or noise reduction coefficient, is a measureof how absorptive a material is to sound. Materialswith a high NRC are generally very porous materials suchas acoustical ceiling tile, fab rics, carpet, and so on. TheSIC, or sound transmission coefficient, measures how well amaterial blocks sound transmission from one space to thenext.The absorption coefficient is linked to the NRC, but they aredirectly proportional; high NRCs equal high absorptioncoefficients. Reverberation time is a calculation for a spacerather than a property of a material or assembly.
	137. A tactile finish should be applied to hardware on adoor that leads to a building's A. fire stairs B. boiler room c. restrooms D. exterior	B. boiler room A tactile finish (rough surface) is applied to hardware ondoors leading to building areas that would be dangerous fora person with impaired vision, such as a boiler room.
	138. Which of the following types of elevators is used forhigh-rise office buildings? A. standard hydraulic B. high-speed hydraulic C. geared traction D. gearless traction	D. gearless traction Gearless traction is one type of mechanism used for highspeedelevators, which a high-rise building would require.Geared traction elevators are used for low speed and highcapacity. Hydraulic elevators are not appropriate for highrisebuildings; they are used for buildings from two to fivestories, or up to about 50 ft (15 m).
	139. For a three-story department store, the most importantvariable for selecting an elevator would be its A. speed B. capacity C. control method D. machine room location	B. capacity A department store requires elevators with high capacity.Thal is, the amount of weight the elevators can carry, whichtranslates into the allowable number of people on the elevatorat any one time, is a priority.For a three-story building, speed is not critical, and the controlmethod and machine room location would be secondaryconsiderations.St udy Note: Understand the different elevator controlmethods available. These include the single automatic,selective collective, and group automatic. A single automaticsystem answers only one call at a time, and the userhas exclusive control of the car until the trip is complete.With a selective collective system, the elevator answers allcalls in one direction and then reverses direction andanswers all calls in the opposite di rection. With a groL1paL1lomatic system. a computer controls two or more elevatorsand dispatches and operates all the elevators inthe most efficient manner possible.
	140. An underground transit station is best served with A. escalators and elevators B. stairs and escalators C. stairs and elevators D. moving walks and elevators	A. escalators and elevators A transit station must move large numbers of peoplequickly as well as provide accessibility. A combination ofescalators and elevators is the only listed option that meetsthese requirements.Stairs may be provided as a seconda1y method of ve rticaltransportation but would require more room to move thesame numbers of people. Moving walks are limited by theirmaximum slope and speed and would not be appropriatefor a transit station.
	141. Which of the following is NOT a standard nominalwidth for an escalator? A. 32 in (800) B. 40 in (1000) C. 48 in (1 200) D. 54 in (1400)	D. 54 in (1400) 54 in (1400) is not a standard nominal width for an escalator.Most manufacturers make escalators in nominal widths of32 in, 40 in, and 48 in (800, 1000, and 1200) with correspondingactual widths of 24 in, 32 in, and 40 in (600, 800,and 1000).
	142. The purpose of the block shown at area 3 is to A. counteract the thrust of the stair B. provide a nailing base for the riser board C. give lateral stability to the vertical supports D. help locate and lay out the stair	A. counteract the thrust of the stair The block shown at area 3 is used to counteract the thrustof the stair. lf this block is not used, the carriages must betoe-nailed to the floor, which is a weaker construction detailthan that shown.
	143. Which of the following are the parts identified byareas 1 and 2, respectively? I. tread 11. nosing lll. carriage IV ledger v stringer A. I and Ill B. 11 and Ill C. IV and V D. V and I	B. 11 and Ill The member supporting the treads (area 1) is the carriage.The overhanging portion of the tread member (area 2) is thenosing.
	144. The depth of an elevator lobby serving four or morecars should generally not be less than A. 6 ft (1800) B. 11/i times the depth of the car C. 10 ft (3000) D. 3 times the depth of the car	C. 10 ft (3000) The depth should be at least 11'2 times the depth of the car,but no less than 10 ft (3000). Because the question does notgive any information about car depth, assume that the minimumdepth is the correct answer.
	145. A geared traction elevator would be most appropriatefor A. a 5-story medical office building B. a 16-story office building C. a 4-story department store D. an 8-story apartment building	C. a 4-story department store Geared traction elevators can be designed to serve a widevariety of slower speeds and high capacities, so they areideal for low-rise buildings with heavy loads, such asdepartment stores. A geared traction elevator could be usedfor a small medical office build ing, but a higher speed would offer better service. A 16-story office building wouldneed a high-speed, moderate-capacity elevator, so a gearedtraction type would be inappropriate. An apartment buildingwould require a low capacity but higher speeds.
	146. A reasonable elevator capacity for a medium-sizedoffice building is A. 2000 lbm (1000 kg) B. 3000 lbm (1500 kg) C. 4000 lbm (2000 kg) D. 6000 lbm (3000 kg)	B. 3000 lbm (1500 kg) 2000 lbm (1000 kg) elevators are only used for small apartments,and 6000 lbm (3000 kg) elevators are used forfreight. A 4000 lbm (2000 kg) capacity is often used forlarge office buildings and retail stores, but 3000 lbm(1500 kg) is more common for small and medium-sizedbuildings.
	14 7. Dock levelers are used to A. provide final adjustment for steel angle trimB. keep boating piers stable in the water C. provide adjustability for various sized trucksD. accommodate tolerances in pouring concretepits	C. provide adjustability for various sized trucks Dock levelers are pieces of equipment used to allow truckswith various bed heights to be serviced from the same clock.The equipment is placed in a pit at the edge of the dock,and a steel panel is adjusted up or down to provide a rampfrom the dock to the level of the truck.
	148. Which of the following is NOT required for an accesslloor system? A. lifting devices B. modular panels C. pedestals D. st ringers	D. st ringers Access floor systems may use stringers, which are rigid connectionsbetween pedestals, but they can also be thestringer less type, which rely on ly on pedestals and panels tokeep the system in place.All access floors use modular panels set on pedestals ofsome type. Removal of the panels requires a lifting device.
	149. Materials for toilet compartments include all of thefollowing EXCEPT A. glass-reinforced gypsum B. solid polymer C. stainless steel D. stone	A. glass-reinforced gypsum Glass-reinforced gypsum panels are not available or usedfor toilet partitions.Common materials used for toilet compartments includestainless or painted steel, plastic laminate over particleboard,marble or granite, phenolic-core units, and solidpolymer fabricated from high-density polyethylene orpolypropylene.
	150. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents isbeing phased out? A. carbon dioxide B. Halon C. nitrogen D. wet chemical	B. Halon The gas Halon is a very effective fire-extinguishing agentand was once commonly used in computer rooms to putout fires without damaging electrical equipment. Because ofenvironmental concerns regarding ozone depletion, productionof Halon ceased in the United States on January 1,1994. Existing installations are being phased out andreplaced with other agents. These include inert gases, suchas nitrogen and argon, and various blends of gases.
	151. Which of the following statements are true aboutbuilt-up roofing? I. It is a good choice for Oat roofs. II. It is best applied only overnailable decks. III. The top layer should be protected from ultravioletdegradation. IV Proper installation is more important than the numberof plies. V Roof insulation can be placed either above or belowthe roofing. A. I, Ill , and V only B. II , Il l, and IV only C. Ill, IV, and V only D. I, 11, IV, and V only	C. Ill, IV, and V only Statement I is incorrect because, although built-up roofscan be applied Lo Oat roofs, they should not be; there shouldbe a minimum of 1/; in/ft (20 mm/m) of slope. Statement 11is incorrect because built-up .roofs can be applied over nailableand non-nailable decks.
	152. An architect in Richmond , Virginia, has been asked todesign a replacement roof for a hospital. The existing roofhas a slope of approximately 1:12. The building supervisorrequests a system that allows for additional insulation to beinstalled and includes paths of pavers for easy access tomechanical units and other equipment located on the roof.Which type of single-ply roofing system should be recommended? A. fully adhered EPDM B. loose-laid EPDM C. fully adhered PVC D. mechanically attached PVC	B. loose-laid EPDM A loose-laid, single-ply EPDM roofing system would be areasonable choice in this situation. The summers in Richmondare hot while the \.vinte rs can be cold, and EPDM(ethylene propylene cliene monomer) rubber weathersextreme temperature Ouctuations well. The existing roofingmaterial should be removed clown Lo the roof deck Lo allownew insulation board to be installed. The EPDM will beinstalled over the insulation board and topped with a layerof roof pavers or a combination of pavers and ballast.
	153. Which of the fo llowing will effectively reduce thepossibility of termite in festation? I. Design the slope of the grade near the foundation tofall away from the structure. II. Specify pressure-treated lumber. Ill. Require that soil poison be applied to the footp1i nt areaof the building before construction operations begin. IV Provide a gravel drainage area where the foundationwall meets the surrounding grade. A. I and III only B. II and III only C. II and IV only D. I, III , and IV only	A. I and III only There is no way to completely prevent termites from enteringa structure, but there are many elements that architectscan include in their designs to make the environment lesshospitable to insects and, therefore, less prone to the damagethey can cause.Termites , along with many other damaging insects such ascarpenter ants, bees, and powderpost beetles, nourish inmoisture and wood, and they generally enter buildings atthe ground level. (Other types of wood-destroying insectsare found in different parts of the country and favor varyingenvironments, so it is important to research the most commontypes of infestation and design an insect control planaccordingly.) Preventing wooden parts of the structure fromcoming in contact with the ground is one of the keys. Foundationsshould also be kept as dry as possible; designing thegrade to fall away from the building will help to keep thearea well drained. It is important to specify that an appropriatesoil poison be applied to the area of the building foo tprintbefore construction begins. The type of insecticideused varies depending on the type of insect it is to combat.Pressure-treating lumber makes the wood more resistant todamage from water but does not make it more resistant toinsect damage.One of the most common errors building owners make is topile mulch around the base of shrubbery planted at theperimeter of the building. The mulch, whether made ofpine bark, cocoa bean shells, gravel, or any other mate1ial,holds in the moisture, which is good for plants but bad forthe structure . Termites thrive in the warm, moist soil underneaththe gravel and can use that as an access point to enterthe basement or crawlspace. Using a gravel drainage area inlieu of gutters and downspouts can have the same consequencesif the system is not designed to carry the wateraway from the perimeter of the building.
	154. Which of the following materials would NOT be usedas a firestop? A. mortar B. mineral wool C. silicone foam D. treated wood blocking	D. treated wood blocking Firestops are materials or systems of materials that are usedto seal penetrations through fire walls or smoke baniers.They are always noncombustible and may be factory builtor constructed in the fie ld. Depending on the wall type andapplication, mortar, mineral wool, or silicone foam wouldbe acceptable for use as a firestop.Draftstops also prevent the passage of fi re and smoke butcan be made of combustible materials such as treated woodblocking. They are placed between floors and at concealedspaces
	155. The Davis-Bacon Act requires that all A. U.S. government projects in excess of $2000 bebid B. workers on U.S. government projects over$2000 be paid at prevailing wage rates C. bids for U.S. government projects be solicitedfrom minority- or women-owned businesses D. U.S. government projects be publicly advertisedprior to bidding	B. workers on U.S. government projects over $2000 be paid at prevailing wage rates The Davis-Bacon Act, enacted in 1931, requires that on projectsover $2000 to which the Uni ted States or the Districtof Columbia is a party, all workers will be paid prevailingwage rates. The rates are determined by the secretary oflabor in comparison to wage rates for similar classes ofworkers on similar projects in the area where the work isbeing performed. The acl also requires workers to be paidal least once a week, and allows the government to withholdpayments to the contractor, if necessary, so that workerscan be paid. If a contractor does not follow therequirements of the act, the act allows the government theoption to withhold contracts from that company for threeyears. Later amendments also require comparable overtimepay and benefits.Labor costs on projects governed by the Davis-Bacon Actcan be considerably higher than similar private-sector projects,and cost opinions should be adjusted accordingly.
	61. Three courses of a bull stretcher using a standardbrick and standard mortar joints equalA. 8 in (200) B. 12 in (300) c. 15 in (3 75) D. 18 in (450)	B. 12 in (300) A bull stretcher is a brick laid on its face so that the width ofthe brick is visible. With a width of 35/s in (90) and a morLarjoint of 3/8 in (10), Lhree courses would be 12 in (300).Three standard st retcher courses equal 8 in (200).
	62. If cracking occurred along the joinls of a brick wall ina generally diagonal direction from a window corner up toLhe top of the wall, which of the following would mostlikely be the cause?A. lack of vertical comrol joints : B. horizontal reinforcemenl placed too far apartC. poor grouting of the cavity D. inadequale mortar	A. lack of vertical control joints Vertical cracking is usually an indication that the brick wallis not able to move laterally, which is a condition caused bylack of vertical expansion joints.
	63. What is the most important fire-resistance property ofa CMU partition? A. overall width B. density C. joint reinforcement D. equivalent thickness	D. equivalent thickness Concrete masonry partlt1ons are usually hollow, so theactual thickness of the solid material, not Lhe actual overallwidth, is used to rate the fire resistance of the unit.
	64. What is a requirement for a door opening in amasonry partition? A. bond beam B. arch action C. weep holes D. flashi ng	A. bond beam A bond beam is a masonry unit made to accommodate reinforcing and grout to span openings in masonry walls. Theseare often used in place of steel lintels.
	65. Which of the following statements is lrue?A. Spalling occurs when water-soluble salts inmasonry units or mortar leach out of the brick.B. Tuck pointing is used to finish mortar jointsduring construction of a new brick wall. C. Flashing in a masonry wall should be terminatedjust before the face of the brick for bestappearance. D. A concealed flashing in a masonry wall with aconcrete backup should terminate in a reglet.	D. A concealed flashing in a masonry wall with a concrete backup should terminate in a reglet Reglets are horizomal grooves casl into concrete that allow apiece of Oashing to be slipped inside and lhen carried acrosslhe airspace and through the brick for proper drainage andmoisture control.Efflorescence (not spalling) occurs when salts leach out of amasorny assembly. This produces a while powdery subslancethal slains the face of the brick.Tuch pointing is a process used to repair failing morLar joints.It involves removing the cleterioraled monar to a certaincleplh and inserting new, compatible mortar into the space,then striking it with a new, water-resistant edge treatment.Flashing should always be extended at least 3/.1 in (19)beyond the face of the brick and lurnecl clown at a 45° anglefor proper drainage. If the flashing is terminated before theface of the brick, the moisture will seep into the brick andmortar and can cause damage. The 45° bend provides adrip edge that leads the moisture away from the face of thebrick.
	66. Identify the following brick bond: A. common bond B. running bond C. English bond D. Flemish bond	A. common bond The brick bond shown is a common bond. It consists of aheader course, five (or more) courses of running bond, andanother header course. The pattern then repeats for theheight of the wall. Traditionally, in a double-wythe brickwall , the header course "locked" the two wylhes together.
	67. What is the designation for the most commonly usedstructural steel for beams? A. A36 B. Al53 C. A441 D. A501	A. A36 A36 steel refers to the American Society for Testing andMaterials (ASTM) Standard A36/A36M, Standard Specificationfor Carbon Stnictural Steel. Slee] meeting lhis standardhas a minimum yield poinl of 36,000 psi (250 MPa). A36 isone of the commonly used steels for riveled, uulted, andwelded construclion of bridges and buildings and for generalstructural purposes.Al53 is the slandard for hot-dip zinc coating (hot-clip) oniron and steel hardware. A44 l steel is a high-strength structuralsteel used for welded construction. A501 is the designationfor hot-fo rmed welded and seamless carbon steelstructural tubing.
	68. Which of lhe following is NOT a standard designationfor open-web steel joists? A. DLH B. K C. LH D. ML	D. ML DLH is the designation for deep long-span joists. K is thedesignation for standard open-web joists, and LH is the designationfor long-span joists.Study Note: The depths in the K series range from 8 in(200) to 30 in (750) and increase in 2 in (50) increments.The depths in the LH and DLH series range from18 in (460) to 96 in (2440) and increase in 4 in (100)increments.
	69. The stringers of prefabricated steel utility stairs arenormally constructed of A. angle iron B. channel sections C. steel plate D. tube sections	B. channel sections Although any of the listed fo rms can be used, the stringersare normally constructed of steel channel sections with theOanges turned away from the s tair. The steel treads and risersare welded to the webs of the sections.Study Note: Understand the basic construction of variousmiscellaneous metal fabrications such as steel stairs, spiralstairs, ladders, handrails, and railings.
	70 . In the detail shown, the purpose of the item labeled xis to: A. allow for vertical movement B. collect condensation C. provide a fire rating D. create a sound seal	C. provide a fire rating The detail shows a building separation joint at the floor line.Fire protection is provided by one or more layers of fireresistivematerial draped below the finish cover plate, whichis directly above it.
	71 . Which type of brass finish would best prevent tarnishand require the least maintenance? A. anodized B. organic C. oil D. wax	B. organic An organic brass finish would best prevent tarnish andrequire the least maintenance.Option A is incorrect because anodized finishes are used onaluminum, not brass. Options C and D are incorrectbecause oil and wax, while limiting tarnish, require moremaintenance than do organic coatings.
	72. Which of the following is not a copper alloy?A. austenitic stainless steel B. Monel metal C. Muntz metal D. nickel silver	A. austenitic stainless steel Stainless steel is an alloy of iron, carbon, and chromium.Austenitic stainless s teel, the most common type, also containssome nickel ancl/or manganese. This kind of steel isnonmagnetic and not heat treatable.Mone! is a trade name for a metal alloy of copper andn ickel. Muntz metal is a common alloy of 60% copper and40% tin. Nickel silver is a name given to an alloy of 65%copper, 25% zinc, and 10% nickel.
	73. Which of the fo llowing additives is NOT added losteel to improve corrosion resistance?A. chromium B. copper C. tungsten D. molybdenum	C. tungsten Chromium, copper, and molybdenum as well as nickel areall used as alloys Lo improve steel's resistance Lo corrosion.Tungsten is added Lo steel Lo improve the materials abilityto retain its strength when exposed to high temperatures.
	74. Two advantages of using a copper roof are its I. workability II. resistance to denting Ill. cost IV resistance to corrosion A. I and II B. I and IV C. II and III D. III and IV	B. I and IV The advantages of copper roofs include their workabilityand corrosion resistance, so items I and IV are correct. Copperroofs are expensive and relatively soft (making themsusceptible to denting), so items II and Ill are not advantagesof using them.
	75. What percentage of carbon does structural steel typicallycontain? A. above 2.0% B. from 0.50% to 0.80% C. from 0.20% to 0.50% D. from 0.06% to 0.30%	C. from 0.20% to 0.50% Steel with over 2.0% carbon is classified as cast iron. Theother options are all used, but option C is consideredmedium-carbon steel and is the most common.
	76. Galvanic action can be avoided by A. using neoprene spacers B. increasing the thickness of the materials C. reducing contact with dripping water D. all of the above	A. using neoprene spacers Dissimilar metals should be physically separated by nonconductingmaterials such as neoprene in order to preventgalvanic action.Increasing the thickness of the materials may postpone theircomplete dete rioration but will not prevent it, so option Bis incorrect. Direct contact with water will speed up galvanicaction, but even moisture in the air is sufficient LOcause it, so option C is incorrect.
