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128 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
famous combination for ALL
prednisone
vincristine
famous combination for wilm's tumor
dactinomycin
vincristine
famous combination for hodgin's dz (not MOPP!)
ABVD

adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine
side effect of cisplatin
renal tox
side effect of vincristine
peripheral neuropathy
what is the DOC for a child with a viral infection (for symptomatic control, not to combat the virus)
acetaminophen
(Tylenol)
drug used for acute gout or ankylosing spondylitis
indomethacin (NSAID)
MOA of ASA
IRREVERSIBLE acetylation of COX (this leads to less TXA2 so platelets don't aggregate = anticoag)
what is celecoxib
selective COX2 inhibitor

used in chronic pain (OA)
risk of thrombosis, stroke, MI
SSx in MILD ASA OD
tinnitus, central hyperventilation (resp alkalosis)
SSx in severe ASA OD
respiratory acidosis
metabolic acidosis (kidney tried to compensate for earlier resp alkalosis)
what is reye's sydrome
fulminant hepatitis and cerebral edema

caused by using ASA in kids w viral infection.....use acetaminophen (tylenol) instead
name 3 slow acting drugs for long term use in RA
gold (add when NSAID fail)
D penicillamine (add when gold fails or too toxic)
MTX (add when all else has failed)
mitochondria is site of these 3 biochemical reactions (in their entirety...mito is also site of part of 3 other rxns...the other part takes place in cytosol)
TCA cycle
fatty acid oxidation
formation of acetyl coA
cytosol is site of these 4 biochem rxns (in their entirety)
glycolysis
HMP shunt
protein synthesis
fatty acid synthesis
these 3 biochemical rxns take place partly in cytosol and partly in mitochondria
heme synthesis
urea cycle
gluconeogensis

(takes 2 to HUG)
lysosomes contain what kind of enzymes

peroxisomes contain what kind of enzymes
lysosomes - hydrolytic

peroxisomes - oxidative
DOC toxoplasma gondii
bactrim or pyrimethamine -sulfadiazine
30S inhibitors? 50s inhibitors?
30 TA's work in the CEC building

30 S = TA - tetracyclines, aminoglycosides
50S = CEC - chloramphenicol, erythromycin, clindamycin
cycloheximide....what does this do
inhibits eukaryotic 60s peptidyl transferase
diphteria toxin....moa
inhibits eukaryotic 60s elongation factor
lectin....moa
inhibits initiation of ribosomal subunit formation (messes w 40 and 60S)
puromycin...what the heck is this
inhibits translation in pro and eukaryotes by being incorporated into peptide chain and causing premature chain termination
what kind of drug is pyrimethamine
anti folate....messes w protozoal protein synthesis

antimalarial
what is azathioprine
a derivative of mercaptopurine (6MP)....this is a purine derivative used to cause immunosuppression
rifampin binds to what bacterial molecule to inhibit transcription (DNA to RNA)
bacterial RNA pol
what is alpha amanitin
mushroom poison, blocking eukaryotic polymerase II (so inhibits transcription)
graphically, a substrate and it's competitive inhibitor share what
1/Vmax (cross at the same point on the y axis)
graphically, a substrate and it's noncompetitive inhibitor share what
-1/Km (begin at same point on the negative x axis)
UGH. name the essential AAs (10)
valine, leucine, isoleucine
tryptophan, phenylalanine, methionine
lysine, arginine
histidine, threonine
which aa's are strictly ketogenic (can make acetyl coA)
leucine, isoleucine
tyrosine is the precursor to what
dopa, dopamine
NE, epi
T3, T4
melanin
tyrosine is derived from what essential AA
phenylalanine
tryptophan is the amino acid precursor to what molecules
melatonin
seratonin
niacin
glutamate is the aa precursor to what
GABA
glycine is the aa precusor to what
porphyrin, heme
creatine (glycine + arginine)
histidine is the aa precursor to what
histamine
defective enzyme in albinism
tyrosinase
defective enzyme in alkaptonuria
homogentisate oxidase

SSx - arthritis, ochronosis (dark pigmented CT), dark urine
defective enzyme in MSUD
branched chain decarboxylase

(get buildup of branched chain aas causing maple syrup smell)
what are the branched chain aa's
valine, leucine, isoleucine

has a ring to it...say it again and again, baby
defective enzyme in homocystinuria
cystathionine synthetase

Ssx - MR, lens dislocation
defective transporter in cystinuria
dibasic aa transporter

get COAL cystine urinary stones
defective transporter in hartnup dz
neutral aa transporter

leads to tryptophan deficiency, which leads to niacin deficiency, which leads to pellagra
2 causes of pellagra and Sx
hartnup dz and niacin deficiency

3 D's of pellagra - dementia, dermatitis, diarrhea
definition of epimer
isomers that differ in only one carbon (glucose and galactose)
what are the reducing sugars
glucose, galactose, fructose
maltose (beer) - composition and bond
glucose + glucose

a 1-4
think adrianna likes beer...a for alpha
lactose (milk) composition and bond
galactose + glucose