	77. Joining two metals with heat and a filler metal with amelting point above 800°F (427°C) is called A. annealing B. soldering C. brazing D. welding	C. brazing Welding is joining two metals by heating them above theirmelting points. Soldering is joining two metals using leadbasedor tin-based alloys as filler metals that melt below500°F (260°C)
	78. Which of the following would NOT help to minimizeoil canning? A. Design attachment hardware that allows panelsto move in response to expansion and contractioncaused by changes in temperature. B. Include information in the specifications thatrequires the installer to transport panels verticallyrather than horizontally. C. Specify a high-gloss painted fi nish on the panels. D. Carefully coordinate the design of the supportingstructure to ensure that it is level andplumb.	C. Specify a high-gloss painted fi nish on the panels. Oil canning gives a metal siding panel a wavy appearance.Generally, it is not a structural issue, just an aesthetic one.However, it can be minimized through careful design of thepanels, attachment hardware, and supporting structure. Forexample, a textured, ribbed, or matte finish will minimizethe appearance of waviness more than a smooth, glossy finish.Allowing space at the hardware connections for expansionand contraction will also help to minimize thewaviness.Most of the things that can be done to minimiLe uil canningfall under the responsibility of the contractor in the field,but the techniques can be written into the architect's specificationslo ensure proper handling of materials and installation.Panels should always be transported vertically ratherthan horizontally, and care should be taken not to twistthem. The supporting structure should be as flat, or planar,as possible.A good summary of oil canning can be found in the TechnicalPublications section of the Metal Construction Associationwebsite, www.mcal.org. Click on "TechnicalResources," then "Publications," and then select "OilCanning" from the list of technical bulletins. A currentlink to th is article can also be found at ppi2pass.com/AREresou rces.
	79. Which of the following defects would most affect awood joists ability to resist horizontal shear? A. knot B. split C. wane D. warp	B. split A split is a separation of the wood fibers along the grain thatextends through the piece of lumber. Because the value ofhorizontal shear depends on the integrity of the wood alongits grain, any break would reduce the ability of the wood toresist horizontal shear.Terms to Know/mot: a branch or limb embedded in a tree that is cutthrough in the process of lumber manufacturewane: the presence of bark or absence of wood from anycause on the edge or corner of a piece of lumberwarp: any deviation from the plane surface of a piece oflumber
	80. The straightest, most uniform grain appearance inboard lumber is achieved by specifying: A. plain sawing B. quarter sawing C. rift sawing D. rotary sawing	C. rift sawing With the rift sawing method, each cut for a board is made bysavving a quarter section of log radially toward the centerpoint of the tree. This requires the quarter section of logbeing sawn to be shifted slightly for each cut. The grain inthe resulting boards is nearly perpendicular to the face ofthe board. This gives the straightest grain pattern. Rift sawingis normally reserved for oak, to reduce the appearanceof flaking, which is caused by medullary cells in the oak.Quarter sawing is similar to rift sawing except that the quarteredlog is held in a stationary position as the cuts are madetoward the center point of the tree. Yields for this type ofsawing are higher than those for rift sawing, but boardsmade by cutting away from the center will have grains at aslight angle to the face of the board. Plain sawing cuts anentire log in one direction. Although plain sawing makesthe most efficient use of the tree, boards cut near the treeedges will have a less uni form grain pattern. Rotary sawingis not an accurate term; rotary slicing is used only for veneer,not boards.
	81. Which diagram represents flush overlay cabinet construction?	B. Flush overlay cabinet construction consists of drawer anddoor froms aligned Oush with each other with only a slightgap between them. As shown in the diagram , there is generallyno face frame.Option A represents nush construction. Option C representsreveal overlay construction, and option D representslipped overlay construction.
	82. In order to get a countertop or cabinet to fit snuglyagainst a slightly irregular partition, which of the followingshould be specified or called out on the drawings? A. astragal B. extended frame C. scribe D. shoe molding	C. scribe A scribe is an integral part of woodwork or a separate pieceof tJim that is cut, sanded, or otherwise shaped on the jobsiteto exactly match the irregulaiities of an adjacenL material.
	83. The detail shown illustrates the: A. Lop of a bookcase B. edge of a cabinet countertop C. front of a closet D. edge of a display cabinet	B. edge of a cabinet countertop The detai l shows the built-up top of a countertop, as well asa frame and the top portion of a cabinet door. This wouldmost likely be a countertop edge.Option A is incorrect because a bookcase would not have thethicker, built-up Lop or a frame piece and probably wouldnot have a door. Option C is incorrect because the framingfor a closet either would be adjacent to a cei ling or wouldnot include the thicker, built-up top piece. Option D isincorrect because a display cabinet would probably not havea door.
	84. Which of the following engineered products wouldbe best to use in place of traditional wood joists for spansfrom 16 ft (5 m) to 20 ft (6 m)? A. wood I-joists B. glued-laminated members C. medium-density fibe rboard D. parallel-chord wood trusses	A. wood I-joists Wood I-joists are designed to replace standard solid woodjoists and rafters and would be very efficient, in terms ofboth cost and structure, for the spans indicated.Glued-laminated (glulam) members would be more expensiveand heavier than necessary for standard floor or roofframing in these span ranges. Medium-density fiberboard isa panel product and is not designed for structural uses suchas beams or joists. Parallel-chord wood trusses could beused, but they are more efficiently used for longer spans.
	85. A lengthwise separation in a piece of rough carpentrythat occurs between or through the growth rings is called a A. check B. shake C. split D. wane	B. shake A lengthwise separation in a piece of rough carpentryoccurring between or through the growth rings is known asa shake.A check is a separation of the wood fibers occurring acrossor through the growth rings. A split is similar to a checkexcept that the separation extends completely through thelumber, usually at the ends. A wane is the presence of barkor absence of wood, from any cause, on the edge or cornerof a piece of lumber.Study Nole: Know the various types of wood defects andthe types of warping, including the bow warp, crookwarp, and cup warp.
	86. Solid wood members with a nominal thicknessbetween 2 in (51) and 5 in (127) and a nominal width 2 in(51) or greater are called A. boards B. dimension lumber C. timbers D. yard lumber	B. dimension lumber Solid wood members with a nominal thickness between2 in (51) and 5 in (127) and a nominal width of 2 in (51)or greater are known as dimension lumber.Boards are pieces of lumber less than 2 in (51) thick and 2 in(51) or more in width. Timbers are pieces of lumber 5 in(127) or more in thickness and 5 in (127) or more in width.Yard lumber is just a general term for softwood lumber usedfor structural purposes without regard for specific sizes.
	87. Fire-cut joists are required in A. platform framing B. heavy timber framing C. concrete walls D. masonry walls	D. masonry walls A fire-cut joist is one with the ends cut at an angle such thatthe longer end rests on a masonry bearing wall and theshorter end is flu sh with the inside face of the wall. Fire-cutjoists are required in masonry walls to prevent the masonryfrom being pushed up and out if the wood member shouldcollapse during a fire.
	88. In order to minimize the space required for woodfloor framing, the architect would most likely detail theconnections to show the use ofA. hurricane straps B. post caps C. saddle hangers D. splice plates	C. saddle hangers Saddle hangers are pieces of preformed metal, designed to fitover a beam, that provide support for joists framed perpendicularlyto the beam. This type of connection hardwareallows the joists to be installed with their top edges flushwith the top edges of the beams. It avoids the requirementthat the joists be placed over the beams, which wouldincrease the total depth required for the floor structure.
	89. The horizontal member that holds individual piecesof shoring in place is called a A. waler B. breast board c. raker D. none of the above	A. waler Breast boards are horizontal boards between soldier beams,and rakers are diagonal braces that support walers.
	90. A nominal 3 X 6 piece of lumber is classified as A. timber B. a board C. dimension lumber D. a yard	C. dimension lumber Any piece of lumber from 2 in (51) to 5 in (127) nominalthickness is considered dimension lumber. Timber is lumber5 in (127) and over, whereas boards are 2 in (51) or less.
	91. Select the INCORRECT statement from among thefollowing. A. The larger the pennyweight, the longer the nail. B. Design values for bolts are dependent on thethickness of the wood in which they are located. C. Split-ring connectors are often used for heavilyloaded wood structures that must be disassembled. D. In general, lag bolts have more holding powerthan large screws.	C. Split-ring connectors are often used for heavily loaded wood structures that must be disassembled. Shear plates, not split ring connectors, are used for structuresthat must be disassembled. The face of the shear plateis flush with the face of the lumber, and the two pieces areconnected with a bolt.
	92. Which of the following most affects lumber strength? A. a split B. a wane C. a check D. a shake	A. a split A split extends completely through the wood, so this wouldaffect both horizontal shear resistance and bendingstrength. The other defects listed extend only partially intothe wood.
	93. Which three of the following are of most importancein wood frame construction? I. sheathing type II. differential shrinkage III. location of defects IV firestopsv headers A. I, II, and III B. I, 11, and IV C. 11, III, and V D. Ill, IV, and V	B. I, 11, and IV The location of defects is not as important because the characteristicsof defects are implied in the grading of the lumber.Headers are not of prime importance.
	94. The allowable slress ralings for lumber in Lhe buildingcodes are based primarily on A. size groups B. species C. types of defects D. all of the above	D. all of the above The allowable stress ralings for lumber in the buildingcodes are based primarily on size groups, species, and typesof defects.
	1. Proctor testing (ASTM Dl557-02el) is used to determinea soils A. composition B. optimal density achievable, considering itsmoisture content C. ability when saturated to drain a given quantityof water in a specified period of time D. bearing capacity	1. The answer is B.Proctor testing measures the optimal density of a specificsample of soil. The level of moisture in the sample is a factorin determining the ideal density. The soil is then compactedto within a specific percentage of the Proctor densityas specified by the soils engineer so that the soil has thebearing capacity necessary lo support the building load.Soil composition is analyzed through a combination ofvisual inspection of excavated pits and/or through Lest boringsand laboratory testing of soil samples.A percolation (or "perc") test measures the ability of saturatedsoil to absorb a given quantity of waler within a specifiedperiod of time. It is used as a factor in septic system design.Bearing capacity is evaluated by a soils engineer based uponthe results of soil composition tests and observations.
	2. Which of the following are considered stable soils?(Choose the two that apply.) A. clay B. gravel c. peat D. sand E. silt F. topsoil	2. The answer is Band D.Gravel and sand are coarse-grained materials that supportbuilding foundations well. Because they have a roughshape, the particles compact tightly and "grip" each other toresist movement. They drain well and are considered verystable soils. Only bedrock surpasses them as a support for ahuilding foundation.Clay and silt, on the other hand , are not stable. Clay is madeup of smooth, disk-shaped particles that slip against eachother and are greatly affected by moisture content. Clayshrinks when dty and expands when wet and therefore isnot considered a suitable material for foundation support.Silt is stable when dry or damp but unstable when wet. Itswells and heaves when frozen and compresses under load.Clay and silt must be removed through excavation or mixedwith other materials to form "engineered fi ll ," or buildingfootings constructed on the site must be placed below theunstable stratum on soil that is capable of carrying the load.Organic soils, such as peal and topsoil, consist of decomposedor decaying plant and animal remains. They are notconsidered stable soils. Topsoil is rich in nutrients andshould be removed from the building site and stockpiled sothat it can be redistributed when construction operationshave ended and landscaping begins.
	3. In which of these locations must footings be placed? A. on bedrock B. at least 1 ft (305) below the frost line C. below the water table D. at the same depth throughout the building	3. The answer is B.Footings must always be placed at least 1 ft (305) below thefrost line to avoid heaving that may occur as the groundfreezes and thaws.Footings must always be placed on soil capable of carryingthe weight of the building, but they need not be placed on bedrock; many other soil types can adequately carry theload. Building below the water table is very costly becausethe si te must be dewatered, and should be avoided whenpossible. ll is not necessary lo place all foot ings at the samedepth throughout the building. For example , footings maybe placed at varying depths because soil properties differacross the site or because the building is to be constructedon a slope.
	4. The ground surrounding a buildings foundation mustbe graded to slope away from the building. What is theminimum slope? A. 1/s in/ft (10 mm/m) B. 1/~ in/ft (20 mm/m) C. 1h in/ft ( 40 mm/m) D. 1 in/ft (80 mm/m)	4. The answer is B.The ground meeting a building's foundation should slopeaway from the building a minimum of 1/4 in/ft (20 mm/m).
	5. Soils testing is performed on a project site and revealsa suitable bearing stratum at a depth of 100 ft (30 m). Thecomposition of the soil is si lt, clay, and sand. The watertable is 10 ft (3 m) below the surface. Which of these foundationstrategies is the best choice? A. friction piles B. concrete footings and CMU foundation wallswith waterproofing C. end-bearing piles D. belled caissons	5. The answer is A.Friction piles are a good choice in the situation described.As the pile is driven into the soi l, frictional forces willdevelop between the soil and the pile, which allow the pilelo develop load-carrying capacity even though the end ofthe pile will not bear on soil capable of carrying the buildingload.The bearing stratum is too deep at 100 ft (30 m) for endbearingpiles or belled caissons Lo be a reasonable or economicalchoice. The high water table, at 10 ft (3 m) belowgrade, would make footings and concrete masorny unitfoundation walls very expensive when dewatering andwaterproofing are added into the project costs.
	6. Which of the following is NOT a reason that a buildingsexisting foundation may require underpinning? A. a change in building use from office space towarehouse B. plumbing leaks C. a change in bu ilding codes D. adjacent new construction	6. The answer is C.Underpinning is the process of strengthening an existingbuildings foundation. It can be accomplished in a variety ofways depending on the type of existing foundation and howmuch reinforcement is necessaty. It may become necessaryto underpin a foundation if adjacent new construction compromisesthe stability of the existing buildings foundation,if major plumbing leaks or flooding saturates the soil andcauses it to become unstable, if the subsurface soil has"shrink/swell" tendencies, or if a desired change in buildinguse will result in greater building loads.Underpinning is accomplished most often with the help ofneedle beams. The area around the foundation is excavatedand a hole is cul into the foundation wall. A needle beam isslipped through the hole and jacked Lo temporarily supportthe foundation. A new foundation wall , piles, or caissonscapable of carrying the new load or reaching an appropriatebearing stratum are erected underneath the foundation.When complete, the temporary bracing is removed and thefoundation is backfilled.
	7. A 6 in (150) thick concrete slab is reinforced withno. 4 rebar placed in a horizontal grid and spaced 4 in(100) on center. The maximum size of the aggregate shallnot exceed A. 11'2 in (38) B. 1 in (25) c. 2 in (50) D. 25/s in (67)	7. The answer is C. Aggregate shall not be larger than one-third of the slab thickness or th ree-quarters of the minimum space between reinforcing bars, whichever is smaller. In U.S. units: The slab thickness is 6 in , and one-third of this is 2 in. The rebar is spaced 4 in apart. Number 4 rebar is 112 in in diameter, so the minimum space between reinforcing bars is 4 in + 112 in = 3112 in. Three-quarters of this is (3.5 in)(O. 75) = 2.625 in (2~ in) The aggregate must not be larger than the smaller of the two values, which is 2 in. Jn SI units: The slab thickness is 150 mm, and one-third of this is 50 mm. The rebar is spaced 100 mm apart. Number 4 rebar is 13 mm in diameter, so the minimum space between reinforcing bars is 100 mm - 13 mm= 87 mm. Three-quarters of this is (87 mm)(0.75) = 65.25 mm The aggregate must not be larger than the smaller of the two values, which is 50 mm.
	8. The following are steps in the process of concreteconstrnction. Put them in the correct order. I. Apply a release agent to the forms. II. Construct the formwork. Ill. Pour and vibrate the concrete IV Place and tie the reinforcing steel. V Perform slump testing. A. 11, IV, I, V, lll B. 11, I, IV, III, V c. 11, I, IV, V, lll D. V, 11 , I, IV, III	8 . The answer is C. Formwork should be constructed first (11), and then a release agent such as oil is applied (1) to make it easier to remove the forms from the cured concrete. lL is important to apply the release agent before placing the reinforcing, because if oil is on the surface of the rebar it could prevent the concrete from adhering properly to the steel. Next, the reinforcing bars are placed and tied (IV). When the concrete arrives on site, slump testing is perfonned (V) to ensure that the mix complies with specified limits fo r workability and water content. If the results of the slump test are within acceptable limits, the concrete may be poured and vibrated to fill the forms (lll).
	9. The chemical reaction that causes concrete to hardenis known as A. oxidation B. evaporation c. hydration D. reduction	9. The answer is C. Water and pon land cement chemically react in a process known as hydration . Portland cement is a manufactured material that replicates some of the properties of pozzolana. The ancient Romans discovered that this type of volcanic ash reacLed chemically with water and lime to form an arti ficial stone
	10. The application of epoxy-coated reinforcing barswould NOT be specified in A. a parking garage B. a fish ing pier on the ocean C. an interior column in an office building D. an exterior concrete staircase	10. The answer is C. Epoxy-coated reinforcing bars are used when the concrete will be exposed to chlorides (salts) such as deicing salts and those in seawater. The epoxy coating helps keep the salts from corroding the steel by chemical reaction. An interior column is unlikely to be in contact with chlorides, so it is not necessary to specify ep0>..)'-COated rebar in this application.
	11. What are the specified dimensions of a U.S. modularbrick, as shown in the following illustration? A. a= ll5/s in (295), b = J5/s in (92), c = 35/s in(92) B. a= 75/s in (194), b = 35/s in (92), c = 21/4 in (57) C. a = 75/s in (194), b = 35/s in (92), c = 23/.+ in (70) D. a= ll5/s in (295), b = 35/s in (92), c = 21/4 in(57)	11. The answer is B.A U.S. modular brick is 75/s in (194) long, 35/s in (92) thick,and 2 1/4 in (57) high. The units are sized so that three brickcourses plus three 3/a in (10) mortar joints are equal to 8 in(203), and the length of a brick plus one 3/s in (10) mortarjoint also equals 8 in (203).The dimensions given in option A are those of utility brick,option C lists the dimensions of engineer modular brick,and option D gives the dimensions of a Norman brick.For more information on brick sizing, coursing, and position,see Technical Notes 10: Dimensioning and EstimatingBricli Maso111y , published by the Brick Industry Association,at www.gobrick.org.
	12. Devices that hold reinforcing steel in position andprevent the rebar from slipping out of place as concrete isplaced are called A. props B. lifts c. shims D. chairs	12. The answer is D.Chairs are small wi re supports that help to keep rebar aspecified distance from the outside of the concrete and helpensure adequate concrete cover. A bolster is a type of chairused in broad slabs or beams.
	13. To achieve a slip-resistant finish on a concrete floorslab, the architect should specify a A. float finish B. broom finish C. hard steel-troweled finish D. light steel-troweled finish	13. The answer is B.For slip resistance, a broom finish (achieved by passing anindusttial broom in parallel strokes across the surface of theuncured concrete) is the best choice.A float finish is a rough finish intended for outdoor surfacesand interior slabs that will become the substrate for a fi nishmaterial that does not require a perfecLly smooth underlaymenl,such as carpet or tile. The troweled finishes (hard steeltroweledand light steel-troweled) are very smooth and canbe sealed or painted to become the final Ooor finish, or theycan become the substrate for a finish mate rial that requiresa perfec tly smooth surface, such as vinyl composition tile .
	14. A joint that is typically used where an addition meetsan existing building to allow the two sections to move independentlyof one another is called A. a control joint B. a construction joint C. an expansion joint D. an isolation joint	14. The answer is D.An isolation joint allows two sections of a building to moveindependently, and is typically used where an additionmeets an existing building or where two different materialsmeet. It is also called an abutment joint.A control joint is a groove or saw cut that provides an area ofweakness so that expected cracking caused by expansionand contraction can be limited to a predetermined area. Aconstruction joint is a break between two successive concretepours; the concrete is generally keyed at this location andreinforcing that is incorporated into the first pour shouldextend into the second. Expansion joints allow for the naturalmovemem of a building due to expansion and contraction.Expansion joints must be covered with a watertightbarrier and are located at regular intervals in long expansesof masonry or concrete, where taller building forms meetshorter ones, at corners, and at openings.
	15. What type of mortar should be specified for a CMUfoundation wall? A. M B. N c. 0 D. S	15. The answer is A.Type M mortar should be specified for exterior applicationsat or below grade.Type N or S is best for exterior applications above grade andfor interior load-bearing walls. Type 0 is well suited forinterior and protected exterior non-load-bearing partitions.
	16. What type of brick should be specified for the exteriorof a project in Maine? A. FW B. NW C. MW D. SW	16. The answer is D.SW, or "severe weathering," is highly resistant to freeze/thawcycles and is suitable for use in harsh climates. MW standsfor "moderate weathering," and NW represents "negligibleor no weathering." FW is not a grading for brick.
	17. Which mortar joint is NOT recommended for exterioruse? A. concave B. flush c. vee D. raked	17. The answer is D.Raked joints are not recommended for exterior use becausewater can pool in the tiny void between bricks, seep intothe pores of the materials, and eventually damage themasonry and mortar. Concave, flush, and vee joints are allacceptable for exterior applications. The concave and veejoints are tooled joints that slope or curve toward theground and shed water from the joint. The flush joint isstruck flush to the face of the brick, so there is no space forwater to accumulate. Another acceptable joint for exterioruse is the weathered (or weather-struck) joint, which alsoslopes downward to encourage water to drain from thecrevice.
	18. Where should weep holes be located in a brick wall? A. at the lowest course of brick B. above windows C. above shelf angles D. at all of the above locations	18. The answer is D.Weep holes should be located at any location where watermay accumulate within a multi-wythe, cavity, or veneerwall. The weep holes allow the water lo drain or be wickedout of the wall cavity. Water tends to accumulate al the bottomof a wall or where any penetration through the wall createsa "shelf," such as above a window or at a steel angle.Both flashing and weep holes at 24 in (610) on center, minimum,should be provided at each of the locations listed.Weep holes are formed by placing short pieces of rope orplastic units in the mortar joint as it is being laid. Thespacer is then removed after the mortar hardens, leaving asmall hole. Alternatively, some masons choose to simplyleave a portion of the bed joint unmortared . Either way, theopening gives water a way to escape from the wall assemblyand helps to p revent condensation from accumulatingwithin.
	19. Rehabilitation of a building constructed in the 1860srequires cleaning and repairing the existing brick exteriorwalls. The brick is in good condition but is ve ry dirty. Portionsof the mortar have fallen out, and much of whatremains is so soft that it can be scraped away with a fingernail.Which restoration technique should the architect recommend? A. pressure washing with a 10% muratic acid solution B. pressure washing with plain water and repointingthe mortar C. hand washing the brick with water and a stiffbrush and repointing the mortar D. sandblasting	19. The answer is C.The least destructive technique should always be recommendedwhen dealing with historic buildings and fragileold building materials. Hand washing with water and a stiffbrush is the gentlest cleaning method and will probablyremove most of the dirt from the surface of the brick. Missingor deteriorating mortar should be removed and replacedwith compatible mortar, and the mortar should be restruckto shed water from the joints. This process is called repaintingor tuck pointing.Pressure washing (sometimes called power washing) canleave water marks on soft brick and can dislodge crumblingmortar, creating openings and allowing water to be forcedinside the wall cavity. Adding an acidic ingredient to thewashing solution may cause additional damage to the brick.Sandblasting will likely destroy soft brick and mortar.
	20. Limestone is an example of which of the followingtypes of rock? A. igneous B. sedimentary c. metamorphic D. monumental	20. The answer is B.Limestone is a type of sedimenta1y rock formed through theaction of water and wind and comprised of elements leftbehind from the skeletons of marine organisms. Otherexamples of sedimentary rock used as building materials arebrownstone and sandstone.Ig11 eo L1s rock >vas deposited while molten; a common exampleis granite. Metamorph ic rock is either sedimentary origneous rock that has been transformed by heat and pressure.Examples are marble, soapstone, and slate. Monumentalis not a type of rock.
	21. Plywood used as sheathing is designated 32/16. Whatdoes this mean? A. It is 1'2 in thick. B. IL can be used to span rafters spaced at 32 in oncenter and joists spaced at 16 in on center. C. It can support 32 lbf/ft2 on joists placed al 16 inon center. D. It can be used as sheathing for studs spaced al16 in on center.	21. The answer is B.32116 is the span rating for the plywood sheathing. Thisdesignation means that the material has been testedaccording to the standards of the Engineered Wood Associationand can be used to span rafters 32 in on center orjoists 16 in on center.The span rating and other information about the materialcan be found stamped on each sheet of plywood. The followingillustration shows an APA stamp.
	22. The type of lockset that is most secure is a A. unit lock B. cylindrical lock C. rim lock D. mortise lock	22. The answer is D.Mortise lochs are the most secure type of lockset because themechanism is concealed within the leaf of the door.Unil lochs are installed into a notch cut into the leaf of thedoor. Cylinder lochs are installed through a hole drilled inthe leaf. Rim locl?s are mounted on the face of the leaf.Because each of these types of locksets leaves portions of themechanism exposed, they can be more easily tampered withand are not as secure as the mortise lockset.
	23. Identify the check rail on the pair of double-hungwindows shown.	23. The answer is C.
	24. Calculate the equivalent thickness of a 12 in (305)concrete block that is 75% solids. A. S1/2 in (216) B. 83/4 in (222) c. 9 in (229) D. 9 1/4 in (235)	24. The answer is B./'mullion -- --- muntin// --- pane/ffe "vsillThe equivalent thiclmess is a measurement of the amount ofconcrete in a hollow core block. It is equal to the thicknessthat the block would be if it were the same height andlength but were cast without holes. This information isoften necessary for calculating fire resistance of assemblies.A nominal 12 in (305) concrete block is actually 11 '/s in(295) thick. Multiply the actual thickness by the percentageof solids to arrive at equivalent thickness. The equivalentthickness of this block is 75% of l l5/s in (295), or 83/~ in(222).
	25. Calculate the skewback for the jack arch shown. Thewall is two wythes thick. A. 6 in (152) B. 8 in (203) C. 9 in (228) D. 12 in (305	25. The answer is C.Sl?ewbach is the horizontal distance from the upper cornerof the masonry opening to the upper outside corner of thejack arch. It is equivalent to 1/z in per foot (42 mm permeter) of span (that is, 1/24 the length of the span) for each4 in (102) of arch depth.
	26. A university is choosing between plastic laminate andsolid-surface countertops for student apartments. A typicalcounlertop is 8 linear ft (2 m) long.The installation cost for the plastic laminate countertop is$60/linear ft ($200/m). The life span of a plastic laminatecoumertop under the heavy-use conditions found in studenthousing is about 10 years; after each 10-year period,the countertops will need to be replaced . The first replacement(after 10 years) is projected Lo cost $70/linear ft($240/m). The second replacement (after 20 years) is projectedto cost $80/linear ft ($270/m).The installation cost for the solid-surface countenops is$110/linear ft ($370/m). Every 10 years the countertopswill need to be refinished. The fi rst refinishing (after10 years) is projected Lo cost $10/linear ft ($30/m). Thesecond refinishing (after 20 years) is projected Lo cost$20/linear fl ($60/m). Which materials life-cycle cost will be lower over a 25-yearperiod? A. plastic laminate B. solid surface C. the costs are the same D. impossible to determine from the informationgiven	26. The answer is B.Life-cycle cost is an analysis of how much it costs to installand maintain a given material over a given period of time.First, calculate the installation cost for each material bymultiplying the quantity of material by the cost per unit.Next, calculate the future costs of replacement or refinishingat the 10-year and 20-year points using the same formulaand the projected costs. Finally, add the initial,10-year, and 20-year values to determine the total life-cyclecost
	27. What type of weld does the following symbol represent? A. V-groove weld with back-up bar B. double-bevel groove weld C. double-fillet weld D. fillet weld allround	27. The answer is C.This symbol represenLs a double-fillet weld . The arrowwould poinl to the locaLion of the weld. The triangle is thesymbol for a fillet weld; two indicate a double-fillet weld .Symbols below the horizontal line refer to welds on thearrow side; symbols above the line refer Lo welds on theoLher side.The American InstituLe of Steel ConsLruction's Steel ConstructionManual feaLUres a full explanation of basic and supplementaryweld symbols and instructions for using thissymbol sysLem Lo explain what Lype of weld is required.
	28. Which of the following is NOT a concrete test? A. Steiner tunnel test B. cylinder test C. electrical impedance test D. Kelly ball test	28. The answer is A.The Steiner tunnel test is not a concrete tesl. It is used todetermine the surface burning characteristics of interior finishmaterials.The cylinder, electrical impedance, and Kelly ball tests allquantify different characteristics of concrete. The cylindertest involves breaking a cylinder formed of concrete from aspecific pour in order to .test the concrete's compressivestrength during the curing process. The electrical impedancetest determines the moisture level of a slab by measuring theamount of elecLricity conducted through the material. Slabswith a greater moisLUre content conduct more elecLricity.The Kelly ball test measures the consistency of the uncuredconcrete. A metal ball is dropped inLo freshly laid concrete,and Lhe depression caused by Lhe ball is measured and comparedto Lhe slump LesL results.
	29. According to model codes, which of the following areconsidered parts of the means of egress? (Choose the threethat apply.) A. common path of travel B. exit C. exit access D. exit discharge E. public way F. travel distance	29. The answer is B, C, and D.By definition , Lhe means of egress consisLs of the exiL access,the exiL, and the exiL discharge.The means of egress must lead Lo a public way, buL Lhe publicway is noL part of Lhe means of egress . The common pathof Lravel (or common path of egress travel) is thaL portion ofexit access Lhat the occupants are required to Lraverse beforeL wo separate and distinct paths of egress travel to Lwo exitsare available. AlLhough an important feaLUre, this is not apart of Lhe means of egress. The travel distance is Lhe distancefrom any point in the exit access to the nearest exit.
	30. Normal-slope asphalt or fiberglass shingles must beinstalled on a roof with a pitch of at least ___ :12. (Fillin the blank.)	30. The answer is 4.Normal-slope asphalt or fiberglass shingles are to beinstalled on roofs with a pitch of 4: 12 or greater. The twomaterials are similar in appearance and installationmethod, but fiberglass shingles offer beuer fire resistance.In most cases, the manufacLUrer will not honor the warrantyif normal-slope products are placed on a low-sloperoof. Low-slope asphalt and fiberglass shingles are availablefor roof pitches of 3 :12 Lo 4: 12 and require a differentunderlayment than the normal-slope products.Better choices for low-slope roofing materials are welded orsoldered metal, rolled asphalt, or membrane roofing.
	31. Which is the correct location for a vapor retarder in acold climate?	31. The answer is A.Vapor retarders (which are sometimes called vapor baniers)are always installed on Lhe "warm" side of a wall, usuallybetween the stud and the interior finish material. The vaporretarder can be made of foil, plastic, or paper and should beapplied with no breaks. All seams should be lapped formaximum effectiveness. For this reason, in cold climates itcan be preferable Lo specify unfaced batt insulation and aseparate vapor retarder.If vapor retarders are incorrectly placed on the "cool" side(Lhe exterior of the stud), condensation will develop withinthe wall cavity, which may lead to decay or mold problems
	32. Which of these are important considerations indesigning a fire-rated ceiling? (Choose the two that apply.) A. hold-down clips B. the structural slab C. thermal insulation D. the composition of the floor/ceiling assemblyE. sound absorption F. the style of grid	32. The answer is A and D.The strucLural slab is a consideration only as part of Lheentire floor/ceiling assembly. Neither Lhermal insulation norsound absorpLion is a consideration in a ceiling's fire resisLance.Style is noL as important as whether or noL Lhe grid israted.
	33. When specifying a hardwood floor over a concreteslab on grade, which of the following should the architectalso specify? A. 3/, in (19) plywood subflooring and 15# buildingfelt B. 3/, in (19) tongue-and-groove plywood placedover a layer of mastic C. treated wood sleepers on mastic and a layer ofpolyethylene vapor barrier D. 15# building felt	33. The answer is C.Wood flooring insLalled over a slab on grade should be placedon treated wood sleepers that are set in a layer of mastic.Sleepers are generally 2 X 4s laid flaL at 16 in ( 406) on center.A layer of polyeLhylene vapor barrier should be placed overLhe sleepers but under Lhe finish flooring maLerial.
	34. The average R-value per inch of fiberglass batt insulationis _ _ _ . (Fill in the blank.)	34. The answer is 3 .3.R-value is a measure of resistance Lo heat flow. All buildingmaterials have R-values, but the term is most often usedwhen discussing insulation, because to meet the minimumR-values required by building and energy codes, an assemblymust almost always include some type of insulatingmaterial. Fiberglass ball insulation is a common choice fora wood or light-gauge steel-framed wall assembly. Each inchof fiberglass ball insulation has an R-value of 3.3. The battinsulation installed in a typical 2 X 4 stud wall offers anR-value of approximately 12. By increasing the size of thestuds used for fram ing the exterior walls Lo 2X6, theR-value of the insulation may be increased to 19.
	35. Which of the fo llowing woods must be treated forresistance to decay when used in an exterior application? A. cedar B. spruce c. redwood D. cypress	35. The answer is B.Spruce trees are not inherently resistant to decay, but theheartwood of cedar, redwood, and cypress all possess a naturalresistance that makes them a good choice for use inexterior applications such as siding, shingles or shakes, anddecking. The outer rings of these species do not possess thesame decay-resistant quali ties, so it is important to specifythat only heartwood may be used when decay resistance isof concern. These woods are considerably more expensivethan other species that are more. commonly used for construction such as pine, hemlock, fir, and spruce.Species that are not inherently decay resistant must bechemically treated to protect them from rotting whenexposed to moisture. Waterborne salts are pressureimpregnatedinto the wood to prevent decay, often for aslong as 30 years. After a waiting period, salt-treated woodcan be painted or stained.
	36. Aluminum windows are specified for installation in amasonry wall. Which material is the least desirable choicefor flashing at the head of the window? A. aluminum B. copper C. stainless steel (passive) D. lead	36. The answer is C.Stainless steel would be the least desirable choice for flashingmaterial when used near an aluminum window assemblybecause of the metals listed, it is furthest from aluminumon the galvanic action table, even further than copper. Themore dissimilar the materials, the more current will flowbetween the two and speed corrosion. This process is calledelectrolysis.The best choice would be Lo use aluminum flas hing andaluminum fasteners and accessories. However, aluminumcan also react with alkaline materials, so it must be protectedfrom mortar and concrete. Nonreactive materialssuch as plastics are also an option, but they should be carefullyresearched, as plastics tend to degrade more quicklythan metals. Any dissimilar materials in proximity to oneanother must always be carefully separated with a layer ofnonreactive material such as rubber or neoprene.
	3 7. What is the significance of Burnham and Root'sReliance Building, built in Chicago and completed in 1895? A. It features load-beating masonry walls at theperimeter that support an interior frame of iron. B. It was the first building to be clad completelywith a curtain-wall structure. C. It features curtain walls and large "Chicagostyle"windows, and its facade expresses the patternof the building's structural frame. D. The lower levels of the building feature elaboratelydetailed cast-iron ornament.	3 7. The answer is C.The Reliance Building, built in Chicago in 1894 through1895, was one of the fi rst buildings to use an all-steel frameand exploit the possibilities of the curtain-wall constructiontechn ique. Its steel grid is concealed behind tile ornamentation,but the pattern of the framing members is expressedin the exterior skin. The thin structural members and lightnessof the building is a sharp contrast to the fi rm's workjust five years prior at the Monadnock Building, describedin option A.Credit for the fi rst curtain-wall structure, option B, is givento William LeBaron jenney's Home Insurance Building,which was built in Chicago a decade before the RelianceBuilding. However, j enney's building used a curtain wall onjust the upper stories. Louis Sullivan's Carson Pirie ScottDepartment Store (also known as the Schlesenger & MeyerStore and built in 1899 through 1904) in Chicago featureshighly detailed cast-iron ornament with organic motifs onthe street level and a Chicago-style fenestration above.
	38. Which mid-twentieth-century architect was knownfor his use of concrete, masonry, and interplay with naturallight? A. Ludwig Mies van der Rohe B. Le Corbusier C. Louis I. Kahn D. Frank Lloyd Wright	38. The answer is C.Louis I. Kahn is best known for his work with heavy massesof masonry and concrete j uxtaposed against openings l hatadmit ever-changing daylight into the interior spaces of thebuildings. The designs of buildings such as the RichardsMedical Research Building at the University of Pennsylvania(1957 through 1961) and the Salk Institute in La Jolla, California(1959 through 1965), are both driven by Kahn's fascinationwith natural light.Ludwig Mies van der Rohe employed steel and glass in themajmity of his structures and was known for expressing thestructural framework on the facade of a building. Examplesof his work include the Seagram Building in New York City(1954 through 1958) and the Farnsworth House in Illinois(1945 through 1951).Le Corbusier "sculpted" his buildings with reinforced concrete.His design often employed pilolis (reinforced concretecolumns) and sharp planes of pure white concrete. Hiswork at the Villa Savoye in France (1928 through 1929)and his writings in Towards a New Arcliileclure best illustratehis design philosophy.In his later work, Frank Lloyd Wright often used reinforcedconcrete, but in a much more sculptural and organic waythan Le Corbusier. AL Fallingwater in western Pennsylvania(1937) and the Guggenheim Museum in New York City(1956 through 1959), Wright exploited the properties ofreinforced concrete to create camilevered and curved formswith rounded edges, giving the material a curved, softeredge.
	39. An archi tect is designing custom oak cabinetry andwants the grain of the door frames to be as straight and consistentas possible. Which type of sawing should be specified? A. plain sawing B. quarter sawing c. fl at sawing D. rift sawing	39. The answer is D.In rift sawing, boards are cut radially from the center of thelog. This produces a very straight and consistent verticalgrain, and this type of cut is typically only used for sawingoak. However, the log must be repositioned for each cut, sothe process is very labor intensive. Also, because the boardsare not cut perpendicular to one another, there is a greatdeal of waste in rift sawing. For these reasons, it is the mostexpensive sawing technique.Quartersawing involves dividing a log into quarters and thencutting boards perpendicular to the grain. Like rift sawing,it produces boards with straight grain running parallel tothe length of the board. However, the grain is not as straightwith quartersawing as it would be with rift sawing.Plain sawing and flat sawing are the same thing. The boardsare cut in straight lines across the grain of the log. The graintends to be more uneven than quartersawn or rift-sawnboards, but it is this technique that produces the "curvy"grain often seen on framing members. Boards cut from theperiphery of the log tend to cup or warp a little more thanquarter- or rift-sawn boards because of the curve of thegrain.
	40. Which is typically the most expensive type of cabinetryconstruction? A. flush B. flush overlay c. reveal overlay D. lipped overlay	10. The answer is A.Flush construction is typically the most expensive becausethe face of the door or drawer lies nush with the face frameof the cabinet. This construction technique leaves littleroom for error because everything must align perfectly.Each of the other construction techniques (flush overlay,reveal overlay, and lipped overlay) have doors or drawerswhose faces overlap the cabinet's face frame.Additional information on grades of cabinetry and types ofcabinetry construction can be found in the ArchitecturalWoodwork Institute's Architectural Woodworh Quality Standards.
	41 . Which of the following statements is true? A. Darnpproofing controls moisture that is underhydrostatic pressure. B. Membrane coatings should always be used fordamp proofing. C. Waterproofing membranes may be easily puncturedand require a protective covering. D. If hydrostatic pressure is present, foundationdrains will be of no use.	41. The answer is C.Waterproofing membranes- usually building felt saturatedwith bituminous material, sheet plastics, or thin sheets ofbentonite clay-can be easily punctured when the foundationis backfilled. As their effectiveness is enti rely dependenton their watertightness, it is prudent to provide a protectionboard to prevent rocks or machinery from damaging the surface.Dampproofing controls moisture that is not under hydrostaticpressure, while waterproofing is required to control moisturethat is affected by hydrostatic pressure. Waterproofing techniques are generally more costly and difficult to apply.Membrane coatings are an excellent choice for waterproofingbut are not generally required for dampproofing. In asituation where waterproofing is required, hydrostatic pressureagainst the wall can be lessened by providing geotextilematting ("filter fabric") and a foundation drain set ingravel at the footing.