B 1-4
think B for breast
sucrose (table sugar) composition and bond
glucose + fructose

a1 b2
think Adriannas Breasts are sweet like sugar..for A and B. yes, that's right
bond in glycogen and starch
a 1-4 chains w a 1-6 branches
what is the bond in cellulose
B1-4 (cannot be hydrolyzed by humans, thus cellulose indigestible)
enzyme defect in fructosuria
fructokinase

beningn, Asx, as fructose is harmless
enzyme defect in fructose intolerance
aldolase B

hypoglycemia, liver failure bc fructose 1 P cant get out of liver, inhibiting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
enzyme defect in galactosemia
uridyltransferase

(buildup galactose 1 P)
SSx - cataracts, MR
don't drink milk if you have diarrhea, why
diarrhea can result in temporary lactase deficiency = worse diarrhea
name for the inferior articular processes of S5 which project inferiorly bilaterally on each side of the sacral hiatus
sacral cornua
which are the true ligaments of the pelvic and hip region
sacroiliac ligaments

there are 3 - anterior, posterior, and interosseous
sacrospinous ligaments connects the sacrum to the ischial spines, forming what two structure
greater and lesser sciatic foramen
what's the ganglion impar..where is it located
ganglion impar is the site where the R and L sympathetic chains join
it sits just anterior to coccyx
levator ani mm
puborectalis
pubococcygeus
iliococcygeus
mm of the pelvic diaphragm
levator ani + coccygeus mm

levator ani = puborectalis, pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus
origination and insertion of piriformis
originates at inferior aspect of anterior sacrum

inserts onto greater trochanter of femur
action of piriformis mm
externally rotate thigh, extend thigh

abduct thigh when hip flexed
innervation of piriformis
S1 and S2
innervation of psoas mm

innervation of iliacus mm
psoas - L1-3

iliacus - femoral nerve = L2, L3
flexion contracture of iliopsoas causes what lumbar SD
commonly L1 or L2

flexed, R and S to side of contracture
what nerves comprise lumbar plexus
T12 to L4
what nerves comprise sacral plexus
L4-S4.....but only a portion of S4.

comprised of sciatic, pudendal, and superior and inferior gluteal nerves
what nerves comprise sciatic nerve
L4-S3 (so think of sciatic nerve as all of sacral plexus minus S4)
through what pelvis foramen does sciatic nerve run
greater sciatic notch, just below piriformis mm usually
what are the 4 types of sacral motion
inherent, respiratory, postural, dynamic
the respiratory and craniosacral motion axis is located where
S2 (2 of them at S2)
the postural motion axis is located where
S3
what sacral axis is engaged if you stand on your R leg
right sacral oblique axis

rule is...when youput wt on 1 leg, the same side oblique axis is engaged
L5 sidebending does what to the sacrum
engages ipsilateral sacral oblique axis

ex - L5 sidebent L....a left sacral oblique axis is engaged
hirschprung's dz
aka aganglionic megacolon
congenital lack of myenteric plexus leading to static colon...compensatory dilation prox to denervated bowel
what causes hisrchsprung's dz
loss of fxn mutation in RET oncogene
ischemic bowel dz usually occurs at what two spots
splenic flexure and rectosigmoid jxn......
these are watershed areas btwn superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric supply zones
gardener's syndrome
FAP + triad of osteomas, desmoid tumors, and sebaceous cysts
turcot's syndrome
adenomatous polyps + CNS tumors
what is the neurochemical imbalance in tourettes...and what drug do we use to treat (best efficacy)
tourettes = too much Dopamine

treat with haloperidol
a patient suffers an MI that is restricted to the interventricular septum. he develops a new murmur. what is the murmur?
tricuspud regurg.

tricupid valve has 3 leaflets, anterior, posterior, septal, and septal sits near IV septum so it is disturbed.
look on the scope and see organisms w double walled spherules
environmental form of dimorphic fungi Coccidioides immitus
cigar shaped yeast cells
the dimorphic fungi sporothrix schenkii
2 organisms described as branching, gram positive rods
actinomyces israelii
nocardia asteroides
nonseptate hyphae seen on scope
Rhizopus/Mucor

rhizopus has roots, mucor does not
cause rhinocerebral mucormycosis....a sinus infection that evntually involves all the sinuses, palate, orbit, and brain
conditions that predispose you to rhinocerebral mucormycosis
DKA
neutropenia
organ Tplant
immunosuppresion

poor prog. Tx w ampho B and surgery to remove the infected tissue
anaerobic gram positive spore forming rod
Clostridum perfringens

gas gangrene
pt gets a hip replacement and develops osteomyelitis. most likely organism?
staph epidermidis
catalse positive, coagulase negative gram positive coccus
gram negative rod that does not ferment lactose
salmonella
causes osteomyelitis in sickle cell dz
an IV drug user develops osteomyelitis..you should consider what bug
e. coli
gram negative rod that ferments lactose
deficiency of what enzyme leads to tay sachs
beta hexosaminidase A
deficiency of what two enzymes results in sandhoff dz
beta hexosaminidase A
beta hexosamindase B