	42. When planning an accessible bathroom, how muchspace should be allowed for a standard roll-in-type showerand its required clear Ooor space as described in theADAIABA Guidelines?A. 30 in (760) by 60 in (1525) B. 36 in (915) by 60 in (1525) C. 48 in (1219) by 60 in (1525) D. 60 in (15 25) by 60 in (1525)	42. The answer is D.A standard roll-in-type shower is required by the ADAIABAGuidelines to be at least 60 in (1525) wide by 30 in (760)deep, as shown. In addition, a clear O.oor space of 60 in(1525) by 30 in (760) must be provided adjacent to theopening of the shower enclosure. The total Ooor area thatmust be allocated for both the shower and the requi redclear O.oor space is 60 in (1525) by 60 in (1525).
	4 3. An architect has been asked to design an office suitefor the president of a major company. The president oftenholds confidential meetings in his office and requests adesign that limits sound transmission to the surroundingcorridor. Which of the following is the most importantacoustical strategy to include in the design? A. Build walls with staggered studs and mount thegypsum board on resilient channels. B. Extend the partitions from deck to deck andprovide acoustical seals at the top and bottomof the walls. C. Provide unfaced batt insulation in the partitionsbetween the office and the corridor. D. Specify absorptive finish materials such as carpeting,draperies, and acoustical tile.	43.Answer is B. Although options A, B, and C are all valid approaches toreducing the sound transmission from one space to anotherand option D is a good approach for increasing the absorptionof sound within an office, the most critical strategy Loemploy is Lo extend the partition walls from O.oor deck toOoor deck and seal the connections well (option B). Anygaps, such as a partition that only extends a few inchesabove a suspended ceiling, will allow sound to pass freelyfrom the office to the corridor and vice versa.
	44. In the following illustration, what is the hand of door 3? A. RHR B. RH C. LHR D. LH	44. The answer is D.When preparing door and hardware schedules, it is importantto note the hand of the door. Rderring to the hand is a standard method of describing the location of the hingesand which way the door swings. If a person standing on theoutside of a door cannot see the hinges and the door swingsaway, it is either right hand (RH) or left hand (LH), dependingupon which s ide the hinges are located. If the doorswings toward the person, it is either right hand reverse(RHR) or left hand reverse (LHR), again depending uponthe location of the hinges.
	45. Which of the following is a UL-rated 2-hour wallassembly?	45. The answer is D.The 2-hour rated wall assembly consists of 2X4 studsplaced at 16 in (406) on center, with two layers of5/s in (16)type X (fire-rated) gypsum board attached to each side ofthe wall.All of the other wall sections depict 1-hour ratedassemblies.
	46. Which of the following materials is NOT considereda rapidly renewable building material? A. chestnut flooring sawn from old barn beams B. wheat board cabinetry C. linoleum D. bamboo paneling	46. The answer is A.Rapidly renewable building materials are made from plantsthat can be grown and harvested relatively quickly, generallywithin 10 years. Wheat board cabinetry, linoleum(which is made from jute, linseed oil, and other natural andsustainable materials), and bamboo paneling are consideredrapidly renewable resources.Flooring manufactured from reclaimed barn beams wouldbe considered a "green" building material but not a rapidlyrenewable one. Recovering the beams and sawing them intonooring allows the material to be reused for a new purposeand prevents the harvesting of other hardwoods that are notrapidly renewable.
	4 7. Identify the fo llowing critical dimensions as requiredby the ADA/ABA Guidelines. A. a = 6 in (153) minimum, b = 42 in (1065)minimum B. a= 12 in (305) maximum, b = 42 in (1065)minimum C. a = 12 in (305) maximum, b = 48 in (1219)minimum D. a= 6 in (153) minimum, b = 48 in (1219) minimum	47. The answer is B.The dimensions given in option B are the correct dimensionsfor a toilet-stall configuration according to ADNABAGuidelines .
	48. Which of the following would NOT provide lateralstability? A. diagonal bracing B. 2 X 4s spaced at 12 i,n (305) on center C. plywood sheathing D. steel rods with turnbuckles	4S. The answer is B.Placing the studs at 12 in (305) on center rather than atthe typical 16 in (406) spacing would increase the loadcarryingcapacity of a stud wall, but would not give lateralstability.Diagonal bracing, sheathing, and steel rods with turnbucklesplaced on the diagonal between the framing membersare all methods of adding late ral stability to the structure ofa building.
	49. Classify the structural steel shape shown. A. W shape B. I shape c. S shape D. H shape	49. The answer is C.The structural shape shown is an S shape, which is alsoknown as an American Standard beam. S shapes are verysimilar to W shapes, but the fla nges of an S shape aretapered rather than straight and are typically narrower.A fu ll descri ption and diagrams of each of the structuralsteel shapes can be found in the American Institute of SteelConstruction's Steel Construction Manual.
	50. Which of the fo llowing are characteristics of stainlesssteel? (Choose the three that apply.) A. It cannot be welded. B. It should not be in contact with copper. C. It is an alloy of steel and chromium. D. It is only available with mechanical and coatedfinishes. E. It corrodes easily if exposed to oxygen. F. It is approximately as strong as bronze	50. The answer is B, C, and D.Stainless steel can be welded, is much stronger than bronze,and is highly resistant to corrosion. It is prima1 ily an alloyof steel and chromium, but sometimes nickel and/or otherelements are added.
	51. What are the minimum dimensions permitted for thehearth shown? The height of the fireplace opening is 24 in(610). A. x = 16 in (406),y = 48 in (1219)B. x = 20 in (508), y = 52 in (1320)C. x = 24 in (610), y = 48 in (1219)D. x = 24 in (610), y = 52 in (1320)	51. The answer is B.According to the International Building Code, the minimumdepth (x) required for a hearth is 16 in (406) from the faceof the firep lace. However, if the fi replace opening is 6 ft2(0.56 m2) or greater, the requirement is increased to 20 in(50S). The opening of the fireplace shown is 3 ft X 2 ft(0.91 m X 0.61 m) or 6 ft1 (0.56 m2). In U.S. units:The hearth must extend at least S in on either side of thefireplace opening, so the width of the hearth must be36in +Sin + Sin= 52 in
	52. Identify the following brick positions. (The exteriorface is shaded.) A. I-stretcher, II-soldier, lll-rowlock, IV-sailor B. I-stretcher, II-soldier, Ill-header, IV-sailor C. I-shiner, II-sailor, lll-rowlock, IV-soldier D. I-shiner, II-sailor, Ill-header, IV- soldier	52. The answer is A.Stretcher bricks have their faces on the exterior of the walloriented horizontally. This is the most common position,such as in a running or stacked bond wall.Soldier bricks have their faces exterior and oriented vertically.Soldier courses are often used as an accent, to del ineatea floor line on the exterior of the building, or above awindow opening.Rowloch bricks have their ends exterior and oriented vertically.They are of ten used as an accent or as a window sill.Sailor bricks have their beds exterior and of the brick orientedvertically. They are used primarily as an accent.Although not pictured, shiner bricks have their beds exteriorand oriented horizontally, and header bricks have theirends exterior and oriented horizontally.
	53. The structural member shown in the following illustration is known as a: A. composite beam B. flitch beam C. built-up beam D. sistered beam	53. The answer is B.A jlilch beam combines wood and steel into one memberwith load-carrying caP.acity far exceeding that of woodalone. Flitch beams are sometimes referred to as sandwichbeams.
	54. An old warehouse is being converted into an apartmentbuilding. The project will be seeking LEED certification,so a high priority will be placed on sustainable design.Which of the following existing building elements is leastlikely to be reused? A. masonry walls B. heavy timber framing C. roof framing members D. windows	54. The answer is D.Windows are rarely reused in sustainable design projectsthat convert old buildings to a new use. Old windows donot possess the energy efficiency of a new window thatcould be installed in the existing masonry opening. Theexterior building envelope and structural framing of an oldbuilding is often intact and can be reused without diminishingthe building's energy efficiency.Another material that is almost always replaced in a greenbuilding reuse project is the nonstructural roofing material(membrane roofing, shingles, etc.). Again, newer materialsfar surpass the older, existing materials in terms of buildingenergy efficiency.For purposes of LEED credit assessment, windows andnonstructural roofing material are always deducted from theexisting building and shell reuse calculations.
	55. According to the size groups of yard lumber, a 6 in(152) by 8 in (203) member would be classified as a A. board B. post c. beam D. timber	55. The answer is C.Beams are defined as wood members that are at least 5 in(127) wide with a depth at least 2 in (51) greater than theirwidth. Boards are pieces of wood smaller than 2 in (51) thick and2 in (5 1) wide. Dimensional lumber is 2 in (51) to 4 in(102) thick and 2 in (51) or more wide.Posts and timbers are at least 5 in (127) wide and at least5 in (127) deep, but not more than 2 in (51) deeper thanthe width.
	56. The energy required to turn a raw material into a finishedbuilding product is known as A. manufacturing energy B. embodied energy C. production energy D. commissioning energy	56. The answer is B.The amount of embodied energy in a building material is ameasure of the resources that went into its acquisition (mining,harvesting, etc.), processing (transportation, themechanical processes necessary to convert the materialfrom one fo rm to another, etc.), and final production anddelivery (packaging, transportation, etc.).
	57. The portion of the roof indicated at A is a: A. cricket B. hip c. gable D. dormer	5 7. The answer is A.A oichel is a small gable placed directly behind a chimneyto direct water away from the masonry and encourage it todrain from the roof rather than allowing it to accumulatebehind the chimney.
	58. Which of the following is laminated glass commonlyused for? (Choose the four that apply.) A. acoustical control B. decorative purposes c. fire protection D. insulation E. safety F. security	58. The answer is A, B, E, and F.Laminated glass is good for acoustical control because of itsmass and the damping quality of the plastic interlayer. Laminatedglass can be used for decorative purposes by using adecorative interlayer between the sheets of glass. It is alsoconsidered to be safety glazing and provides excellentresistance to breaking, as a security measure. With the correctthickness and types of interlayers, laminated glass canalso provide bullet resistance.Although some laminated glass can cany a 30-minute firerating, fire protection is not a common use of this material.The insulation value of laminated glass is negligible unlessthe glass is used with other glazing in an insulated glass unit.
	59. Auguste Perret is known for his skill in creating buildingsusing A. masorny B. reinforced concrete C. steel D. iron	59. The answer is B.Auguste Perret, a French architect practicing in the early1900s, designed most of his buildings using a revolutionarynew material: reinforced concrete. His best-known work,Notre Dame du Rainey in Paris (1922) used "ferroconcrete"in ways that it had never been used before: as tall, slendercolumns and vaulted ceilings all accented by detailed tracerywindows. Although the forms employed had historicalprecedents, the technology behind the design was thoroughlymodern. Perret is also notable in architectural history as a teacherand early employer of one of the masters of reinforced concretedesign, Le Corbusier. According to legend, Le Corbusierand Perret often butted heads, as the apprentice feltPerret was too tied to traditional forms and ornament
	60. During which period in the curing process does concretegain the most compressive strength? A. 0 to 3 days B. 3 to 7 days c. 7 to 14 days D. 14 to 28 days	60. The answer is A.Concrete gains the most compressive strength during thefirst few days of curing. This is the most critical time in thecuring process, and it is important that the concrete be protectedfrom freezing or evaporation during this time. If theconcrete is unprotected and environmental conditions areunfavorable, the ultimate compressive strength of the concretecould be greatly reduced.Theoretically, concrete continues to gain strength well afterthe 28th day. But for the purposes of design strengths andtesting, the compressive strength of concrete is alwaysref erred to as its strength 28 days after it is placed.
	61. Which or the fo llowing paving materials has the lowestalbedo? A. asphalt B. concrete made with gray cement C. concrete made with white cement D. brick pavers	61. The answer is A.Asphalt, which is dark to black in color, has the lowestalbedo of the paving materials listed. Albedo is a measurementof the materials solar reflectance: the higher the number,the more reflective the surface.Dark paving materials retain more heat than light-coloredmaterials, so those portions of the site heat up faster, artificiallyelevating the temperature of the emire area. The worstoffenders are new blacktop parking lots; fresh asphalt hasan albedo of 0.05 to 0.10.Heat islands are portions of a site or region that are wannerthan adjacent undeveloped areas. To reduce heat islands,the most desirable paving materials are those with the highestalbedo, such as concrete made with white cement,which has an albedo of 0.70 to 0 .80 when new.
	62. What is the most common method or splicing reinforcing bars in concrete? A. welding B. lapping C. metal sleeves D. cylinder connectors	62. The answer is B.Steel reinfo rcing bars are most often spliced by overlappingthe two bars a specified distance, sometimes expressed interms of a number of bar widths or diameters. There are twotypes of lap splices: contact splices, where the bars are wiredtogether, and 11 011 -contact splices, where the bars are laid inparallel and overlapped the specified distanced but are notfastened to one another.Mechanical splices use a connection piece to link the barsend to end. Metal sleeves and cylinder connectors are twoexamples of devices that may be used to form a mechanicalsplice. Mechanical splices can be classified as tension only, compression only, or tension-compression, depending onwhich stresses the connector is designed to resist.Welded connections, while possible, are not recommended.
	63. Blocking that eases the transition between a roof deckand the parapet wall in a membrane roof installation isknown as a A. chamfer B. cant c. transition strip D. scupper	63. The answer is B.A cant strip is an angled piece of wood blocking that easesthe transition between the roof deck and the parapet wallwhen installing a roofing system so that the membranes orroofing felts do not crack or split when they are applied.Rather than bending them at a 90° angle, the cant stripallows the transition to be made with two 45° angles andminimizes the likelihood of damage from cracking or splitting.In addition , the slope helps the water to drain awayfrom the joint and allows the flas hing and membranes to belapped in a way that keeps water from entering.
	64. Which of the following types of metal should NOT bespecified for connection hardware and flashing for use withwood treated with ACQ preservative? A. aluminum B. copper C. stainless steel D. hot-dip galvanized	64. The answer is A.ACQ (which stands for allwline copper qiiat) is a wood preservativethat contains up Lo 96% copper. It has taken theplace ol CCA (chromated copper arsenate), which was formerlyused for pressure-treated lumber until it was bannedfor residential use by the Environmemal Protection Agencybecause of concern about its arsenic content.Any metals used in proximity to ACQ-treated wood mustbe compatible with copper according Lo the galvanic series.Aluminum flashing or connectors should never be usedwith treated lumber. Copper is the best choice, but whilecopper flashing is widely available, not all necessary fastenersare manufactured in copper. Other acceptable choicesare stainless steel and hot-dip galvanized products.
	65. Triglyphs and metopes are elements of theA. Doric order B. Ionic order C. Corinthian order D. Classical order	65. The answer is A.Triglyphs and metopes are pans of the frieze in the Doricorder. A triglyph looks like a raised rectangular plaqueapplied to the horizontal frieze band. It is carved with flutesso that the raised, flat part of the plaque looks similar toRoman numeral Ill (hence, triglyph). Metopes are the nearlysquare, recessed areas in between the triglyphs. Sometimesthey were left unadorned, but often an ornament wascarved within this area. The Parthenon is a good example ofa structure with very clearly defined triglyphs and ornamentedmetopes
	66. Which of the following strategies will NOT preventice dams? A. Provide ridge and soffit vents. B. Place batt insulation between the roof rafters. C. Seal and insulate ductwork in the attic space. D. Caulk all penetrations from below, such as electricalconduit or vent stacks.	66. The answer is B.In cold, snowy climates, ice dams can be a major problem.The warmth of the attic space below heats up the roof andcauses Lhe snow that has accumulated on Lhe roof to melt.The eaves are noL as warm as Lhe rest of the roof, so themelting snow and water runs down Lhe roof toward the guLLersbuL refreezes when it comes in contacL with the coldeaves. The ice forms a dam, trapping more water behind it,which either freezes and becomes pan of Lhe dam or makesits way down Lhrough the walls and can cause leaks ormold.The best strategy is the keep the attic and roof as cold aspossible. Providing ridge and soffit vents helps the coldexLerior air Lo flow through the space and regulate the temperature.Properly sealing and insulating any ductwork inLhe attic keeps heat from escaping and warming the atticspace, and caulking all penetrations keeps warm air fromthe occupied spaces from creeping into Lhe atti c.Simply installing additional ball insulation between the roofrafte rs (withouL providing an airspace between the roofsheathing and the insulation) will make the problem worse.Instead, additional insulation should be added on the aLLicfloor to keep the warmth wiLhin the occupied spaces andLhe auic and roof very cold.
	67. An architect has designed a bake ry/coffee shop inPittsburgh, Pennsylvania. The business is such a successthat three years later, the owner decides to allow her sister,who lives in Durham, North Carolina, to open a similarstore using the same name, logos, and decor. After consultationwith the architect, they determine that a build ing ofsimilar size and design will be appropriate for the Durhamlocation. The sisters ask the architect for a rough projectionof the cost to build the new bakery/coffee shop based uponthe construction cost of the Pittsburgh store.The location fac tor for Pittsburgh is 100. The cost fac tor forDurham is 75. The inflation rate has been 2% per year sincethe first build ing was built. The original construction costwas $300,000. Based upon the information given, approximately howmuch will it cost to construct the new building? A. $225,000 B. $239,000 c. $306,000 D. $318,000	67. The answer is B.Information provided in resources such as the series of publicationsfrom R.S. Means provides valuable information aboutconsLrucLion cosLs, including labor, materials, and how Lhesecosts compare in different regions of the counLry. Locationfac tors can very greatly depending on the local economy,prevailing wage rates, difficulry of transporting materials tothe siLe, demand for construction services, and numerousother factors.Begin by increasing the $300,000 original constmction cosL Lotodays dollars using Lhe inflation rate given, 2%, for three years
	68. Which CSI MasterFormat 2010 division includespolyisocyanurate? A. 03 B. 05 c. 07 D. 09	68. The answer is C.Polyisocya11urate is a type of roof insulaLion and can befound in Division 07- Thermal and Moisture Protection.The CSI (which stands for ConsLrucLion SpecificationsInstitute) divisions are a system used for cataloguing informationaboul building materials and equipment and fororganizing specifications. Sweets Catalog and most firms'product libraries are arranged according to this system. Traditionally,there were 16 CS! divisions, and within the divisions,each item was assigned a five-digit code or sectionnumber.In 2004, CS! introduced a SO-category cataloguing systemand a six-digit numbe1ing system; this was revised in 2010.The numbering system classifies polyisocyanurate as"07 22 00-Roof and Deck Insulation." Each two-digit levelprovides additional information about the item, and theexpanded system allows more materials and technologies tobe classified.
	69. An architect is designing an addition to a high schoolto house a new gym and locker rooms. The architect plansto construct the exterior walls with concrete masonry unitsand apply an exte1ior insulation and fin ish system (EIFS)over the block. The new gym will be located adjacent to theschool's baseball field. To take advantage of the materialsinsulative properties and provide the best impact resistanceto avoid dents from fly balls, which type of EIFS systemshould be specified? A. PB B. PM C. MB D. EPS	69. The answer is B.PM, or polymer-modified, mineral-based systems have highimpact resistance and provide good insulation. They consistof a base and finish coat of synthetic stucco applied overXPS, or extruded polystyrene, insulation board.PB, or polymer-based, systems are made up of a very thinbase coal of portland cement and polymer over fiberglassmesh with a thin fi nish coat of polymer-based syntheticstucco over EPS, or expanded polystyrene, insulation board.They are lighter in weight than PM systems, but becausetheir plaster coats are so thin, they do not resist impact well.MB, or mineral-based, systems are basically conventionalthree-coat portland cement stucco systems. They are veryimpact resistant, but since the stucco is not applied over aninsulation board, the system does not offer the insulation ofPB and PM systems.
	70. A contractor is calculating how much lumber heneeds to order to build a small addition on a client's house.The three exterior walls are to be framed with 2X6 studs at16 in (0.4 m) on center. The room is 12 ft (3.7 m) by 12 ft(3.7 m), so he estimates that he will need nine 8 ft (2.44 m)studs for each wall. The contractor will be charged by theboard-foot for the lumber he purchases. How many boardfeetwill he need to buy? A. 108 board-feet B. 144 board-feet C. 216 board-feet D. 243 board-feet	70. The answer is C.Nine 2 X 6 studs will be needed for each of the three walls,so 27 studs will be needed in all.In U.S. units:Each 2X6 stud will be 8 ft long, and 27 studs are needed,so the total length needed is 2 7 times 8 ft, or 216 ft.Board-feet is a measurement that refers to a piece of lumber1 in thick by 12 in wide by 12 in long, or 144 in3. A pieceof vvood 2 in thick by 6 in wide by 12 in long is equivalentLo a board-foot. Therefore, the contractor will need Lo purchase216 board-feet of lumber to complete the project. Board-feet is a measurement that refers to a piece of lumber25 mm thick by 305 mm wide by 305 mm long. A 2X6 isabout 51 mm thick by 152 mm wide, so a 305 mm lengthof 2 X6 is equivalent to a board foot. The number of 305 mmlengths needed to make 2.44 m is 65,900 mm/305 mm =216. Therefore, the contractor will need to purchase 216board-feet of lumber to complete the project.
	71. An architect is designing a 10-story building and isanalyzing the options for the cladding system. She hasdetermined that the building will have a prefabricated curtainwall made of aluminum with a variety of glass visionand spandrel panels. Although the structural grid of thebuilding is very regular, to add visual interest to the facade,the panels will be a variety of sizes. Which type of curtainwallsystem would be the least desirable choice for thisapplication? A. stick B. unit-and-mullion c. panel D. unit	71. The answer is C.The panel system would be the least desirable type ofcurtain-wall system for this building. A panel system iseconomical and practical only for structures with largenumbers of identical panels.The other th ree types of systems can be more easily adaptedfor irregular panel configurations
	72. Why are heavy timber beams chamfered? A. Chamfering provides a more elegant appearance. B. Chamfering allows a burning beam to rotate freeof the masonry wall in a fire. C. Chamfering removes the part of the beam thatcan ignite most easily. D. Chamfering allows the pintle caps to fit correctly.	72. The an swer is C.Heavy timber beams were traditionally chamfered toincrease their fire resistance. Chamfering means carving offan inch of so of wood on the diagonal at each exposed cornerof the beam. Thin comers of wood are easily ignited, soremoving them through chamfering makes it more difficultfor the beam to catch on fi re.
	73. Which paint finish contains the greatest amount ofpigment? A. flat B. satin c. semigloss D. gloss	73. The answer is A.Flat paint finishes contain the greatest amount of pigmentrelative to the amount of vehicle. Pigment is what gives paintits color; vehicle is what makes it stick to the wall.
	74. The tolerance for the difference between riser heightsor tread depths within a fl ight of stairs is A. 0 in (0) B. 0.25 in (6.35) c. 0.375 in (9.5) D. 0.50 in (12.7)	7 4. The answer is C.A tolerance is an amount that an actual dimension can be offfrom the dimension specified. Tolerances can va1y greatlydepending on the materials in question. Tolerances are particularlyimportant in stairway design, because as a personmoves up or down the steps, he or she expects each step tobe the same height and depth as the previous step. If thesteps are different, the user may trip and become injured.The height of stair rise rs and the depth of stair treads arepermitted by the IBC to differ by up to 0.375 in (9.5).
	75. What is the most appropriate elevator speed for afour-story apartment building with a floor-to-floor height of15 ft (4.6 m)? A. 200 ft/min (1.0 mis) B. 250 ft/min (1.3 m/s) C. 350 ft/min (1.8 mis) D. 450 ft/min (2.3 m/s)	75. The answer is D.111 U.S. units:The general rule of thumb for choosing an appropriate elevatorspeed in feet per minute is to multiply the height ofthe elevator's rise in feet by 1.6 and add 350 ft.
	76. What is the optimal minimum width of a center openingdoor in a passenger elevator? A. 3 ft (914) B. 3 ft 6 in (1067) c. 4 ft (12 19) D. 4 ft 6 in (1372)	76. The answer is B.A 3 ft 6 in (1067) wide center-opening door will allow twopeople to enter or exit an elevator simultaneously.
	77. Radon testing is conducted in the basement of anelementary school that is under study for a renovation andaddition project. The results show a concentration of3 pCi/l. Determine an approp1iate course of action. A. Demolish the existing slab and install a new4 in (102) slab on a vapor barrier placed ontop of a 4 in (102) base course of gravel. B. Seal any cracks in the foundation walls andfloor slab and ventilate the basement to theexterior. C. Install a membrane on the floor and ventilatebeneath it. D. No action is required at this time, but the siteshould be monitored.	77. The answer is D.Radon is a colorless, odorless gas that has been shown tocause lung cancer. It is fou nd in the earth. Testing is a relativelysimple and inexpensive process. The EnvironmentalProtection Agency (EPA) has determined that no action isrequired if the level of radon detected is less than 4 pCi/L(picocuries per liter). However, because this site shows anelevated radon reading, it should be monitored with periodictesting. Should an addition be constructed, stepsshould be taken to reduce radon levels by providing properventilation of spaces in direct contact with the earth.Appropriate remedial actions for concentrations over4 pCi/L include sealing any cracks in the foundation wallsor !1oor slab and ventilating or depressurizing the basementor crawlspace area. The EPA recommends that new residences be built with radon-resistant techniques, whichare explained in detail on their website, www.epa.gov.
	78. A small gasoline station, built in the 1930s alongRoute 66 in Missouri, has been left abandoned for 10 years.The new owners of the property want to fix it up and operatean automotive museum and small restaurant on theproperty. The building is listed on the National Register ofHistoric Places. The owners plan to apply for federal taxcredits. According to the definitions established by the Secretaryof the Interior's Standards for the Treatment of HistoricProperties, which of the following treatments shouldbe selected? A. preservation B. rehabilitation c. restoration D. reconstruction	78. The answer is B.The secretary of the interior's Standards for the Treatment ofHistoric Properties are guidelines established for owners andarchitects contemplating projects at sites deemed to havehistoric value. They can be used for any project, but areonly required to be followed when federal funding is soughtfor the project or if the owner plans to apply for FederalHistmic Preservation Tax Incentives. Rehabilitation is themost lenient of the four approaches, and the one that bestallows for new construction (additions or renovations) andadaptive reuse .An electronic version of the Standards may be downloadedfrom the National Park Service website atwww.cr.nps.gov. A current link to the document can befound at www.ppi2pass.com/AREresources
	79. The limits of an excavation and building footprint arelocated by a surveyor and marked using A. grade stakes B. batter boards c. corner pins D. a transit	79. The answer is B.Batter boards are temporary supports erected to hold wiresor strings that indicate the excavation line for a buildingsite. The corners of th~ building or limits of excavation aremarked at the intersection of the lines using a plumb bob.Batter boards are preferred to corner stakes or pins (whichare placed at the corners of the structure) because they areset back from the excavation line and will not be disturbedduring construction operations.Grade stahes are used to indicate how much cut or fill isrequired at a specific location to reach finish grade. They areset by a survey crew and reset periodically as excavation istaking place to monitor progress.A transit is a surveying tool used to determine the elevationsof points on a site. It is typically mounted on a tripod forstability. Transits can be as sophisticated as a laser level witha sight that "shoots" elevations using a prism, or as simpleas a handheld scope.
	80. The Eiffel Tower is built of A. wrought iron B. cast iron C. malleable iron D. steel	80. The answer is A.The Eiffel Tower, designed by Gustav Eiffel and built for the1889 Worlds Fair in Paris, is constructed of wrought iron.In period accounts, the construction material is oftenreferred to as "puddled" iron.
	81. Typical 4 in (102) by 4 in (102) ceramic tiles used aswallcovering in an office buildings restrooms should bespecified as A. vitreous B. semivitreous c. nonvitreous D. impervious	81. The answer is A.For a commercial toilet room, it is best to use vitreous tileto withstand moisture and harsh chemical cleaners. ViL1ificationis a process of applying heat to a tile to fuse the materialand make it denser. Denser tile permits less water to beabsorbed. Specifying the level of vitrification is a way ofclassifying tile based upon its moisture absorption rate.nonvitreous 7% to 15% absorptionsemivitreous 3% to 7% absorptionvitreous 0.05% to 3% absorptionimpervious almost no absorption (less than 0.05%)A wealth of information about tiles properties and recommendedinstallation details can be found in the Tile Councilof An1e1ica Handbooh for Ceramic Tile Installation, which isavailable for purchase from the Tile Council of North Americaswebsite, www.tileusa.com, and can be found in mostfirms' libraries or obtained from a ceramic tile manufacturer'sarchitectural representative.
	82. Identify the architrave in the following illustration.	82. The answer is C.Heavy crown molds are often made up of a number of differentmillwork profiles. Millwork is decorative trim producedin a shop , or mill, and delivered to the job site.(Finish carpenlly is detailed carpentry completed on site,including installation of the millwork.) An advantage to thistype of construction is that it visually minimizes any irregularitiesbetween the wall and ceiling surfaces, and any gapscan be sealed with caulk and painted. It also offers thearchitect the opportunity to design a unique profile usingstandard components and to control the size and proportionsof the trim.Crown molding, option A, forms a link between that wall andthe ceiling when installed on an angle and often is made upof a combination of straight cuts and curves. A cove molding,option B, features a smooth concave curve. An architrave,option C, is a flat piece that is applied directly to the wall.Picture mold, option D, is mounted a short distance belowthe built-up crown molding. Its curved top and the spacebetween the picture mold and the bottom of the rest of thecrown allows small hooks to be placed over it so that artworkcan be suspended from the wall without putting holesinto the wall's surface. The entire assembly, picture moldincluded, is often painted the same color to look like oneentity.
	83. What type of plywood is used for roof sheathing? A. A-B Exterior B. B-C Exterior c. C-D Exterior D. A-D Exterior	83. The answer is C.The most common grade of plywood used for roof sheathingis C-D Exterior, sometimes referred to as CDX. TheEngineered Wood Association classifies plywood veneersinto six grades, as follows.N natural finish, free of defectsA smooth and paintableB solid-surface veneerC plugged splits limited to 1/s in (3) width andknot/borer holes limited Lo 1/; in (6) by1/i in (12)C knotholes permitted LO 1 in (25). Limitedsplits permitted. Minimum grade for exteriorplyvvood.D knots/knotholes Lo 3 in (76) permitted.Li mited splits permitted.The fi rst le LLer ind icates the classification of the face ply (thehighest-grade side) of the plywood. (lf both sides have thesame classifica tion, they are both referred to as faces.) Thesecond letter indicates the classification of the back ply (Lhelower-grade side) of the material. If the plywood is markedexterior, iL contains plies bonded with exterior glue.
	84. Which of the following edge treatments for gypsumboard does not require fi nishing with joint compound? A. LC bead B. L bead C. LK bead D. U bead	84. The answer is D.U bead, also sometimes called] bead or] metal , is the onlyedge treatment listed that does not require finishing withjoint compound. lL is less expensive to install than the others because it does not require finishing, but the edge treatmentis noticeably visible.The other types of edge treatments are all indented a bit onthe face side so that joint compound can be used to fill thegap and the treatmenL is not noticeable on the finished wall .LC bead is the basic edge treatment that requires a layer ofcompound be applied to conceal the metal. L bead does nothave a back flange and can be used when the gypsum boardis already installed or for repairs to the edge bead. LK beadis designed for use with a kerfed jamb.
	85. What type of elevator should be specified for a 40-story office building? A. hydraulic B. gearless traction c. geared traction D. electric	85. The answer is B.A gearless traction elevator would be an approptiate choice forthe office building. Gearless LracLiuu devaLur!; can travel atthe highest speeds of the types listed, and Lo accommodatethe rush of people entering and exiting the building in themorning, at lunch time, and in the evening, the quick cycleswould be a necessity.Gearless traction and geared traction are two different typesof electric elevators. Both operate on DC current. The gearedtraction elevator travels at slower speeds but offers manyoptions for adjusting the speed to suit the building conditions.Hydraulic elevators are lifted by a ram, which must be sunkinto the ground the same distance as the height of the elevator'spath of travel. The ref ore, they are used only in lowrisebuildings (generally less than six stories). They travelmuch more slowly than electric elevators and are betterused for freight or for low-occupancy passenger elevatorswhere speed is not an issue.
	1. If the roof and ceiling assembly of astructure has a factor of thermal conductance(U-factor) of 0.04, what should be theR-value of the insulation used in this sameassembly? A.2.5 B. IO C.25 D.40	1. C. The answer is 25. The U-factor is thethermal conductance of one square footof an entire assembly. The reciprocal ofU is R, which is the thermal resistance ofthe same square foot of construction. AU-factor of 0.04, therefore, corresponds toan R-value of 1/0.04 = 25 (choice C).
	2. The ancient Roman structure consistingof a 142-foot-diameter dome resting on acircular masonry wall is the A. Parthenon. B. Colosseum. C. Pont du Gard. D. Pantheon.	2. D. The answer is Pantheon. TheParthenon (A) is the most famous exampleof the perfected Doric style in Greekarchitecture. The Colosseum (B), theprototype of many of today's stadiums, isan elliptical Roman amphitheater whichseated 50,000 spectators. The Pont duGard (C) is a Roman aqueduct in Francecomprising three sets of arches.
	3. Which of the following techniques is mosteffective in reducing sound transmissionthrough a wall? Check all that apply. A. Decrease wall mass B. Detach the two faces of the wall fromeach other C. Apply spray-on mineral fiber to bothwall faces D. Seal or avoid flanking paths	3. B and D. Reduction of sound transmissionthrough a wall is achieved by increasing, notdecreasing the wall mass (A is incorrect).Transmission is also reduced by detachingthe wall faces (Bis correct). This is oftendone by means of resilient mountings,such as springs, felt, or cork, that preventthe wall faces from vibrating as a unit.While sprayed-on surface treatments canbe effective in reducing reverberationtime in a room, they do little to reducesound transmission through a wall (C isincorrect). Finally, flanking paths refer tounrestricted sound paths, such as cracksat wall perimeters, back-to-back electricalreceptacles, recessed medicine cabinets,etc. Failure to control such paths greatlyincreases noise transmission through a wall(Dis correct).
	4. Which of the following buildings of theChicago School is considered to be the firstiron-and-steel-framed skyscraper? A. Monadnock Building B. Carson Pirie Scott Store C. Marquette Building D. Home Insurance Building	4. D. Chicago is often considered to be thebirthplace of modem architecture. Thegreat fire of 1871 provided the city wit~ theopportunity to rebuild, and the extraordmarygroup of architects and engineers that ca~eto be known as the Chicago School providedthe talent. The 20 years that followed the great fire saw the development of thatuniquely American structure, the skyscraper.Burnham and Root's 16-story MonadnockBuilding (1889) was the last of the puremasonry towers, with six-foot-thick walls atits base. Louis Sullivan's Carson Pirie ScottStore (1898-1903), with its metal frame,broad windows, and unique decoration, wasthe most modem building of the ChicagoSchool. Holibird and Roche's 16-storyMarquette Building (1893) first expressedthe horizontal "Chicago window" withinits frame construction. But it was Jenney'sHome Insurance Building (1883) that isconsidered the first iron-and-steel-framedskyscraper. Although only ten stories high,it was the predecessor of all the tall metalframedbuildings that followed.
	5. In Byzantine architecture, the transition froman upper circular dome to a lower squarebase was made by four approximatelytriangular sections, as shown below. Whatwere they called? A. Column capitals B. Dosserets C. Quadripartite vaults D. Pendentives	5. D. Questions on architectural historymay appear on any of the written divisionsof the exam, including Building Design& Construction Systems. Therefore,we suggest that candidates spend sometime studying architectural history. Acolumn capital (A) was the enlargementof the upper end of a column in classicalarchitecture. In early Christian architecture,a dosseret (B) was a block or slab seton top of a column capital to support anarch above. A vault with diagonal ribsdividing a bay into four parts was called aquadripartite vault (C). The correct answeris D, pendentives.
	6. In the latter half of the 19th century,buildings with longer spans and greaterheights were made possible by thedevelopment of steel construction. Whichof the following buildings did NOT utilize ametal frame? A. Crystal Palace B. Home Insurance Co. Building C. Reliance Building D. Marshall Field Wholesale Store	6. D. Candidates are expected to be familiarwith some of the landmark structures thatled to today's architecture. Joseph Paxton'sCrystal Palace (1851) was an immenseprefabricated glass and cast iron structure.The Home Insurance Co. Building, designedby William LeBaron Jenney and built in1883-1885, is generally considered to bethe first building completely framed in steel.Burnham and Root's Reliance Building ( 1890-1895) completely expressed theaesthetics of its steel skeleton. Of the fourstructures in this question, only the MarshallField Wholesale Store (1885-1887),designed by H. H. Richardson, did notutilize metal framing. Its floors weresupported by timber framing, and its exteriorwalls were largely of stone construction.
	7. Volatile organic chemicals (VOCs) a:ff ectindoor air quality and may originate fromwhich of the following? A. Paints and lacquers B. Glues and adhesives C. Building materials and furnishings D. All of the above	7. D. Correct answer D. Volatile organicchemicals (VOCs) are emitted as gasesfrom certain solids or liquids. voesinclude a variety of chemicals, some ofwhich may have short-term and long-termadverse health effects including paintsand lacquers, paint strippers, cleaningsupplies, pesticides, building materialsand furnishings, office equipment such ascopiers and printers, correction fluids andcarbonless copy paper, graphics and craftmaterials including glues and adhesives,permanent markers, and photographicsolutions.
	8. Which of the following were large iron orsteel structures built during the latter half ofthe 19th century? I. Eiffel Tower II. Woolworth Building III. Brooklyn Bridge IV. Crystal Palace V. C.N.l.T. Dome VI. I, II, III, and IV A. I, Ill, and IV B. II, IV, and V C. I, Ill, and V	8. B. The latter half of the 19th centuryproduced a number of unprecedented ironand steel structures. Among these werethe Crystal Palace (1851), which had thegreatest area, the Eiffel Tower (1889),which was the tallest, and the BrooklynBridge (1883), which had the longest span.The Woolworth Building came much later(1913), while the C.N.l.T. Dome is animmense concrete dome built in 1968 inParis. Answer Bis therefore the correctanswer.
	9. Life-cycle costing is an economicevaluation of architectural elements thatincludes which of the following factors? I. First cost II. Maintenance costs III. Repair costs IV. Replacement cost A.I B. II, III, and IV C. II and IV D. All of the above	9. D. All of the above. While first cost is notthe primary concern of life-cycle costing, itis one of the economic factors considered(I is correct). The cost of maintenanceis part of the evaluation (II is correct).The durability of a product or system isconsidered as the cost of repair is part ofthe analysis (III is correct). The comparison of a product or system's life is one of thefactors evaluated in life cycle costing (IV iscorrect).
	10. An interior partition is constructed of metalstuds 16 inches on center with one layerof %-inch Type "X" gypsum wallboard oneach side. What is the fire-resistive rating ofthe partition? A. None B. One hour C. Two hours D. Three hours	10. B. Fire-resistive ratings for various wallsand partitions are shown in Table 43-B ofthe International Building Code. Accordingto this table, the partition described has aone-hour rating (correct choice B). Whentaking the ARE, candidates are not expectedto memorize the fire ratings of variouswall assemblies, however they shouldhave a general idea of the range of fireratings possible using common materials.Candidates should immediately recognizethat the type "X" wallboard will providesome degree of protection from fire,therefore choice A is incorrect. Candidatesshould also easily recognize that a partitionconstructed of single layer of wallboardis unlikely to achieve a two or three hourrating (C and Dare incorrect). Further, theparticular partition noted in this questiondescribes one of the most commonlyused fire partitions used in commercialconstruction.