sandhoff - AR, Sx = HSM and cherry red spot on macule. BM aspirate shows cells containing oligosaccharides
defiicency of what enzyme results in hurler syndrome
alpha L iduronidase
deficiency of what enzyme results in krabbes dz
galactosylceramide beta galactosidase
deficiency of what enzyme results in Niemann pick dz
sphingomyelinase
what are the guidelines for infections to look for in HIV positive pts with particular T cell counts
T cells > 200/mm3 - comm. aq pneumonia, kaposi sarcoma, lymphoma
<200/mm3 - P. jiroveci and candidiasis
<100/mm3 - cryptococcal meningitis
<50/mm3 - MAI and CMV retinitis
describe the process of ASA overdose, baby
ASA OD causes ox phos uncoupling --> hyperventilation
thus respiratory alkalosis
kidney responds w metabolic acidosis
as ASA rises to tox level, central repiratory paralysis occurs and you get hypoventilation --> increase CO2 causing respiratory acidosis.
SOO mild ASA OD - tinitius, hyperventialtion, resp alkalosis and metab acidosis
high ASA OD - resp acidosis and metab acidosis
DOC for cryptosporidiosis
nitazoxanide


can also treat giardia
what class of drugs contraindicated for concurrent use w celecoxib, a COX 2 inhibitor (NSAID)
sulfa

cant use celecoxib in sulfa allergic pts
only drug to Tx ALS
riluzole
glutamate receptor blocker
and NA channel blocker
what is the greatest risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma
liver fluke clonorchis sinensis
most significant risk for a child to develop intussusception
adenovirus
Still's dz Sx
this is juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
acutely febrile, polyarthritis, RF negative, micrognathia
SSx psoriatic arthritis
like RA but with psoriasis
RF netgaitve
affects DIPs primarily (nl RA - spares DIP)
sausage digits
HLA b27+
SSx Felty sydrome
polyarticular RA, splenomegaly, neutropenia, leg ulcers, increase infections
sclerosis of the vertebral endplates in osteopetrosis yields what classic radiologic finding
rugger jersey vertebrae

(like a striped rugby shirt, the vertebra is light on top, dark in middle, light on bottom)
what is legg-calve-perthe's dz
aseptic necrosis of femoral head in children without a trauma Hx
what is osgood schlatter dz
aseptic necrosis of tibial tuberosity
patellofemoral tracking syndrome
anterior knee pain, worse climbing stairs
what causes osteitis fibrosa cystica
severe hyperparathyroidism.

leads to focal bony damage causing microFx and 2ndary hemorrhage. these in turn cause ingrowth of fibrous tissue and hemosiderin deposition ( a brown tumor)..the "tumors" undergo cystic degeneration
what is the most common benign bone tumor
osteochondroma
what is an enchondroma
benign cartilage tumor

cartilage forms within bone
what are the 3 benign cartilaginous tumors
osteochondroma (most common of all benign bone tumors)
endochondroma
chondroblastoma
what is a chondroblastoma
tumor of cartilage producing cells
benign, rare, 10-20 yo
hits femur, tibia, humerus epiphyses
what are the 3 benign bone tumors (bone, not cartilage)
osteoma, osteoid osteoma, osteoblastoma
where do osteomas primarily form
these are benign, usually multiple, PAINLESS tumors usually found in the skull and facial bones - form protrusions
associated w gardner's syndrome (FAP)
where do osteoid osteomas form
primarily in the proximal tibia and femur
PAINFUL
where do you mostly find osteoblastomas
spine
it looks like an osteoid osteoma morphologically but it's larger and found in vertebral column
12 year old boy w a painful soft tissue mass arising from the diaphysis of his femur. Histo reveals + Homer wright rosettes and the lesion itself has an onion skin appearance due to reactive bone
ewing's sarcoma

peak 10-15 yo. 11; 22 translocation (11+22 =33.. patrick ewing's jersey), onion skin appearance due to bone layering itself to protect from tumor. "going out for eWINGs and ONION rings"
you read. codman's triangle. you Dx.
osteosarcoma
AR dz with heterogeneous presentation....Sx of proximal hip and shoulder girdle weakness
limb girdle muscular dystrophy

elevated creatinine kinase
Sx and inheritance of facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy
AD
onset adolescence, face and shoulder girdle weakness, MR, +/- cardiac defects,
Pt presents w MR, long face, temporal and masseter mm wasting, atrophied gonads, inability to voluntarily relax muscles after forceful contraction, mostly producing distal weakness
myotonic muscular dystrophy

AD - trinucleotide repeat
name the 4 neural tube derived brain tumors (gliomas)
astrocytoma (fibrillary and pilocytic most common)
medulloblastoma
oligodendroglioma
ependymoma
what is the most common childhood brain tumor
medulloblastoma

found only in cerebellum. found midline in kids
what are the 3 neural crest derived brain tumors - what do they all have in common?
meningioma
schwannoma
neurofibroma
the neural crest derived tumors are all benign