	11. Asbestos is a mineral fiber that has beenused commonly in a variety of buildingconstruction materials. Although it has beenout of widespread use for many years, inolder buildings asbestos can still be foundin which materials? I. Pipe and furnace insulation II. Shingles III. Floor tiles IV. Insulation A. I and II B. II and III C. I, III, and IV D. All of the above	11. D. All of the above. Today, asbestos ismost commonly found in older homes,in pipe and furnace insulation materials,asbestos shingles, millboard, textured paintsand other coating materials, and floortiles. Elevated concentrations of asbestoscan occur after asbestos-containingmaterials are disturbed during remodelingactivities. Improper attempts to removethese materials can release asbestos fibersinto the air, increasing asbestos levels andendangering occupants. It is best to leaveundamaged asbestos material alone if it isnot likely to be disturbed
	12. A one-hour fire-resistive rating for adrywall wood stud interior partition maybe achieved as follows: 2-inch x 4-inchwood studs at 16-inch on center are coveredwith 5/s-inch fire-rated gypsum wallboard,and the joints are taped and sealed. If onewished to increase the fire rating using thesame construction, one would likely specifythat A. the studs would be placed 8 inches oncenter. B. the same 5/s-inch fire-rated gypsumwallboard be applied over a base layerof %-inch plywood. C. three layers of %-inch gypsumwallboard be applied on both sides. D. two layers on 5/s-inch fire-rated gypsumwallboard be applied to both sides.	12. D. While candidates are not expected tomemorize the construction of specific fireratedassemblies, candidates are expected to understand the basic principals of fire-ratedconstruction. Placing the studs at eightinches on center would have no effect onthe fire rating of the assembly (choice A isincorrect). Placing the drywall over a layerof plywood would not produce a higherfire rating and would be expensive (choiceBis incorrect). Three layers of drywallwould produce a higher fire rating, howeverthe labor required to install three layers ofdrywall would be unnecessarily expense(choice C is incorrect). Installing two layersof %-inch fire-rated gypsum wallboardwould increase the fire resistance ratingrather easily (choice Dis correct).
	13. A wall that is classified by the buildingcode as nonbearing is a(n) A. interior wall. B. wall that has no separate footing. C. wall that is less than 50 percent solid. D. wall that supports only its own weight	13. D. Most codes define a nonbearing wallas one that supports no load other than itsown weight (choice D). Accordingly, it maybe interior or exterior (choice A), with orwithout a footing (choice B), and open orsolid (choice C). It may not, however, carryany ceiling or roof loads.
	14. Select the correct statement about theconstruction of semicircular masonryarches. A. Centering is not usually necessary. B. Centering is usually necessary untilplacing of the keystone. C. The arches are almost always parabolicin shape. D. The maximum arch span is about 60feet.	14. B. The Romans, the master builders ofthe ancient world, used arches in greatprofusion and the Roman arch was alwayssemicircular (C is incorrect). Arches areconstructed with scaffolding or centering(A is incorrect), which is removed after thekeystone, the uppermost masonry block, isplaced (Bis correct). Many ancient Romanarches reach a maximum span of 100 feet(Dis incorrect).
	15. Applying a mortar coat to control leakagein masonry walls is called ____ _	15. Parging. Parging is the process in whichmortar coats are trowel-applied to exposedmasonry basement or foundation walls.This is one of the most common andeffective ways to control water leakage,particularly where hollow masonry unitsare used. The mortar generally consistsof one part portland cement to three partssand, and it is most often applied in twocoats, each carefully hand troweled.
	16. You are designing a building in a city witha moderate climate and you have specifiedgrade MW brick for the exterior walls. Thecontractor proposes to substitute grade SW.What should be your response? A. Accept the substitution B. Reject the substitution C. Accept the substitution, providedmasonry prism tests indicate that thebricks have adequate strength D. Allow the SW grade bricks to be usedfor interior walls only	16. A. There are three grades of brick: SW,MW, and NW. Grade SW is used for severeweather conditions, where the brick islikely to be frozen when saturated withwater. Grade MW is used for exterior wallssubject to moderate weather conditions,where the brick may be exposed to belowfreezing temperatures but unlikely to besaturated with water. Grade NW is intendedfor use where the brick will not be exposedto freezing, as in interior walls. Grades SWand MW may be used in lieu of grade NW,and grade SW may be used in lieu of gradeMW (A is correct).
	17. A section through a reinforced concreteslab and beam floor system is shown.Which of the locations shown is best for aconstruction joint?	17. C. Reinforced concrete beams aregenerally constructed monolithically withthe slab, and a portion of the slab acts withthe beam to form a T-beam. Joints locatednear the slab-beam intersection are thereforenot advisable. This rules out locations A,B, and D, leaving C as the only possibleanswer. Answer C is also near the midspanof the slab, where the shear in the slab isminimum.
	18. Select the correct statement, concerningma-sonry joints, from among those thatfollow. A. The best type of joint to resist waterpenetration is either a weather-struckjoint or a trowel-struck joint. B. The best type of joint to use on amasonry wall that is to receive aplastered finish is a flush joint. C. The type of joint that can be easilyformed with a trowel is av-shaped joint. D. The types of joints used on interiormasonry walls are essentially the sameas those used on walls exposed to theweather.	18. B. All of the statements concerningmasonry joints are false, with the exceptionof correct answer B. Statement A is actuallyonly half wrong, since a weather-struckjoint sheds water, but a trowel-struckjoint is an invitation to a leaky wall. Thev-shapedjoint of statement C is formed notwith a trowel, but with a special jointingtool that compresses the mortar and formsa weathertight seal. Finally, choice D issimply a false statement; any wall that isnot exposed to the weather can employ anykind of joint one desires. Because it neednot shed water, the choice becomes one ofaesthetic preference.
	19. Brick used in areas of heavy rain, snow, orcontinual freezing should conform to whichof the following grades? A.SW B.MW C.NW D.FBX	19. A. ASTM C62 and C216 establish threegrades of brick with respect to weatherresistance: grades SW, MW, and NW. GradeSW (severe weathering) is used in areas of heavy rain, snow, or continual freezing(A is correct), grade MW (moderateweathering) is used in areas of average rainand moderate freezing, and grade NW (noweathering) is used in areas of minimalrain and no freezing, as in sheltered orindoor locations. Grade FBX is unrelatedto weather resistance, but is a grade of facebrick based on appearance.
	20. In which of the following brick bondingpatterns are the wythes tied together withheaders? I. Flemish bond II. English bond III. Running bond IV. Common bond A. I, II, and III B. II, III, and IV C. III only D. I, II, and IV	20. D. Most brick walls consist of two tiers,or wythes, of brick separated by two orthree inches of air space. Brick bondingrefers to the pattern in which the bricksare laid to tie the wythes together into astructural unit. In sorne bonding patterns,the wythes are tied together with headers,which are bricks laid with their ends exposed.These include Flemish bond, English bond,and cornrnon bond (I, II, and IV). Runningbond does not have headers; instead,the wythes are tied together by rneshreinforcing every sixth course.
	21. Which of the following historic structurescontains a dome built without anytemporary centering? A. The Pantheon B. Hagia Sophia C. Santa Maria del Fiore in Florence D. The Parthenon	21. C. Because this question relates toa dorne, you should irnrnediately ruleout the Parthenon (D) because it is aGreek structure and doesn't have adorne. The Pantheon (A), which has thelargest dorne of the ancient world, wasbuilt by the Romans using centering.Hagia Sophia (B) in Constantinople(now Istanbul) is a magnificent darnededifice built with centering. The dorne ofSanta Maria del Fiore in Florence wasdesigned by Brunelleschi with a series ofcircurnf erential iron chains to act as tensionrings and hold the dorne in equilibrium,which permitted the dorne to be constructedwithout the use of any temporary centering,a feat unparalleled in its tirne (correctanswer C).
	22. An architect might specify light gaugepunched steel studs in place of conventionalwood studs in those cases where A. there is low relative humidity andsudden climactic changes. B. a degree of fire resistance is requiredthat is unobtainable with wood. C. the situation calls for unusual speed oferection. D. cost is a determining factor.	22. B. The answer is a degree of fireresistance is required that is unobtainablewith wood. Light gauge structural shapes, including studs, bridging, andjoists, are used rnost frequently where anincombustible building system is required(choice B). Light gauge shapes have severalother advantages over wood. For example,steel components will not swell, shrink, orwarp, and they are unaffected by termites,rot, and sudden climactic changes (choiceA). The system is also strong and rigid andoften allows narrower walls. However, lightgauge components are rnore expensive thanwood (choice D), and they are generallyno faster to erect than wood (choice D).Punched studs have evenly spaced holesalong their length that permit the easypassage of conduits, wires, and pipes.
	23. Which of the following statementsconcerning galvanizing is INCORRECT? A. Galvanizing involves applying aprotective coating of zinc to iron orsteel. B. Galvanizing and sherardizing treatmentsare essentially the same. C. The corrosion protection achieved isproportional to the thickness of thecoating. D. The most common galvanized materialsused in construction are iron sheet andstrip.	23. B. The answer is Galvanizing andsherardizing treatments are essentially thesame. Galvanizing is a process in whicha protective coating of zinc is applied toiron or steel to protect it frorn the harmfuleffects of corrosion (choice A). Metalsare cornrnonly hot-dipped galvanized orelectrogalvanized. Sherardizing (choice B)is a process in which metallic zinc dust isapplied under great heat. Since this processis limited to objects of relatively small size,it differs considerably frorn the galvanizingtreatment. Concerning choice C, althoughthe rust-free life of the base metaldepends on the depth of the zinc coating,and therefore the statement is true, anexcessively thick layer of zinc rnay becomebrittle, crack, and thus subvert the purposeof the galvanizing treatment.
	24. Exposed aluminum sections tend to A. rust. B. corrode. C. oxidize. D. remain bright indefinitely.	24. C. Aluminum is highly resistant toatmospheric corrosion (A and B areincorrect). Exposure causes a thin filrn ofoxide to forrn (C), which protects the metalfrorn further oxidation. However, unless thealuminum is anodized, the oxide coatingcauses the surface to become dull andchalky (D is incorrect).
	25. In the selection of an exposed flashingmaterial, several metals have specificproperties that make their use advantageousin certain situations. In this regard, selectthe CORRECT statements. Choose all thatapply. A. Copper has a tendency to tarnish whenexposed to weather. B. Galvanized steel is immune to rust andcorrosion. C. Soldering aluminum is difficult andshould be avoided. D. Stainless steel requires no additionalprotective coating. E. Copper and stainless steel expand andcontract at about the same rate	25. A, C, D, and E. All of the statements aretrue with the exception of B. Galvanizedsteel, which is sheet steel plated withzinc, has a relatively short life span whencompared with other flashing metals. Tominimize corrosion and increase longevity,it is common practice to paint galvanizedmetals. Although copper is durablematerial (A), it will oxidize when exposedto weather, and over time will acquire arich greenish patina. Some metals, suchas copper, galvanized steel, teme, andzinc, are easily soldered with rosin fluxes,however, soldering is not recommended foraluminum (C). Stainless steel (D) is steelalloyed with chromium and sometimesother elements and is virtually immuneto rust and corrosion without additionalprotection. Finally, the coefficients ofexpansion for copper and steel are virtuallyidentical.
	26. The two fillet welds shown below have thesame strength. The total amount of weldmetal in Detail 1 is A. the same as that in Detail 2. B. double that in Detail 2. C. half of that in Detail 2. D. four times that in Detail 2.	26. B. The strength of a fillet weld isproportional to the weld throat dimensionand the length. Since the throat dimension of the Y2-inchfillet weld is twice that of the 14-inch filletweld, the Yi-inch fillet weld six incheslong in Detail 1 has the same strength asthe 14-inch fillet weld 12 inches long inDetail 2. Looking at a cross section of thewelds, we can see that four 1A-inch right trianglescan fit in one Y2-inch right triangle, in otherwords, the Yi-inch fillet weld has four times the area of the 14-inch fillet weld. But sincethe Y2-inch fillet weld is only half as long asthe 14-inch fillet weld (6 inches compared to12 inches), the Yi-inch fillet weld in Detail1 requires twice as much weld metal as the1A-inch fillet weld in Detail 1 (4 x Yi= 2).The moral of the story: to reduce the cost offillet welding, use smaller and longer welds.
	27. What is the most common type of structuralweld? A. Full penetration weld B. Plug weld C. Fillet weld D. Groove weld	27. C. A fillet weld is placed in the rightangle formed by two intersecting or lappingplates or members. A groove weld is usedto join two butting plates or members.A full penetration weld is a groove weldwhose depth is the same as the thickness ofthe member. Although fillet welds are notas strong as groove welds, they are morecommonly used (C is correct). The reasonis that groove welds require members to befabricated to much closer tolerances thanfillet welds. Plug welds, which consist ofholes filled with weld metal, are sometimesused where other types of welds would beimpractical. (See the illustration below.)
	28. How does a light-gauge steel memberdiffer from a conventional structural steelmember? I. The light-gauge member is usuallycold-formed. II. The light-gauge member cannot bewelded. III. The light-gauge member is formedfrom a single piece of material and istherefore uniform in cross section. A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III	28. C. Light-gauge steel, which varies fromabout 12 to 20 gauge, is sometimes used forrepetitive members such as joists and studs.Such members are usually cold-formed,while structural steel shapes are hot rolled(I). Light gauge members can be welded (IIis incorrect) and are formed from a singlepiece of material, making them uniform incross section (Ill).
	29. Which of the qualities listed below areamong the unique properties that makeweathering steel a desirable exteriormaterial? I. It does not rust. II. It requires no protective coating. III. It is virtually maintenance free. IV. It ultimately weathers to a deepbrownish-red finish that resistscorrosion. V. It provides an excellent base forexterior finishes. A. I, II, and III B. II, III, and IV C. III, IV, and V D. I, II, and IV	29. B. Weathering steel is a useful materialthat contains a small quantity of copper.When exposed to the weather, this materialproceeds to rust until it develops a completeprotective oxide coating that resists furthercorrosion. Thus, weathering steel formsits own permanent protection, obviatingthe need for an additional applied finish orregular maintenance. Among the statementslisted, those included in answer B arecorrect.
	30. The process that employs an electriccurrent and an electrolytic solution todeposit a metallic coating on steel is called ______	30. Electroplating. Electroplating employsan electric current and an electrolyticsolution to deposit a metallic coatingon steel. Tin, zinc, and cadmium arecommonly applied in this manner. Lightercoatings for minimum corrosion resistanceare possible with electroplating. Metalliccoatings provide protection againstcorrosion either by being a sacrificialmetal-that is, one that is purposelypermitted to corrode, as is the case withzinc coatings; or by being inert andcorrosion-resistant, as with chromium. Themetals used for protection include zinc, tin,teme, aluminum, cadmium, chromium,and nickel. Some of the coating processesused are described as follows: Hot dippingrefers to the immersion of steel in a moltenbath of the coating metal. This process isused to produce heavier coatings, especiallygalvanized sheets, where the protectivemetal is zinc. The sherardizing processconsists of placing steel into an enclosure in which it is surrounded with metalliczinc dust and then heated. This process,limited to relatively small objects, producesa clear, thin zinc coating. Metallizing is theprocess of spraying molten metal on thesurface to be coated. It is extensively usedfor applying zinc and aluminum coatings,and is the principal method used for fieldapplication.
	31. Steel floor decking is widely used becauseof its great strength, light weight, and speedof construction. Which of the followingstatements concerning steel decking is true? A. Because of the smooth finish of steeldecking, composite action of thedecking and the concrete floor slab isnot permitted. B. The most typical method of attachingsteel decking to the supportingframework is welding. C. When a concrete floor fill is placed oversteel decking, no additional fireproofingof the steel decking or frame is required. D. Steel decking is often used for electricalraceways, because it provides easyaccess from below.	31. B. Certain types of steel decking arespecifically designed to provide compositeaction with the concrete floor slab (falseanswer A). What makes this action possibleare special deformations formed intothe decking that bond it to the concreteand transfer horizontal shear betweenthe decking and the concrete. Answer Bis the true statement we are looking forand therefore the answer to this question.Although other means of attachment aresometimes used, welding remains thetypical method of attachment. Even whena concrete floor fill is placed over steeldecking, the steel frame and usually theunderside of the deck must be fireproofedto obtain the required fire-resistive rating.Answer C is therefore false. Finally, D isalso a false statement. The easy access tothe electrical raceways provided by steeldecking is from above, not below.
	32. Select the correct statement from those thatfollow. A. Steel nails can be used to fasten stainlesssteel without any concern about galvanicaction. B. Conduits and pipes of aluminum areoften used in reinforced concreteconstruction, because the concrete formsan effective barrier preventing galvanicaction between aluminum and steel. C. All ferrous metals contain some silicon,and small variations in silicon contenthave an important influence on theirproperties. D. Steel can be formed by a variety ofmethods, but not extruded.	32. D. Steel nails should not be used to fastenstainless steel (A), because the stainlesssteel will cause the steel nails to deterioratethrough galvanic action. Unless effectivelycoated or covered, the use of aluminum instructural concrete is prohibited (B), becausealuminum not only reacts electrolyticallywith steel, but also reacts with the concrete.Although ferrous metals may contain silicon,their properties are largely influencedby their carbon, not silicon, content (C).Finally, steels can be wrought, cast, rolled,forged, and welded, but not extruded (D). Extrusion refers to forming metal by forcingit through an opening having the desiredshape. Answer D is the correct answer tothis question.
	33. The cost of connections in structural steelconstruction is I. a significant factor in the selection ofstructural steel systems. II. always less for bolted connections thanfor welded connections. III. usually less for shop connections thanfor field connections. A. I and III B. I, II, and III C. I only D. III only	33. A. The connections used in structuralsteel systems comprise a significant partof the cost of these systems, and caneven influence the type of structural steelsystem selected (I is correct). One basicdecision which must be made is whetherbolted connections, welded connections,or some combination of both are to beused. In some cases, bolted connections aremore economical, and sometimes, weldedconnections are. (II is incorrect.) Usually,shop connections are preferred over fieldconnections because they are less costly(Ill is correct). The correct combination ofanswers is shown in A.
	34. Select the correct statement about the fire-retardanttreatment of wood. A. It decreases the rate of flame spread. B. It is used for light construction only. C. It generally consists of a coating ofprotective material over the woodsurface. D. The chemicals used are the same asthose for decay protection.	34. A. Fire-retardant treatment of woodgenerally involves impregnating the woodwith fire-retardant chemicals pressure (Cis incorrect). These chemicals decrease therate of flame spread, or the rapidity withwhich fire will spread across the surface ofthe wood (A is correct). This treatment maybe used for various sizes of wood members(Bis incorrect), and the chemicals usedare different from those used for decayprevention (Dis incorrect).
	35. Which of the following statements aboutglued laminated timber is correct? A. Laminated members are manufacturedfrom the longest pieces of lumbercommonly available. B. Laminations may vary in thickness, butin no case are they less than 1-112 inchesthick. C. Solid laminated timbers, in straightlengths, can readily span 60 feet ormore. D. The finest appearance grade of gluedlaminated members is "architecturalgrade."	35. C. A length of 60 feet or more for gluedlaminated beams is not uncommon (choiceC). In the form of arches or simple trusses,clear spans may be 100 feet or more inlength. One advantage of laminating isthat short lengths of lumber may be endjoined to form much longer members withno loss in strength (choice A). Individuallaminations rarely exceed 1 Yi inches inthickness, but they may be thinner (choiceB). In the case of some curved members,for example, %-inch-thick laminations areoften used. Finally, the best appearance grade is called premium, and such membersare manufactured especially for use inexposed construction. Architectural gradehas the next best appearance, followed byindustrial grade.
	36. There are a number of common protectivetreatments that may be applied to timber,such as those that protect against fire andharmful insects. The one disadvantage theyall share is that they A. reduce the strength of timber. B. increase the construction cost. C. create greater difficulties in handling. D. are unable to hold a finish.	36. B. The answer is increase theconstruction cost. Over the years, protectivetreatments have been developed in orderto increase timber's resistance to a numberof hazards. For example, water solublesalts increase the fire resistance of woodso that it will cease to bum if the sourceof heat is removed. Creosote or coal tarsolutions are recommended for tidewaterstructures as they will survive the waterand attacks by marine borers. Similarly,pressure treated lumber is commonly usedat the foundation level to resist attacks froma variety of harmful insects. In every case,treated timber remains as strong (choice A),as easy to handle (choice C), and will holda finish as well as before treatment (choiceD), although treated wood often remainsunfinished. There is no question, however,that treated timber increases the cost ofconstruction.
	37. Select the CORRECT statements regardingglued laminated (glulam) beams. Check allthat apply. A. Cambered members are stronger thanstraight members of the same size. B. Deep members have a lower allowableunit stress than shallow members. C. When the depth of a beam exceeds itsbreadth, the allowable unit stress inbending may have to be reduced. D. Allowable design stresses increaseproportionately with appearance grades.	37. A, B, and C. All of the statements arecorrect with the exception of D; appearancegrades do not modify design stresses.Statements A, B, and C refer respectively tothe curvature factor, volume or size factor,and the slenderness factor, which reducesthe allowable bending stress unless lateralsupport is provided.
	38. In conventional wood framed structures, thepurpose of a purlin is to A. provide continuous support overopenings cut in a wall surface. B. produce a positive connection betweentwo opposite sloping rafters in the sameplane. C. form the angle of a hip roof and supportthe jack rafter ends. D. support the roof rafters and,consequently, a portion of the roof load.	38. D. Purlins are actually uniformly spacedbeams or girders which are used to supportroof rafters (correct answer D). They areused in wood framed roof constructionin the same way girders are used in floorconstruction, to reduce the span of theregular members and help support the load.Purlins run at right angles to the rafters andmay be used in either sloping or fiat roof construction. The other statements in thisquestion describe specific elements that arealso used in wood framed structures. Forexample, statement A describes a header,statement B defines a collar beam or tie,and statement C refers to a hip rafter.
	39. The standard unit of measure for lumber isthe board foot, which is defined as A. the volume of lumber in a 12-inch by12-inch by 12-inch timber. B. one-twelfth of a cubic foot of lumber. C. a nominal one-inch thick board that is12-inches wide. D. the weight of a 1-inch by 12-inch boardthat is 12-inches long.	39. B. A board foot of lumber measuresquantity or volume, not weight (D), andit is used to measure, compute, and pricelumber. It is defined as the amount oflumber contained in a piece of rough, greentimber one inch thick, 12 inches wide, andone foot long. Correct answer B describesthe same volume of lumber in a slightlydifferent and possibly deceptive way.Incidentally, the board foot measure appliesalso to equivalent volumes of lumber thatmay be thicker, wider, narrower, or longer.For example, a two-by-four that is 18 incheslong represents the same volume of woodas a one-by-twelve that is 12 inches long,which is exactly one board foot.
	40. The shrinkage of wood as it loses moisturemust be considered in the design anddetailing of wood members. In this regard,which of the following statements iscorrect? A. A wood stud shrinks most in its length. B. A log shrinks most radially. C. A joist shrinks most in its depth. D. A solid wood girder six inches wideshrinks less than a girder built up ofthree two-inch-wide members.	40. C. Wood shrinks most in the directionof the annual growth rings (tangentially),less across these rings (radially), and verylittle along the grain (longitudinally). Thus,A and B are both incorrect. Girders builtof seasoned two-inch-wide lumber shrinkless than solid girders (incorrect statementD), because lumber wider than two inchesis not usually seasoned. C is the correctstatement; the shrinkage of a wood joistin its depth is greater than in its length orwidth.
	41. The principal factor that determinesconcrete strength is the A. quality of aggregates used. B. water-cement ratio. C. type of admixtures used. D. type of portland cement used.	41. B. While all of the factors listed mayaffect concrete strength to some degree, theprincipal factor that determines concretestrength is the water-cement ratio. Concretestrength increases as the water-cement ratiodecreases; in other words, less water relativeto cement results in increased concretestrength, and conversely, more water relativeto cement decreases concrete strength.
	42. Which of the following is the usual orderfor removal of concrete forms, from firstremoval to last removal? I. Slab bottom forms II. Beam bottom forms III. Beam side forms A. I, II, III B. I, III, II C. III, I, II D. II, III, I	42. C. The answer is III, I, II. Concreteform work must remain in place until theconcrete has attained sufficient strengthto support its own weight plus anysuperimposed loads. The forms on verticalsurfaces, such as beams sides (III), usuallydo not support any vertical load and maybe removed shortly after the concrete hasset up, usually 12 to 24 hours after placing.Slab bottom forms are usually removedbefore the beam bottom forms because thedead load is usually a smaller percentageof the total load for slabs than for beams.Thus, a smaller percentage of the finalconcrete strength is required to support theself-weight of slabs than is required forbeams. Also, form removal is less criticalfor slabs than for beams, because if there isany local defect in a slab, the load will beredistributed to adjacent slab areas. This isnot true for beams.
	43. The section shown illustrates what type offraming? A. Heavy timber construction B. Mortise-and-tenon framing C. Balloon framing D. Platform framing	43. D. There are two ways to frame woodstud walls: platform framing and balloonframing. In platform framing, as shown inthe sketch, the studs are one story in height,and the floor joists bear on the top platesof the wall below (correct answer D). Inballoon framing, the studs are continuousfor the full height of the building, usuallytwo stories, and the second floor joistsbear on a ribbon let into the studs (C isincorrect). Heavy timber constructionis construction which is fire-resistantthrough the use of large wood structuralmembers. Platform framing is lightframing construction, not heavy timber (Ais incorrect). A mortise-and-tenon joint,which is not generally used in wood frameconstruction, is a method of wood joineryin which a tenon (a projecting end of atimber) is inserted into a mortise (a cavitycut into a timber). Therefore, Bis incorrect.
	44. Which of the following statements aboutglued laminated beams is correct? A. A glued laminated beam tends to failalong the glue line, since the adhesive isweaker than the wood. B. The allowable stresses for a gluedlaminated beam are the same whetherthe beam is loaded parallel orperpendicular to the wide faces of thelaminations. C. Because glued laminated beams aremore dimensionally stable than sawnmembers, they tend to deflect less. D. Glued laminated beams often havebetter grade lumber in the outerlaminations.	44. D. Statement A is incorrect because theadhesive is at least as strong as the wood,and a glued laminated beam will thereforetend to fail within a lamination rather thanalong the glue line. Statement B is alsoincorrect; the allowable stresses for a gluedlaminated beam loaded perpendicular to thewide faces of the laminations are greaterthan those for a beam loaded parallel tothose faces. The modulus of elasticity (E)of a glued laminated beam is the sameas that of a sawn member of the samespecies; therefore, for the same load, span,and cross section, their deflections will bethe same (C is incorrect). Statement Discorrect; better grade lumber is often usedin the outer laminations, where the flexuralstresses are higher.
	45. Which of the following statements isINCORRECT? A. The greatest drying shrinkage in woodmembers occurs across the grain. B. Expansion and contraction of woodmembers caused by temperature changeis not an important design consideration. C. Glued laminated members generallyshrink less than sawn timber members. D. Shrinkage of wood is usually greater inlighter pieces than in heavier pieces ofthe same species.	45. D. Statement A is correct; the greatestdrying shrinkage in wood members occursacross the grain, rather than parallel tothe grain. Statement B is also correct;in most designs, the expansion andcontraction of wood caused by temperaturechange is negligible. Glued laminatedmembers generally shrink less than sawntimber members because the individuallaminations are thin and easily seasoned,which reduces shrinkage (C is correct).Statement D is the incorrect statement,since the shrinkage of wood is generallygreater in heavier pieces than in lighterpieces of the same species.
	46. Which type of joint should be used to avoidrandom cracks in a concrete slab caused byshrinkage? A. Control B. Construction C. Expansion D. Isolation	46. A. The purpose of a control joint is tocreate a weakened section, so that crackingcaused by shrinkage of the concrete willoccur at the joint rather than in a randomfashion. A construction joint (B) is thejoint between concrete pours, becauseit is not practical to place and finishlarge areas of concrete in one operation.Expansion joints (C), which are oftenmade with a premolded filler, are used to separate adjacent sections of concrete toprevent cracking or other damage causedby temperature changes. An isolation joint(D) is used to separate different parts of astructure to permit differential movement,such as the joint between a column and aslab on grade.
	47. Excessive water rising to the surface ofa freshly cast concrete slab is commonlyknown as~~~~~~~~	47. Efflorescence. Efflorescence is thewhitish powder of crystallization thatcomes to the surface when water evaporatesfrom brick.
	48. Which of the following statementsconcerning concrete vibrators is correct? A. The purpose of vibrating concrete is tocompact the concrete within the formwork. B. Concrete vibrators may be internal orexternal, but the external are preferred. C. Internal vibrators are used to move theconcrete horizontally within the forms. D. Vibrators should be maintained at thesame location for at least one minute.	48. A. High-frequency, power-drivenvibrators are used to compact freshly placedconcrete in order to compact the concrete(choice A). Compaction also assures thatconcrete fills every void in the frameworkand that good contact is made between theconcrete and the reinforcing steel. Internalvibrators are submerged in the wet concrete,and these are preferable to external vibratorsthat are attached to the forms (choice B).While some horizontal movement of theconcrete takes place (choice C), this is notthe purpose of vibration. Finally, vibratorsshould be moved about constantly and notkept in any one location for more than 30seconds (choice D).
	49. Select the INCORRECT statementconcerning concrete. A. The principal factors affecting thestrength of concrete are the watercementratio and the extent of hydration. B. A low water-cement ratio makes aconcrete mix stronger and more resistantto freezing and thawing. C. The strength and water tightness ofconcrete are affected by the length oftime it has been moisture cured. D. The steel in reinforced concrete isused principally to resist compressivestresses.	49. D. All of the statements are true withthe exception of choice D. Although thereinforcing steel in concrete columns mayresist compressive forces, steel is generallyused in reinforced concrete to resist tensilestresses. Reinforcing steel also helpsresist cracking that may occur because ofcuring shrinkage or thermal expansion andcontraction.
	SO. Select the INCORRECT statement. A. The principal reason for using entrainedair in concrete is to improve itsresistance to freezing and thawing. B. The strength of concrete increases as thewater-cement ratio decreases. C. If formwork must be removed as quicklyas possible, it is advisable to use TypeIII portland cement in the concrete mix. D. During cold weather, calcium chlorideshould be added to lower the freezingpoint of concrete.	50. D. In this question, we are looking forthe one incorrect statement. StatementsA and B are both true. Choice C is alsocorrect; since Type III cement provideshigh strength at an early age, it is oftenused when forms must be removed quickly. Statement D is the incorrect statementand therefore the answer to this question.High strength at an early age is oftendesired during cold weather, to reducethe length of time weather protection isrequired. Because calcium chloride is themost common accelerating admixture, it isfrequently used for this purpose. However,using calcium chloride to lower the freezingpoint of concrete should never be permitted,because the quantity needed is so greatthat strength and other properties would beseriously affected.
	Sl. Reinforcing bars sometimes become coatedwith mud, oil, rust, or mill scale. Which ofthe following coatings must be removedfrom the bars before placing concrete? A.Mud B. Mud or oil C. Mud, oil, or rust D. Mud, oil, rust, or mill scale	51. B. Mud, oil, or any other nonmetalliccoating that might adversely affect the bondbetween concrete and reinforcing must beremoved (correct answer B). The roughhandling which is normal on constructionprojects is generally sufficient to removeany loose rust, while tight rust and millscale actually improve bond and aretherefore considered satisfactory.
	S2. Which of the following statements aboutconcrete admixtures are FALSE? I. Admixtures may be added to the batchbefore, during, or after mixing. II. Retarders are used in hot-weatherconcrete work. III. Air-entraining agents are mainly usedto produce lightweight concrete. IV. Accelerators include the most widelyused agent, calcium chloride.V. Permeability reducing agents reducethe capillarity of the concrete's voids.A. I onlyB. I and IIIC. I, III, and IVD. II, III, and V	52. B. All of the statements are true exceptchoices I and III. Admixtures may beadded to the batch (I) before or duringmixing of the concrete ingredients, butnever after mixing is completed. At thatpoint, there would be no way to blend theadmixture with the other ingredients. Airentrainingagents may reduce the weight ofconcrete (Ill), but their principal purposeis to increase the concrete's resistance tofreezing. They also increase plasticity,reduce bleeding, and decrease segregation.Incidentally, to produce lightweightconcrete, lightweight aggregates are used inplace of normal aggregates.
	S3. During your observation of the reinforcingsteel placement on a construction project,you see a reinforcing bar with the followingmarkings on its surface: H 7 N 60. Whatdoes this tell you about the bar? A. It is a %-inch diameter bar made of newbillet steel and conforming to grade 60. B. It is a %-inch diameter bar made of newbillet steel and conforming to grade H. C. It is a %-inch diameter heavy-duty barconforming to grade 60. D. It is a %-inch diameter bar made of newbillet steel and conforming to grade 70.	53. A. You are expected to know how toidentify various construction materials,and this kind of question has appeared onpast exams. During the rolling process,identification markings are embossed on thesurface of reinforcing bars. In this example, "H" identifies the producing mill, "7"denotes the bar size (% inch), "N" refersto the type of steel (new billet), and "60"refers to the grade of steel (grade 60 has aminimum specified yield stress of 60,000psi). The correct answer is therefore A.
	S4. Which of the following reinforced concreteframing systems generally has the lowestcost of formwork? A. Flat plate B. Flat slab with drop panels C. One-way beam and slab D. Two-way waffle slab	54. A. Formwork represents the largest singlecost in reinforced concrete construction,generally over 50 percent. Therefore, oneof the goals of reinforced concrete designis to minimize the cost of formwork byusing simple systems and repetitive bays.Of the four systems in this question, the flatplate requires the simplest formwork, sinceit consists of a two-way flat slab withoutbeams or drop panels.
	SS. Tilt-up wall panels have which of thefollowing characteristics? I. They cannot support any load excepttheir own weight. II. A slab on grade is generally used asthe casting platform. III. Because of their great weight, theymust bear on a continuous foundation. A. I and II B. I and III C. II only D. I, II, and III	55. C. Tilt-up wall panels are cast in ahorizontal position, generally using a slabon grade as the casting platform, and thentilted up to a final vertical position (II iscorrect). They may be load-bearing or nonload-bearing (I is incorrect), and they maybear on a continuous foundation or spanbetween pad footings (III is incorrect).
	56. What is the principal reason that Type IIIportland cement is used? A. It is less expensive than other types ofcement. B. Concrete made from Type III cementdevelops greater compressive strength. C. The concrete formwork can be removedearlier. D. It is the most readily available type ofcement.	56. C. There are five types of portlandcement. Type III provides high earlystrength, usually in a few days, whichallows the formwork to be removedearlier (C is correct). Type III cement ismore costly than normal cements (A isincorrect). A given compressive strengthcan be obtained with any type of cement(Bis incorrect), and all types of cement arereadily available (D is incorrect).
	57. An incombustible building material is onethat A. will not bum. B. will smolder but not support flames. C. has at least a one-hour fire rating. D. is flammable.	57. A. Incombustible simply means incapableof igniting or supporting combustionwhen exposed to fire, usually at an airtemperature of 1,200 degrees Fahrenheit.In other words, an incombustible buildingmaterial will not bum. Choice D,incidentally, uses the term inflammable,which mean s easily ignited and capable of burning rapidly.The words flammable andinflammable mean the same thing and areinterchangeable.
	58. A two-story library with stacks on bothfloors has 40-foot by 40-foot bays. Whichof the following reinforced concrete floorframing systems would probably be themost economical? A. Waffle slab B. Flat slab C. Flat plate D. One-way slab and beam	58. A. The waffle slab system (correctanswer A) is appropriate for heavy loadsand square bays, as in this question, andfor spans up to about 40 feet. The flat slabsystem (B) is economical for heavy loads,but not for spans much over 25 or 30 feet.The flat plate system (C) has inexpensiveformwork, but is not generally economicalfor heavy loads or spans over 20 to 25 feet.The one-way slab and beam system (D)might be economical, but the square baysand heavy loads in this question favor atwo-way framing system, such as the waffleslab.
	59. Which of the following are likely to resultin economical concrete construction? I. Vary column and beam sizes tominimize the amount of concrete II. Use a greater number of smaller barsin preference to a smaller number oflarger bars III. Use tied columns in preference tospiral columns IV. Use straight bars in preference to bentbars A. I and II B. III and IV C. II and IV D. I and IV	59. B. Since formwork is the most costlyelement in reinforced concrete construction,it is economical to simplify the formworkby making all the columns the same sizeand all the beams the same size, if possible,and varying the amount of reinforcement(I is incorrect). It is also economical to usethe largest bar size that will meet designrequirements in order to reduce placingcosts (II is incorrect). III and IV are correct(answer B); ties are less costly than spirals,and straight bars require less fabricationthan bent bars and are therefore lessexpensive
	60. Which of the following factors should beconsidered in selecting a roof covering?Check all that apply. A. Roof slope B. Weight of roofing C. Fire resistance of roofing D. Water resistance of roofing E. Local climate conditions	60. A, B, C, and E. Because roofing isdefined as the material used to coverand protect a building from naturalelements, all roof coverings are inherentlywaterproof. Therefore, one should nothave to question a material's waterresistance (D). The other factors all havea bearing on the choice of roofing. Slopeand weight (A and B) will limit the useof certain materials, for example concretetile, which requires a roof pitch of at least 4: 12 and is considerably heavier thanmost other coverings. Fire resistance (C)determines the Underwriters Laboratory(UL) classification, and climate (E)determines anticipated precipitation,as well as local conditions of wind,temperature, and atmospheric corrosion.
	61. In specifying the best quality clear glasswith the least amount of surface distortion,you should call for A. drawn sheet glass. B. rolled glass. C. pressed glass. D. float glass.	61. D. All glass begins as a liquid material,which is composed mainly of sand, soda,and lime. It is then blown, cast, pressed,rolled, extruded, or drawn, generally athigh temperatures, and allowed to coolto achieve certain desired properties. Forexample, to produce flat, parallel surfaceswith a minimum of distortion, molten glassis floated onto a metallic surface and thenallowed to cool (choice D). Flat-drawnsheet glass (choice A) is commonly usedfor windows. Rolled glass (choice B) isused in the production of textured glasses,and pressed glass (choice C) is a methodof molding glass, as in the manufacture ofhollow glass blocks.
	I62. In the window assembly shown below,which element is a stile? A.1 B.2 c. 3 D.4	62. D. The answer is 4. In the windowassembly shown, 1 is a muntin, a secondaryelement used to hold panes within thewindow; 2 is the head, the upper horizontalmember extending between jambs thatforms the top of the window frame; 3 is thebottom rail of the window; and 4 is a stile, avertical frame member of the window.
	63. Shown below is a section through aterrazzo floor installation. The purpose ofthe neoprene filler is to A. allow for expansion or contraction of thestructure. B. provide a waterproof joint at a stresspoint in the floor. C. introduce a durable accent strip ofcontrasting color and texture. D. serve as a prefabricated cold jointbetween terrazzo pours.	63. A. The answer is allow for expansionor contraction of the structure. Illustratedin this question is an expansion-typedividing strip whose flexible neoprene coreabsorbs minor movement in the floor, thusprotecting the terrazzo finish from cracking.This type of strip is manufactured frombrass, zinc, or plastic. It is placed in thefloor every 30 to 50 lineal feet, dependingon thickness of the neoprene and theanticipated structural movement.
	64. Which of the following statements aboutglass blocks are correct? I. Glass blocks may be set in a runningbond or stacked bond pattern. II. Expansion joints should be provided atthe sides and top of every glass blockpanel. III. The coefficient of thermal expansionof glass is less than that of masonry. IV. Glass blocks may never be used tosupport structural loads. A. I and III B. II and IV C. I, III, and IV D. I, II, and IV	64. B. Glass blocks are either solid or hollowunits with the same general chemicalcomposition as window glass. They areused where light transmission, glare, orsolar heat must be controlled, or where aspecific decorative effect is desired. Glassblocks are always stacked in a bond pattern(I is incorrect), and they may never be usedto support structural loads (IV is correct).Because of the high coefficient of thermalexpansion of glass (III is incorrect), a glassblock panel will expand substantially morethan a masonry wall, and should thereforehave expansion joints at the sides and top(II is correct).
	65. The truss shown below is a(n) ___ _truss.	65. Scissors. The answer is scissors truss.Some truss types worth knowing are shownbelow.
	66. Aluminum window sections are frequentlycoated with acrylic lacquers or strippableplastic coatings prior to installation ina rough-framed structure. The primarypurpose of these temporary coatings is to A. lessen the damage from galvanic action. B. minimize corrosion from alkalis. C. reduce deterioration caused byweathering. D. keep the sections clean until completionof construction.	66. B. The answer is minimize corrosionfrom alkalis. Aluminum is highly resistantto normal weathering (choice C), because atough film of aluminum oxide forms rapidlyon its exposed surfaces. It can be damaged,however, by both galvanic action (choiceA) and alkalis (choice B). In the case ofgalvanic action, aluminum is generallyprotected from the harmful contact ofdissimilar metals by non-metallic gaskets orbituminous paints. The temporary coatingsapplied to aluminum, however, are intendedprimarily to protect the metal from contact with alkalis found in wet concrete, mortar,and plaster. These temporary coatings alsokeep the sections clean (choice D), but thatis not their primary purpose.
	67. A common type of failure in compositionbuilt-up roof systems is the formation ofblisters. These are generally caused by I. air trapped between the roofing felts. II. air trapped between a roofing felt andthe roof deck. III. moisture trapped in the roof deck. IV. moisture trapped in the roof insulation. A. I only B. II and III C. I, II, and III D. I, II, Ill, and IV	67. D. The answer is I, II, III, and IV. Blisters,which are bulging pockets of air, may becaused by all of the factors listed (choiceD). Most moisture comes from exposureduring construction or from pouredconcrete decks that are not adequately drybefore the roofing is applied. Blisters mayalso be caused by the roofer's failure tocement felts securely to each other, to theinsulation, and to the deck. The hazard ofblisters is that if one breaks and moisturepenetrates the roof structure, the entirewaterproof integrity of the building is injeopardy.
	68. The "Chicago window" might be bestdescribed as an opening having A. a fixed center and movable sides. B. a large, unbroken expanse of glass. C. a vertical proportion and round arch top. D. a horizontal proportion and many smallpanes.	68. A. The desire to provide an abundanceof natural light for commercial officebuildings gave architects the incentive toreduce the structure as much as possibleand fill the voids of the slender structuralcage with glass. The resulting "Chicagowindow" became a large horizontalexpanse, with fixed center and movablesides (correct answer A), which stretchedthe entire length of a structural bay. Thisdetail became one of the distinguishingcharacteristics of the Chicago Schoolprojects during the 1880s and 1890s.
	69. If the label shown was attached to a door, itwould indicate that I. the door requires an automatic closingdevice. II. the fire assembly is self-closing. III. no glazed openings are permitted inthe door. IV. 100 square inches of glazed openingsare permitted in the door. A. I and III B. II and IV C. I and IV D. II and III	69. B. Openings in walls with fire-resistiveratings are classified in accordance withthe character and location of the wall inwhich they are located. Class A openingsare in walls separating buildings ordividing a single building into fire areas.Doors in these openings must have afire-protection rating of three hours, maynot have any glazed openings, and mustbe of an automatic closing type. That is,the door remains in an open position butwill close automatically if subject to an increase in temperature. Statements I andIII therefore apply to Class A openings.Class B openings are in enclosures ofvertical communication through buildings,such as stairs and elevators. Doors in ClassB openings must have a rating of one or1 Y2 hours, may have not more than 100square inches of glazed openings, and mustbe self-closing. In other words, the dooris normally closed and is equipped with adevice to insure closing and latching afterhaving been opened for use. Thus, II andIV are applicable to Class B openings. Thedoor label shown designates a 1 Y2 hour fireresistiverating used in Class B openings.Because II and IV are correct, B is the rightanswer.
	70. Select the INCORRECT statement. A. Metal clad doors consist of a solid woodcore covered with sheet metal, and canresist fire as long as the sheet metalcover prevents oxygen from reachingthe core. B. Flush doors always have a core of solidsoftwood made of individual core blocksglued together. C. Although revolving doors are frequentlyused at entrances to major buildings,they cannot be used as legal exits. D. The glass in a pivoted glass door cannotbe cut or drilled after fabrication.	70. B. Metal clad doors, are correctlydescribed in statement A. In recent years,metal clad doors have largely been replacedby fire-rated solid-core doors. Flush doors(B) may be made either with a solid core,as described, or with a hollow core-thatis a core made of small pieces of wood ' .arranged in a grid pattern. Statement B IStherefore incorrect. Statement C is correct;because they can carry a continuous twowayflow of pedestrian traffic withoutmuch interchange of air between inside andoutside, revolving doors are often used atentrances to large buildings. However, theIBC does not permit revolving, sliding, oroverhead doors to be used as legal exits.Glass doors (D) are generally pivoted at thetop and bottom, and are made of temperedglass, which cannot be cut, drilled, oraltered in any way. Statement D is thereforecorrect. The only incorrect statement, andtherefore the answer to this question, is B.
	71. Dampproofing differs from waterproofingin that A. dampproofing is applied in liquid form. B. dampproofing cannot resist constanthydrostatic pressure. C. dampproofing is only applied abovegrade. D. dampproofing is applied to areas that arein direct contact with the earth.	71. B. Correct answer B. Both dampproofingand waterproofing may be applied in liquidform (A is incorrect) and both are beapplied below grade where the building is in contact with the earth (Dis incorrect).Further, dampproofing is typically installedbelow grade (C is incorrect). The onlycorrect answer is B, dampproofing cannotresist constant hydrostatic pressure.
	72. Recent advancements in synthetic materialshave made precast stone veneer a popularchoice for exterior cladding. Which of thefollowing is NOT true regarding precaststone veneer? A. It is lighter than natural stone. B. It does not require steel lintels overopenings. C. It is made from concrete. D. A wide variety of exotic styles, textures,and colors are available.	72. A. Correct answer A. Precast stone veneeris a synthetic stone product that closelyresembles real stone and is made fromconcrete (C is incorrect). Advancements inmanufacturing technology have resulted ina wide variety of styles, textures, and colorsbeing made available (Dis incorrect).While precast stone veneer is not lighterthan real stone (A is correct), it is not loadbearingand is typically applied directlyto the exterior wall surface making steellintels unnecessary (B is incorrect).
	73. Fire-retardant paints are those that I. have a latex base. II. have a rubber base. III. are oleoresinous. IV. are intumescent. V. are nonvolatile. A. I and V B. II and IV C. I and III D. II, IV, and V	73. B. Fire retardant paints, often calledintumescent paints (IV), are coatings thatexpand under heat and prevent the flamesand heat from spreading to combustiblematerials. This chemical action, whichvirtually smothers fire, is caused by thepaint's rubber base (II) in combinationwith other ingredients. These two choicesare found in correct answer B. Concerningthe other choices, latex-based paint (I)is the most popular kind of interior wallpaint; oleoresinous refers to oil paints,which have been largely superseded byalkyd enamels; and nonvolatile is a termapplied to ingredients that bind the solidpaint particles and provide adhesion to thesurface on which they are applied.
	74. Plaster over metal lath is applied in threecoats. In the order applied, what are theycalled? A. Scratch, brown, and finish coat B. Brown, scratch, and finish coat C. Putty, brown, and finish coat D. Brown, scratch, and putty coat	74. A. Plaster is a cementitious materialapplied in layers, by hand or machine, on .both interior and exterior wall surfaces. It IScomposed of portland cement (for exteriorplaster) or gypsum and lime (for interiorplaster), aggregate, and enough water toform a workable paste. When over metallath, it is applied in three coats. The firstcoat is scratched with a tool while still wet to create a rough surface, and is thereforecalled the scratch coat. The second layer iscalled the brown coat, followed by the thirdlayer, the finish coat (A is correct). Theputty coat is a finish coat.
	75. In the design of metal gutters used to draina sloping roof, one must be concerned with I. annual precipitation. II. roof pitch. III. roof area. IV. cross sectional gutter area. A. I and II B. II, Ill, and IV C. I, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV	75. B. Candidates may consider this to be adeceptive question, because all the factorslisted are important, with the exception ofI. The amount of rain that falls during ayear has no real influence on the design ofgutters. It is the intensity and frequency ofprecipitation that determines the capacity ofgutters; in other words, how much rain willfall in a short period of time, and how oftenwill this occur? Roof area and pitch willdetermine the amount of roof water runoff,and the gutter area will be a function of thisrunoff quantity. The right combination offactors is found in correct answer B.
	76. A small building has been designed withroof planes that slope at a pitch of 4: 12. Itwas originally intended that wood shingleswould be used as a roof covering; however,in an effort to reduce construction costs, theclient now insists on using asphalt shingles.It should be explained to the client thatthis seemingly simple modification willnecessitate a change in the A. roof slope. B. roof sheathing. C. type of roofing attachment used. D. type of roof flashing used.	76. B. Wood shingles and asphalt shingles areactually quite similar in several respects.Essentially they are both applied in anoverlapping fashion on any roof surfacethat has sufficient slope to insure properdrainage. Specifically, a slope of 4:12 isconsidered a safe minimum slope for bothshingle types (A). Both types of shinglesalso require similar attachments andflashing (C and D), such as hot-dippedgalvanized steel or aluminum roofingnails and galvanized, aluminum, or copperflashing. The necessary change, therefore,would be in the roof sheathing (correctanswer B). The use of wood shinglesrequires spaced sheathing strips, to permitair circulation behind the units, whereasasphalt shingles must be applied oversolidly sheathed roofs.
	77. Flat built-up roofs frequently have a finishsurface composed of gravel embedded inasphalt. How much gravel is normally usedon a typical square foot of such a fiat roof? A. 4 pounds B. 12 pounds C. 100 pounds D. 350 pounds	77. A. Built-up roofs, such as that describedin this question, are normally composedof a waterproof base sheet, several plies ofroofing felt mopped between layers withasphalt, and a final flood coat of asphalt into which gravel or slag is embedded. Thistype of roof weighs about 600 pounds persquare, a square being a roofing materialmeasure equal to 100 square feet of roofsurface. The weight of the gravel accountsfor over half that total, or about 400 poundsper square, which is four pounds per squarefoot (correct answer A).
	78. Shown below is a common method usedto waterproof a concrete wall belowgrade. The surface indicated at point #1 isintended to: A. function as a temporary concrete form. B. retain the soil prior to membraneapplication. C. provide a waterproof membrane. D. protect the waterproof membrane.	78. D. Concrete walls below grade arecommonly waterproofed to resist groundwater infiltration, usually under hydrostaticpressure. This is accomplished by means ofa continuous membrane around the outsidewall surfaces. The membrane consists ofseveral plies of bituminous saturated felt,or cotton fabric, or a combination of thesematerials. It is sealed and held in placewith asphalt or tar, which is hot-mopped,similar to the application of a built-uproof surface. Of particular concern is thedanger of rupturing the membrane duringthe backfilling process. For this reason, anadditional protective layer is applied overthe membrane prior to backfilling (correctanswer D). This layer consists of portlandcement mortar, fiberboard, or sometimes asingle wythe of masonry.
	79. Select the correct statement from amongthose that follow. A. Water-resistant, water-repellent, andwaterproof are terms that may be usedinterchangeably to denote somethingthat is impervious to water. B. Effective dampproofing generallyinvolves continuous bituminousmembranes. C. Concrete slabs in direct contact withmoist ground will not absorb moistureunless the ground water is underpressure. D. Water-repellent admixtures for concretedecrease water absorption by reducingthe capillary attraction of the voids inconcrete.	79. D. Although all the statements pertainto moisture control, this is actually fourquestions in one, and candidates mustverify at least three of the statements to findthe correct answer. Except for statementD, which is the correct answer, each ofthe statements is in some way incorrect.The three terms about water permeability(A) have different meanings from oneanother. Beginning with water-resistant,each subsequent term indicates a higherlevel of water resistance. Concerningdampproofing (B), most often it involvesthe application of liquid coatings, notthe use of membranes, which are usedin waterproofing. Statement C is also false; an ordinary concrete slab in contactwith moist earth, whether or not underpressure, will absorb moisture throughcapillary action. That is the reason thatwater-repellent admixtures, mentioned instatement D, are commonly used. Stearatesor asphalt emulsions considerably reducecapillary action, if no hydrostatic pressureis involved. Incidentally, these admixturesalso reduce the strength of the concrete andprovide limited protection, not completewaterproofing.
	80. Which of the following glass types aremanufactured in the United States forcommon architectural applications? Checkall that apply. A. Float glass B. Annealed C. Tempered D. Laminated	80. A and B. Most glass produced in theUnited States for architectural applicationsis float glass (A). Tempered glass is heattreatedfor increased resistance to impactstresses. It is much stronger and much moreexpensive than annealed glass. Laminatedglass consists of a plastic sheet sandwichedbetween and bonded to two layers of glass.When laminated glass breaks, the plasticsheet holds the broken glass in place, thusreducing the risk of injury. Tempered glassand laminated glass (C and D) are used forspecial applications, where great strength orresistance to shattering is required.
	81. Select the INCORRECT statement aboutterrazzo flooring. A. Terrazzo is generally cast in place. B. Terrazzo is dense, permanent, anddurable. C. Terrazzo may not be installed over awood subfloor because of the inherentmovement of wood construction. D. Divider strips are used in terrazzoflooring to control cracking.	81. C. Terrazzo is a concrete topping,consisting of marble chips in a cementor synthetic resin binder, which is cast inplace, cured, and then ground and polishedto a smooth finish (A is correct). It is dense,permanent, and durable (Bis correct).Because terrazzo flooring tends to crack,it is divided into panels by divider strips,which control cracking (Dis correct).Statement C is an incorrect statementand therefore the answer to this question;terrazzo may be installed over woodconstruction, but is isolated from the woodby a membrane and sometimes a layer ofsand.
	82. Select the correct statements about woodshingle roofing. I. Wood shingles are generally madefrom Douglas fir. II. Wood shingles may be applied oversolid or spaced sheathing. III. Wood shingles are installed on roofswith a slope of 4: 12 or greater. IV. Wood shingles are nailed at abouttwo inches on center to avoid comingloose. A. I and III B. II, III, and IV C. II and III D. II and IV	82. C. Wood shingles are made from decayresistantspecies of wood, such as redcedar, cypress, or redwood (I is incorrect).Wood shingles may be applied over solidor spaced sheathing (II is correct), althoughspaced sheathing or stripping is preferablebecause it allow air circulation under theshingles. Wood shingles are used on steeproofs, those with a slope of 4: 12 or greater(Ill is correct), and each shingle is nailedwith two nails to avoid splitting (IV isincorrect).
	83. High-rise building construction has becomeeconomical because of the development of I. high-speed elevators. II. improvements in the steel rollingprocess. III. simple and reliable connections usingwelds and high-strength bolts. A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III	83. D. All three choices have contributedto the economy of high-rise construction.In the late 1920s, technological advancesin the steel rolling process permitted theforming of large structural shapes, ratherthan riveted built-up shapes which hadbeen used until then (II). At about the sametime, high-speed elevators were developed,making high-rise buildings feasible (I).Starting in the 1950s, better structuralsteels and improved connection methodswere developed, which further enhancedthe economy and practicality of high-riseconstruction. These methods includedwelding and high-strength bolting (III).
	84. Which of the following statements aboutprestressed concrete construction is NOTtrue? A. Precast, prestressed members are usuallyposttensioned. B. Prestressed members utilize theircross section more efficiently thanconventional reinforced concretemembers. C. Pretensioned members require no endanchorages. D. Creep and shrinkage cause losses ofprestress which must be considered.	84. A. Prestressed concrete is concrete that ispermanently loaded so as to cause stressesopposite in direction from those caused bydead and live loads. In that way, the entirecross section becomes effective in resistingstress (Bis correct). Two basic prestressingmethods are used: pretensioning andposttensioning. In pretensioning, highstrength steel is stressed before the concreteis cast; while in posttensioned concrete,the steel is tensioned after casting theconcrete. The only incorrect statement,and thus the answer to this question, is A.Pretensioned members transfer the prestressforce from the steel to the concrete by bondand therefore require no end anchorages (correct statement C). Statement Disalso a correct statement; shrinkage of theconcrete and creep of the concrete and steelreduce the prestressing force and must beconsidered in the design.
	85. Select the INCORRECT statement abouttilt up walls. A. They may not be used as shear walls orbearing walls. B. They are easily formed and quicklyerected. C. They are most appropriate for simplerectangular buildings having a uniformcolumn spacing. D. They have good fire resistance.	85. A. Tilt up walls are reinforced concretewalls that are precast at the job site,usually in a flat position. When they haveattained sufficient strength, they are tiltedup to a vertical position and set into place.Statements B, C, and Dare all correct.Statement A is the incorrect statement weare looking for: tilt up walls have greatstrength and may be used as shear walls orbearing walls.
	86. As architect for a project, you discoverthat trapped moisture has caused bubblesto form at a few locations between plies ofroofing felts. You should therefore A. require the contractor to puncture thebubbles and resurface those specificareas. B. require that a two-foot-square area ofroofing be replaced at each locationhaving bubbles. C. require that the top roofing ply beremoved and replaced over the entireroof area. D. ignore the situation, since moisture willprobably evaporate after several days.	86. A. The answer is require the contractorto puncture the bubbles and resurfacethose specific areas. Bubbles that formin a new roof should never be ignored,because their presence indicates trappedmoisture that will eventually damagethe roof's waterproof integrity. Since the trapped moisture is unable to evaporate(choice D), some corrective treatment isrequired. The common solution to thisproblem is described in choice A; puncturethe bubbles, which allows the moistureto evaporate, and resurface those specificareas. Every roofing ply need not beremoved (choice B), just those above whichthe moisture is trapped. Similarly, it isunnecessary and undesirable to replace theentire top roofing ply (choice C).
	87. Typical spans for office buildings rangefrom 20 to 30 feet. If these spans aredoubled, to 40 to 60 feet, the totalconstruction cost will increase by roughlywhat percentage? A. 100 percent B. 25 percent C. 6 percent D. 2 percent	87. C. Construction costs vary widely,depending on a number of factors. Ingeneral, however, structural costs amountto about 25 percent of the total cost ofconstruction. Doubling the typical spanswill probably increase the structural costsabout 20 to 30 percent. Thus, the totalconstruction cost will increase by about 5to 7.5 percent (20% of25% = 5%, 30% of25% = 7.5%). Answer C is therefore themost correct answer.

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